Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG năm 2021 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THPT Chi Lăng Lần 2

BỘ 5 ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QG NĂM 2021 MÔN TIẾNG ANH

TRƯỜNG THPT CHI LĂNG LẦN 2

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE  in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following question.

Question 1: The mountainous region of the country is thinly populated. It has only 300 inhabitants.

A. sparsely                   B. greatly

C. densely                    D. largely

Question 2: Josh may get into hot water when driving at full speed after drinking.

A. get into trouble                  

B. stay safe                

C. fall into disuse       

D. remain calm

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following question.

Question 3: This company's new products have tripled its profits in only one year.

A. The company has greatly increased the number of new products.

B. The company has increased its profits 100 percent

C. The company’s profits are three times higher this year than last year.

D. The company has had an unprofitable year.

Question 4: Viet Nam carried out an intensive training program for its athletes, but the results were not as high as expected.

A. There is no expectation for Vietnamese athletes to win due to lack of training.

B. Whereas Vietnamese athletes were intensively trained, their performance was below expectation.

C. Vietnamese athletes were intensively trained carefully, and they won all the matches.

D. It might not be possible for Vietnamese athletes to get good results because their training was not careful.

Question 5: Though he had known about it well in advance, he pretended to be surprised at having a birthday party.

A. He acted surprised about being given a birthday party, but he had known about it a long time before

B. Despite only pretending to be surprised at the birthday party, he had actually been completely unaware of it.

C. He knew about the birthday party a long time before, yet he wasn't pretending when he acted surprised.

D. He was quite surprised at their throwing him a birthday party, though he could have found out it well before.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 6: Smallpox is a dangerous disease. Malaria is a dangerous disease.

A. Smallpox is a dangerous disease, and so is malaria.

B. Malaria is a dangerous disease, but smallpox is not.

C. Neither smallpox nor malaria is a dangerous disease.

D. Either smallpox or malaria is a dangerous disease.

Question 7: The dogs watch the chicken coop. The dogs protect the chickens from wolves.

A. Protecting the chickens from wolves, the dogs watch the chicken coop from them.

B. They protect the chickens from wolves as the dogs watch the chicken coop.

C. The dogs watch the chicken coop to protect the chickens from wolves.

D. Watching the chicken coop because the dogs protect chickens from wolves.

Read the following pasage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions

Any list of the greatest thinkers in history contains the name of the brilliant physicist Albert Einstein. His theories of relativity led to entirely new ways of thinking about time, space, matter, energy, and gravity. Einstein's work led to such scientific advances as the control of atomic energy, even television as a practical application of Einstein's work.

In 1902 Einstein became an examiner in the Swiss patent office at Bern. In 1905, at age 26, he published the first of five major research papers. The first one provided a theory explaining Brownian movement, the zig-zag motion of microscopic particles in suspension. The second paper laid the foundation for the photon, or quantum, theory of light. In it he proposed that light is composed of separate packets of energy, called quanta or photons, that have some of the properties of particles and some of the properties of waves. A third paper contained the "special theory of relativity" which showed that time and motion are relative to the observer, if the speed of light is constant and the natural laws are the same everywhere in the universe. The fourth paper was a mathematical addition to the special theory of relativity. Here Einstein presented his famous formula, E = m(cc), known as the energy mass equivalence. In 1916, Einstein published his general theory of relativity. In it he proposed that gravity is not a force, but a curve in the space-time continuum, created by the presence of mass.
Einstein spoke out frequently against nationalism, the exalting of one nation above all others. He opposed war and violence and supported Zionism, the movement to establish a Jewish homeland in Palestine. When the Nazis came to power in 1933, they denounced his ideas. He then moved to the United States. In 1939 Einstein learned that two German chemists had split the uranium atom. Einstein wrote to President Franklin D. Roosevelt warning him that this scientific knowledge could lead to Germany developing an atomic bomb. He suggested the United States begin its own atomic bomb research.

Question 8: According to the passage l, Einstein's primary work was in the area of

A. chemistry                B. biology 

C. physics                   D. math

Question 9: Which of the following inventions is mentioned in the passage as a practical application of Einstein's discoveries?

A. Radio                     B. Television

C. Automobiles           D. Computer

Question 10: According to the passage, Einstein supported all of the following except

A. nationalism

B. the establishment of a Jewish homeland in Palestine

C. atomic bomb research in the United States.

D. the defeat of the Nazis.

Question 11: According to the passage in which country did Einstein live in 1930s?

A. Switzerland                       

B. the United States  

C. Germany               

D. Israel

Question 12: The word “exalting”  in the passage is closest in meaning to              

A. criticism                  B. elimination

C. support                   D. elevation

Question 13: It is clear from the tone of the passage that the author feels

A. Einstein's work in physics was somewhat tarnished by his conservative political views.

B. Einstein's work in physics, though theoretically impressive, led to few practical applications.

C. Albert Einstein was one of the most brilliant thinkers in history.

D. Einstein's theories have been consistently proven incorrect.

Question 14: According to Einstein, light is composed of separate packets of energy called

A. electrons                 B. photoelectrons

C. gamma rays            D. quanta

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of ther following questions.

Question 15: Thomas knows Paris like the back of his_____. He used to be a taxi driver there for 2 years.

A. head                       B. mind

C. hand                       D. life

Question 16: Despite playing under strength, our football team, U23 Viet Nam, _______ beat their rivals such as Qatar and Iraq.

A. could                      B. couldn't

C. weren't able to        D. were able to

Question 17: Neil Armstrong was the first man _______ on the moon.

A. walking                  B. has walked

C. to walk                   D. walked

Question 18: When the light _______, we couldn’t see anything.

A. came off                 B. put out

C. switched off           D. went out

Question 19: I will manage to _______ the problems and find the solution for you as soon as possible.

A. take out                  B. bring out

C. get out                    D. sort out

Question 20: It was not until he took off his dark glasses _______ I realized he was a famous film star.

A. as                            B. that

C. though                    D. since

Question 21: I only tell my secrets to my _______ friend as she never reveals them to anyone.

A. creative                   B. enthusiastic

C. trustworthy            D. unrealizable

Question 22: Everyone thinks that the concert last night was extremely successful, _______?

A. don’t they              B. doesn’t he 

C. was it                     D. wasn’t it

Question 23: In developed world, there are hardly _______ jobs left which don’t use computers to carry out many daily tasks.

A. some                       B. any

C. none                        D. much

Question 24: Graham was disappointed because he _______ for the bus for an hour.

A. was waiting           

B. waited

C. has been waiting   

D. had been waiting

Question 25: Attempts must be made to _______ the barriers of fear and hostility which divide the two communities.

A. break down              B. set up 

C. get off                      D. pass over

Question 26: Quang Hai’s _______ in the final match between Vietnam and Uzbekistan was voted the most beautiful goal on AFC’s website.

A. corner kick             B. free kick

C. penalty                   D. goal kick

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 27: A: “Help yourselves to the beef and chicken, children!” – B: “______.”

A. Yes. Why not?

B. Yes, please

C. Oh. thank you!

D. Just feel at home

Question 28: A: “Would you mind closing the window?” – B: “______.”

A. Yes, of course. Are you tired?

B. No, not at all. I'll do it now

C. Yes, I do. You can close it.                      

D. Don't worry. Go ahead!

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following question.

Question 29: The experimented vaccine seems to have both desirable and detrimental effects on the subject’s immune system.

A. beneficial                B. neutral

C. needy                     D. harmful

Question 30: The fact that space exploration has increased dramatically in the past thirty years indicates that we are very eager to learn all we can about our solar system.

A. seriously                 B. gradually

C. significantly             D. doubtfully

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in the pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 31:

A. towed                       B. towel

C. vowel                        D. crowded

Question 32:

A. ocean                        B. commercial

C. necessary                 D. technician

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 33:

A. invention                  B. obstacle

C. discover                   D. bacteria

Question 34:

A. continental               B. alternative 

C. revolution                D. explanation

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part needs  correction in each of the following questions.

Question 35: Diamonds (A) are graded (B) according to weigh (C), color (D), and cut.

Question 36: Almost (A) medical doctors have had (B) some training (C) in psychology and (D) psychiatry.

Question 37: In (A) a process called as (B) photosynthesis, plants use the (C) sunlight energy to produce (D) nutrients.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best first each of the numbered blanks

Humans are destroying the earth’s tropical rain forests. About 80,000 square kilometers are being  destroyed  every  year. About a quarter of the (38)_____ comes from people cutting trees for fuel. Another quarter is to make grassland for their cattle. The (39)______ trees are cut down to sell the wood to start farms.

The population in cities all over the world is growing, and more and more wood is needed to build huge new buildings. For example, 5,000 trees from Sarawak rain forest in Malaysia were used to build just one tall building. (40)_______ people continue cutting down that many trees in Sarawak rain forest, all the trees could be gone in eight years.

The world needs more food, and it (41)______ like a good idea to clear the rain forests and use the land for agriculture. Many people think that the land under these huge, thick forests must be in rich nutrients, but it isn't. This is another surprising thing about rain forests. Most of the land in tropical rain forest is very (42)________.

Question 38:

A. destruction             B. destroying

C. destroy                   D. destructive

Question 39:

A. staying                    B. remaining 

C. standing                 D. dwelling

Question 40:

A. Unless                     B. If

C. While                      D. Although

Question 41:

A. seems                       B. looks

C. tastes                      D. sounds

Question 42:

A. short                         B. poor

C. unfortunate                D. ill

Read the following pasage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions

Garbage cans are not magical portals. Trash does not disappear when you toss it in a can. Yet, the average American throws away an estimated 1,600 pounds of waste each year. If there are no magic garbage fairies, where does all that trash go? There are four methods to managing waste: recycling, landfilling, composting, and incinerating. Each method has its strengths and weaknesses.  Let's take a quick look at each.

Recycling is the process of turning waste into new materials. For example, used paper can be turned into paperboard, which can be used to make book covers. Recycling can reduce pollution, save materials, and lower energy use. Yet, some argue that recycling wastes energy. They believe that collecting, processing, and converting waste uses more energy than it saves. Still, most people agree that recycling is better for the planet than landfilling.

Landfilling is the oldest method of managing waste. In its simplest form, landfilling is when people bury garbage in a hole. Over time the practice of landfilling has advanced. Garbage is compacted before it is thrown into the hole. In this way more garbage can fit in each landfill. Large liners are placed in the bottom of landfills so that toxic garbage juice doesn't get into the ground water. Sadly, these liners don't always work. Landfills may pollute the local water supply. Not to mention that all of that garbage stinks. Nobody wants to live next to a landfill. This makes it hard to find new locations for landfills.

Compositing is when people pile up organic matter, such as food waste, and allow it to decompose. The product of this decomposition is compost. Compost can be added to the soil to make the soil richer and better for growing crops. While composting is easy to do onsite somewhere, like home or school, it's hard to do after the garbage gets all mixed up. This is because plastic and other inorganic materials must be removed from the compost pile or they will pollute the soil. There's a lot of plastic in garbage, which makes it hard to compost on a large scale.

One thing that is easier to do is burning garbage. There are two main ways to incinerate waste. The first is to create or harvest a fuel from the waste, such as methane gas, and burn the fuel. The second is to burn the waste directly. The heat from the incineration process can boil water, which can power steam generators. Unfortunately, burning garbage pollutes the air. Also, some critics worry that incinerators destroy valuable resources that could be recycled.

Usually, the community in which you live manages waste. Once you put your garbage in that can, what happens to it is beyond your control. But you can make choices while it is still in your possession. You can choose to recycle, you can choose to compost, or you can choose to let someone else deal with it. The choice is yours.

Question 43: Which of the following serves as the best title for this passage?

A. The Magic of Recycling: Bringing Back What Was Once Lost

B. Recycling, Landfilling or Composing: Which is Best for You?

C. Do Your Part How to Save the Earth by Recycling and Composting.

D. Methods of Waste Management: Advantages and Disadvantages

Question 44: According to the passage all of the following are mentioned as an issue with landfilling EXCEPT that     

A. landfills are smelly

B. landfills may pollute the water supply

C. it is difficult to find locations for landfills

D. usable materials are wasted in landfills

Question 45: What does the word “stinks” in paragraph 3 mean?

A. smells unpleasant              

B. seems dirty

C. looks attractive      

D. feels soft

Question 46: Which of the following best explains why composting is not feasible on a large scale?

A. People wouldn't want to touch all of that gross rotting food.

B. Plastic would get into the compost and turn it into a pollutant.

C. It would smell too bad in densely populated cities.

D. It would attract rodents that would spread disease.

Question 47: According to the passage which of the following best defines “incineration”?

A. buying waste materials in a large hole

B. allowing waste products to decompose and become fertilizer

C. turning waste materials into products like book covers

D. burning waste materials and harvesting the energy

Question 48: The word “it” in the last paragraph refers to   

A. community                 B. garbage 

C. waste                        D. possession

Question 49: According to the passage how many main ways to incinerate waste?

A. one                            B. three

C. two                            D. four

Question 50: Which conclusion could be drawn from the passage?

A. Recycling is without a doubt the best way to handle waste.

B. Each method of waste management has its drawbacks.

C. Incineration is the best way to process waste.

D. All large cities should create massive compost piles.

ĐÁP ÁN

1	2	3	4	5
C	B	C	B	A
6	7	8	9	10
A	C	C	B	A
11	12	13	14	15
B	D	C	D	C
16	17	18	19	20
D	C	D	D	B
21	22	23	24	25
C	A	B	D	A
26	27	28	29	30
B	C	B	D	C
31	32	33	34	35
A	C	B	B	C
36	37	38	39	40
A	B	A	B	B
41	42	43	44	45
A	B	D	D	A
46	47	48	49	50
B	D	B	C	B

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 1: She said she had a headache. Otherwise, she ______ in the dance.

A. joined                    

B. had joined

C. would join 

D. would have joined

Question 2: I _______ the living room by the time Dad comes home. He will be surprised.

A. will paint               

B. am painting            

C. have painted          

D. will have painted

Question 3: Margaret would prefer ______ books rather than see their screen adaptations.

A. to read             B. reading

C. read                 D. having read

Question 4: Nobody was harmed in the fire, _____?

A. was he                   

B. wasn't he               

C. were they              

D. weren't they

Question 5: Tim's parents ______ happy when knowing his poor academic results at school.

A. mustn't have been 

B. needn't have been

C. shouldn't have been  

D. can't have been

Question 6: An international menu _____ a variety of food can attract most of the tourists.

A. offered                   B. offering

C. which offer            D. is offered

Question 7: Not ______ on such a hot day, the beach was crowded.

A. surprise                   B. surprised

C. surprising                D. surprisingly

Question 8: She ______ herself on cooking Vietnamese traditional dishes.

A. focuses                   B. motivates

C. congratulates          D. prides

Question 9: In the hands of a careless female driver, a LEAD motorbike may become a _____ weapon.

A. fatal                        B. mortal

C. lethal                      D. deathly

Question 10: Sealing food in an ______ jar starves the bacteria of oxygen and they are unable to reproduce.

A. airborne                  B. airtight 

C. air-dash                  D. air-drop

Question 11: Tom was heartbroken after the failure in the recent match; don't____ salt to the wound by mentioning the match again.

A. put                          B. add

C. rub                          D. mop

Question 12: The lecture was so boring that the students finally ______ and started daydreaming.

A. put down                B. taken off

C. turned off               D. turned down

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges:

Question 13: The taxi driver and Ann are at the airport.

Taxi driver: "_______?" - Ann: "28 Croydon Road, Maryland."

A. Have you got a job? 

B. Where are you from?

C. Could you tell me your name?  

D. What's your address, please?

Question 14: John is broke, and he is going to borrow some money from Laura.

- John: “Have you got any money left?” – Laura: “Unfortunately, __________.”

A. none of all             

B. nothing of all         

C. not even a few      

D. none whatsoever

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Sophia is a social humanoid robot developed by Hong Kong-based company Hanson Robotics. She has been designed to learn and adapt to human behavior and work with humans and has been interviewed around the world. In October 2017, she became a Saudi Arabian citizen, the first robot to receive citizenship of a country.

According to herself, Sophia was activated on April 19, 2015. She is modeled after actress Audrey Hepburn, and is known for her human-like appearance and behavior compared to previous robotic variants. According to the manufacturer, David Hanson, Sophia has artificial intelligence, visual data processing and facial recognition. Sophia also imitates human gestures and facial expressions and is able to answer certain questions and to make simple conversations on predefined topics (e.g. on the weather). The robot uses voice recognition technology from Alphabet Inc. (parent company of Google) and is designed to get smarter over time. The AI program analyses conversations and extracts data that allows her to improve responses in the future. It is conceptually similar to the computer program ELIZA, which was one of the first attempts at simulating a human conversation.

Hanson designed Sophia to be a suitable companion for the elderly at nursing homes, or to help crowds at large events or parks. He hopes that she can ultimately interact with other humans sufficiently to gain social skills.

Sophia has been interviewed in the same manner as a human, striking up conversations with hosts. Some replies have been nonsensical, while others have been impressive, such as lengthy discussions with Charlie Rose on 60 Minutes. In a piece for CNBC, when the interviewer expressed concerns about robot behavior, Sophia joked he had been reading too much Elon Musk and watching too many Hollywood movies. Musk tweeted that Sophia could watch The Godfather and suggested "what's the worst that could happen?"

On October 11, 2017, Sophia was introduced to the United Nations with a brief conversation with the United Nations Deputy Secretary-General, Amina J. Mohammed. On October 25, at the Future Investment Summit in Riyadh, she was granted Saudi Arabian citizenship, becoming the first robot ever to have a nationality. This attracted controversy as some commentators wondered if this implied that Sophia could vote or marry, or whether a deliberate system shutdown could be considered murder. Social media users used Sophia's citizenship to criticize Saudi Arabia's human rights record.

Question 15: What is the passage mainly about?

A. What electronic lifestyle will exit in the future.

B. A company having made a breakthrough in robotics.

C. How a robot can become an electronic citizen.

D. A robot who has received citizenship of a country.

Question 16: The word "variants" in paragraph 2 is closest meaning to

A. exceptions              B. regularities

C. similarities              D. variations

Question 17: Paragraph 2 mainly discusses  

A. What Sophia can do in the same way as humans do

B. Why Sophia has cut over ELIZA in interacting with humans

C. How Sophia has become the best robotic variant these days

D. Sophia has been developed to be most human-like

Question 18: Which of the following statements is NOT true about Sophia according to the passage?

A. Sophia can talk about the topics she has been programed to.

B. Sophia can speak all languages with any accent as programed.

C. Sophia can detect humans' gestures and facial expressions.

D. Sophia can respond impressively in conversations with humans.

Question 19: According to the passage, all of the following statements are true EXCEPT

A. Google has been a part of Alphabet Incorporation

B. ELIZA could not simulate human conversations.

C. Sophia can make jokes when talking with humans.

D. Sophia was intended to work at nursing homes.

Question 20: The word "piece" in paragraph 4 mostly means

A. interview                B. article 

C. argument                D. lecture

Question 21: The word "this" in the last paragraph refers to

A. The nationality a robot has gained after being activated

B. The Future Investment Summit granting Sophia citizenship

C. The controversy among commentators about Sophia's citizenship

D. The fact that Sophia was granted citizenship

Question 22: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

A. More and more humanoid robots will be granted citizenship.

B. Sophia would ultimately be a good fit to serve in healthcare.

C. Sophia is the first humanoid robot to be designed.

D. Human and electronic citizens will live together.

ĐÁP ÁN

1	2	3	4	5
D	D	A	C	A
6	7	8	9	10
B	D	D	C	B
11	12	13	14	15
C	C	D	D	D
16	17	18	19	20
D	D	B	B	A
21	22	23	24	25
D	B	B	A	B
26	27	28	29	30
A	D	B	A	D
31	32	33	34	35
D	B	B	B	C
36	37	38	39	40
A	B	A	A	B
41	42	43	44	45
B	C	C	B	D
46	47	48	49	50
A	C	B	C	B

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word in each of the following questions.

Question 1. Everyone is hoping and praying that lasting peace will eventually come to the area.

A. durable                        B. ongoing

C. temporary                    D. enduring

Question 2. Before you begin the exam paper, always read the instructions carefully.

A.  orders                         B. answers

C. rules                            D. direction

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 3. Last year, ABBA made a ____ of seberal million crowns.

A.  win                           B. gain

C. salary                        D. profit

Question 4. If you like asking, there’s a ski ____ under an hour’s driving from Madrid.

A. resort                        B. station

C. place                         D. port

Question 5. He’s very  ____ about his private life. He’s goy no secrets.

A. trustworthy               B. direct

C. open                         D. sincere

Question 6. Even though they don’t agree with what’s happening, they’re too ____ to protest.

A. apathetic                   B. subdued

C. quiet                         D. outgoing

Question 7. Though  I didn’t want my son to leave home since he was twenty- one, there was nothing I could do to ____ it.

A. hinder                       B. resist

C. prevent                     D. cease

Question 8. She noticed ____ away from the house.

A. him to run                   B. him running

C. his running                  D. him run

Question 9. George has ____; he loves cakes, chocolate, ice- cream- anything which is sweet.

A. a sweet mouth          B. sweet lips

C. a sweet tooth            D. a sweet tongue

Question 10. She’s so ____; you really have to watch you say or she ‘ll walk out of the room.

A. high and dry              B. prim and proper

C. rough and ready         D. sick and tired

Question 11. You’ve all ____ the point. The film itself is not racist – it simply tries to make us question our own often racist attitude.

A. mistaken                  B. misunderstood

C. missed                     D. lost

Question 12. ____ one or more units of living substance called protoplasm.

A. Although all living things that consist of

B. All living things consisting of

C. All living things consist of   

D. In all living things consisting of

Question 13. The production of tin ore in the United States is relatively insignificant, ____ less than one hundred tons annually.

A. amount to                 B. in the amount

C. amount to it              D. to the amount of

Question 14. It all happened so quickly, one minute I was making chips and the next the whole kitchen was ____ fire!

A. at                             B. on

C. by                            D. in

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase for each of the blanks from 15 to 19

About 50 or so kinds modern plastic are made from oil, gas, or coal-non-renewable natural resources.  We (15)___ well over three million tons of the stuff in Japan each year and, sooner or later, most of it is thrown away .A high proportion of our animal consumption is in the (16)____ of  packaging and this constitutes  about seven percent by weight, of our domestic(17) ____ . Almost all of it can be recycled, but very little of it is ,though the plastic recycling industry is growing fast. The plastics themselves are extremely energy - rich – they have a higher calorific(18) ____ than coal and one methodn of “recovery” strongly (19)____ by plastic manufacturers if the conversion  of waste plastic into a fuel.

Question 15.

A. consign                   B. import

C. consume                 D. remove

Question 16.

A. form                     B. way

C. type                     D. kind

Question 17.

A. goods                     B. refuse

C. rubble                     D. requirements

Question 18.

A. effect                      B. degree

C. value                      D. demand

Question 19.

A. argued                    B. presented

C. desired                    D. favored

ĐÁP ÁN

1	2	3	4	5
D	D	D	A	C
6	7	8	9	10
A	C	B	C	B
11	12	13	14	15
C	C	D	B	B
16	17	18	19	20
A	B	C	D	C
21	22	23	24	25
A	C	D	B	A
26	27	28	29	30
C	D	A	B	C
31	32	33	34	35
B	D	C	B	C
36	37	38	39	40
A	D	B	B	A
41	42	43	44	45
B	D	A	C	B
46	47	48	49	50
D	B	B	B	C

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1:	A. house	B. cloud	C. blouse	D. coupon
Question 2:	A. chores	B. halves	C. becomes	D. minutes

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Herman Melville, an American author best known today for his novel Moby Dick, was actually more popular during his lifetime for some of his other works. He traveled extensively and used the knowledge gained during his travels as the basis for his early novels. In 1837, at the age of eighteen, Melville signed as a cabin boy on a merchant ship that was to sail from his Massachusetts home to Liverpool, England. His experiences on this trip served as a basis for the novel Redburn (1849). In 1841 Melville set out on a whaling ship headed for the South Seas. After jumping ship in Tahiti, he wandered around the islands of Tahiti and Moorea. This South Sea island sojourn was a backdrop to the novel Omoo (1847). After three years away from home, Melville joined up with a U.S. naval frigate that was returning to the eastern United States around Cape Horn. The novel White-Jacket (1850) describes this lengthy voyage as a navy seaman. 

With the publication of these early adventure novels, Melville developed a strong and loyal following among readers eager for his tales of exotic places and situations. However, in 1851, with the publication of Moby Dick, Melville's popularity started to diminish. Moby Dick, on one level the saga of the hunt for the great white whale, was also a heavily symbolic allegory of the heroic struggle of man against the universe. The public was not ready for Melville's literary metamorphosis from romantic adventure to philosophical symbolism. It is ironic that the novel that served to diminish Melville's popularity during his lifetime is the one for which he is best known today.

Question 3: The main subject of the passage is_________.

            A. Melville’s travels                B. Moby Dick

            C. Melville’s personal background     D. the popularity of Melville’s novels.

Question 4: The word “basis” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to_________.

            A. background            B. message      C. bottom        D. dissertation

Question 5: According to the passage, Melville’s early novels were__________.

            A. published while he was traveling   B. completely fictional

            C. all about his work on whaling ships           D. based on his travel experience

Question 6: The passage implies that Melville stayed in Tahiti because____________.

            A. he had unofficially left his ship

            B. he was on leave while his ship was in port

            C. he had finished his term of duty

            D. he had received permission to take a vacation in Tahiti

Question 7: How did the publication of Moby Dick affect Melville’s popularity?

            A. His popularity remained as strong as ever.            B. It caused his popularity to decrease.

            C. His popularity increased immediately.       D. It had no effect on his popularity.

Question 8: According to the passage, Moby Dick is__________.

            A. symbolic of humanity fighting the universe          B. a single-faceted work

            C. a short story about a whale            D. a 47 adventure

Question 9: In what year did Melville’s book about his experiences as a cabin boy appear?

            A. 1849           B. 1837           C. 1847           D. 1841

Question 10: The word “metamorphosis” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to_________.

            A. descent       B. circle           C. mysticism   D. change

 

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 11:	A. counterpart	B. communicate	C. attention	D. appropriate
Question 12:	A. reply	B. appear	C. protect	D. order

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

The handling and delivery of mail has always been a serious business, underpinned by the trust of the public in requiring timeliness, safety, and confidentiality. After early beginnings using horseback and stagecoach, and although cars and trucks later replaced stagecoaches and wagons, the Railway Mail Service still stands as one of America’s most resourceful and exciting postal innovations. This service began in 1832, but grew slowly until the Civil War. Then from 1862, by sorting the mail on board moving trains, the Post Office Department was able to decentralize its operations as railroads began to crisscross the nation on a regular basis, and speed up mail delivery. This service lasted until 1974. During peak decades of service, railway mail clerks handled 93% of all non-local mail and by 1905 the service had over 12,000 employees.

Railway Post Office trains used a system of mail cranes to exchange mail at stations without stopping. As a train approached the crane, a clerk prepared the catcher arm which would then snatch the incoming mailbag in the blink of an eye. The clerk then booted out the outgoing mailbag. Experienced clerks were considered the elite of the Postal Service’s employees, and spoke with pride of making the switch at night with nothing but the curves and feel of the track to warn them of an upcoming catch. They also worked under the greatest pressure and their jobs were considered to be exhausting and dangerous. In addition to regular demands of their jobs they could find themselves the victims of train wrecks and robberies.

As successful as it was, “mail-on-the-fly” still had its share of glitches. If they hoisted the train’s catcher arm too soon, they risked hitting switch targets, telegraph poles or semaphores, which would rip the catcher arm off the train. Too late, and they would miss an exchange.

Question 13: Which of the following can be inferred from the first paragraph?

            A. There was a high turnover of railway mail clerks.

            B. The development of the mail roads during the second half of the 19th century enabled Post Office Department to focus on timeliness.

            C. The Post Office Department was more concerned about speeding up mail delivery than the safety of its clerks.

            D. Mail was often lost or damaged as it was exchanged on the mail crane.

Question 14: The word “elite” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to___________.

            A. majority      B. superior       C. more capable          D. leader

Question 15: What does the passage mainly discuss?

            A. How the mail cranes exchanged the mail.

            B. Improvements in mail handling and delivery.

            C. How Post Office Trains handled the mail without stopping.

            D. The skills of experienced clerks.

Question 16: According to the passage, the Railway Mail Service commenced in_________.

            A. 1874           B. 1842           C. 1832           D. 1905

Question 17: The word “glitches” in the third paragraph can be replaced by________.

            A. accidents    B. blames        C. advantages D. problems

Question 18: Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?

            A. The clerk booted out the outgoing mailbag before snatching the incoming bag.

            B. Clerks couldn’t often see what they were doing.

            C. The Railway Mail clerk’s job was considered elite because it was safe and exciting.

            D. Despite their success, railway mail clerks only handled a small proportion of all non-local mail.

Question 19: The public expects the following three services in handling and delivery of mail except___.

            A. safety         B. accuracy     C. confidentiality        D. timeliness

ĐÁP ÁN

1-D	2-D	3-D	4-A	5-D	6-A	7-B	8-A	9-A	10-D
11-A	12-D	13-B	14-B	15-B	16-C	17-D	18-C	19-B	20-C
21-A	22-B	23-D	24-C	25-C	26-B	27-D	28-A	29-C	30-A
31-C	32-B	33-A	34-B	35-A	36-A	37-D	38-D	39-C	40-D
41-C	42-D	43-C	44-B	45-C	46-D	47-D	48-A	49-B	50-C

Identify the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others: Question 1:

A.combustion  B. cheap          C. education   D. congestion

Question 2:

A.breakfast     B. many          C. carry           D. any

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress.

Question 3:

A. conventional           B. accessible    C. miraculous  D. testimony

Question 4:

A. surgery       B. discover      C. irrigate        D. vaporize

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction.

Question 5: Bacteria  lived  in  the  soil  play  a  vital  role  in  recycling  the  carbon  and  nitrogen

                                      A                                           B                   C

needed by plants.

   D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to complete the sentence

Question 6: I _sight of the robber just before he disappeared around the corner.

A. got  B. caught         C. had D. took

Question 7: I came across      book by           chance.

A. Ø/Ø            B. Ø/ a C. a/ the          D. the/ Ø

Question 8: Many lives were saved   the introduction of antibiotics.

A. into B. with            C. in    D. at

Question 9: The doctor gave him an injection to       the pain.

A. die  B. death          C. dead           D. deaden

Question 10: Your handwriting tells a lot about your           .

A. characteristic          B. characterless           C. character     D. characterize

Question 11: We looked everywhere but the intruder was nowhere             .

A. to see          B. seen            C. to be seen   D. having seen

Question 12: System for purification of water is called        .

A. a system water purification            B. a purification water system

Question 13: Linda insisted that the newly- born baby         after her husband’s father.

A. must be named       B. could be named      C. be named    D. ought to be named

Question 14: We were lucky to be able to finish the project ahead              schedule.

A. of    B. for   C. before         D. by

Question 15: She        till the early hours listening to pop music.

A. kept me up B. took me up C. help me up  D. caught me up

Question 16: “Is there any news about the ex- president?” “Well, he is reported     the country last night”.

A. that he left  B. to be leaving           C. to have left D. to leave

Question 17: There were many large rooms with       walls in the castle.

A. decorating beautiful           B. beautifully decorating

C. beautifully decorated         D. beautiful decorated

Question 18: I don’t know what we are going to ……………if I lose this job.

A. get by         B. give away   C. live on        D. grow on.

Question 19: From the hotel there’s a good   of the mountain.

A. view           B. vision          C. picture        D. sight.

Question 20: My father is fond of sport. He goes to the Sport Clubs to watch        every Saturday.

A. racing horse            B. race horse   C. horsing race            D. horse races

ĐÁP ÁN

1	C	11	C	21	D	31	C	41	A
2	C	12	C	22	C	32	B	42	D
3	D	13	C	23	A	33	D	43	D
4	B	14	A	24	A	34	C	44	A
5	A	15	A	25	B	35	D	45	A
6	B	16	C	26	D	36	A	46	A
7	D	17	C	27	B	37	B	47	C
8	B	18	C	28	B	38	A	48	A
9	D	19	A	29	A	39	C	49	A
10	C	20	D	30	D	40	B	50	B

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