Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG năm 2021 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THPT Cao Thắng Lần 2

BỘ 5 ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QG NĂM 2021 MÔN TIẾNG ANH

TRƯỜNG THPT CAO THẮNG LẦN 2

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1:

A. begged                 B. dogged 

C. buttoned                 D. blamed

Question 2:

A. eventually            B. shore 

C. proficient                D. assure

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 3: By next Saturday, Tom ______ a whole month without smoking a cigarette.

A. will go                     B. will have gone  

C. has gone                 D. has been going

Question 4: The man _______ his car outside hasn’t come back for it yet.

A. whom he left          B. who he left

C. who left                  D. whose

Question 5: She agreed that all the present paperwork ______ for everyone to have more time to socialize.

A. stopping                 B. be stopped 

C. to stop                    D. stopped

Question 6: I would rather Jane ______ my brother so much money when he asked for. I know for sure that I will have to pay his debt.

A. not lend                  B. would not lend 

C. had not lent             D. did not lend

Question 7: You should take regular exercise _____ sitting in front of the television all day.

A. in spite of               B. instead of 

C. without                   D. even

Question 8: I think almost everyone has heard the news from her, ________?

A. have they                B. hasn't he

 C. haven't they            D. don't I

Question 9: I remember ______ him tomorrow. It will be a big sum of money I’ve been saving so far.

A. paying                    B. to pay

C. paid                        D. to be paid

Question 10: The lake had ice on it this morning. It ____ very cold last night.

A. must have gotten   

B. could have gotten

C. would have gotten

D. should have gotten

Question 11: The world-famous physicist and ______ Stephen Hawking published on important paper before he died at the age of 76.

A. cosmologist            B. cosmologic

C. cosmonaut              D. cosmology

Question 12: Because the waiter didn’t ______ what I ordered, he brought me a mutton steak instead of the chicken wings that I’d wanted.

A. call on                     B. stay up

C. take down               D. check in

Question 13: Italian TV has ______ a young composer to write an opera for the TV’s thirtieth anniversary.

A. appointed               B. ordered  

C. consulted                D. commissioned

Question 14: The acoustics in the concert hall were very poor and it was necessary to _____ performers’ voices.

A. increase                  B. exaggerate

C. extend                     D. amplify

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on you answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.

Question 15:

A. compile                    B. compose

C. compete                  D. complex

Question 16:

A. expectation              B. opportunity

C. temperament           D. decoration

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 17: American children customarily go trick-or-treating on Halloween.

A. inevitably               B. happily

C. traditionally            D. readily

Question 18: At every faculty meeting, Ms. Volatie always manages to put her foot in her mouth.

A. move rapidly

B. trip over her big feet

C. fall asleep

D. say the wrong thing

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 19: He was able to finish his book. It was because his wife helped him.

A. If it weren’t for his wife’s help, he couldn’t have finished his book.

B. If only he had been able to finish his book.

C. Without his wife’s help, he couldn’t have finished his book.

D. But for his wife’s help, he couldn't finish his book.

Question 20: The weather was so dismal. They had to cancel the picnic immediately.

A. The weather was too dismal that the picnic was cancelled immediately.

B. The picnic would be cancelled immediately since the weather was dismal.

C. So dismal was the weather that they had to cancel the picnic immediately.

D. The weather was enough dismal for them to cancel the picnic immediately.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 21: Adela and Phuong are talking about her new friend.

Adela: “________?” – Phuong: He’s tall and thin with blue eyes.”

A. What does he look like

B. What is he like

C. How does he look like 

D. How is he like

Question 22: Fiana and Fallon are talking about the weather.

Fiana: “Isn’t it going to rain tonight?” – Fallon: “_________.”

A. Yes, it isn’t.            B. I hope not 

C. I don’t hope so       D. No, it is.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 23: Impressed as we were by the new cinema, we found it rather expensive.

A. We were not impressed by the new cinema at all because it looked rather expensive.

B. We weren’t as much impressed by the new cinema’s look as its cost.

C. The new cinema was more expensive than we expected.

D. We were very impressed by the new cinema, but found it rather expensive.

Question 24: She said she would go to the police unless she was given her money back.

A. She went to the police because she hadn't got her money back.

B. She wasn’t given her money back because she had gone to the police.

C. She was given her money back and then went to the police.

D. She hasn't yet got her money back or gone to the police.

Question 25: As television programmes become more popular, they seem to get worse.

A. The more popular television programmes become, the worse they seem.

B. The most popular television programmes become, the worse they seem.

C. The popular television programmes, the worse they seem.

D. The more popular become television programmes, the worse they seem.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions

Millions of people tune into the weather forecast each evening on television. Most of them imagine that the presenter does little more than arrive at the studio a few minutes before the broadcast, read the weather, and then go home. In fact, this image is far from the truth. The two-minute bulletin which we all rely on when we need to know tomorrow's weather is the result of a hard day's work by the presenter, who is actually a highly-qualified meteorologist. Every morning after arriving at the TV studios, the first task of the day is to collect the latest data from the National Meteorological Office. This office provides up-to-the-minute information about weather conditions throughout the day, both in Britain and around the world. The information is very detailed and includes predictions, satellite and radar pictures, as well as more technical data. After gathering all the relevant material from this office, the forecaster has to translate the scientific terminology and maps into images and words which viewers can easily understand. The final broadcast is then carefully planned. It is prepared in the same way as other programmes. The presenter decides what to say and in what order to say it. Next a "story board" is drawn up which lays out the script word for word. What makes a weather fore­cast more complicated than other programmes are the maps and electronic images which are required. The computer has to be programmed so that the pictures appear in the cor­rect order during the bulletin.

The time allocated for each broadcast can also alter. This is because the weather re­port is screened after the news, which can vary in length. The weather forecaster doesn't always know how much time is available, which means that he/she has to be thoroughly prepared so that the material can be adapted to the time available. Another related complication is that the weather forecast has to be a live broadcast; it cannot be pre-recorded. Live shows are very nerve-racking for the presenter because almost anything can go wrong. Perhaps the most worrying aspect for every weather fore­caster is getting the following day's predictions wrong. Unfortunately for them, this is not an unusual occurrence; the weather is not always possible to predict accurately. The weather is a national obsession in Britain, perhaps because it is so changeable. It’s the national talking point, and most people watch at least one day bulletin. It can be mortifying for a weather man or woman who has predicted rain for the morning to wake up to brilliant sunshine.

This day, a weather forecaster’s job is even more complicated because they are relied upon to predict other environmental conditions. For example, in the summer the weather forecast has to include reports on ultraviolet radiation intensity to help people avoid sunburn. The job of a weather forecaster is certainly far more complicated than just pointing at a map and describing weather conditions. It's a job for professionals who can cope with stressful and demanding conditions.

Question 26: What perception do most people have of weather forecasters?

A. They have many qualifications.

B. They do a hard day’s work at the studio.

C. They work very short hours. 

D. They always tell the truth.

Question 27:  Meteorologists get their information from

A. the TV studio.

B. the country’s main weather centre.

C. satellite and radar information. 

D. their office.

Question 28: Creating a weather forecast is complex because

A. maps have to be drawn. 

B. a lot of data has to be interpreted.

C. radar pictures are technical.

D. the information includes unreliable predictions.

Question 29:  The computer has to be carefully programmed

A. so that the visuals are sequenced correctly.

B. so that the script is visible to the presenter.

C. because the script has to be written on a story board.

D. because electronic maps are used.

Question 30:  Weather forecasters have to know the material well because

A. the broadcast is pre-recorded.

B. the forecast may be incorporated into the news broadcast.

C. the content of the report may have to change.

D. the length of the report may have to change.

Question 31:  What does “this” in paragraph 2 refer to?

A. The weather forecaster’s worry. 

B. Reading the weather live.

C. Giving a forecast that doesn't come true. 

D. An accurate prediction

Question 32:  In Britain, people’s attitude to the weather

A. is not changeable.

B. makes it a top discussion topic.

C. depends on the prediction being for a sunny or rainy day.

D. is a national problem.

Question 33: Nowadays, weather forecasters have to                      

A. do experiments to determine the pollen count.

B. simply point at map and describe weather conditions

C. cope with professionals. 

D. be able to cope under pressure

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 34: One of the reasons why families break up is that parents are always critical of each other

A. supportive              B. tired

C. intolerant                D. unaware

Question 35: My uncle, who is an accomplished guitarist, taught me how to play.

A. ill-educated             B. qualified

C. unskilled                 D. unimpaired

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best option for each of the blanks.

YOGA

Yoga is one of the most ancient forms of exercise, originating in India 5000 years ago. Yoga has taken several years to become recognised world-wide, although recently, much more attention has been (36)______ to it because of the ways in which it can benefit health. Yoga can be practised by anyone, at any age, in any physical condition, depending on physical needs. For example, athletes and dancers can practise it to (37)______  their energy and to improve stamina; executives to give a much needed (38)______ to their overworked minds; children to improve their memory and concentration.

It's a good idea to (39)______  with a doctor first if you've suffered from any type of injury. None of the exercises should (40)______  you any pain, but it's best to start slowly at first. The best time to practise is either in the morning or in the evening. Beginners find it easier in the evening when the body is more supple.

Question 36:

A. put                        B. paid

C. allowed                 D. provided

Question 37:

A. receive                      B. return

C. realize                       D. restore

Question 38:

A. interruption              B. pause 

C. interval                     D. break

Question 39:

A. see                          B. check 

C. control                     D. call

Question 40:

A. make              B. do

C. cause             D. result

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 41: Prevented (A) the soil from erosion, the trees planted by the fanner many years before (B) were what (C) stopped the flood from reaching (D) his house.

Question 42: The medical problems of parents and their (A) children tend to (B) be very similar to (C) because of (D) the hereditary nature of many diseases.

Question 43: Neither of the two candidates who (A) had applied (B) for admission to (C) the Industrial Engineering Department were (D) eligible for admission.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to Indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

There is a wide range of organisms by their population whose lives mostly depend on how they hunt or are hunted. And most living organisms have some way of protecting themselves from natural predators. Some mammals, like the platypus, carry internal toxins to transmit to predators via biting or other means, and some plants protect themselves by being poisonous. The African crested rat was originally thought to be poisonous because predators that tried to eat it often became paralyzed. But scientists have recently learned that's not actually the case.

The crested rat chews on the poisonous bark of a certain tree, and then smears the chewed-up substance onto its fur, where a strip of special quill-like hairs soaks up the poisonous mixture. Though similar to a porcupine's, the quills do differ: whereas the porcupine defends itself by poking predators, the African rat uses its quill-like hairs to deliver poison to them. When a predator comes after it, instead of running away, the rat stays put and parts its hair to reveal the strip of fur on its back where the poison is being stored. That raised strip is the first thing that receives a bite, and the poison inside disables the predator. These hair tubes are unusual. In fact, scientists do not know of another animal that uses plant poison in this way.

Scientists are puzzled that the rat doesn't appear to be affected by the poison. Because it affects heartbeat regulation, understanding how the rat can keep its heart rate regulated effectively while using the poison could help scientists develop new medicines for people with heart trouble. And they hope that those suffering from heart diseases will benefit from this.

Question 44: What is the main purpose of the passage?

A. To show how animals can affect plant life.          

B. To compare one animal to other similar ones.

C. To emphasize the dangers of researching animals.

D. To discuss an unusual animal defense technique.

Question 45: In paragraph 1, why does the author mention the platypus?

A. To illustrate that mammals may eat poisonous plants.

B. To give an example of a mammal that uses poison.

C. To show how it differs from the crested rat.

D. To explain that the platypus is at risk.

Question 46: The word “paralyzed” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to

A. disabled                   B. unaffected

C. inaccessible             D. undecided

Question 47: In paragraph 2,  what does the word “them” refer to?

A. predators                B. porcupines

C. crested rats             D. quill-like hairs

Question 48: The word “defends” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to  

A. encourages             B. protects 

C. feeds                       D. pretends

Question 49: What are scientists surprised by?

A. How toxic plant poison can be.

B. How useful plant toxins can be.

C. How quickly rats learn new behavior.

D. That the rats are protected from the poison.

Question 50: What would scientists like to investigate further?

A. Medicine used to counteract poison.

B. Other animals like the crested rat.

C. Health effects of a chemical.  

D. Rats with unhealthy hearts.           

ĐÁP ÁN

1	2	3	4	5
B	A	B	C	D
6	7	8	9	10
C	B	C	B	A
11	12	13	14	15
A	C	D	A	D
16	17	18	19	20
C	C	D	C	C
21	22	23	24	25
A	B	D	D	A
26	27	28	29	30
C	B	B	A	D
31	32	33	34	35
C	D	D	A	C
36	37	38	39	40
B	D	D	B	C
41	42	43	44	45
A	C	C	D	B
46	47	48	49	50
A	A	B	D	D

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1:

A. preparation           B. susceptible 

C. experiment            D. genetically

Question 2:

A. hesitate                 B. excessive

C. saturate                 D. restrict

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 3:  Ha Long Bay, the global heritage recognized twice by the UNESCO, remains one of the country’s top attractions.

A. Ha Long Bay was recognized twice by the UNESCO, and as a consequence it remains one of the country’s top attractions.    

B. Ha Long Bay, the global heritage which was recognized twice by the UNESCO, that remains one of the country’s top attractions.    

C. Ha Long Bay, is the global heritage and was recognized twice by the UNESCO, remains one of the country’s top attractions.    

D. It is Ha Long Bay, the global heritage recognized twice by the UNESCO, that remains one of the country’s top attractions.

Question 4:  “What a novel idea for the farewell party” said Nam to the monitor.

A. Nam exclaimed with admiration at the novel idea for the farewell party of the monitor.

B. Nam admired the novel idea for the farewell party.

C. Nam thought over the novel idea for the farewell party.

D. Nam said that it was a novel idea of the monitor for the farewell party.

Question 5:  We should have our school’s swimming pool cleaned before the summer begins because it is looking dirty.

A. Our school’s swimming pool should be cleaned regularly because of its dirtiness.

B. We should clean our school’s swimming pool at the beginning of the summer because it is looking dirty.

C. We had better get our school swimming pool cleaned before the summer begins because of its dirtiness.

D. Due to the impurity of our school swimming pool, we should have someone clean it as soon as possible.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best option for each of the blanks

Women are much healthier when they (6) ______ it easy, reveals a new survey. Those who work long hours are more likely than men to (7) ______ in unhealthy behavior such as eating snacks, smoking and drinking caffeine. (Long hours have no such impact on men). One positive benefit of long hours for both sexes, however, is that alcohol (8) ______ is reduced.

The study (9) ______ by the Economic and Social Research Council is part of a wider study by psychologists from the University of Leeds into the effects of stress on eating. “Stress causes people to (10) ______ for unhealthy high fat and high-sugar snacks in preference to healthier food choice” says researcher Dr. Daryl of the University of Leeds.

Question 6:

A. make                    B. feel

C. take                      D. get

Question 7:

A. indulge                 B. interest  

C. develop                 D. participate

Question 8:

A. beverage               B. consumption

C. expenditure            D. sales

Question 9:

A. funding                B. which funds

C. funded                 D. which funded

Question 10:

A. choose                B. select

C. decide                 D. opt

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 11:  When two people get married, it is with the assumption that their feelings for each other are immutable and will never alter.

A. constantly                   B. alterable

C. unchangeable              D. everlasting

Question 12:  That the genetic differences make one race superior to another is nothing but a tall story.

A. cynical                        B. unbelievable

C. untrue                        D. exaggeration

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.

Question 13:

A. certainly             B. marvelous

C. counseling           D. persuasive

Question 14:

A. represent            B. systematic

C. detrimental          D. fulfillment

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 15:  Golf wear has become a very lucrative business for both the manufacturers and golf stars.

A. unprofitable                B. impoverished 

C. inexpensive                 D. unfavorable

Question 16:  Unless you get your information from a credible website, you should doubt the veracity of the facts until you have confirmed them else where.

A. inexactness                 B. falsehoodness

C. unaccuracy                  D. unfairness

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

The end of the nineteenth century and the early years of the twentieth century were marked by the development of an international Art Nouveau style, characterized by sinuous lines, floral and vegetable motifs, and soft evanescent coloration. The Art Nouveau style was an eclectic one, bringing together elements of Japanese art, motifs of ancient cultures, and natural forms. The glass objects of this style were elegant in outline, although often deliberately distorted, with pale or iridescent surfaces. A favored device of the style was to imitate the iridescent surface seen on ancient glass that had been buried. Much of the Art Nouveau glass produced during the years of its greatest popularity had been generically termed “art glass.” Art glass was intended for decorative purposes and relied for its effect on carefully chosen color combinations and innovative techniques.

France produced a number of outstanding exponents of the Art Nouveau style; among the most celebrated was Emile Galle (1846-1904). In the United States, Louis Comfort Tiffany (1843-1933) was the most noted exponent of this style, producing a great variety of glass forms and surfaces, which were widely copied in their time and are highly prized today. Tiffany was a brilliant designer, successfully combining ancient Egyptian, Japanese, and Persian motifs.

The Art Nouveau style was a major force in the decorative arts from 1895 until 1915, although its influence continued throughout the mid-1920’s.It was eventually to be overtaken by a new school of thought known as Functionalism that had been present since the turn of the century. At first restricted to a small avant-garde group of architects and designers, Functionalism emerged as the dominant influence upon designers after the First World War. The basic tenet of the movement-that function should determine form-was not a new concept. Soon a distinct aesthetic code evolved: from should be simple, surfaces plain, and any ornament should be based on geometric relationships. This new design concept, coupled with the sharp postwar reactions to the styles and conventions of the preceding decades, created an entirely new public taste which caused Art Nouveau types of glass to fall out of favor. The new taste demanded dramatic effects of contrast, stark outline and complex textural surfaces.

Question 17:  What does paragraph 1 mainly discuss?

A. Design elements in the Art Nouveau style

B. The popularity of the Art Nouveau style

C. Production techniques for art glass

D. Color combinations typical of the Art Nouveau style

Question 18:  The word “one” refers to______.

A. century.                       B. development. 

C. style.                           D. coloration.

Question 19:  Para.1 mentions that Art Nouveau glass was sometimes similar to which aspect of ancient buried glass______.

A. The distortion of the glass  

B. The appearance of the glass surface

C. The shapes of the glass objects

D. The size of the glass objects

Question 20:  The word “overtaken” in line 19 is closest in meaning to______.

A. surpassed                    B. inclined  

C. expressed                    D. applied

Question 21:  What does the author mean by stating that “function should determine form”?

A. A useful object should not be attractive.

B. The purpose of an object should influence its form.

C. The design of an object is considered more significant than its function.

D. The form of an object should not include decorative elements.

Question 22:  It can be inferred from the passage that one reason Functionalism became popular was that it______.

A. clearly distinguished between art and design

B. appealed to people who liked complex painted designs

C. reflected a common desire to break from the past

D. was easily interpreted by the general public

Question 23:  Paragraph 3 supports which of the following statements about Functionalism?

A. Its design concept avoided geometric shapes.

B. It started on a small scale and then spread gradually.

C. It was a major force in the decorative arts before the First World War.

D. It was not attractive to architects all designers.

Question 24:  According to the passage, an object made in the Art Nouveau style would most likely include ______.

A. a flowered design. 

B. bright colors. 

C. modern symbols.

D. a textured surface.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 25:  Ensoleill and Sunny are talking about Ted’s accident last week.

Ensoleill: “A motor bike knocked Ted down”.

Sunny: “ ____________”

A. What it is now?

B. What a motor bike! 

C. How terrific!

D. Poor Ted !

Question 26:  Mary and her friend, Ensoleill, are in a coffee shop.

Mary: “Would you like Matcha ice-cream or Caramen with jam?”

Ensoleill: ”______________”.

A. I like eating them all.

B. Yes, I’d love two.

C. It doesn’t matter. 

D. Neither is fine. They are good.

ĐÁP ÁN

1	2	3	4	5
C	A	D	A	C
6	7	8	9	10
C	A	B	C	D
11	12	13	14	15
C	B	D	D	A
16	17	18	19	20
A	B	C	B	A
21	22	23	24	25
B	C	B	A	D
26	27	28	29	30
C	A	D	B	D
31	32	33	34	35
B	D	A	C	B
36	37	38	39	40
D	B	C	C	B
41	42	43	44	45
A	D	B	C	A
46	47	48	49	50
C	B	D	A	C

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A smile (A) can be observed, described, and reliably identify (B); it can also (C) be elicited and manipulated under experimental (D) conditions.

Question 2. It was suggested (A) that he studies (B) the material more thoroughly (C) before attempting (D) to pass the exam.

Question 3. Some (A) methods to prevent (B) soil erosion are (C) plowing parallel with the slope of hills, to plant (D) trees on unproductive land, and rotating crops.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 4. Marco Polo’s account of his travels has been invaluable to historians.

A. valuable                  B. important

C. worthless                D. priceless

Question 5. Satish’s point of view was correct but his behavior with his father was quite impertinent.

A. healthy                   B. smooth

C. inadequate             D. respectful

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 6. Kenny asked for permission to smoke, but his colleague couldn’t put up with the smoke.

- Kenny: “Do you mind if I smoke in here?”

- Alex: “_________.”

A. I’d rather you didn’t

B. No, thank you

C. No, I couldn’t

D. Yes, you can.

Question 7. Hana and Jenifer are talking about a book they have just read.

- Hana: “The book is really interesting and educational.”

-Jenifer: “_________.”

A. That’s nice of you to say so.

B. I’d love it.

C. Don’t mention it 

D. I couldn’t agree more.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 8. We found the bad weather very inconvenient. We chose to find a place for the night.

A. The bad weather prevented us from driving any further.

B. Bad weather was approaching, so we started to look for a place to stay.

C. Seeing that the bad weather had set in, we decided to find somewhere to spend the night.

D. Because the climate was so severe, we were worried about what we’d do at night.

Question 9. She tried very hard to pass the driving test. She could hardly pass it

A. Although she didn’t try hard to pass the driving test, she could pass it.

B. She tried very hard, so she passed the driving test satisfactorily.

C. No matter how hard she tried, she could hardly pass the driving test.

D. Despite being able to pass the driving test, she didn’t pass it.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 10. She simply took it for granted that the check was good and did not ask him any questions about it.

A. permitted it

B. accepted it without investigation

C. objected to it

D. looked it over

Question 11. Juan Manuel Santos was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize 2016 for his resolute efforts to bring the country’s more than 50-year-long civil war to an end.

A. determined                         B. sure 

C. original                               D. certain

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions

Thunderstorms, with their jagged bursts of lightning and roaring thunder, are actually one of nature’s primary mechanisms for transferring heat from the surface of the earth into the atmosphere. A thunderstorm starts when low-lying pockets of warm air from the surface of the earth begin to rise. The pockets of warm air float upward through the air above that is both cooler and heavier. The rising pockets cool as their pressure decreases, and their latent heat is released above the condensation line through the formation of cumulus clouds.

What will happen with these clouds depends on the temperature of the atmosphere. In winter, the air temperature differential between higher and lower altitudes is not extremely great, and the temperature of the rising air mass drops more slowly. During these colder months, the atmosphere, therefore, tends to remain rather stable. In summer, however, when there is a high accumulation of heat near the earth’s surface, in direct contrast to the considerably colder air higher up, the temperature differential between higher and lower altitudes is much more pronounced. As warm air rises in this type of environment, the temperature drops much more rapidly than it does in winter; when the temperature drops more than 4 degrees Fahrenheit per thousand feet of altitude, cumulus clouds aggregate into a single massive cumulonimbus cloud, or thunderhead.

In isolation, a single thunderstorm is an impressive but fairly benign way for Mother Earth to defuse trapped heat from her surface; thunderstorms, however, can appear in concert, and the resulting show, while extremely impressive, can also prove extraordinarily destructive. When there is a large-scale collision between cold air and warm air masses during the summer months, a squall line, or series of thunderheads, may develop. It is common for a squall line to begin when an advancing cold front meets up with and forces itself under a layer of warm and moist air, creating a line of thunderstorms that races forward at speeds of approximately forty miles per hour. A squall line, which can be hundreds of miles long and can contain fifty distinct thunderheads, is a magnificent force of nature with incredible potential for destruction. Within the squall line, often near its southern end, can be found supercells, long-lived rotating storms of exceptional strength that serve as the source of tornadoes.

Question 12. The topic of the passage is ________.

A. the development of thunderstorms and squall lines

B. the devastating effects of tornadoes

C. cumulus and cumulonimbus clouds

D. the power of tornadoes

Question 13. The word “mechanisms” in paragraph 1 is most likely ________.

A. machines                B. motions

C. methods                  D. materials

Question 14. It can be inferred from the passage that, in summer, ________.

A. there is not a great temperature differential between higher and lower altitudes

B. the greater temperature differential between higher and lower altitudes makes thunderstorms more likely to occur

C. there is not much cold air higher up in the atmosphere

D. the temperature of rising air drops more slowly than it does in winter

Question 15. The word “benign” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ________.

A. harmless                 B. beneficial

C. ferocious                 D. spectacular

Question 16. The expression “in concert” in paragraph 3 could best be replaced by ________.

A. as a chorus

B. with other musicians 

C. as a cluster

D. in a performance

Question 17. The word “itself” in paragraph 3 refers to ________.

A. a large-scale collision

B. a squall line

C. an advancing cold front

D. a layer of warm and moist air

Question 18. All of the following are mentioned in the passage about supercells EXCEPT that they ________.

A. are of short duration

B. have circling winds

C. have extraordinary power

D. can give birth to tornadoes

Question 19. This reading would most probably be assigned in which of the following courses?

A. Geography                     B. Meteorology

C. Marine Biology                D. Chemistry

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 20. I know we had an argument, but I know I’d quite like to ______.

A. make up                  B. look down

C. fall out                     D. bring up

Question 21. It is vital that everyone ______ aware of the protection of the environment.

A. is                             B. be

C. are                           D. were

Question 22. My uncle was ______ ill last summer; however, fortunately, he is now making a slow but steady recovery.

A. seriously                 B. deeply

C. fatally                      D. critically

Question 23. All of her sons joined the army when the war broke ______.

A. out                          B. off

C. over                         D. up

Question 24. This is the second time you ______ your door key.

A. are losing                B. lose 

C. lost                          D. have lost

ĐÁP ÁN

1	2	3	4	5
B	B	D	C	D
6	7	8	9	10
A	D	C	C	B
11	12	13	14	15
A	A	C	B	A
16	17	18	19	20
C	C	A	B	A
21	22	23	24	25
B	A	A	D	B
26	27	28	29	30
C	B	D	D	B
31	32	33	34	35
A	C	B	B	C
36	37	38	39	40
B	B	A	D	A
41	42	43	44	45
D	C	A	B	B
46	47	48	49	50
D	C	C	A	B

Part 1: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1:	A. finished	B. promised	C. escaped	D. followed
Question 2:	A. gossip	B. gentle	C. gamble	D. garage

Part 2: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3:     A. solidarity    B. effectively  C. documentary          D. dedication

Question 4:     A. emerge        B. organic        C. belief                      D. medium

Part 3: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5: The world work is developing very quickly. If you don’t self-learn continuously, we will not             social movements.

A. put up with             B. keep up with           C. get on with D. deal with

Question 6: She          on her computer for more than two hours when she decided to stop for a rest.

A. has worked B. has been working

C. was working           D. had been working

Question 7: The teacher recommended that Tom      his composition as soon as possible.

A. finish writing          B. finished writing

C. should finish to write         D. finishes writing

Question 8: He has been waiting for this letter for days, and at       it has come.

A. the end       B. last  C. the moment            D. present

Question 9: I’m sorry I haven’t got any money. I’ve            my wallet at home.

A. missed        B. let   C. left  D. forgotten

Question 10: There’s a list of repairs as long as         .

A. your arm     B. a pole          C. your arms   D. a mile

Question 11: I tried to talk to her, but she was as high as a .

A. kite B. house          C. sky  D. wall

Question 12: Not only_          to determine the depth of the ocean floor, but it is also used to locate oil.

A. seismology is used B. using seismology

C. is seismology used D. to use seismology

Question 13:               advised on what and how to prepare for the interview, he might have got the job.

A. Had he been           B. If he had

C. Unless he had been            D. Were he to be

Question   14: The  jury          her  compliments         her excellent knowledge of the subject.

A. returned/ to            B. paid/ to       C. returned/ on            D. paid / on

Question 15: Determining the mineral content of soil samples is an exacting process;

            ,experts must perform detail tests to analyze soil specimens.

A. therefore     B. afterward    C. so that        D. however

Question  16: John lost the     bicycle he bought last week and his parents were very angry with him because

A. new beautiful blue Japanses           B. beautiful blue Japanese new

C. beautiful new blue Japanese          D. Japanese beautiful new blue

Part 4: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 17: Miranda still has trauma from the tragic accident, that took away her closest friend.

A. has  B. tragic          C. that D. closest

Question 18: The office furniture that was ordered last month have just arrived, but we’re not sure whether the manager likes it.

A. that B. have just arrived     C. whether      D. likes

Question 19: Don’t go up to your hotel room because the maid is making the beds, cleaning the bathroom, and vacuum the carpet.

A. Don’t go     B. because       C. cleaning      D. vacuum

Part 5: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20: After many years of unsuccessfully endeavoring to form his own orchestra, Glenn Miller finally achieved world fame in 1939 as a big band leader.

A. offering      B. deciding     C. requesting   D. trying

Question 21: My uncle, who is an accomplished guitarist, taught me how to play.

A. skillful        B. perfect        C. modest       D. famous

ĐÁP ÁN

1-D	2-B	3-B	4-D	5-B	6-D	7-A	8-B	9-C	10-A
11-A	12-C	13-A	14-D	15-A	16-C	17-C	18-B	19-D	20-D
21-A	22-A	23-C	24-B	25-C	26-C	27-B	28-A	29-D	30-B
31-C	32-A	33-D	34-B	35-B	36-C	37-C	38-B	39-A	40-D
41-B	42-B	43-A	44-A	45-D	46-D	47-C	48-A	49-B	50-B

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 1: It is such a prestigious university that only excellent students are entitled to a full scholarship each year.

A. have the right to refuse      B. are given the right to

C. are refused the right to       D. have the obligation to

Question 2: The repeated commercials on TV distract many viewers from watching their favorite films.

A. economics  B. businesses   C. contests      D. advertisements

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 3: In some societies, language is associated with social class and  education. People judge one’s level in society by the kind of language used.

A. connected with      B. not allowed by       C. separated from       D. dissimilar to

Question 4: There was a long period without rain in the countryside last year so the harvest was poor.

A. epidemic     B. drought       C. famine        D. flood

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 5:     A. matched     B. worked       C. cleaned       D. stepped

Question 6:     A. digestion    B. suggestion  C. question      D. perfection

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined word or phrase that must be changed in order for the sentence to be correct.

Question 7: He was so intelligent a student that he could pass the final exam easy.

A. was B. so intelligent           C. could          D. easy

Question 8: Hadn’t you informed of the change in the timetable, I would have rushed to the office yesterday.

A. Hadn’t you B. of    C. have            D. the

Question 9: I’d prefer to do it on myself because other people make me nervous.

A. I’d prefer    B. on myself    C. other           D. make

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions

Since water is the basis of life, composing the greater part of the tissues of all living things, the crucial problem of desert animals is to survive in a world where sources of flowing water are rare. And since man’s inexorable necessity is to absorb large quantities of water at frequent intervals, he can scarcely comprehend that many creatures of the desert pass their entire lives without a single drop.

Uncompromising as it is, the desert has not eliminated life but only those forms unable to withstand its desiccating effects. No moist- skinned, water-loving animals can exist there. Few large animals are found. The giants of the North American desert are the deer, the coyote, and the bobcat. Since desert country is open, it holds more swift-footed running and leaping creatures than the tangled forest. Its population is largely

nocturnal, silent, filled with reticence, and ruled by stealth. Yet they are not emaciated. Having adapted to their austere environment, they are as healthy as animals anywhere else in the word. The secret of their adjustment lies in the combination of behavior and physiology. None could survive if, like mad dogs and Englishmen, they went out in the midday sun; many would die in a matter of minutes. So most of them pass the burning hours asleep in cool, humid burrows underneath the ground, emerging to hunt only by night. The surface of the sun-baked desert averages around 150 degrees, but 18 inches down the temperature is only 60 degrees.

Question 10: The author mentions all the following as examples of the behavior of desert animals EXCEPT

A. they are watchful and quiet           B. they sleep during the day

C. they dig home underground          D. they are noisy and aggressive

Question 11: We can infer from the passage that

A. healthy animals live longer lives    B. living things adjust to their environment

C. desert life is colorful and diverse   D. water is the basis of desert life

Question 12: According to the passage, creatures in the desert

1. are smaller and fleeter than forest animals
2. are more active during the day than those in the tangled forest
3. live in an accommodating environment
4. are not as healthy as those anywhere else in the world

Question 13: The phrase “those forms” in the passage refers to all of the following EXCEPT

A. moist-skinned animals        B. many large animals

C. water-loving animals          D. the coyote and the bobcat

Question 14: The word “them” means

A. animals       B. minutes       C. people         D. water

Question 15: The word “emaciated” in the passage mostly means

A. wild            B. unmanageable         C. cunning      D. unhealthy

Question 16: Man can hardly understand why many animals live their whole life in the desert, as

A. water is an essential part of his existence

B. very few large animals are found in the desert

C. sources of flowing water are rare in a desert

water composes the greater part of the tissues of living things

Question 17: The title for this passage could be

A. “Man’s Life in a Desert Environment”      B. “Desert Plants”

C. “Animal Life in a Desert Environment”    D. “Life Underground”

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 18:   A. ability         B. sympathetic            C. political      D. significant

Question 19:   A. postpone     B. specialize    C. purpose       D. summarize

ĐÁP ÁN

1-B	2-D	3-C	4-D	5-C	6-D	7-D	8-A	9-B	10-D
11-B	12-A	13-A	14-A	15-D	16-A	17-C	18-B	19-A	20-A
21-B	22-A	23-A	24-B	25-C	26-B	27-D	28-B	29-B	30-C
31-A	32-D	33-D	34-C	35-D	36-C	37-C	38-A	39-B	40-C
41-A	42-C	43-D	44-A	45-D	46-C	47-D	48-A	49-A	50-B

---

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