Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG năm 2021 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THPT Thuận Hóa Lần 2

BỘ 5 ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QG NĂM 2021 MÔN TIẾNG ANH

TRƯỜNG THPT THUẬN HÓA LẦN 2

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1.    

A. expands                  B. travels 

C. appoints                  D. animals

Question 2.    

A. stagnant                  B. vacancy

C. charity                     D. habitat

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3.    

A. argument                B. marvellous

C. sacrifice                  D. supportive

Question 4.    

A. swallow                    B. approach

C. nonsense                 D. nursery

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following question.

Question 5. I'm sorry because I've lost the key to the drawer ________ all the important papers are kept.

A. which                     B. whose 

C. who                        D. where

Question 6. Mary ____ with her dolls when she was younger.

A. used to play

B. is used to playing  

C. used to playing

D. is used to play

Question 7. Susan is fed ________ with the housework.

A. of                            B. up

C. at                            D. on

Question 8. If I were you, I __________ for that English course.

A. would have applied  

B. will apply

C. would apply

D. should apply

Question 9. My sister _________ for you for an hour.

A. was looking                     B. is looking

C. has been looking             D. looked

Question 10. She wrote her composition carefully to avoid ________ mistakes.

A. to make                  B. made 

C. making                    D. will make

Question 11. The employer suffered from depression _________ by overwork and ill-health.

A. brought on              B. taken up

C. come about             D. put through

Question 12. Tom painted his room black. It looks dark and deary. He _________ a different color.

A. should choose

B. must have chosen  

C. should have chosen  

D. has to choose

Question 13. The investors bought a deserted warehouse __________ convert it into a shopping mall for the townspeople.

A. so that                   

B. lest they may 

C. with a view to           

D. in order to

Question 14. She is _______ than her sister.

A. the most beautiful

B. more beautiful

C. beautifully

D. the beautiful

Question 15. I don't think Peter will reject that job offer, ______?

A. do I                        B. will he

C. don't I                      D. won't he

Question 16. I heard _____ that Jack has been dropped from the basket team.

A. in the woods

B. on the olive branch            

C. on the grapevine  

D. under your feet

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 17. Parents play a crucial role in a child's upbringing in the formative years. They are really the driving force behind whatever the children do.

A. motivation               B. completion  

C. progress                  D. satisfaction

Question 18. We should join hands to protect our environment.

A. take up                   B. put up

C. work together          D. make decisions

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 19. She was brought up in a well-off family. She can't understand the problems we are facing.

A. kind                        B. poor  

C. rich                         D. wealthy

Question 20. James may get into hot water when driving at full speed after drinking.

A. get into trouble       B. fall into disuse

C. remain calm            D. stay safe

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 21.   - Tom: "Would you like a cup of tea?"

                        - Linda: " _____. "

A. Yes, help youself  

B. Yes, do it yourself

C. Yes, please

D. Yes, that's a good idea

Question 22.   - John: “What an attractive hair style you have got, Mary.”

- Mary: “____”

A. I don't like your saying

B. Thank you very much, i'm afraid.

C. Thank you for your compliment.

D. You are telling a lie.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 23. She had only just put the phone down when her boss rang back.

A. Hardly had she put the phone down when her boss rang back.

B. No sooner had she put the phone down when her boss rang back.

C. Hardly did she put the phone down when her boss rang back.

D. Hardly she had put the phone down when her boss rang back.

Question 24. People rumour that the leader has been suffering from a rare disease.

A. A rare disease is rumoured to be causing suffering to the leader.

B. It was rumoured that the leader has been suffering from a rare disease.

C. The leader is rumoured to have been suffering from a rare disease.

D. The leader has been rumoured to suffer from a rare disease.

Question 25. "No, I won't go to work at the weekend." Said Sally.

A. Sally apologized for not going to work at the weekend.

B. Sally regretted not going to work at the weekend.

C. Sally refused to go to work at the weekend.

D. Sally promised to go to work at the weekend.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of the sentences in the following questions.

Question 26. John was not here yesterday. Perhaps he was ill.

A. John might have been ill yesterday, so he was not here.

B. Because of his illness, John shouldn't have been hare yesterday.

C. John must have been ill yesterday, so he was not here.

D. Although John was ill yesterday, he need be here.

Question 27. Mary loved her stuffed animal when she was young. She couldn't sleep without it.

A. As Mary couldn't sleep without her stuffed animal when she was young, she loved it.

B. When Mary was young, she loved her stuffed animal so as not to sleep without it.

C. When Mary was young, she loved her stuffed animal so much that she couldn't sleep without it.

D. When Mary was young, she loved her stuffed animal although that she couldn't sleep without it.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D in your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 28. Education (A) and training are an (B) important steps in getting (C) the kind of job that you would like to have. (D)

Question 29. Optimists believe (A) that in the future we will be living (B) in a cleaner environment, breathe (C) fresher air and eating (D) healthier food.

Question 30. Several (A) people have apparent (B) tried to change the man's mind (C), but he refuses to listen. (D)

Read the following passage and mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the blanks.

From a very early age, it was apparent that Magnus Carlen was a brilliant chess player. By the age of 13, Magnus was (31) __________ to be one of the best chess players in the world, and his parents wanted him to reach his full potential as a professional chess player.

This meant their son had to develop a lifestyle of strict (32) _________ which included many hours of practice. Only this way could he become a world champion. (33) _________ Magnus's parents supported him, they did not want him to devote his whole life to chess. They felt that if he focused only on chess, he would suffer both physically and emotionally. They made it clear to him that thay had no intention of letting their son drop out of school. He was also encouraged to follow his interest in sports. As a result of his (34)________, when Magnus graduated from high school in 2009, he was not only the best chess player in the world, but he was also awarded the title of "sport-student of the year" for his achievements in snowboarding and golf.

Today, Magnus gives (35) _________ to his parents for the way they raised him. They set rules, but they never (36)________ with his ambitions. Instead they gave him the support and encouragement he needed to achieve his goals and still be a happy young man.

Question 31.  

A. decided                  B. regarded

C. counted                  D. considered

Question 32.  

A. discipline                B. order 

C. behavior                 D. effort

Question 33.  

A. Since                      B. Although

C. Because                  D. Until

Question 34.  

A. prepration               B. environment

C. upbringing              D. treatment

Question 35.  

A. credit                      B. approval 

C. trust                        D. attention

Question 36.  

A. prevented               B. opposed

C. mistrusted              D. interfered

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

The air above our head is becoming cleaner. A breath of fresh air has been running right round the planet for the past five years. The planet is apparently purging itself of pollution. Paul Novell of the University of Colorado, the co-author of a report on this phenomenon says, “It seems as if the planet's own cleaning service has suddenly got a new lease of life. Suddenly, there are a lot of changes going on up there”.

Estimates of the death toll from urban smog have been steadily rising, so the new cleaner trend could have significant consequences for life expectancy in cities as well as for the planet itself. The sudden and unexpected reversal of several decades of worsening pollution extends from the air in city streets to the remotest mid-Pacific Ocean and Antarctica.

Among the pollutants which have begun to disappear from the atmosphere are carbon monoxide, from car exhaust and burning rain forests, and methane from the guts of cattle, paddy fields, and gas fields. Even carbon dioxide, the main gas behind global warning, has fallen slightly.

There are two theories about why pollution is disappearing. First that there is less pollution to start with due to laws to cut down urban smogs and acid rain starting to have a global impact. Second, that the planet may be becoming more efficient at cleaning up.

The main planetary clean-up agent is a chemical called hydroxyl. It is present throughout the atmosphere in tiny quantities and removes most pollutants from the air by oxidizing them. The amount of hydroxyl in the air has fallen by a quarter in 1980s. Now it may be reviving for two reasons: ironically, because the ozone hole has expanded, letting in more ultraviolet radiation into the lower atmosphere, where it manufactures hydroxyl. Then the stricter controls on vehicle exhausts in America and Europe may have cut global carbon monoxide emissions, thereby allowing more hydroxyl to clean up other pollutants.

Question 37. Based on information in the passage, all of the following information referring to hydroxyl is true EXCEPT _________.

A. oxidization of pollutants is carried out by hydroxyl.

B. ultraviolet radiation increases production of hydroxyl.

C. there is difficulty in destroying carbon dioxide by hydroxyl.

D. the reduction in the ozone layer is beneficial to hydroxyl.

Question 38. The word "purging" in line 2 is closest in meaning to ________.

A. refining                   B. ridding

C. destroying                D. rising

Question 39. The passage supports which of the following conclusion?

A. An expansion in hydroxyl has enlarged the ozone hole.

B. The decrease of methane has enabled ultraviolet radiation to enter the atmosphere.

C. The reduction in carbon dioxide has produced a cleaner atmosphere.

D. The beneficial effect of hydroxyl has aided the cleaning process.

Question 40. The word "it" in paragraph 5 refers to ________.

A. the ozone hole        B. clean-up agent

C. acid rain                  D. urban smog

Question 41. According to the passage, life expectancy partly depends on people having _________.

A. changes in their lifestyle.

B. recommendations from university research.

C. improvement in atmosphere conditions.

D. access to details about atmosphere.

Question 42. What is the main topic of the passage?

A. Hydroxyl's influence on the atmosphere              

B. The changing pollutants in the atmosphere.

C. The oxygenation of the atmosphere.                     

D. The decreasing pollution of the atmosphere.

Question 43. It can be inferred from the passage that the cleansing of the planet is _________.

A. inexplicable            B. predictable

C. surprising                D. confusing

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Architecture has social purposes and meets practical needs by means of combining art and technological innovations. In building construction, however, an emergence of new materials does not make its precursors obsolete, and architectural knowledge is cumulative. The fact that today much is constructed from prefabricated concrete does not do away with brick. Furthermore, despite dramatic changes and increased technological sophistication of architectural design and construction, the essential apparatus of erecting a building has remained rooted in preindustrial traditional practices passed down during the millennia. The social and utilitarian expectations of structures are largely based on elemental demands of keeping out elements and enemies, ameliorating the extremes of heat, and avoiding the instruction of wind, precipitation, and pests.

Gravity, air pressure, and earthquakes can induce tensions that have to be accounted for when constructing functional enclosed space. Vertical stacking of masonry materials causes compression that can lead to important problems when a structure is spanned to build a roof and connect walls. Arches, vaults, and domes were specifically developed to alleviate the compression by directing the spanning element along a curve rather than a straight line. Building suspension structures, dams, and tunnels became possible in the nineteenth century with the increased availability of steel that could reinforce structural frames and enable them to withstand natural forces previously believed to be insurmountable.

Functional evolutions of modern buildings create new demands on the analysis of structural behavior and engineering. Few occupants of skyscrapers view elevators as elaborate systems of vertical transportation. Humidity and temperature control, forced ventilation, natural and artificial lighting, sanitation and disposal of waste, electrical wiring, and fire prevention make very tall constructions engineering marvels that also must be aesthetically pleasing and physically convenient.

Erecting a structure involves a great deal more than merely attending to the aesthetics and psychological experience of architectural space. The shape, size, and incombustibility of locally available construction materials fostered developments of specific technologies, and brick and stone masonry have evolved in response to the need for structural durability. Advances in civil engineering and knowledge associated with properties of building materials combine to lead to innovations in architectural design. Tools and skills required to exploit easily obtainable materials have continued to inform the development of modern industrialized technologies.

Question 44. The purpose of paragraph 3 is to suggest that ________.

A. skyscrapers need to be appealing and convenient for their occupants

B. tall buildings require large amounts of wiring to make them functional

C. architectural innovations pose new challenges for technological development

D. architects of modern buildings create a demand for engineering talent

Question 45. The word "fostered" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _________.

A. focused                  B. founded 

C. enveloped               D. encouraged

Question 46. The word “ withstand" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ___________.

A. withdraw                B. withhold  

C. endure                   D. enlarge

Question 47. What can be inferred from the passage about reducing the effects of material compacting?

A. Downward pressure is dispersed by semicircular roofs.

B. Masonry is stacked vertically by increasing compression.

C. Vertical roofs are bent to counteract air pressure.

D. Buildings are spanned to account for the force of gravity.

Question 48. What is the main topic of the passage?

A. The profound importance of tradition in architecture.

B. The modern art of architecture and social pressure.

C. The mutual impact of architecture and technology.

D. The great technological advances in building materials.

Question 49. The author mentions the word "brick" in paragraph 1 as an example of which of the following?

A. How new design can improve traditional construction

B. How new knowledge can supplant traditional technology

C. How old techniques can continue to remain practical

D. How old buildings can coexist with modern architecture

Question 50. It can be inferred from the passage that pragmatic requirements of buildings _________.

A. retain essential sophistication

B. hold constant over time

C. stay rooted in the elements

D. stagnate over millennia

ĐÁP ÁN

1	2	3	4	5
C	B	D	C	D
6	7	8	9	10
A	B	C	C	C
11	12	13	14	15
A	C	D	B	B
16	17	18	19	20
C	A	C	B	C
21	22	23	24	25
C	C	A	C	C
26	27	28	29	30
C	C	B	C	B
31	32	33	34	35
D	A	B	C	A
36	37	38	39	40
D	C	B	D	B
41	42	43	44	45
C	D	C	C	D
46	47	48	49	50
C	A	C	C	B

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 1. Only their own mother can tell Simon and Mike apart.

A. No one other than their own mother can separate Simon and Mike.

B. Simon and Mike bear some resemblance to each other.

C. It's very difficult to distinguish Simon and Mike.

D. Except for their own mother, no one can talk to Simon and Mike.

Question 2. "How beautiful is the dress you have just bought!" Peter said to Mary.

A. Peter promised to buy Mary a beautiful dress.

B. Peter said thanks to Mary for her beautiful dress.

C. Peter asked Mary how she had just bought her beautiful dress.

D. Peter complimented Mary on her beautiful dress.

Question 3. Those who are riding a motorbike are not allowed to take off their helmet.

A. People must never take their helmet off while they are riding a motorbike.

B. Those who are wearing a helmet are not allowed to ride a motorbike.

C. It is the helmet that one needn't wear when he is riding a motorbike

D. You should not wear a helmet when you are riding a motorbike.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 4. Exemplification is always necessary when you are addressing a younger audience.

A. illustration              B. variation 

C. simplification          D. exaggeration

Question 5. When heated to temperatures above 1250 degrees Centigrade, clay fuses and becomes pottery or stoneware.

A. melts together        B. steams up

C. breaks down           D. burns off

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 6. Steve______his chances of passing by spending too much time on the first question.

A. threw away                        B. threw in 

C. threw off                            D. threw out

Question 7. By the time Brown's daughter graduates,_______retired.

A. he'll have                            B. he 

C. he'll being                           D. he has

Question 8. Nobody likes his behavior,______?

A. doesn’t he                          B. do they  

C. don't they                           D. does he

Question 9. ______ ten minutes earlier, you would have got a better seat.

A. Were you arrived

B. If you arrived

C. If you hadn't arrived

D. Had you arrived

Question 10. After congratulating his team, the coach left, allowing the players to let their ______ down for a while.

A. hearts                                  B. hair 

C. souls                                   D. heads

Question 11. Extinction means a situation ______ a plant, an animal or a way of life stops existing.

A. to which                             B. for which

C. on which                            D. in which

Question 12. Making mistake is all ________ of growing up.

A. bits and bobs              B. odds and ends

C. part and parcel            D. top and bottom

Question 13. The judge ______ murderer to a lifetime imprisonment.

A. prosecuted                         

B. sentenced 

C. convicted                          

D. accused

Question 14. When my children _____  their toys, I donated them to a charity.

A. outnumbered                      B. outworn

C. outlasted                            D. outgrew

Question 15. The song has______been selected for the 2018 World Cup, Russia.

A. office                                 B. officer

C. officially                             D. official

Question 16. Alice said: “That guy is______ gorgeous. I wish he would ask rne out.”

A. dead-centre                    B. drop shot  

C. jumped-up                      D. drop-dead

Question 17. This factory produced_______motorbikes in 2008 as in the year 2006.

A. as many as twice 

B. as twice many                    

C. twice as many       

D. as twice as many

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 18. The continental shelf (A) is the shadow area (B) of the ocean floor (C) that is closest to (D) the continents.

Question 19. She had so many (A) luggage that there was (B) not enough room (C) in the car for it.(D)

Question 20. Her application for a visa (A) was turned down (B) not only because it was incomplete (C) and incorrectly filled out but also because it was written in pencil.(D)

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 21.

A. energetic                B. epidemic 

C. initiative                 D. economic

Question 22.

A. expert                       B. mature 

C. channel                   D. secret

ĐÁP ÁN

1	2	3	4	5
C	D	A	A	A
6	7	8	9	10
A	A	B	D	B
11	12	13	14	15
D	C	B	D	C
16	17	18	19	20
D	C	D	A	C
21	22	23	24	25
C	B	B	A	B
26	27	28	29	30
D	C	D	D	B
31	32	33	34	35
B	B	C	A	C
36	37	38	39	40
C	A	B	D	D
41	42	43	44	45
B	C	D	B	C
46	47	48	49	50
B	A	A	A	C

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 1 to 8.

The world is losing languages at an alarming rate.  Michael Krauss suggested that of the approximately 6,000 human languages alive today, only 350 to 500 are safe from extinction.  Some linguists estimate that a language dies every two weeks or so.  At the current rate, by 2100, about 2,500 native languages could disappear.

Languages become extinct for many reasons.  Through imperialism, colonizers impose their languages on colonies.  Some politicians believe multilingualism will fragment national interests.  Thus they prohibit education in all but the national language.  Another reason for language death is the spread of more powerful languages.  In the world today, several languages, including English, are so dominant in commerce, science, and education, that languages with fewer speakers have trouble competing.

Although in the past, governments have been one of the primary causes of language death, many have now become champions of preserving endangered languages and have had some significant successes.  Two outstanding examples are the revival of Hebrew and Irish.  Hebrew was considered a dead language, like Latin, but is now the national language of Israel.  Irish was not dead, but severely threatened by English when the government of Ireland began its rescue immediately after the establishment of the Irish Free State in 1922.  All students in public schools must now take some classes in Irish and there are Irish programs in major media, such as television and radio. According to the Irish government, approximately 37% of the population of Ireland now speaks Irish.

One of the largest programs to revive languages, Documenting Endangered Languages (DEL), is being conducted by three U.S. government agencies: the National Science Foundation, the National Endowment for the Humanities, and the National Museum of Natural History.  Researchers funded by these agencies are recording interviews with the mostly elderly people who still speak the languages.  Analyses of these interviews will help linguists publish dictionaries and grammars of the languages.  Eventually, linguists hope to establish language-training programs where younger people can learn the languages, carrying them on into the future.

The linguists participating in DEL defend spending millions of dollars to preserve dying languages.  They point out that when a language dies, humanity loses all of the knowledge of the world that that culture held.  Traditional healers in rural areas have given scientists important leads in finding new medicines; aspirin is an example of these.  But one of the most common reasons given by these researchers is that studying languages gives us insight into the radically different way humans organize their world.  David Lightfoot, an official at the National Science foundation, gives the example of Guguyimadjir, and Australian aboriginal language, in which there are no words for “right” or left,” only for “north,” “south,” “east,” and “west.”

Many researchers are optimistic that the efforts to save dying languages will succeed, at least in part.  Bruce L. Cole, Chairman of the National Endowment for the Humanities, said, “Not only is this a time of great potential loss, it is also a moment for enormous potential gain.  In this modern age of computers and our growing technological capabilities, we can preserve, assemble, analyze, and understand unprecedented riches of linguistic and cultural information.”

Question 1: What is the best title for this passage?

A. Similarities between Engendered Species

B. Preserving Endangered Languages

C. Linguistic Globalization

D. How Languages Die and Efforts to Revive Them

Question 2: According to the passage, which language is a dead language?

A. Irish                             B. English

C. Hebrew                        D. Latin

Question 3: It can be inferred from paragraph 3 that ______.

A. It is the Governments that make the right policies on language preservation.

B. No governments can preserve languages once they have disappeared.

C. Governments are more concerned with their imperialism than language preservation.

D. Governments take education as the tool to spread their languages.

Question 4: The word “revive” in paragraph 4 mostly means _______.

A. bring in                       B. bring back 

C. regain                         D. retain

Question 5:According to the passage, what would linguists in the DEL project like to do someday?

A. Record interviews with elderly people

B. Get funding from the government

C. Teach endangered languages to young people

D. Write a dictionary and grammar for Irish

Question 6:The word “these” in paragraph 5 refers to ______.

A. dying languages

B. traditional healers

C. important leads  

D. new medicines

Question 7:David Lightfoot gives the example of Guguyimadjir in order to ______.

A. protest against spending millions of dollars to preserve dying languages

B. describe how humanity loses all of the knowledge of the world through dead languages

C. prove that languages give us insight into different ways humans organize their world

D. show how language preservation helps traditional healers in rural areas find new medicines

Question 8:How would you describe Bruce Cole’s opinion of the DEL project?

A. He thinks that we will lose the fight to save endangered languages.

B. He believes that it isn’t worth the time and energy required to save languages.

C. He believes we can save significant amounts of information about languages.

D. He thinks that we will be able to save Guguyimadjir, the aboriginal language.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 9:

A. daunt                      B. astronaut

C. vaulting                   D. aunt

Question 10:

A. clear                         B. treasure

C. spread                      D. dread

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 11:

A. leftover                    B. conical 

C. sacrifice                   D. supportive

Question 12:

A. swallow                    B. confide

C. maintain                   D. install

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 13:Harry does not eat like a horse anymore.

A. Harry used to eat like a horse.

B. Harry used to eat a horse.

C. Harry does not like a horse.

D. Harry has never eaten too much.

Question 14:“How long have you been in this job?” She asked him.

A. She asked him how long he has been in that job.

B. She asked him how long has he been in that job.

C. She asked him how long he had been in that job.

D. She asked him how long had he been in that job.

Question 15:People think that traffic congestion in the downtown area is due to the increasing number of private cars.

A. Traffic congestion in the downtown area is blamed for the increasing number of private cars.

B. The increasing number of private cars is thought to be responsible for traffic congestion in the downtown area.

C. The increasing number of private cars is attributed to traffic congestion in the downtown area.

D. Traffic congestion in the downtown area is thought to result in the increasing number of private cars.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 16:Hans told us about his investing in the company. He did it on his arrival at the meeting.

A. Only after investing in the company did Hans inform us of his arrival at the meeting.

B. Not until Hans told us that he would invest in the company did he arrive at the meeting.

C. Hardly had he informed us about his investing in the company when Hans arrived at the meeting.

D. No sooner had Hans arrived at the meeting than he told us about his investing in the company.

Question 17:William Clark was not granted the rank of captain. Captain Lewis more or less ignored this and treated Clark as his equal in authority and rank.

A. William Clark was not granted the rank of captain because Captain Lewis more or less ignored this and treated Clark as his equal in authority and rank.

B. William Clark was not granted the rank of captain, thus Captain Lewis more or less ignored this and treated Clark as his equal in authority and rank.

C. Although William Clark was not granted the rank of captain, Captain Lewis more or less ignored this and treated Clark as his equal in authority and rank.

D. As William Clark was not granted the rank of captain, Captain Lewis more or less ignored this and treated Clark as his equal in authority and rank.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 18 to 22.

We all want to live in a clean and green world and breathe pollution free air. For this kind of environment we desperately need a fossil fuel free world. Scientists are toiling hard to come up (18)______ alternative fuels which can replace conventional fuels. One such study was presented at the 237th National Meeting of the American Chemical Society. This study throws interesting light on the first economical, eco-friendly process to (19)______  algae oil into biodiesel fuel. The scientists are quite hopeful that one day America will become independent (20)______  fossil fuels. Ben Wen is the (21)______  researcher and vice president of United Environment and Energy LLC, Horseheads, N.Y. According to him, “This is the first economical way to produce biodiesel from algae oil. It costs much less than conventional processes because you would need a much smaller factory, there (22)______  no water disposal costs, and the process is considerably faster.”

Question 18:

A. to                    B. against

C. with                 D. for

Question 19:

A. adapt             B. transform

C. modify            D. alter

Question 20:

A. on                   B. from

C. with                 D. of

Question 21:

A. lead                B. top  

C. summit            D. peak

Question 22:

A. were               B. are 

C. had                 D. have

ĐÁP ÁN

1	2	3	4	5
D	D	A	B	C
6	7	8	9	10
D	C	C	D	A
11	12	13	14	15
D	A	A	C	B
16	17	18	19	20
D	C	C	B	D
21	22	23	24	25
A	B	D	B	A
26	27	28	29	30
D	B	B	C	B
31	32	33	34	35
C	D	A	C	C
36	37	38	39	40
A	A	A	B	A
41	42	43	44	45
D	C	B	A	C
46	47	48	49	50
A	B	D	C	B

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that       need correction in each of the following questions

Question 1: Many hundred years ago , there were many villages and little towns in  England.

A. ago B. were            C. little            D. in

Question 2: Alike light waves , microwaves may be reflected and concentrated elements.

A. Alike          B. waves         C. may be        D. concentrated

Question 3: Many successful film directions are former actors who desire to expand their experience in the film industry.

A. successful   B. film directions        C. former        D. expand

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Although the “lie detectors” are being used by governments, police departments, and businesses that all want guaranteed ways of detecting the truth, the results are not always accurate. Lie detectors are properly called emotion detectors, for their aim is to measure bodily changes that contradict what a person says. The polygraph machine records changes in heart rate, breathing, blood pressure, and the electrical activity of the skin (galvanic skin response, or GSR). In the first part of the polygraph test, you are electronically connected to the machine and asked a few neutral questions (“What is your name?”, “Where do you live?”). Your physical reactions serve as the standard (baseline) for evaluating what comes next. Then you are asked a few critical questions among the neutral ones (“When did you rob the bank?”). The assumption is that if you are guilty, your body will reveal the truth, even if you try to deny it. Your heart rate, respiration, and GSR will change abruptly as you respond to the incriminating questions.

That is the theory; but psychologists have found that lie detectors are simply not reliable. Since most physical changes are the same across all emotions, machines cannot tell whether you are feeling guilty, angry, nervous, thrilled, or revved up form an exciting day. Innocent people may be tense and nervous about the whole procedure. They may react physiologically to a certain word (“bank”) not because they robbed it, but because they recently bounced a check. In either case the machine will record a “lie”. The reverse mistake is also common. Some practiced liars can lie without flinching, and others learn to beat the machine by tensing muscles or thinking about an exciting experience during neutral questions.

Question 4: What is the main idea of this passage?

A. Lie detectors distinguish different emotions

B. Physical reaction reveal guilty

C. Lie detectors make innocent people nervous

D. How lie detectors are used and their reliability

Question 5: According to the test, polygraph            .

A. measure a person’s thoughts          B. always reveal the truth about a person

C. make guilty people angry   D. record a person’s physical reactions

Question 6: According to the passage, what kind of questions is asked on the first part of the polygraph test?

A. incriminating          B. critical         C. emotional   D. unimportant

Question 7: The word “ones” in paragraph 1 refers to          .

A. questions    B. reactions     C. standards    D. evaluations

Question 8: The word “it” in paragraph 1 refers to    .

A. the question            B. your body   C. the assumption       D. the truth

Question 9: The word “assumption” in paragraph 1 could best be replaced with    .

A. belief          B. faith            C. statement    D. imagining

Question 10: This passage was probably written by a specialist in    .

A. sociology    B. anthropology          C. criminal psychology D. mind reading

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to the following questions

Question 11: The 26th Annual Meeting of the Asia-Pacific Parliamentary Forum (APPF)

            in Hanoi, our beautiful and peaceful capital city, from January 18th to 21st, 2018

A. was held     B. is held                     C. is being held           D. will be held

Question 12: The Meeting of Women Parliamentarians, a part of APPF-26, contributed to strengthening  the presence and   of women parliamentarians and helping to forge a network connecting them together.

A. influenced  B. influencing C. influence    D. influential

Question 13: National Assembly Chairwoman Nguyen Thi Kim Ngan said that     , a large number of women and girls in various areas in the world are being discriminated and subjected to violence.

A. though positive outcomes in gender equality and women empowerment

B. despite of positive outcomes in gender equality and women empowerment

C. in spite positive outcomes in gender equality and women empowerment

D. in spite of positive outcomes in gender equality and women empowerment

Question 14: In the quarter-final showdown with Malaysia, Cho Jae-wan (Korea Republic) wrote himself into the history books when he found the back of the net just 11.35 seconds into the game – the second    goal in any AFC tournament.

A. latest           B. worst          C. best D. fastest

Question 15: Bob was absent; he sick again.

A. shouldn’t have been           B. mustn’t have been

C. must have been      D. should have been

Question 16: Could you         me a lift into town?

A. give            B. get  C. do   D. make

Question 17: The lack of family support and the committee’s concerns around the design of the proposed statue of the former British Prime Minister, Margaret Thatcher, outside UK Parliament were the key determining factors in             this application.

A. breaking up            B. turning down          C. taking off   D. putting up

Question 18:  I think  we’ve come in  for a lot of                  about the impatience of some shop assistants.

A. compliments           B. problems     C. complaints  D. criticism

Question 19: Britain’s Prime Minister Theresa May was the first world leader         Trump at the White House after his inauguration last year.

A. visited        B. visiting                    C. visit            D. to visit

Question 20: South African anti-apartheid veteran Winnie Madikizela-Mandela, ex-wife of late President Nelson Mandela,         in and out of hospital since 2016 for back and knee surgery.

A. has been being        B. has been      C. was D. had been

ĐÁP ÁN

1-C	2-A	3-B	4-D	5-D	6-D	7-A	8-D	9-A	10-C
11-A	12-C	13-D	14-D	15-C	16-A	17-B	18-C	19-D	20-B
21-A	22-D	23-A	24-B	25-B	26-C	27-C	28-A	29-A	30-C
31-B	32-C	33-B	34-A	35-C	36-A	37-C	38-A	39-B	40-D
41-D	42-B	43-C	44-B	45-B	46-B	47-A	48-D	49-D	50-A

Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.

Question 1:	A. deleted	B.  started	C.  retarded	D.  stopped
Question 2:	A. think	B.  thank	C.  that	D.  three

Pick out the word that has the primary stress different from that of the other words.

Question 3:	A. advise	B.  parent	C.  apply	D.  attract
Question 4:	A. academic	B.  necessity	C.  authority	D.  commercially

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that

needs correction in each of the following questions

Question 5: Halley‟s comet, viewing through a telescope, was quite impressive. 

            A. viewing      B.  through      C.  quite          D.  impressive

Question 6: There are a car and two vans in front of  my house.

            A. are  B.  a car           C.  two vans    D.  in front of 

Question 7: All her children have graduated from university, that is the reason for her to be prou  D.

            A. All her        B.  from           C.  that            D.  for her

Choose the most suitable words or phrases to fill in the blanks.

Question 8: The more you practise your English, _______.

            A. Faster you learn.                 C.  the faster will you learn.

            B.   You will learn faster.        D.  the faster you will learn.

Question 9: Mrs. Brown was the first owner _______  dog won 3 prizes in the same show.

            A. whose         B.  her             C.  who           D.  whom

Question 10: If she _______   a car, she would go out in the evening.

            A. have            B.  has             C.  has had      D.  had

Question 11: You are old enough. I think it is high time you applied _______  a job.

            A. in    B.  of               C.  for             D.  upon

Question 12: Because of the_______ of hospital employees at the hospital, the head of administration began advertising job openings in the newspaper.

            A. short           B.  shorter       C.  shorten      D.  shortage

Question 13: Friendship is a two-sided_______  , it lives by give-and-take.

            A. affair          B.  event          C.  aspect        D.  feature

Question 14: “Do you _______  your new roommate, or do you two argue?”

            A. keep in touch with                         C.  on good term with

            B.   get along with                  D.  get used to

Question 15: The majority of Asian students reject the American _______ that marriage is a partnership of equals.

            A. attitude       B.  thought      C.  view          D.  look

Question 16: Bob has a bad lung cancer and his doctor has advised him to _______   smoking.

            A. put up         B.  give up       C.  take up      D.  turn up

Question 17: According to FAO, Vietnam is _______  second largest coffee producer in the world after Brazil.

            A. a     B.  0    C.  an              D.  the

Question 18: When she came home from school yesterday, her mother _______  in the kitchen.

            A. cooked       B.  was cooking          C.  is cooking              D.  cooks

Question 19: We were made _______ hard when we were at school.

            A. to study      B.  study         C.  studying    D.  studied

ĐÁP ÁN

1-D	2-C	3-B	4-A	5-A	6-A	7-C	8-D	9-A	10-D
11-C	12-D	13-A	14-B	15-C	16-B	17-D	18-B	19-A	20-B
21-A	22-A	23-D	24-B	25-C	26-A	27-B	28-B	29-B	30-C
31-B	32-B	33-B	34-A	35-A	36-C	37-B	38-D	39-D	40-B
41-D	42-B	43-A	44-B	45-B	46-A	47-A	48-D	49-C	50-D

---

Trên đây là một phần trích đoạn nội dung Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG năm 2021 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THPT Thuận Hóa Lần 2. Để xem thêm nhiều tài liệu tham khảo hữu ích khác các em chọn chức năng xem online hoặc đăng nhập vào trang hoc247.net để tải tài liệu về máy tính.

Hy vọng tài liệu này sẽ giúp các em học sinh ôn tập tốt và đạt thành tích cao trong học tập.

Mời các em tham khảo tài liệu liên quan khác:

• Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG năm 2021 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THPT Cao Thắng Lần 2
• Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG năm 2021 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THPT Nguyễn Trường Tộ Lần 2

Chúc các em học tập tốt!