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Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG năm 2021-2022 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THPT Trần Quang Khải

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Mời quý thầy, cô giáo và các em học sinh lớp 12 tham khảo nội dung tài liệu Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG năm 2021-2022 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THPT Trần Quang Khải được biên soạn bởi HOC247 với phần đề và đáp án, lời giải chi tiết giúp các em tự luyện tập làm đề chuẩn bị thật kĩ trước kì thi THPT Quốc gia sắp tới.

Hi vọng tài liệu này sẽ có ích cho các em, chúc các em có kết quả học tập tốt!

ATNETWORK

TRƯỜNG THPT TRẦN QUANG KHẢI

ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM HỌC 2021-2022

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH

(Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút)

1. Đề số 1

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 1. Only their own mother can tell Simon and Mike apart.

A. No one other than their own mother can separate Simon and Mike.

B. Simon and Mike bear some resemblance to each other.

C. It's very difficult to distinguish Simon and Mike.

D. Except for their own mother, no one can talk to Simon and Mike.

Question 2. "How beautiful is the dress you have just bought!" Peter said to Mary.

A. Peter promised to buy Mary a beautiful dress.

B. Peter said thanks to Mary for her beautiful dress.

C. Peter asked Mary how she had just bought her beautiful dress.

D. Peter complimented Mary on her beautiful dress.

Question 3. Those who are riding a motorbike are not allowed to take off their helmet.

A. People must never take their helmet off while they are riding a motorbike.

B. Those who are wearing a helmet are not allowed to ride a motorbike.

C. It is the helmet that one needn't wear when he is riding a motorbike

D. You should not wear a helmet when you are riding a motorbike.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 4. Exemplification is always necessary when you are addressing a younger audience.

A. illustration

B. variation 

C. simplification

D. exaggeration

Question 5. When heated to temperatures above 1250 degrees Centigrade, clay fuses and becomes pottery or stoneware.

A. melts together

B. steams up

C. breaks down

D. burns off

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 6. Steve______his chances of passing by spending too much time on the first question.

A. threw away

B. threw in 

C. threw off

D. threw out

Question 7. By the time Brown's daughter graduates,_______retired.

A. he'll have 

B. he 

C. he'll being 

D. he has

Question 8. Nobody likes his behavior,______?

A. doesn’t he

B. do they  

C. don't they

D. does he

Question 9. ______ ten minutes earlier, you would have got a better seat.

A. Were you arrived

B. If you arrived

C. If you hadn't arrived

D. Had you arrived

Question 10. After congratulating his team, the coach left, allowing the players to let their ______ down for a while.

A. hearts

B. hair 

C. souls

D. heads

Question 11. Extinction means a situation ______ a plant, an animal or a way of life stops existing.

A. to which

B. for which

C. on which

D. in which

Question 12. Making mistake is all ________ of growing up.

A. bits and bobs

B. odds and ends

C. part and parcel

D. top and bottom

Question 13. The judge ______ murderer to a lifetime imprisonment.

A. prosecuted                         

B. sentenced 

C. convicted                          

D. accused

Question 14. When my children _____  their toys, I donated them to a charity.

A. outnumbered

B. outworn

C. outlasted

D. outgrew

Question 15. The song has______been selected for the 2018 World Cup, Russia.

A. office

B. officer

C. officially 

D. official

Question 16. Alice said: “That guy is______ gorgeous. I wish he would ask rne out.”

A. dead-centre

B. drop shot  

C. jumped-up

D. drop-dead

Question 17. This factory produced_______motorbikes in 2008 as in the year 2006.

A. as many as twice 

B. as twice many                    

C. twice as many       

D. as twice as many

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 18. The continental shelf (A) is the shadow area (B) of the ocean floor (C) that is closest to (D) the continents.

Question 19. She had so many (A) luggage that there was (B) not enough room (C) in the car for it.(D)

Question 20. Her application for a visa (A) was turned down (B) not only because it was incomplete (C) and incorrectly filled out but also because it was written in pencil.(D)

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 21. A. energetic      B. epidemic     C. initiative     D. economic

Question 22. A. expert           B. mature        C. channel     D. secret

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 23 to 30.

The Forbidden City is the former imperial palace in the center of Beijing, China. Construction began in 1406, and the emperor's court officially moved in by 1420. The Forbidden City got its name because most people were barred from entering the 72-hectare site, surrounded by walls. Even government officials and the imperial family were permitted only limited access. Only the emperor could enter any section at will.

The architecture of the Forbidden City conforms rigidly to traditional Chinese principles. All buildings within the walls follow a north-south line and the most important ones face south to honor the sun. The designers arranged the other buildings, and the ceremonial spaces between them, to impress all visitors with the great power of the Emperor, while reinforcing the insignificance of the individual. This architectural concept was carried out to the smallest detail. For example, the importance of a building was determined not only by its height or width but also by the style of its roof and the quantity of statuettes placed on the roof’s ridges.

In recognition of the importance of its unparalleled architecture, UNESCO added the palace to its World Heritage List in 1987. Today, visitors from all over the world do not wait for an imperial invitation to walk about this palace, now a museum of imperial art.

One of the most impressive landmarks of the Forbidden City is the Meridian Gate, the formal entrance to the southern side of the Forbidden City. The gate, with its auxiliary wings on either side of the entryway, is 38 meters high at its roof ridge. When you stand in front of this majestic structure, you understand how awed people felt when they stood there listening to imperial proclamations.

As you walk through the gate, you come into a large courtyard, 140 meters long and 210 meters wide. Running through the courtyard is the Golden River, which is crossed by five parallel white marble bridges. These bridges lead to the Gate of Supreme Harmony, which, in turn, leads to the heart of the Forbidden City. At the northernmost end of the Forbidden City is the Imperial Garden, which is totally different from the rest of the compound. Instead of rigid formality, you see a seemingly spontaneous arrangement of trees, fishponds, flowerbeds, and sculpture. Here is the place of relaxation for the emperor.

Question 23. According to the passage, what do the bridges over the Golden River lead to?

A. The Meridian gate 

B. The Gate of Supreme Harmony

C. The Imperial Gardens  

D. The center of Beijing

Question 24. Which phrase is closest in meaning to the word 'unparalleled' as used in paragraph 3?

A. high quality found nowhere else

B. at an angle from the main line

C. careless of small details in design 

D. partially designed in a foreign country

Question 25. From the passage, it is implied that the main entrance area to the Forbidden City is 

A. not very impressive

B. surrounded by three tall walls

C. decorated with statuettes

D. painted gold and green

Question 26. Which word(s) does the word 'its' refer to in paragraph 3?

A. Architecture

B. World Heritage List

C. Palace 

D. UNESCO

Question 27. Which word or phrase is closest in meaning to the word "spontaneous"?

A. Without thinking

B. Unique 

C. Without planning

D. Strange

Question 28. From the passage, it can be inferred that

A. Chinese architects borrowed ideas from many different countries

B. the garden of the Forbidden City was laid out in a strict, rectangular pattern.

C. the design of the Forbidden City is dull and colorless.

D. the architecture of the Forbidden City exemplifies traditional Chinese values.

Question 29. Which phrase is closest in meaning to the word “proclamations”?

A. Poetry written for the emperor.

B. Music composed for public ceremonies.

C. Speeches encouraging soldiers to fight.

D. Official public announcements.

Question 30. Which sentence in the first paragraph explains who could go anywhere in the Forbidden City at any time?

A. Sentence 2

B. Sentence 5

C. Sentence 4

D. Sentence 3

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 37.

People have been donating blood since the early twentieth century to help accident victims and patients undergoing surgical procedures. Usually a pint of whole blood is donated, and it is then divided into platelets, white blood cells, and red blood cells. People can donate blood (for red blood cells) about once every two months. Transfusing the blood from the donor to the recipient is straightforward. It involves taking the blood from a donor’s arm vein by means of a hypodermic syringe. The blood flows through a plastic tube to a collection bag or bottle that contains sodium citrate, which prevents the blood from clotting. When the blood is given to a patient, a plastic tube and hypodermic needle are connected to the recipient's arm. The blood flows down from the container by gravity. This is a slow process and may last as long as 2 hours to complete the infusion of blood into the recipient. The patient is protected from being infected during the transfusion. Only sterile containers, tubing, and needles are used, and this helps ensure that transfused or stored blood is not exposed to disease causing bacteria. Negative reactions to transfusions are not unusual. The recipient may suffer an allergic reaction or be sensitive to donor leukocytes. Some may suffer from an undetected red cell incompatibility. Unexplained reactions are also fairly common. Although they are rare, other causes of such negative reactions include contaminated blood, air bubbles in the blood, overloading of the circulatory system through administration of excess blood, or sensitivity to donor plasma or platelets. Today, hospitals and blood banks go to great lengths to screen alt blood donors and their blood. All donated blood is routinely and rigorously tested for diseases, such as HIV, hepatitis B, and syphilis. When the recipient is a newborn or an infant, the blood is usually irradiated to eliminate harmful elements. Donated blood is washed, and the white blood cells and platelets removed. Storing the blood sometimes requires a freezing process. To freeze the red blood cells, a glycerol solution is added. To unfreeze the, the glycerolis removed. The ability to store blood for long periods has been a boon to human health.

Question 31. All of the following are mentioned as potential negative reactions to transfusion EXCEPT

A. Sensitivity to donor leukocytes

B. Air bubbles in the blood

C. Allergies

D. Red-cell incompatibility

Question 32. What can the phrase "go to great length" best replaced by?

A. irradiated

B. rigorously              

C. routinely                

D. removed

Question 33. According to the passage, how often can people donate blood for red blood cells?

A. Every four months

B. Every three month

C. Every two months

D. Every month

Question 34. Based on the information in the passage, what can be inferred about blood transfused to infants and newborns?

A. It is treated with radiant energy.                          

B. It is not treated differently from adults.

C. It is not dangerous for children.                           

D. It is rigorously tested as blood for adults.

Question 35. The word "it" refers to

A. surgical procedures

B. accident victims    

C. a pint of whole blood        

D. surgery patients

Question 36. What answer choice is closest in meaning to the word “undetected”?

A. not illustrated                    

B. not captured          

C. not found                          

D. not wanted

Question 37. What does the author imply in the passage?

A. Motoring blood benefits mankind.                                   

B. Clotting cannot be prevented.

C. Freezing blood destroys platelets.                        

D. Transfusing blood is a dangerous process.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 38 to 42.

Working as a novelist is not really a career like being a doctor or a scientist. Although a fewwell-known ones, like Harry Potter author J. K. Rowling, have become wealthy, most writers find it difficult even to make a living from their book sales. Novels take a long time towrite, and authors can get into financial (38) _____ if they don’t have money coming in regularly from another job. But for those determined to write novels, it is without (39)______ one of the most enjoyable kinds of work to do. The writer has to be creative, thinking up completely new stories, and (40) _____, meaning they put all their time and effort into their work. They also need to be able to cope in a crisis, as nobody else can write their book for them. For this, a good sense of (41)______ often helps. Or the thought that maybe their novel might one day be turned into a film and become a Hollywood (42) _____!

Question 38. A. problem

B. trouble

C. upset

D. worry

Question 39. A. difficulty

B. suspicion

C. thinking

D. doubt

Question 40. A. deliberate

B. delivered 

C. decided

D. dedicated

Question 41. A. hoping

B. humor

C. smiling

D. joking

Question 42. A. best-seller

B. attraction

C. blockbuster 

D. victory

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 43. The situation seems to be changing minute by minute.

A. from time to time

B. time after time       

C. again and again

D. very slowly

Question 44. Jose had a hard time comparing the iPhone to the Samsung phone because to him they were apples and oranges.

A. containing too many technical details                   

B. very similar

C. completely different                                             

D. very complicated

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 45. Liz and Laura is going shopping together.

Liz: "Look! This sweater is beautiful."

Laura: “______?”

A. Why not trying it on                                 

B. Why not trying on it          

C. Why not try it on                                      

D. Why not try on it

Question 46. Anna is seeing Bill off at the airport.

Anna: "_______"

Bill: "I will."

A. I'll miss you much.                                    

B. Give my best wishes to your parents.

C. Have a nice trip!                                        

D. Wish you a happy journey.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 47. A. promised                  B. conserved      C. destroyed      D. proposed

Question 48. A. champagne               B. chaos           C. scheme           D. chemist

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49. The government knows the extent of the problem. The government needs to take action soon.

A. Knowing the extent of the problem, the government needs to take action soon.

B. The government knows the extent of the problem whereas it needs to take action soon.

C. The government knows the extent of the problem so that it needs to take action soon.

D. The government knows the extent of the problem or else it needs to take action soon.

Question 50. He didn't notice anything. We might have been in trouble otherwise.

A. If he noticed anything, we would be in trouble.

B. If he hadn't noticed anything, we couldn't have been in trouble.

C. If he had noticed anything, we could have been in trouble.

D. If he noticed anything, we could have been in trouble.

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 1

1

2

3

4

5

C

D

A

A

A

6

7

8

9

10

A

A

B

D

B

11

12

13

14

15

D

C

B

D

C

16

17

18

19

20

D

C

D

A

C

21

22

23

24

25

C

B

B

A

B

26

27

28

29

30

D

C

D

D

B

31

32

33

34

35

B

B

C

A

C

36

37

38

39

40

C

A

B

D

D

41

42

43

44

45

B

C

D

B

C

46

47

48

49

50

B

A

A

A

C

2. Đề số 2

ĐỀ THI THPT QG MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT TRẦN QUANG KHẢI- ĐỀ 02

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1A. attained

B. resolved

C. disused

D. decreased

Question 2A. dream

B. mean

C. peace

D. steady

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3A. career

B. prospect

C. effort

D. labour

Question 4A. obedient

B. decision

C. mischievous

D. biologist

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5. It is impossible for him to be financially independent at such an early age, _______?

     A. isn't it       B. is it           C. doesn't he      D. does he

Question 6. We can’t go along here because the road _______.

     A. is repairing      B. is repaired     C. is being repaired         D. repairs

Question 7. He harbors a deep resentment _______ his parents for his miserable childhood.

     A. on         B. from        C. for       D. against

Question 8. The more manufacturers advise, _______ they sell.

     A. the most products

     B. the products more

     C. the more products

     D. most products

Question 9. Her husband bought her a______ scarf when he went on holiday in Singapore last week.

     A. beautiful silk yellow

     B. beautiful yellow silk

     C. yellow silk beautiful

     D. yellow beautiful silk

Question 10. He had a bad fall while he ______ his roof.

     A. was repairing      B. repaired        C. repairs     D. will repair

Question 11. The new supermarket is so much cheaper than the one in John Street. _______, they do free home deliveries.

     A. Moreover     B. Consequently    C. Nevertheless     D. Instead

Question 12. By the time the software _______ on sale next month, the company ______ $2 million on developing it.

     A. went – had spent

     B. will go – has spent     

     C. has gone – will spend

     D. goes – will have spent

Question 13. _______ the age of 21, he was able to gamble in Las Vegas.

     A. When reached            B. Reached       C. As reaching      D. Upon reaching

Question 14. Both inventors and engineers look for ways to improve things in areas like health, food, safety, transportation, aerospace, electronics, _______, and the environment.

     A. communication       B. communicative     C. communicator      D. communicating

Question 15. I try to be friendly but it is hard to _______ some of my colleagues.

     A. get on with      B. watch out for     C. come up with     D. stand in for

Question 16. Most people are interested in _______ about famous celebrities, which is why tabloid magazines still exist.

     A. juicy chatter     B. juicy gossip           C. gossip freely       D. juicy talk

Question 17. Union leaders feel it is time Cabinet Ministers put their _______ on the table regarding their long-term plans.

     A. cards     B. hands          C. feet     D. papers

Question 18. There’s no need for you to try to _______ an argument with him. You need to calm down or your relationship will get worse.

     A. win        B. beat        C. defeat                D. gain

Question 19. Does television adequately reflect the ethnic and cultural _______ of the country.

     A. custom          B. diversity      C. alternation                  D. minority

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20. It is firmly believed that books are a primary means for disseminating knowledge and information.

     A. inventing                    B. distributing                 C. classifying                  D. adapting

Question 21. The amount spent on defense is in sharp contrast to that spent on housing and health.

     A. blare    B. flask     C. stark         D. spark

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22. Today, illegal hunting still threatens many species, especially large mammals such as tigers, rhinoceros, bears and even primates.

     A. allowed by law 

     B. forbidden by law

     C. introducing a law

     D. imposing a law

Question 23. Tom was too wet behind the ears to be in charge of such a difficult task.

     A. full of experience

     B. lack of responsibility

     C. without money

     D. full of sincerity

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 24Two friends Diana and Anne are talking about their upcoming exams.

- Diana: “Our midterm exams will start next Tuesday, are you ready?”

- Anne: “_______”.

     A. I’m half ready. 

     B. God save you.

     C. Thank you so much

     D. Don’t mention it!

Question 25Two neighbors are talking to each other about their work.

- Sanji: "I'm taking a break from my gardening. There seems to be no end to the amount of work I have to do."

- Nico: “_______”

     A. I do, too.

     B. Not at all

     C. I'm glad I'm not in your shoes.

     D. There's no doubt about that.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each the numbered blanks.

In an educational context, the term ‘learner independence’ has gained increasing importance in recent years. It is of particular (26) _______ to language learning and commonly refers to the way students confidently control and organise their own language learning process. While some people seem to have an almost instinctive flaw for languages, (27) _______ have to rely on strategies to maximise their skills and learn a foreign language more effectively.

The main thing to remember is that becoming a truly independent learner ultimately depends above all on taking responsibility for your own learning and being prepared to take every opportunity available to you to learn. You also increase your chances of (28) _______ by learning according to your own needs and interests, using all available resources. Research shows that learners (29) _______ adopt this approach will undoubtedly manage to broaden their language abilities considerably and, (30) _______,  are mote likely to achieve their objectives in the longer term.

(Adapted from “Complete Advanced” by Laura Mathews and Barbara Thomas)

Question 26A. resemblance B. acceptance C. relevance D. acquaintance
Question 27A. each B. every C. others D. Few
Question 28A. interest B. failure C. suspicision D. success
Question 29A. who B. why C. which D. where
Question 30A. though B. as a result C. because D. in contrast

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the question.

The generation gap that was so in evidence during the 60s has resurfaced, but it is not the disruptive force that it was during the Vietnam era, a 2009 study suggests. The Pew Research Center study found that 79% of Americans see major differences between younger and older adults in the way they look at the world. In 1969, a Gallup Poll found that a smaller percentage, 74%, perceived major differences.

Today, however, although more Americans see generational differences, most do not see them as divisive. That is partly because of the areas of difference. The top areas of disagreement between young and old, according to the Pew Research Study, are the use of technology and taste in music. Grandparents are likely to have observed these differences in their grandchildren who are tweens, teens, and young adults.

If large differences between the generations exist, why don't they spawn conflict? The answer is twofold.

First, the two largest areas of difference—technology and music—are less emotionally charged than political issues. The older generation is likely to be proud of the younger generation's prowess in technology rather than to view it as a problem. As for the musical differences, each generation wants its own style of music, and the older generation generally can relate to that desire.

Second, in the other areas of difference, the younger generation tends to regard the older generation as superior to their own generation—clearly a difference from the 1960s with its rallying cry of "Don't trust anyone over thirty." According to the Pew study, all generations regard older Americans as superior in moral values, work ethic and respect for others.

(Adapted from www.verywellfamily.com)

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ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 2

1. D

6. C

11. A

16. B

21. C

26. C

31. A

36. D

41. A

46. C

2. D

7. D

12. D

17. A

22. A

27. C

32. D

37. A

42. B

47. A

3. A

8. C

13. D

18. A

23. A

28. D

33. C

38. A

43. A

48. B

4. C

9. B

14. A

19. B

24. A

29. A

34. B

39. D

44. B

49. A

5. A

10. A

15. A

20. B

25. C

30. B

35. C

40. A

45. B

50. D

3. Đề số 3

ĐỀ THI THPT QG MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT TRẦN QUANG KHẢI- ĐỀ 03

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 1 to 8.

The world is losing languages at an alarming rate.  Michael Krauss suggested that of the approximately 6,000 human languages alive today, only 350 to 500 are safe from extinction.  Some linguists estimate that a language dies every two weeks or so.  At the current rate, by 2100, about 2,500 native languages could disappear.

Languages become extinct for many reasons.  Through imperialism, colonizers impose their languages on colonies.  Some politicians believe multilingualism will fragment national interests.  Thus they prohibit education in all but the national language.  Another reason for language death is the spread of more powerful languages.  In the world today, several languages, including English, are so dominant in commerce, science, and education, that languages with fewer speakers have trouble competing.

Although in the past, governments have been one of the primary causes of language death, many have now become champions of preserving endangered languages and have had some significant successes.  Two outstanding examples are the revival of Hebrew and Irish.  Hebrew was considered a dead language, like Latin, but is now the national language of Israel.  Irish was not dead, but severely threatened by English when the government of Ireland began its rescue immediately after the establishment of the Irish Free State in 1922.  All students in public schools must now take some classes in Irish and there are Irish programs in major media, such as television and radio. According to the Irish government, approximately 37% of the population of Ireland now speaks Irish.

One of the largest programs to revive languages, Documenting Endangered Languages (DEL), is being conducted by three U.S. government agencies: the National Science Foundation, the National Endowment for the Humanities, and the National Museum of Natural History.  Researchers funded by these agencies are recording interviews with the mostly elderly people who still speak the languages.  Analyses of these interviews will help linguists publish dictionaries and grammars of the languages.  Eventually, linguists hope to establish language-training programs where younger people can learn the languages, carrying them on into the future.

The linguists participating in DEL defend spending millions of dollars to preserve dying languages.  They point out that when a language dies, humanity loses all of the knowledge of the world that that culture held.  Traditional healers in rural areas have given scientists important leads in finding new medicines; aspirin is an example of these.  But one of the most common reasons given by these researchers is that studying languages gives us insight into the radically different way humans organize their world.  David Lightfoot, an official at the National Science foundation, gives the example of Guguyimadjir, and Australian aboriginal language, in which there are no words for “right” or left,” only for “north,” “south,” “east,” and “west.”

Many researchers are optimistic that the efforts to save dying languages will succeed, at least in part.  Bruce L. Cole, Chairman of the National Endowment for the Humanities, said, “Not only is this a time of great potential loss, it is also a moment for enormous potential gain.  In this modern age of computers and our growing technological capabilities, we can preserve, assemble, analyze, and understand unprecedented riches of linguistic and cultural information.”

Question 1: What is the best title for this passage?

A. Similarities between Engendered Species

B. Preserving Endangered Languages

C. Linguistic Globalization

D. How Languages Die and Efforts to Revive Them

Question 2: According to the passage, which language is a dead language?

A. Irish          B. English      C. Hebrew     D. Latin

Question 3: It can be inferred from paragraph 3 that ______.

A. It is the Governments that make the right policies on language preservation.

B. No governments can preserve languages once they have disappeared.

C. Governments are more concerned with their imperialism than language preservation.

D. Governments take education as the tool to spread their languages.

Question 4: The word “revive” in paragraph 4 mostly means _______.

A. bring in      B. bring back     C. regain         D. retain

Question 5:According to the passage, what would linguists in the DEL project like to do someday?

A. Record interviews with elderly people

B. Get funding from the government

C. Teach endangered languages to young people

D. Write a dictionary and grammar for Irish

Question 6:The word “these” in paragraph 5 refers to ______.

A. dying languages

B. traditional healers

C. important leads  

D. new medicines

Question 7:David Lightfoot gives the example of Guguyimadjir in order to ______.

A. protest against spending millions of dollars to preserve dying languages

B. describe how humanity loses all of the knowledge of the world through dead languages

C. prove that languages give us insight into different ways humans organize their world

D. show how language preservation helps traditional healers in rural areas find new medicines

Question 8:How would you describe Bruce Cole’s opinion of the DEL project?

A. He thinks that we will lose the fight to save endangered languages.

B. He believes that it isn’t worth the time and energy required to save languages.

C. He believes we can save significant amounts of information about languages.

D. He thinks that we will be able to save Guguyimadjir, the aboriginal language.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 9: A. daunt      B. astronaut     C. vaulting        D. aunt

Question 10: A. clear     B. treasure       C. spread          D. dread

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 11: A. leftover         B. conical      C. sacrifice      D. supportive

Question 12: A. swallow         B. confide     C. maintain     D. install

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 13:Harry does not eat like a horse anymore.

A. Harry used to eat like a horse.

B. Harry used to eat a horse.

C. Harry does not like a horse.

D. Harry has never eaten too much.

Question 14:“How long have you been in this job?” She asked him.

A. She asked him how long he has been in that job.

B. She asked him how long has he been in that job.

C. She asked him how long he had been in that job.

D. She asked him how long had he been in that job.

Question 15:People think that traffic congestion in the downtown area is due to the increasing number of private cars.

A. Traffic congestion in the downtown area is blamed for the increasing number of private cars.

B. The increasing number of private cars is thought to be responsible for traffic congestion in the downtown area.

C. The increasing number of private cars is attributed to traffic congestion in the downtown area.

D. Traffic congestion in the downtown area is thought to result in the increasing number of private cars.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 16:Hans told us about his investing in the company. He did it on his arrival at the meeting.

A. Only after investing in the company did Hans inform us of his arrival at the meeting.

B. Not until Hans told us that he would invest in the company did he arrive at the meeting.

C. Hardly had he informed us about his investing in the company when Hans arrived at the meeting.

D. No sooner had Hans arrived at the meeting than he told us about his investing in the company.

Question 17:William Clark was not granted the rank of captain. Captain Lewis more or less ignored this and treated Clark as his equal in authority and rank.

A. William Clark was not granted the rank of captain because Captain Lewis more or less ignored this and treated Clark as his equal in authority and rank.

B. William Clark was not granted the rank of captain, thus Captain Lewis more or less ignored this and treated Clark as his equal in authority and rank.

C. Although William Clark was not granted the rank of captain, Captain Lewis more or less ignored this and treated Clark as his equal in authority and rank.

D. As William Clark was not granted the rank of captain, Captain Lewis more or less ignored this and treated Clark as his equal in authority and rank.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 18 to 22.

We all want to live in a clean and green world and breathe pollution free air. For this kind of environment we desperately need a fossil fuel free world. Scientists are toiling hard to come up (18)______ alternative fuels which can replace conventional fuels. One such study was presented at the 237th National Meeting of the American Chemical Society. This study throws interesting light on the first economical, eco-friendly process to (19)______  algae oil into biodiesel fuel. The scientists are quite hopeful that one day America will become independent (20)______  fossil fuels. Ben Wen is the (21)______  researcher and vice president of United Environment and Energy LLC, Horseheads, N.Y. According to him, “This is the first economical way to produce biodiesel from algae oil. It costs much less than conventional processes because you would need a much smaller factory, there (22)______  no water disposal costs, and the process is considerably faster.”

Question 18: A. to B. against C. with D. for
Question 19: A. adapt B. transform C. modify D. alter
Question 20: A. on B. from C. with D. of
Question 21: A. lead B. top C. summit D. peak
Question 22: A. were B. are C. had D. have

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 23:The movie tried something new(A) combining ruthless (B) violence and (C) quick-witted humor and philosophy (D) reflection.

Question 24:Historically(A) it was the 3rd Asian Games (B) in Japan that (C) tennis, volleyball, table tennis and hockey were (D) added.

Question 25:Though formally (A) close friends, they have now been estranged (B) from each other (C) due to some regrettable misunderstandings(D)

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 26:There has been little rain in this area for too long, ______?

A. has it                       B. has there 

C. hasn’t it                    D. hasn’t there

Question 27:John was deported on account of his expired visa. He ______ it renewed.

A. must have had       

B. should have had                

C. can have had                     

D. might have had

Question 28:Project-based learning provides wonderful opportunities for students to develop their ______.

A. creative                   B. creativity

C. create                      D. creatively

Question 29:Businesses will not survive ______ they satisfy their customers.

A. or else                     B. in case

C. unless                      D. if

Question 30:The villagers are not sure how they are going to get ______ another hard and cold winter.

A. by                           B. on

C. round                      D. through

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ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 3

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4. Đề số 4

ĐỀ THI THPT QG MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT TRẦN QUANG KHẢI- ĐỀ 04

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE  in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following question.

Question 1: The mountainous region of the country is thinly populated. It has only 300 inhabitants.

A. sparsely

B. greatly

C. densely

D. largely

Question 2: Josh may get into hot water when driving at full speed after drinking.

A. get into trouble                  

B. stay safe                

C. fall into disuse       

D. remain calm

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following question.

Question 3: This company's new products have tripled its profits in only one year.

A. The company has greatly increased the number of new products.

B. The company has increased its profits 100 percent

C. The company’s profits are three times higher this year than last year.

D. The company has had an unprofitable year.

Question 4: Viet Nam carried out an intensive training program for its athletes, but the results were not as high as expected.

A. There is no expectation for Vietnamese athletes to win due to lack of training.

B. Whereas Vietnamese athletes were intensively trained, their performance was below expectation.

C. Vietnamese athletes were intensively trained carefully, and they won all the matches.

D. It might not be possible for Vietnamese athletes to get good results because their training was not careful.

Question 5: Though he had known about it well in advance, he pretended to be surprised at having a birthday party.

A. He acted surprised about being given a birthday party, but he had known about it a long time before

B. Despite only pretending to be surprised at the birthday party, he had actually been completely unaware of it.

C. He knew about the birthday party a long time before, yet he wasn't pretending when he acted surprised.

D. He was quite surprised at their throwing him a birthday party, though he could have found out it well before.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 6: Smallpox is a dangerous disease. Malaria is a dangerous disease.

A. Smallpox is a dangerous disease, and so is malaria.

B. Malaria is a dangerous disease, but smallpox is not.

C. Neither smallpox nor malaria is a dangerous disease.

D. Either smallpox or malaria is a dangerous disease.

Question 7: The dogs watch the chicken coop. The dogs protect the chickens from wolves.

A. Protecting the chickens from wolves, the dogs watch the chicken coop from them.

B. They protect the chickens from wolves as the dogs watch the chicken coop.

C. The dogs watch the chicken coop to protect the chickens from wolves.

D. Watching the chicken coop because the dogs protect chickens from wolves.

Read the following pasage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions

Any list of the greatest thinkers in history contains the name of the brilliant physicist Albert Einstein. His theories of relativity led to entirely new ways of thinking about time, space, matter, energy, and gravity. Einstein's work led to such scientific advances as the control of atomic energy, even television as a practical application of Einstein's work.

In 1902 Einstein became an examiner in the Swiss patent office at Bern. In 1905, at age 26, he published the first of five major research papers. The first one provided a theory explaining Brownian movement, the zig-zag motion of microscopic particles in suspension. The second paper laid the foundation for the photon, or quantum, theory of light. In it he proposed that light is composed of separate packets of energy, called quanta or photons, that have some of the properties of particles and some of the properties of waves. A third paper contained the "special theory of relativity" which showed that time and motion are relative to the observer, if the speed of light is constant and the natural laws are the same everywhere in the universe. The fourth paper was a mathematical addition to the special theory of relativity. Here Einstein presented his famous formula, E = m(cc), known as the energy mass equivalence. In 1916, Einstein published his general theory of relativity. In it he proposed that gravity is not a force, but a curve in the space-time continuum, created by the presence of mass.
Einstein spoke out frequently against nationalism, the exalting of one nation above all others. He opposed war and violence and supported Zionism, the movement to establish a Jewish homeland in Palestine. When the Nazis came to power in 1933, they denounced his ideas. He then moved to the United States. In 1939 Einstein learned that two German chemists had split the uranium atom. Einstein wrote to President Franklin D. Roosevelt warning him that this scientific knowledge could lead to Germany developing an atomic bomb. He suggested the United States begin its own atomic bomb research.

Question 8: According to the passage l, Einstein's primary work was in the area of

A. chemistry                B. biology 

C. physics                   D. math

Question 9: Which of the following inventions is mentioned in the passage as a practical application of Einstein's discoveries?

A. Radio                     B. Television

C. Automobiles           D. Computer

Question 10: According to the passage, Einstein supported all of the following except

A. nationalism

B. the establishment of a Jewish homeland in Palestine

C. atomic bomb research in the United States.

D. the defeat of the Nazis.

Question 11: According to the passage in which country did Einstein live in 1930s?

A. Switzerland                       

B. the United States  

C. Germany               

D. Israel

Question 12: The word “exalting”  in the passage is closest in meaning to              

A. criticism                  B. elimination

C. support                   D. elevation

Question 13: It is clear from the tone of the passage that the author feels

A. Einstein's work in physics was somewhat tarnished by his conservative political views.

B. Einstein's work in physics, though theoretically impressive, led to few practical applications.

C. Albert Einstein was one of the most brilliant thinkers in history.

D. Einstein's theories have been consistently proven incorrect.

Question 14: According to Einstein, light is composed of separate packets of energy called

A. electrons                 B. photoelectrons

C. gamma rays            D. quanta

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of ther following questions.

Question 15: Thomas knows Paris like the back of his_____. He used to be a taxi driver there for 2 years.

A. head                       B. mind

C. hand                       D. life

Question 16: Despite playing under strength, our football team, U23 Viet Nam, _______ beat their rivals such as Qatar and Iraq.

A. could                      B. couldn't

C. weren't able to        D. were able to

Question 17: Neil Armstrong was the first man _______ on the moon.

A. walking                  B. has walked

C. to walk                   D. walked

Question 18: When the light _______, we couldn’t see anything.

A. came off                 B. put out

C. switched off           D. went out

Question 19: I will manage to _______ the problems and find the solution for you as soon as possible.

A. take out                  B. bring out

C. get out                    D. sort out

Question 20: It was not until he took off his dark glasses _______ I realized he was a famous film star.

A. as                            B. that

C. though                    D. since

Question 21: I only tell my secrets to my _______ friend as she never reveals them to anyone.

A. creative                   B. enthusiastic

C. trustworthy            D. unrealizable

Question 22: Everyone thinks that the concert last night was extremely successful, _______?

A. don’t they              B. doesn’t he 

C. was it                     D. wasn’t it

Question 23: In developed world, there are hardly _______ jobs left which don’t use computers to carry out many daily tasks.

A. some                       B. any

C. none                        D. much

Question 24: Graham was disappointed because he _______ for the bus for an hour.

A. was waiting           

B. waited

C. has been waiting   

D. had been waiting

Question 25: Attempts must be made to _______ the barriers of fear and hostility which divide the two communities.

A. break down              B. set up 

C. get off                      D. pass over

Question 26: Quang Hai’s _______ in the final match between Vietnam and Uzbekistan was voted the most beautiful goal on AFC’s website.

A. corner kick             B. free kick

C. penalty                   D. goal kick

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 27: A: “Help yourselves to the beef and chicken, children!” – B: “______.”

A. Yes. Why not?

B. Yes, please

C. Oh. thank you!

D. Just feel at home

Question 28: A: “Would you mind closing the window?” – B: “______.”

A. Yes, of course. Are you tired?

B. No, not at all. I'll do it now

C. Yes, I do. You can close it.                      

D. Don't worry. Go ahead!

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following question.

Question 29: The experimented vaccine seems to have both desirable and detrimental effects on the subject’s immune system.

A. beneficial      B. neutral     C. needy      D. harmful

Question 30: The fact that space exploration has increased dramatically in the past thirty years indicates that we are very eager to learn all we can about our solar system.

A. seriously        B. gradually     C. significantly    D. doubtfully

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in the pronunciation in each of the following questions.

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5. Đề số 5

ĐỀ THI THPT QG MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT TRẦN QUANG KHẢI- ĐỀ 05

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1A. visited

B. played

C. hated

D. needed

Question 2A. academic

B. grade

C. behave

D. examination

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3A. cartoon

B. answer

C. reason

D. paper

Question 4A. survival

B. industry

C. endanger

D. commercial

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5. Neither of the boys came to school yesterday, ________?

     A. didn’t they                  B. does they         C. did they                      D. doesn’t they

Question 6. It is claimed that new nuclear power plants designed to be safer than the current ones______.

    A. were built                   B. build               C. are soon built              D. built

Question 7. Television can make things memorable for the reason that it presents information ________ an effective way.

     A. over          B. with            C. in                D. on

Question 8. :_______you study for these exams,_______you will do.

     A. The harder / the better

     B. The more / the much

     C. The hardest / the best

     D. The more hard / the more good

Question 9. Her husband bought her ______ when he went on holiday in Singapore last week.

     A. a beautiful silk yellow scarf

     B. a beautiful yellow silk scarf

     C. a beautiful yellow silk scarf

     D. a beautiful yellow scarf silk

Question 10. When Carol _______ last night, I _______ my favorite show on television.

     A. called / was watching

     B. had called / watched

     C. called / have watched

     D. was calling / watched

Question 11. Students can only use technological devices to complete their work _______ investment on notebooks and books.

     A. rather than                  B. instead of           C. but for                         D. in case

Question 12. By next Saturday, Tom _______ a whole month without smoking a cigarette.

   A. will go                  B. will have gone            C. has gone         D. has been going

Question 13. ______ in large quantities in the Middle East, oil became known as black gold because of the large profit it brought.

     A. Discovered

     B. Discovering

     C. Which was discovered

     D. That when discovered

Question 14. If you don't have anything ________ to say, it's better to say nothing.

     A. construct          B. construction                C. constructive                D. constructor

Question 15. There are other problems of city life which I don't propose to ________at the moment.

     A. go into             B. go around                   C. go for            D. go up

Question 16. Your store needs a bold sign that will catch the ________ of anyone walking down the street. That may help to sell more products.

     A. eye             B. peek            C. flash                  D. glimpse

Question 17. Sometimes in a bad situation, there may still be some good things. Try not to “throw out the ________ with the bathwater”.

     A. fish           B. duck                            C. baby                            D. child 

Question 18. The storm did a lot of ________to our village. All the crops were drastically destroyed and many houses were washed away.

     A. injury             B. hardship                      C. harm           D. damage

Question 19. He decided to withdraw from the powerboat race as he had a (n) ________ of danger.

     A. omen             B. premonition                C. foreboding                  D. prediction

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20. Emissions from factories and exhaust fumes from vehicles can have detrimental effects on our health.

     A. beneficial                    B. neutral            C. needy              D. harmful

Question 21. By being thrifty and shopping wisely, housewives in the city can feed an entire family on as little as 500.000 VND a week.

     A. luxurious                    B. economical     C. sensible               D. miserable

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22. His physical condition was not an impediment to his career as a violinist. He has won a lot of prizes.

     A. advantage                   B. obstacle           C. barrier           D. disadvantage

Question 23. Tom may get into hot water when driving at full speed after drinking wine.

     A. get into trouble          B. stay safe       C. fall into disuse            D. keep calm

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 24Nam and Lan are talking about the jobs which only men or women can do.

- Nam: “Do you think that there are any jobs which only men or only women can or should do?"

- Lan: “________”

     A. Men are better at certain jobs than women.

     B. I agree. This really depends on their physical strengths and preferences.

     C. Women and men should cooperate with each other.

     D. Men are often favoured in certain jobs.

Question 25Mary is talking to her professor in his office.

- Mary: “Can you tell me how to find material for my science report, professor?”

- Professor: “________”

     A. I like it that you understand.

     B. Try your best, Mary.

     C. You can borrow books from the library.

     D. You mean the podcasts from other students?

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

The first thing that is included in the "living together” (26) ________ is the expected good relations with your family. This also involves sharing equally the housework. (27) ________of people think that everyone should share the housework equally, but in many homes parents do most of it. To certain minds, many families can't share the housework whereas they should try it. In fact, sharing the housework equally is not very possible because of the families' timetable. So, it is somehow believed that children and parents must do things together. For this they can establish a housework planning.

(28) ________, housework's contributions of the teenager make him more responsible. He will think that he has an important role in his family. According to researchers, teenagers should share the housework because (29) ________ will help them when they have to establish their own family in the future. Too many teenagers and young adults leave home without knowing how to cook or clean, but if parents delegate basic housework to teens as they are old enough to do it, they won't be destabilized by doing the housework in their new grown-up life.

It can be (30) ________concluded that many parents don't really prepare their children for future, because they don't stimulate them to learn how to run a house. If parents get them responsible, teens will be more responsible and that will improve family's life.

(Source: https://www.sciencedaily.com/releases/2013)

---(Để xem tiếp nội dung của đề thi số 5 các em vui lòng xem tại online hoặc đăng nhập vào HỌC247 để tải về máy)--- 

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 5

1. B

6. C

11. B

16. A

21. B

26. C

31. A

36. B

41. C

46. B

2. A

7. C

12. B

17. C

22. A

27. A

32. D

37. A

42. C

47. C

3. A

8. A

13. A

18. D

23. B

28. A

33. A

38. B

43. A

48. C

4. B

9. C

14. C

19. B

24. B

29. C

34. B

39. D

44. D

49. A

5. C

10. A

15. A

20. D

25. C

30. D

35. C

40. A

45. D

50. C

...

Trên đây là một phần trích đoạn nội dung Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG năm 2021-2022 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THPT Trần Quang Khải. Để xem toàn bộ nội dung các em chọn chức năng xem online hoặc đăng nhập vào trang hoc247.net để tải tài liệu về máy tính.

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