Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG năm 2021-2022 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THPT Bình Phú

TRƯỜNG THPT BÌNH PHÚ

ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM HỌC 2021-2022 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH (Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút)

Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part

Question 1: The soil must be kept damp at all times or the plant will die

A. bright                      B. arid                         C. sober                       D. moist

Question 2: It is obvious that Shawn is in love with her

A. cynical                    B. doubtful                  C. evident                   D. obscure

Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions

Question 3: It doesn’t matter ____ Sue tried , she still can’t pass the driving test

A. how far                   B. how hard               C. _____                     D. how good

Question 4: It’s sometimes tiring to live ___ the expectations of your loved ones

A. up to                      B. far away                  C. according to            D. above

Question 5: They had hardly arrived at the airport ____ Glenda realized that she left her passport at home

A. soon                        B. but                          C. when                      D. then

Question 6: George won 5 gold medals at the competition. His parents ____ very proud of him

A. can’t be                                          B. can’t have

C. must have been                             D. could have been

Question 7: Being too tired after a long hard working day, the secretarial staff ____ to work after hours

A. refused                   B. admitted                 C. agreed                     D. denied

Question 8: ____ of patience, no one can beat Allison

A. Regardless              B. In terms                 C. In spite                    D. In front

Question 9: “It’s high time the children ____ to bed”

A. should go                B. go                           C. went                       D. would rather go

Question 10: Bob has left home and is independent ___ his parents

A. on                           B. of                            C. with                        D. in

Question 11: The last man _____ the office is always Mr. Smith

A. left                          B. to be leaving           C. to leave                  D. leaves

Question 12: If you don’t know when that important football match takes place, look it ___ in the World Cup timetable

A. into                         B. out                          C. up                           D. after

Question 13: “Can you ____ me a favor, Bill?” Peter said

A. put                          B. do                           C. make                       D. get

Question 14: “Didn’t you go to the cinema last night?” “____”

A. Yes, I lost the ticket                                   B. No. It was too cold to go out

C. Ok. That was a good idea                           D. Yes, I stayed at home

Question 15: He managed to keep his job ____ the manager had threatened to sack him

A. despite                    B. although                C. therefore                 D. unless

Question 16: You should make a(n) ____ to overcome this problem

A. impression              B. effort                      C. trial                         D. apology

Question 17: All of us won’t go camping ____ the weather stays fine

A. unless                     B. so                            C. but                          D. however

Question 18: Don’t touch that wire or you ill get an electric _____

A. fire                          B. shock                      C. current                    D. charge

Question 19: That pipe ____ for ages-we must get it mended

A. has been leaking                           B. is leaking

C. leaks                                               D. had been leaking

Question 20: “Today is my 18^th birthday” “______”

A. Many happy returns!                  B. I don’t understand

C. Take care                                        D. Have a good time

Question 21: Julie bought herself a complete new ____ for winter

A. wear                       B. cloth                       C. clothing                  D. outfit

Question 22: I was so tired that I ____ had to take a nap

A. quite                       B. utterly                     C. simply                    D. by no means

Question 23: Don’t you think it was rather ____ of you not to let us know that you weren’t coming?

A. mean                       B. unkind                    C. unsympathetic        D. thoughtless

Question 24: “You have a good voice” “_____”

A. I appreciate it                               B. You’ve done a good job    

C. Well done                                       D. Yes, of course

Question 25: His business tactics outraged the ___ of the UK establishment

A. stiffs                       B. hardness                 C. solidity                   D. stability

Question 26: Many wheat farmers have begun to ____ into other forms of agriculture

A. vary                        B. diverge                   C. diversify                D. move away

Question 27: Alcohol abuse is a problem that can lead to ill health, loss of employment and ____

A. breaking up one’s family                                       B. one’s family can break up

C. the family is broken up                                          D. the break-up of one’s family

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 28-37

According to airline industry statistics, almost 90% of airline accidents are survivable or partially survivable. But passengers can increase their chances of survival by learning and following certain tips. Experts say that you should read and listen to safety instructions before take-off and ask questions if you have uncertainties. You should fasten your seat belt low on your hips and as tightly as possible. Of course, you should also know how the release mechanism of your belt operates. During take-offs and landings, you are advised to keep your feed flat on the floor. Before take-off you should locate the nearest exit and an alternative exit and count the rows of seats between you and the exits so that you can find them in the dark if necessary

In the event that you are forewarned of a possible accident, you should put your hands on your ankles and keep your head down until the plane comes to a complete stop. If smoke is present in the cabin, you should keep your head low and cover your face with napkin, towels or clothing. If possible, wet these for added protection against smoke inhalation. To evacuate as quickly as possible, follow crew commands and do not take personal belongings with you. Do not jump on escape slides before they’re fully inflated, and when you jump, do so with your arms and legs extended in front of you. When you get to the ground, you should move away from the plane as quickly as possible, and never smoke near the wreckage

Question 28: What is the main topic of the passage?

A. Airline industry accident statistics

B. Procedures for evacuating aircraft

C. Guidelines for increasing aircraft passenger survival

D. Safety instruction in air travel

Question 29: Travelers are urged by experts to read and listen to safety instructions _____          

A. in an emergency                                         B. before locating the exits

C. if smoke is in the cabin                              D. before take-off

Question 30: According to the passage, when should you keep your feet flat on the floor?

A. throughout the flight                                  B. during take-offs and landings

C. especially during landings                         D. only if an accident is possible

Question 31: According to the passage, which exits should an airline passenger locate before take-off”

A. The ones that can be found in the dark

B. The two closest to the passenger’s seat

C. The nearest one

D. The ones with counted rows of seats between them

Question 32: The word “them” in the last line of the first paragraph refers to ___

A. rows                       B. feet                         C. seats                        D. exits

Question 33: It can be inferred from the passage that people are more likely to survive fires in aircraft if they ____

A. keep their heads low

B. war a safety belt

C. don’t smoke in or near a plane

D. read airline safety statistics

Question 34: Airline passengers are advised to do all of the following EXCEPT ____

A. locate the nearest exits

B. ask questions about safety

C. fasten their seat belts before take-off

D. carry personal belongings in an emergency

Question 35: The word “evacuate” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ____

A. evade                      B. vacate                     C. escape                     D. maintain

Question 36: The word “inflated” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ___

A. lifted                       B. expanded               C. increased                D. assembled

Question 37: Where does the author mention what to do if you don’t understand the instructions?

A. Experts say ………… uncertainties

B. According to airline industry ………… on the floor

C. In the event that ………….. a complete stop

D. To evacuate ………….. with you

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 38-47

Franklin D. Roosevelt, the 32^nd President of the United States, was from a wealthy well-known family. As a child, he attended private school, had private tutors, and traveled with his parents to Europe. He attended Harvard University, and afterward studied law. At age 39, Roosevelt suddenly developed polio, a disease that left him without the full use of his legs for the rest of his life. Even though the worst of his illness, however, he continued his life in politics. In 1942 he appeared at the Democratic National Convention to nominate Al Smith for president, and eight years after that he himself was nominated for the same office. Roosevelt was elected to the presidency during the Great Depression of the 1930s, at a time when more than 5,000 banks had failed and thousands of people were out of work. Roosevelt took action. First he declared a bank holiday that closed all the banks so no more could fail; then he reopened the banks little by little with government support. Roosevelt believed in using the full power of government to help what he called the “forgotten people”. And it was these workers, the wage earners, who felt the strongest affection toward Roosevelt. There were others, however, who felt that Roosevelt’s policies were destroying the American system of government, and they opposed him in the same intense way that others admired him

In 1940 the Democrats nominated Roosevelt for an unprecedented third term. No president in American history had ever served three terms, but Roosevelt felt an obligation not to quit while the United States’ entry into World War II was looming in the future. He accepted the nomination and went on to an easy victory

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ĐỀ THI THPT QG MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT BÌNH PHÚ- ĐỀ 02

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. begged	B. dogged	C. buttoned	D. blamed
Question 2: A. eventually	B. shore	C. proficient	D. assure

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 3: By next Saturday, Tom ______ a whole month without smoking a cigarette.

A. will go                     B. will have gone  

C. has gone                 D. has been going

Question 4: The man _______ his car outside hasn’t come back for it yet.

A. whom he left          B. who he left

C. who left                  D. whose

Question 5: She agreed that all the present paperwork ______ for everyone to have more time to socialize.

A. stopping                 B. be stopped 

C. to stop                    D. stopped

Question 6: I would rather Jane ______ my brother so much money when he asked for. I know for sure that I will have to pay his debt.

A. not lend                  B. would not lend 

C. had not lent             D. did not lend

Question 7: You should take regular exercise _____ sitting in front of the television all day.

A. in spite of               B. instead of 

C. without                   D. even

Question 8: I think almost everyone has heard the news from her, ________?

A. have they                B. hasn't he

 C. haven't they            D. don't I

Question 9: I remember ______ him tomorrow. It will be a big sum of money I’ve been saving so far.

A. paying                    B. to pay

C. paid                        D. to be paid

Question 10: The lake had ice on it this morning. It ____ very cold last night.

A. must have gotten   

B. could have gotten

C. would have gotten

D. should have gotten

Question 11: The world-famous physicist and ______ Stephen Hawking published on important paper before he died at the age of 76.

A. cosmologist            B. cosmologic

C. cosmonaut              D. cosmology

Question 12: Because the waiter didn’t ______ what I ordered, he brought me a mutton steak instead of the chicken wings that I’d wanted.

A. call on                     B. stay up

C. take down               D. check in

Question 13: Italian TV has ______ a young composer to write an opera for the TV’s thirtieth anniversary.

A. appointed               B. ordered  

C. consulted                D. commissioned

Question 14: The acoustics in the concert hall were very poor and it was necessary to _____ performers’ voices.

A. increase                  B. exaggerate

C. extend                     D. amplify

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on you answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.

Question 15:

A. compile                    B. compose

C. compete                  D. complex

Question 16:

A. expectation              B. opportunity

C. temperament           D. decoration

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 17: American children customarily go trick-or-treating on Halloween.

A. inevitably               B. happily

C. traditionally            D. readily

Question 18: At every faculty meeting, Ms. Volatie always manages to put her foot in her mouth.

A. move rapidly

B. trip over her big feet

C. fall asleep

D. say the wrong thing

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 19: He was able to finish his book. It was because his wife helped him.

A. If it weren’t for his wife’s help, he couldn’t have finished his book.

B. If only he had been able to finish his book.

C. Without his wife’s help, he couldn’t have finished his book.

D. But for his wife’s help, he couldn't finish his book.

Question 20: The weather was so dismal. They had to cancel the picnic immediately.

A. The weather was too dismal that the picnic was cancelled immediately.

B. The picnic would be cancelled immediately since the weather was dismal.

C. So dismal was the weather that they had to cancel the picnic immediately.

D. The weather was enough dismal for them to cancel the picnic immediately.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 21: Adela and Phuong are talking about her new friend.

Adela: “________?” – Phuong: He’s tall and thin with blue eyes.”

A. What does he look like

B. What is he like

C. How does he look like 

D. How is he like

Question 22: Fiana and Fallon are talking about the weather.

Fiana: “Isn’t it going to rain tonight?”

– Fallon: “_________.”

A. Yes, it isn’t.            B. I hope not 

C. I don’t hope so       D. No, it is.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 23: Impressed as we were by the new cinema, we found it rather expensive.

A. We were not impressed by the new cinema at all because it looked rather expensive.

B. We weren’t as much impressed by the new cinema’s look as its cost.

C. The new cinema was more expensive than we expected.

D. We were very impressed by the new cinema, but found it rather expensive.

Question 24: She said she would go to the police unless she was given her money back.

A. She went to the police because she hadn't got her money back.

B. She wasn’t given her money back because she had gone to the police.

C. She was given her money back and then went to the police.

D. She hasn't yet got her money back or gone to the police.

Question 25: As television programmes become more popular, they seem to get worse.

A. The more popular television programmes become, the worse they seem.

B. The most popular television programmes become, the worse they seem.

C. The popular television programmes, the worse they seem.

D. The more popular become television programmes, the worse they seem.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions

Millions of people tune into the weather forecast each evening on television. Most of them imagine that the presenter does little more than arrive at the studio a few minutes before the broadcast, read the weather, and then go home. In fact, this image is far from the truth. The two-minute bulletin which we all rely on when we need to know tomorrow's weather is the result of a hard day's work by the presenter, who is actually a highly-qualified meteorologist. Every morning after arriving at the TV studios, the first task of the day is to collect the latest data from the National Meteorological Office. This office provides up-to-the-minute information about weather conditions throughout the day, both in Britain and around the world. The information is very detailed and includes predictions, satellite and radar pictures, as well as more technical data. After gathering all the relevant material from this office, the forecaster has to translate the scientific terminology and maps into images and words which viewers can easily understand. The final broadcast is then carefully planned. It is prepared in the same way as other programmes. The presenter decides what to say and in what order to say it. Next a "story board" is drawn up which lays out the script word for word. What makes a weather fore­cast more complicated than other programmes are the maps and electronic images which are required. The computer has to be programmed so that the pictures appear in the cor­rect order during the bulletin.

The time allocated for each broadcast can also alter. This is because the weather re­port is screened after the news, which can vary in length. The weather forecaster doesn't always know how much time is available, which means that he/she has to be thoroughly prepared so that the material can be adapted to the time available. Another related complication is that the weather forecast has to be a live broadcast; it cannot be pre-recorded. Live shows are very nerve-racking for the presenter because almost anything can go wrong. Perhaps the most worrying aspect for every weather fore­caster is getting the following day's predictions wrong. Unfortunately for them, this is not an unusual occurrence; the weather is not always possible to predict accurately. The weather is a national obsession in Britain, perhaps because it is so changeable. It’s the national talking point, and most people watch at least one day bulletin. It can be mortifying for a weather man or woman who has predicted rain for the morning to wake up to brilliant sunshine.

This day, a weather forecaster’s job is even more complicated because they are relied upon to predict other environmental conditions. For example, in the summer the weather forecast has to include reports on ultraviolet radiation intensity to help people avoid sunburn. The job of a weather forecaster is certainly far more complicated than just pointing at a map and describing weather conditions. It's a job for professionals who can cope with stressful and demanding conditions.

Question 26: What perception do most people have of weather forecasters?

A. They have many qualifications.

B. They do a hard day’s work at the studio.

C. They work very short hours. 

D. They always tell the truth.

Question 27:  Meteorologists get their information from

A. the TV studio.

B. the country’s main weather centre.

C. satellite and radar information. 

D. their office.

Question 28: Creating a weather forecast is complex because

A. maps have to be drawn. 

B. a lot of data has to be interpreted.

C. radar pictures are technical.

D. the information includes unreliable predictions.

Question 29:  The computer has to be carefully programmed

A. so that the visuals are sequenced correctly.

B. so that the script is visible to the presenter.

C. because the script has to be written on a story board.

D. because electronic maps are used.

Question 30:  Weather forecasters have to know the material well because

A. the broadcast is pre-recorded.

B. the forecast may be incorporated into the news broadcast.

C. the content of the report may have to change.

D. the length of the report may have to change.

Question 31:  What does “this” in paragraph 2 refer to?

A. The weather forecaster’s worry. 

B. Reading the weather live.

C. Giving a forecast that doesn't come true. 

D. An accurate prediction

Question 32:  In Britain, people’s attitude to the weather

A. is not changeable.

B. makes it a top discussion topic.

C. depends on the prediction being for a sunny or rainy day.

D. is a national problem.

Question 33: Nowadays, weather forecasters have to                      

A. do experiments to determine the pollen count.

B. simply point at map and describe weather conditions

C. cope with professionals. 

D. be able to cope under pressure

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

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ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 2

1	2	3	4	5
B	A	B	C	D
6	7	8	9	10
C	B	C	B	A
11	12	13	14	15
A	C	D	A	D
16	17	18	19	20
C	C	D	C	C
21	22	23	24	25
A	B	D	D	A
26	27	28	29	30
C	B	B	A	D
31	32	33	34	35
C	D	D	A	C
36	37	38	39	40
B	D	D	B	C
41	42	43	44	45
A	C	D	D	B
46	47	48	49	50
A	A	B	D	D

 

ĐỀ THI THPT QG MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT BÌNH PHÚ- ĐỀ 03

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. preparation	B. susceptible	C. experiment	D. genetically
Question 2: A. hesitate	B. excessive	C. saturate	D. restrict

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 3:  Ha Long Bay, the global heritage recognized twice by the UNESCO, remains one of the country’s top attractions.

A. Ha Long Bay was recognized twice by the UNESCO, and as a consequence it remains one of the country’s top attractions.    

B. Ha Long Bay, the global heritage which was recognized twice by the UNESCO, that remains one of the country’s top attractions.    

C. Ha Long Bay, is the global heritage and was recognized twice by the UNESCO, remains one of the country’s top attractions.    

D. It is Ha Long Bay, the global heritage recognized twice by the UNESCO, that remains one of the country’s top attractions.

Question 4:  “What a novel idea for the farewell party” said Nam to the monitor.

A. Nam exclaimed with admiration at the novel idea for the farewell party of the monitor.

B. Nam admired the novel idea for the farewell party.

C. Nam thought over the novel idea for the farewell party.

D. Nam said that it was a novel idea of the monitor for the farewell party.

Question 5:  We should have our school’s swimming pool cleaned before the summer begins because it is looking dirty.

A. Our school’s swimming pool should be cleaned regularly because of its dirtiness.

B. We should clean our school’s swimming pool at the beginning of the summer because it is looking dirty.

C. We had better get our school swimming pool cleaned before the summer begins because of its dirtiness.

D. Due to the impurity of our school swimming pool, we should have someone clean it as soon as possible.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best option for each of the blanks

Women are much healthier when they (6) ______ it easy, reveals a new survey. Those who work long hours are more likely than men to (7) ______ in unhealthy behavior such as eating snacks, smoking and drinking caffeine. (Long hours have no such impact on men). One positive benefit of long hours for both sexes, however, is that alcohol (8) ______ is reduced.

The study (9) ______ by the Economic and Social Research Council is part of a wider study by psychologists from the University of Leeds into the effects of stress on eating. “Stress causes people to (10) ______ for unhealthy high fat and high-sugar snacks in preference to healthier food choice” says researcher Dr. Daryl of the University of Leeds.

Question 6: A. make	B. feel	C. take	D. get
Question 7: A. indulge	B. interest	C. develop	D. participate
Question 8: A. beverage	B. consumption	C. expenditure	D. sales
Question 9: A. funding	B. which funds	C. funded	D. which funded
Question 10: A. choose	B. select	C. decide	D. opt

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 11:  When two people get married, it is with the assumption that their feelings for each other are immutable and will never alter.

A. constantly                   B. alterable

C. unchangeable              D. everlasting

Question 12:  That the genetic differences make one race superior to another is nothing but a tall story.

A. cynical                        B. unbelievable

C. untrue                        D. exaggeration

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.

Question 13:

A. certainly             B. marvelous

C. counseling           D. persuasive

Question 14:

A. represent            B. systematic

C. detrimental          D. fulfillment

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 15:  Golf wear has become a very lucrative business for both the manufacturers and golf stars.

A. unprofitable                B. impoverished 

C. inexpensive                 D. unfavorable

Question 16:  Unless you get your information from a credible website, you should doubt the veracity of the facts until you have confirmed them else where.

A. inexactness                 B. falsehoodness

C. unaccuracy                  D. unfairness

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

The end of the nineteenth century and the early years of the twentieth century were marked by the development of an international Art Nouveau style, characterized by sinuous lines, floral and vegetable motifs, and soft evanescent coloration. The Art Nouveau style was an eclectic one, bringing together elements of Japanese art, motifs of ancient cultures, and natural forms. The glass objects of this style were elegant in outline, although often deliberately distorted, with pale or iridescent surfaces. A favored device of the style was to imitate the iridescent surface seen on ancient glass that had been buried. Much of the Art Nouveau glass produced during the years of its greatest popularity had been generically termed “art glass.” Art glass was intended for decorative purposes and relied for its effect on carefully chosen color combinations and innovative techniques.

France produced a number of outstanding exponents of the Art Nouveau style; among the most celebrated was Emile Galle (1846-1904). In the United States, Louis Comfort Tiffany (1843-1933) was the most noted exponent of this style, producing a great variety of glass forms and surfaces, which were widely copied in their time and are highly prized today. Tiffany was a brilliant designer, successfully combining ancient Egyptian, Japanese, and Persian motifs.

The Art Nouveau style was a major force in the decorative arts from 1895 until 1915, although its influence continued throughout the mid-1920’s.It was eventually to be overtaken by a new school of thought known as Functionalism that had been present since the turn of the century. At first restricted to a small avant-garde group of architects and designers, Functionalism emerged as the dominant influence upon designers after the First World War. The basic tenet of the movement-that function should determine form-was not a new concept. Soon a distinct aesthetic code evolved: from should be simple, surfaces plain, and any ornament should be based on geometric relationships. This new design concept, coupled with the sharp postwar reactions to the styles and conventions of the preceding decades, created an entirely new public taste which caused Art Nouveau types of glass to fall out of favor. The new taste demanded dramatic effects of contrast, stark outline and complex textural surfaces.

Question 17:  What does paragraph 1 mainly discuss?

A. Design elements in the Art Nouveau style

B. The popularity of the Art Nouveau style

C. Production techniques for art glass

D. Color combinations typical of the Art Nouveau style

Question 18:  The word “one” refers to______.

A. century.                       B. development. 

C. style.                           D. coloration.

Question 19:  Para.1 mentions that Art Nouveau glass was sometimes similar to which aspect of ancient buried glass______.

A. The distortion of the glass  

B. The appearance of the glass surface

C. The shapes of the glass objects

D. The size of the glass objects

Question 20:  The word “overtaken” in line 19 is closest in meaning to______.

A. surpassed                    B. inclined  

C. expressed                    D. applied

Question 21:  What does the author mean by stating that “function should determine form”?

A. A useful object should not be attractive.

B. The purpose of an object should influence its form.

C. The design of an object is considered more significant than its function.

D. The form of an object should not include decorative elements.

Question 22:  It can be inferred from the passage that one reason Functionalism became popular was that it______.

A. clearly distinguished between art and design

B. appealed to people who liked complex painted designs

C. reflected a common desire to break from the past

D. was easily interpreted by the general public

Question 23:  Paragraph 3 supports which of the following statements about Functionalism?

A. Its design concept avoided geometric shapes.

B. It started on a small scale and then spread gradually.

C. It was a major force in the decorative arts before the First World War.

D. It was not attractive to architects all designers.

Question 24:  According to the passage, an object made in the Art Nouveau style would most likely include ______.

A. a flowered design. 

B. bright colors. 

C. modern symbols.

D. a textured surface.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 25:  Ensoleill and Sunny are talking about Ted’s accident last week.

Ensoleill: “A motor bike knocked Ted down”.

Sunny: “ ____________”

A. What it is now?

B. What a motor bike! 

C. How terrific!

D. Poor Ted !

Question 26:  Mary and her friend, Ensoleill, are in a coffee shop.

Mary: “Would you like Matcha ice-cream or Caramen with jam?”

Ensoleill: ”______________”.

A. I like eating them all.

B. Yes, I’d love two.

C. It doesn’t matter. 

D. Neither is fine. They are good.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 27:  High-level sport people must maintain a high level of fitness ______ run the risk of suffering injuries that cause permanent damage.

A. or else                         B. besides

C. unless                          D. on account of

Question 28:  Many students prefer ______ assessment as an alternative to exams

A. continuing                   B. continued 

C. continual                     D. continuous

Question 29:  British Leyland is aiming to push ______ its share of UK car sale to 25% over the next two years.

A. on                               B. up 

C. through                       D. out

Question 30: The press thought the sale manager would be depressed by his dismissal but he just ______.

A. turned it down            B. called it off

C. spoke it out                 D. laughed it off

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ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 3

1	2	3	4	5
C	A	D	A	C
6	7	8	9	10
C	A	B	C	D
11	12	13	14	15
C	B	D	D	A
16	17	18	19	20
A	B	C	B	A
21	22	23	24	25
B	C	B	A	D
26	27	28	29	30
C	A	D	B	D
31	32	33	34	35
B	D	A	C	B
36	37	38	39	40
D	B	C	C	B
41	42	43	44	45
A	D	B	C	A
46	47	48	49	50
C	B	D	A	C

ĐỀ THI THPT QG MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT BÌNH PHÚ- ĐỀ 04

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A smile (A) can be observed, described, and reliably identify (B); it can also (C) be elicited and manipulated under experimental (D) conditions.

Question 2. It was suggested (A) that he studies (B) the material more thoroughly (C) before attempting (D) to pass the exam.

Question 3. Some (A) methods to prevent (B) soil erosion are (C) plowing parallel with the slope of hills, to plant (D) trees on unproductive land, and rotating crops.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 4. Marco Polo’s account of his travels has been invaluable to historians.

A. valuable                  B. important

C. worthless                D. priceless

Question 5. Satish’s point of view was correct but his behavior with his father was quite impertinent.

A. healthy                   B. smooth

C. inadequate             D. respectful

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 6. Kenny asked for permission to smoke, but his colleague couldn’t put up with the smoke.

- Kenny: “Do you mind if I smoke in here?”

- Alex: “_________.”

A. I’d rather you didn’t

B. No, thank you

C. No, I couldn’t

D. Yes, you can.

Question 7. Hana and Jenifer are talking about a book they have just read.

- Hana: “The book is really interesting and educational.”

-Jenifer: “_________.”

A. That’s nice of you to say so.

B. I’d love it.

C. Don’t mention it 

D. I couldn’t agree more.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 8. We found the bad weather very inconvenient. We chose to find a place for the night.

A. The bad weather prevented us from driving any further.

B. Bad weather was approaching, so we started to look for a place to stay.

C. Seeing that the bad weather had set in, we decided to find somewhere to spend the night.

D. Because the climate was so severe, we were worried about what we’d do at night.

Question 9. She tried very hard to pass the driving test. She could hardly pass it

A. Although she didn’t try hard to pass the driving test, she could pass it.

B. She tried very hard, so she passed the driving test satisfactorily.

C. No matter how hard she tried, she could hardly pass the driving test.

D. Despite being able to pass the driving test, she didn’t pass it.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 10. She simply took it for granted that the check was good and did not ask him any questions about it.

A. permitted it

B. accepted it without investigation

C. objected to it

D. looked it over

Question 11. Juan Manuel Santos was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize 2016 for his resolute efforts to bring the country’s more than 50-year-long civil war to an end.

A. determined                         B. sure 

C. original                               D. certain

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions

Thunderstorms, with their jagged bursts of lightning and roaring thunder, are actually one of nature’s primary mechanisms for transferring heat from the surface of the earth into the atmosphere. A thunderstorm starts when low-lying pockets of warm air from the surface of the earth begin to rise. The pockets of warm air float upward through the air above that is both cooler and heavier. The rising pockets cool as their pressure decreases, and their latent heat is released above the condensation line through the formation of cumulus clouds.

What will happen with these clouds depends on the temperature of the atmosphere. In winter, the air temperature differential between higher and lower altitudes is not extremely great, and the temperature of the rising air mass drops more slowly. During these colder months, the atmosphere, therefore, tends to remain rather stable. In summer, however, when there is a high accumulation of heat near the earth’s surface, in direct contrast to the considerably colder air higher up, the temperature differential between higher and lower altitudes is much more pronounced. As warm air rises in this type of environment, the temperature drops much more rapidly than it does in winter; when the temperature drops more than 4 degrees Fahrenheit per thousand feet of altitude, cumulus clouds aggregate into a single massive cumulonimbus cloud, or thunderhead.

In isolation, a single thunderstorm is an impressive but fairly benign way for Mother Earth to defuse trapped heat from her surface; thunderstorms, however, can appear in concert, and the resulting show, while extremely impressive, can also prove extraordinarily destructive. When there is a large-scale collision between cold air and warm air masses during the summer months, a squall line, or series of thunderheads, may develop. It is common for a squall line to begin when an advancing cold front meets up with and forces itself under a layer of warm and moist air, creating a line of thunderstorms that races forward at speeds of approximately forty miles per hour. A squall line, which can be hundreds of miles long and can contain fifty distinct thunderheads, is a magnificent force of nature with incredible potential for destruction. Within the squall line, often near its southern end, can be found supercells, long-lived rotating storms of exceptional strength that serve as the source of tornadoes.

Question 12. The topic of the passage is ________.

A. the development of thunderstorms and squall lines

B. the devastating effects of tornadoes

C. cumulus and cumulonimbus clouds

D. the power of tornadoes

Question 13. The word “mechanisms” in paragraph 1 is most likely ________.

A. machines                B. motions

C. methods                  D. materials

Question 14. It can be inferred from the passage that, in summer, ________.

A. there is not a great temperature differential between higher and lower altitudes

B. the greater temperature differential between higher and lower altitudes makes thunderstorms more likely to occur

C. there is not much cold air higher up in the atmosphere

D. the temperature of rising air drops more slowly than it does in winter

Question 15. The word “benign” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ________.

A. harmless                 B. beneficial

C. ferocious                 D. spectacular

Question 16. The expression “in concert” in paragraph 3 could best be replaced by ________.

A. as a chorus

B. with other musicians 

C. as a cluster

D. in a performance

Question 17. The word “itself” in paragraph 3 refers to ________.

A. a large-scale collision

B. a squall line

C. an advancing cold front

D. a layer of warm and moist air

Question 18. All of the following are mentioned in the passage about supercells EXCEPT that they ________.

A. are of short duration

B. have circling winds

C. have extraordinary power

D. can give birth to tornadoes

Question 19. This reading would most probably be assigned in which of the following courses?

A. Geography                     B. Meteorology

C. Marine Biology                D. Chemistry

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 20. I know we had an argument, but I know I’d quite like to ______.

A. make up                  B. look down

C. fall out                     D. bring up

Question 21. It is vital that everyone ______ aware of the protection of the environment.

A. is                             B. be

C. are                           D. were

Question 22. My uncle was ______ ill last summer; however, fortunately, he is now making a slow but steady recovery.

A. seriously                 B. deeply

C. fatally                      D. critically

Question 23. All of her sons joined the army when the war broke ______.

A. out                          B. off

C. over                         D. up

Question 24. This is the second time you ______ your door key.

A. are losing                B. lose 

C. lost                          D. have lost

Question 25. Her fiance is said ______ from Harvard University five years ago.

A. having graduated

B. to have graduated

C. being graduated

D. to be graduated

Question 26. This is ______ the most difficult job I’ve ever had to do.

A. by chance               B. by myself

C. by far                      D. by heart

Question 27. The number of higher education ______ has risen this year for the first time in more than a decade.

A. applies                    B. applications 

C. applicable               D. applicants

Question 28. Not until 1856 ______ across the Mississippi River.

A. the first bridge was built 

B. was the first bridge built

C. the first bridge built 

D. did the first bridge build

Question 29. At first sight I met her, I was impressed with her ______ eyes.

A. big beautiful round black 

B. beautiful big round black

C. beautiful black big round  

D. beautiful round big black

Question 30. ______ the film’s director, Ben Affleck, was famously left off the 85^th Oscar’s Best Director list of nominees surprised everyone.

A. What                      B. Due to 

C. Although                D. That

Question 31. I love this painting of an old man. He has such a beautiful ______ smile.

A. childlike                 B. childish

C. childhood               D. childless

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions

Before the mid-nineteenth century, people in the United States ate most foods only in season. Drying, smoking and salting could preserve meat for a short time, but the availability of fresh meat, like that of fresh milk, was very limited; there was no way to prevent spoilage. But in 1810, a French inventor named Nicolas Appert developed the cooking-and-sealing process of canning. And in the 1850’s an American named Gail Borden developed a means of condensing and preserving milk. Canned goods and condensed milk became more common during the 1860’s, but supplies remained low because cans had to be made by hand. By 1880, however, inventors had fashioned stamping and soldering machines that mass-produced cans from tinplate. Suddenly all kinds of food could be preserved and bought at all times of the year.

Other trends and inventions had also helped make it possible for Americans to vary their daily diets. Growing urban population created demand that encouraged fruit and vegetable farmers  to raise more produce. Railroad refrigerator cars enabled growers and meat packers to ship perishables great distances and to preserve them for longer periods. Thus, by the 1890’s, northern city dwellers could enjoy southern and western strawberries, grapes, and tomatoes, previously available for a month at most, for up to six months of the year. In addition, increased use of iceboxes enabled families to store perishables. As easy means of producing ice commercially had been invented in the 1870’s, and by 1900 the nation had more than two thousand commercial ice plants, most of which made home deliveries. The icebox became a fixture in most homes and remained so until the mechanized refrigerator replaced it in the 1920’s and 1930’s.

Almost everyone now had a more diversified diet. Some people continued to eat mainly foods that were heavily in starches or carbohydrates, and not everyone could afford meat. Nevertheless, many families could take advantage of previously unavailable fruits, vegetables, and dairy products to achieve more varied fare.

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ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 4

1	2	3	4	5
B	B	D	C	D
6	7	8	9	10
A	D	C	C	B
11	12	13	14	15
A	A	C	B	A
16	17	18	19	20
C	C	A	B	A
21	22	23	24	25
B	A	A	D	B
26	27	28	29	30
C	B	D	D	B
31	32	33	34	35
A	C	B	B	C
36	37	38	39	40
B	B	A	D	A
41	42	43	44	45
D	C	A	B	B
46	47	48	49	50
D	C	C	A	B

ĐỀ THI THPT QG MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT BÌNH PHÚ- ĐỀ 05

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. reduce	B. impress	C. technique	D. finish
Question 2: A. enthusiast	B. preferential	C. participant	D. particular

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 3: A. coach	B. goat	C. toad	D. broad
Question 4: A. laughs	B. mouths	C. slopes	D. presidents

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5: If you knew he was ill, why ______ you ______ to see him?

A. didn’t / come

B. wouldn’t / come

C. should/come

D. would/come

Question 6: They ______ tired now because they ______ in the garden since 8 o’clock.

A. are/ worked

B. were/were working

C. are/have been working

D. were/worked

Question 7: I enjoy______ busy. I don’t like it when there is nothing______.

A. being/to do                      B. to be/doing

C. to be/to do                       D. being/doing

Question 8: Women no longer have to do hard work nowadays as they used to, ______?

A. are they                              B. aren’t they

C. do they                               D. don’t they

Question 9: You______ Tom yesterday. He’s been on business for a week now.

A. mustn’t have seen 

B. could not have seen

C. may have not seen

D. can’t have seen

Question 10: He was the last man______ the ship.

A. who leave                      B. to leave

C. leaving                           D. left

Question 11: No one can predict the future exactly. Things may happen______.

A. expectation                   B. expected 

C. expectedly                     D. unexpectedly

Question 12: I must tell you about my______ when I first arrived in London.

A. incidents                       B. happenings

C. experiences                  D. events

Question 13: The local people were not very friendly towards us, in fact there was a distinctly ______ atmosphere.

A. hostile                                 B. offensive 

C. rude                                     D. abrupt

Question 14: We have bought some______.

A. German lovely old glasses

B. German old lovely glasses

C. lovely old German glasses 

D. old lovely German glasses

Question 15: He sent his children to the park so that he could have some______.

A. fresh and quiet

B. quiet and peace

C. peace and quiet

D. fresh and peace

Question 16: I____ to see Chris on my way home.

A. dropped back                     B. dropped in

C. dropped out                       D. dropped off

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 17: At times, I look at him and wonder what is going on his mind.

A. Never                         B. Always 

C. Hardly                        D. Sometimes

Question 18: We went away on holiday last week, but it rained day in day out.

A. every other day

B. every single day

C. every second day

D. every two days

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 19: The nominating committee always meets behind closed doors, lest its deliberations become known prematurely.

A. privately                        B. safely 

C. publicly                          D. dangerously

Question 20: She was unhappy that she lost contact with a lot of her old friends when she went abroad to study.

A. made room for

B. put in charge of 

C. got in touch with

D. lost control of

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 21: Denis has just bought a new suit that he likes very much. Choose the most suitable response to fill in the blank in the following exchange.

- Tom: “You look very smart in that suit, Denis!” – Denis: “_______.”

A. No, I don’t think so

B. Oh, you don’t like it, do you?

C. Thanks, I bought it at Mike’s  

D. Thanks, my mum has bought it

Question 22: John is in Hanoi and wants to change some money. He asks a local passer-by the way to the bank. Choose the most suitable response to fill in the blank in the following exchange.

- John: “Can you show me the way to the nearest bank, please?” - Passer-by: “_______.”

A. Not way, sorry.  

B. Just round the corner over there.

C. Look it up in a dictionary! 

D. There’s no traffic near here.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 23: Sometimes all it take (A) is a few minutes to help (B) you and your family members feel (C) more in touch with (D) each other.             

Question 24: The examination will test (A) your ability to understand spoken (B) English, to read non technical language, and writing (C) correctly. (D)

Question 25: We always have believed (A) that honesty is the best policy (B) in personal (C) as well as professional (D) matters.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks

I had never been to Denmark before, so when I set out to catch the ferry in early May, I little suspected that by the end of the trip I'd have made such lasting friendships. Esjberg is a (26)_____port for a cyclist's arrival, where tourist information can be obtained and money changed. A cycle track leads (27)________ town and down to Ribe, where I spent my first night. The only appointment I had to keep was a meeting with a friend who was flying out in June. I wanted to use my time well, so I had planned a route which would include several small islands and various parts of the countryside.

In my (28)_____, a person travelling alone sometimes meets with unexpected hospitality, and this trip was no (29)_____. On only my second day, I got into conversation with a cheerful man who turned out to be the local baker. He insisted that I should join his family for lunch, and, while we were eating, he contacted his daughter in Odense. Within minutes, he had (30)_____ for me to visit her and her family. Then I was sent on my way with a fresh loaf of bread to keep me going, and the feeling that this would turn out to be a wonderful holiday.

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ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 5

1	2	3	4	5
D	B	D	B	B
6	7	8	9	10
C	A	C	B	B
11	12	13	14	15
D	C	A	C	C
16	17	18	19	20
B	D	B	C	C
21	22	23	24	25
C	B	A	C	A
26	27	28	29	30
D	C	B	A	D
31	32	33	34	35
A	B	D	B	A
36	37	38	39	40
B	C	B	A	C
41	42	43	44	45
C	B	C	A	D
46	47	48	49	50
B	A	B	C	A

...

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