Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG năm 2021-2022 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THPT Nguyễn Hữu Thọ

TRƯỜNG THPT NGUYỄN HỮU THỌ

ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM HỌC 2021-2022 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH (Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút)

Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part

Question 1: Although the prank was meant in fun, the man became very angry

A. remark          B. praise      C. trick                       D. game

Question 2: It was impossible to know how precarious the situation was

A. hazardous             B. ludicrous                 C. facetious                 D. marvelous

Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions

Question 3: I used my calculator; otherwise it _____ longer

A. will take      B. would take              C. took         D. would have taken

Question 4: The capacity for growth is inherent ____ all people

A. from      B. in       C. at             D. on  

Question 5: Not only ____ in the field of psychology but animal behavior is examined as well

A. is studied human behavior

B. human behavior

C. is human behavior studied

D. human behavior studied

Question 6: I had to look up the number in the telephone ____      

A. directors                 B. directly          C. direction          D. directory

Question 7: There are a few things I didn’t like about Professor Chung’s math class, but ____ I enjoyed it

A. large and by           B. by and large          C. big and large           D. far and large

Question 8: These days almost everybody _____ the dangers of smoking

A. is aware about        B. know of        C. is aware of             D. are aware of

Question 9: A: “____?”

– B: “Yes. I want to send some flowers to my wife in Italy”

A. Can you help me                                        B. Do you like flowers

C. Can I help you                                          D. What do you like

Question 10: Only if I had known the difference ____ the more expensive car

A. would I bought                               B. would I have bought

C. would I buy                                    D. I would have bought

Question 11: How many musical notes of the 11,000 tones that the human ear can distinguish ____ in the musical scale?

A. is it          B. it is        C. are there                D. there are

Question 12: You ____ to our conversation. It was private

A. haven’t been listening

B. shouldn’t have been listening

C. couldn’t have been listening

D. hadn’t been listening

Question 13: The bank is on ____ side of the street

A. another                   B. other                       C. the other                D. the next 

Question 14: The smaller the room is, ____ furniture it needs

A. less                         B. little                        C. the less                   D. the fewer

Question 15: What he says makes no _______ to me

A. reason                     B. truth                        C. sense                      D. matter

Question 16: In the 1960s ____ was concerned about pollution

A. hardly everyone                             B. hardly anyone

C. rarely anyone                                  D. rarely everyone

Question 17: I hope I haven’t go ____ luggage

A. so many                  B. so much                  C. too much                D. too many

Question 18: ____ ghost exists in the world. That’s your illusion

A. No such a thing                              B. No such a thing as a

C. No such thing as a                                    D. No such thing as

Question 19: Clothing made of plastic fibers has certain advantage over made of natural

A. one                         B. the one                    C. that                                    D. what

Question 20: I am _____ of the two children in our family

A. the tallest                B. the taller                C. tall                          D. taller

Question 21: He impressed ____ his mind the words his father said to him that day

A. in                            B. on                           C. at                             D. of   

Question 22: “I think golf really great” “______”

A. Do you? I think it’s boring                      B. Neither do I

C. Almost everyday                                        D. Don’t you believe so

Question 23: “_______” “Oh, but it’s boring”

A. Would you prefer news to films?

B. I often watch the news at night

C. Don’t you like the news

D. I think you should watch the news

Question 24: Bit by bit, a child makes the necessary changes to make his language _____

A. as other people                               B. as other people’s

C. like other people                             D. like other people’s

Question 25: GDP is the abbreviation for “_______”

A. Growth Domestic Products

B. Global Domestic Products

C. General Domestic Productivity

D. Gross Domestic Product

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 26-35

According to some accounts, the first optical telescope was accidentally invented in the 1600s by children who put two glass lenses together while playing with them in a Dutch optical shop. The owner of the shop, Hans Lippershey, looked through the lenses and was amazed by the way they made the nearby church look so much larger. Soon after that, he invented a device that he called a “looker”, a long thin tube where light passed in a straight line from the front lens to the viewing lens at the other end of the tube. In 1608 he tried to sell his invention unsuccessfully. In the same year, someone described the “looker” to the Italian scientists Galileo, who made his own version of the device. In 1610 Galileo used his version to make observations of the Moon, the planet Jupiter, and the Milky Way. In April of 1611, Galileo showed his device to guests at a banquet in his honor. One of guests suggested a name for the device: telescope

When Isaac Newton began using Galileo’s telescope more than a century later, he noticed a problem. The type of telescope that Galileo designed is called a refractor because the front lens bends, or refracts, the light. However, the curved front lens also caused the light to the separated into colors. This meant that when Newton looked through the refracting telescope, the images of bright objects appeared with a ring of colors around them. This sometimes interfered with viewing. He solved this problem by designing a new type of telescope that used a curved mirror. This mirror concentrated the light and reflected a beam of light to the eyepiece at the other end of the telescope. Because Newton used a mirror, his telescope was called a reflector

Very much larger optical telescopes can now be found in many parts of the world, built on hills and mountains far from city lights. The world’s largest refracting telescope is located at the Yerkes Observatory in Williams Bay, Wisconsin. Another telescope stands on Mount Palomar in California. This huge reflecting telescope was for many years the largest reflecting telescope in the world until an even larger reflecting telescope was built in the Caucasus Mountains. A fourth famous reflector telescope, the Keck Telescope situated on a mountain in Hawaii, does not use a single large mirror to collect the light. Instead, the Keck uses the combined light that falls on thirty-six mirrors

Radio telescopes, like optical telescopes allow astronomers to collect data from outer space, but they are different in important ways. First of all, they look very different because instead of light waves, they collect radio waves. Thus, in the place of lenses or mirror, radio telescopes employ bowl-shaped disks that resemble huge TV satellite dished. Also, apart from their distinctive appearance, radio telescope and optical telescopes use different methods to record the information they collect. Optical telescopes use cameras to take photographs of visible objects, while radio telescopes use radio receivers to record radio waves from distant object in space

Question 26: What can be inferred about the first optical telescope?

A. It was bought by children

B. It was invented in America

C. It was sold by a shop owner

D. It was invented by accident

Question 27: Which of the following is NOT true about Hans Lippershey?

A. He owned a shop

B. He was a Dutch

C. He sold his invention in 1608

D. He got his idea of a telescope from the kids in his shop

Question 28: When was Galileo’s invention called “telescope”?

A. in 1611                   B. in 1610                   C. in 1608                   D. in 1600

Question 29: What did Newton notice about Galileo’s telescope when he used it?

A. It had many problems

B. It refracted the light

C. It was called a refractor

D. It had a curved mirror

Question 30: What did Newton do with Galileo’s telescope?

A. He called it reflector

B. He sent it back to Galileo  

C. He improved it

D. He stopped using it after his notice

Question 31: When did Newton start to use Galileo’s telescope?

A. in the 17^th century                          B. in the 18^th century

C. in the 16^th century                          D. in the 15^th century

Question 32: Where does the largest reflecting telescope stand?

A. in Wisconsin                                  B. in California

C. in Hawaii                                        D. in Caucasus Mountains

Question 33: Which of the following can both optical and radio telescope do?

A. Taking photographs of visible objects

B. Allowing a collection of data from outer space

C. Collecting radio waves

D. Collecting light waves

Question 34: Which of the following True about optical and radio telescope?

A. They use similar ways to collect data

B. They contain at least a mirror

C. They look different

D. They have similar appearance

Question 35: How many types of telescope are mentioned in the passage?

A. 1                 B. 2                 C. 3                 D. 4

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36-45

The miracle therapy of blood transfusion was invented by and English doctor, James Blundell. In 1818, he performed the first transfusion, on a patient said to be incurable. Using a syringe, he successfully injected blood taken from one of his students. In 1829, he saved a woman suffering from a severe hemorrhage. About 1900 Dr. Karl Landsteiner of Vienna found that some people’s blood was not compatible with others’ and that these blood variations could be classified into groups. When portable transfusion apparatus was invented, direct transfusion between persons of the same blood type could be performed on the battlefield. In 1914 the discovery of anticoagulants made possible the storage of the blood future use

But to save lives, the right blood had to be in the right place at the right time. The first blood service was established by the British Red Cross in 1921. During the War World II, Red Cross blood banks saved countless lives. Now the Red Cross engages in transfusion work in sixty-eight countries. It recruits donors, collects, stores, and distributes blood, determines blood groups and prepares blood derivatives

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ĐỀ THI THPT QG MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT NGUYỄN HỮU THỌ- ĐỀ 02

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 1. Only aggressive species of small animal life are likely to survive in the rough waters nears shallow coral reefs.

A. passive

B. strong

C. assertive

D. marine

Question 2. We decided to pay for the car on the installment plan.

A. credit card             

B. piece by piece

C. monthly payment  

D. cash and carry

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 3 to 7.

Polar bears are in danger of dying out. Unlike some other endangered animals, it's not hunters that are the problem, it's climate change. Since 1979, the ice cap at the Arctic Circle where the polar bears has reduced in size (3)_________ about 30 per cent. The temperature in the Arctic has slowly been rising and this is (4)_________  the sea ice to melt, endangering the polar bears' home. The polar bears' main sources of food are the different types of seals found in the Arctic. They catch them by waiting next to the air holes seals have made in the ice. (5)_________  the bears are very strong swimmers, they could never catch seals in water. This means that the bears really do rely on the ice to hunt.

Polar bears also need sea ice to travel. They can cover a huge territory and often swim from one part of the ice to another. They have been (6)_________  to swim up to 100 km, but when there is less ice, they may have to swim further and this can (7)_________  fatal to the bears. A number of bears have drown in the last few years and scientists believe that it is because they were not able to reach more ice before they became too tired and couldn't swim any further.

Question 3. A. in	B. by	C. within	D. for
Question 4. A. making	B. turning	C. causing	D. resulting
Question 5. A. Even	B. Despite	C. As	D. Although
Question 6. A. known	B. learnt	C. experienced	D. noticed
Question 7. A. happen	B. come	C. end	D. prove

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 8. A. houses            B. rises      C. horses        D. chooses

Question 9. A. except             B. excel     C. excess        D. exhaust

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions

In the American colonies there was little money. England did not supply the colonies with coins and did not allow the colonies to make their own coins, except for the Massachusetts Bay Colony, which received permission for a short period in 1652 to make several kinds of silver coins. England wanted to keep money out of America as a means of controlling trade: America was forced to trade only with England if it did not have the money to buy products from other countries. The result during this pre-revolutionary period was that the colonists used various goods in place of money: beaver pelts, Indian wampum, and tobacco leaves were all commonly used substitutes for money. The colonists also made use of any foreign coins they could obtain. Dutch, Spanish, French, and English coins were all in use in the American colonies.

During the Revolutionary War, funds were needed to finance the world, so each of the individual states and the Continental Congress issued paper money. So much of this paper money was printed that by the end of the war, almost no one would accept it. As a result, trade in goods and the use of foreign coins still flourished during this period.

By the time the Revolutionary War had been won by the American colonists, the monetary system was in a state of total disarray. To remedy this situation, the new Constitution of the United States, approved in 1789, allowed Congress to issue money. The individual states could no longer have their own money supply. A few years later, the Coinage Act of 1792 made the dollar the official currency of the United States and put the country on a bimetallic standard. In this bimetallic system, both gold and silver were legal money, and the rate of exchange of silver to gold was fixed by the government at sixteen to one.

Question 10. The passage mainly discusses

A. the American monetary system of the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries.

B. American money from past to present.

C. the English monetary policies in colonial America.

D. the effect of the Revolution on American money.

Question 11. The passage indicates that during the colonial period, money was

A. scarce freely by the colonists

B. coined freely by the colonists

C. used extensively for trade

D. supplied by England

Question 12. The Massachusetts Bay Colony was allowed to make coins

A. continuously from the inception of the colony

B. for a short time during one year

C. from 1652 until the Revolutionary War

D. throughout the seventeenth century

Question 13. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as a substitute for money during the colonial period?

A. Tobacco 

B. Cotton

C. Wampum 

D. Beaver furs

Question 14. According to the passage, what happened to the American monetary system during the Revolutionary War?

A. The Continental Congress issued gold and silver coins.

B. American money replaced trade in goods and foreign coins.

C. Individual states were not allowed to issue money.

D. So much paper money was circulated that it lost its value.

Question 15. How was the monetary system arranged in the Constitution?

A. Various state governments, including Massachusetts, could issue money.

B. The dollar was made the official currency of the U.S.

C. The U.S. officially went on a bimetallic monetary system.

D. Only the U.S. Congress could issue money.

Question 16. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true about the bimetallic monetary system?

A. Gold could be exchanged for silver at a rate of 16 to 1.

B. It was established in 1792.

C. The monetary system was based on two metals.

D. Either gold or silver could be used as official money.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to each of the following exchanges

Question 17. Maria: "It was very kind of you to help me out, John." – John: “_______.”

A. You can say that again.

B. I'm glad you like it.

C. That was the least I could do

D. Thanks a million

Question 18. Irene: "Do you fancy going to a movie this evening?" - Frank: "  _____."

A. I'm sorry. I don't know that. 

B. Not at all. Go ahead.

C. Not so bad. And you? 

D. That would be nice.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions

Question 19. It is very difficult to _______ the exact meaning of an idiom in a foreign language.

A. exchange

B. transfer  

C. convert  

D. convey

Question 20. ______ high school, Nam attended a university in the city centre.

A. Having finished 

B. To have finished

C. Having been finished 

D. To finish

Question 21. Applications_______in after 30 April will not be considered.

A. send                        B. that is sent 

C. sent                         D. which sent

Question 22. Only three of the students in my class are girls;________ are all boys.

A. the others               B. others

C. other students         D. the other

Question 23. Tom_______things round the house, which is annoying.

A. always leaves          B. is leaving

C. has always left         D. is always leaving

Question 24. More than ten victims______missing in the storm last week.

A. are reported to have been

B. are reporting to be

C. are reporting to have been

D. are reported to be

Question 25. I hope you will______notice of what I am going to tell you.

A. take                        B. get 

C. gain                         D. keep

Question 26. Oil is essential for_______ manufacture of______plastics.

A. the - the                  B. the - ø

C. ø - ø                        D. a - the

Question 27. The book would have been perfect______ending.

A. hadn't it been for   

B. had it not been for

C. it hadn't been for

D. it had not been for

Question 28. The teacher said that I would be able to speak English fluently______six months.

A. since                       B. in 

C. till                           D. by

Question 29. Judo players are______to their opponents and bow to each other before and after a contest.

A. respectfully            B. respectful

C. respectable             D. respect

Question 30. While Tom is traveling around the world, he often______enough local languages to get by.

A. gets in                     B. puts up 

C. takes off                   D. picks up

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions

Question 31. It is (A) primary education that (B) establishes foundations in science, geography, history, or (C) other social sciences (D) for young students.

Question 32. Manufacturers may use (A) food additives for preserving (B), to color, to flavor, or to fortify (C) foods. (D)

Question 33. Approximately (A) 80 percent of (B) farm income in Utah it is derived (C) from livestock and livestock products. (D)

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions

Question 34. A. information     B. development   C. psychology     D. activity

Question 35. A. machine         B. office               C. fiction              D. expert

Mark the letter Ar B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions

Question 36. If it hadn't been for my father's encouragement, I would never have become a chef.

A. If my father hadn't been courageous, I wouldn't have become a chef.

B. It was my father who encouraged me to become a chef.

C. If my father had encouraged me, I would never have become a chef.

D. My father didn't encourage me to become a chef.

Question 37. He cannot afford a new computer.

A. The new computer is so expensive but he can buy it.

B. Therefore, he would buy a new computer.

C. So, he would buy a new computer.

D. The new computer is so expensive that he cannot buy it.

Question 38. It was your assistance that enabled us to get achievement.

A. Without your assistance, we could get achievement

B. Your assistance discouraged us from get achievement.

C. But for your assistance, we could not have got achievement.

D. If you assisted us, we could not get achievement.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions

Just two months after the flight of Apollo 10, the Apollo 11 astronauts made their historic landing on the surface of the Moon. This momentous trip for humanity also provided scientists with an abundance of material for study; from rock and soil samples brought back from the Moon, scientists have been able to determine much about the composition of the Moon (as well as to draw) inferences about the development of the Moon from its composition.

The Moon soil that came back on Apollo 11 contains small bits of rock and glass which were probably ground from larger rocks when meteors impacted with the surface of the Moon. The bits of glass are spherical in shape and constitute approximately half of the Moon soil. Scientists found no trace of animal or plant life in this soil.

In addition to the Moon soil, astronauts gathered two basic types of rocks from the surface of the Moon: Basalt and breccia. Basalt is a cooled and hardened volcanic lava common to the Earth. Since basalt is formed under extremely high temperatures, the presence of this type of rock is an indication that the temperature of the Moon was once extremely hot. Breccia, the other kind of rock brought back by the astronauts, was formed during the impact of falling objects on the surface of the Moon. It consists of small pieces of rock compressed together by the force of impact. Gases such as hydrogen and helium were found in some of the rocks, and scientists believe that these gases were carried to the Moon by the solar wind, the streams of gases that are constantly emitted by the Sun.

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ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 2

1	2	3	4	5
C	C	B	C	D
6	7	8	9	10
A	D	C	D	A
11	12	13	14	15
A	B	B	D	D
16	17	18	19	20
A	C	D	D	A
21	22	23	24	25
C	A	D	A	A
26	27	28	29	30
B	B	B	B	D
31	32	33	34	35
C	B	C	A	A
36	37	38	39	40
B	D	C	A	C
41	42	43	44	45
B	C	B	B	C
46	47	48	49	50
C	D	D	A	A

ĐỀ THI THPT QG MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT NGUYỄN HỮU THỌ- ĐỀ 03

Read the following passage and write the letter A, B, C or D on the top of the first page to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

In 1972. a century after the first national park in the United States was established at Yellowstone, legislation was passed to create the National Marine Sanctuaries Program. The intent of this legislation was to provide protection to selected coastal habitats similar to that existing for land areas designated as national parks. The designation of an areas a marine sanctuary indicates that it is a protected area, just as a national park is. People are permitted to visit and observe there, but living organisms and their environments may not be harmed or removed.

The National Marine Sanctuaries Program is administered by the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration, a branch of the United States Department of Commerce. Initially, 70 sites were proposed as candidates for sanctuary status. Two and a half decades later, only fifteen sanctuaries had been designated, with half of these established after 1978. They range in size from the very small (less than 1 square kilometer) Fagatele Bay National Marine Sanctuary in American Samoa to the Monterey Bay National Marine Sanctuary in California, extending over 15,744 square kilometers.

The National Marine Sanctuaries Program is a crucial part of new management practices in which whole communities of species, and not just individual species, are offered some degree of protection from habitat degradation and overexploitation. Only in this way can a reasonable degree of marine species diversity be maintained in a setting that also maintains the natural interrelationships that exist among these species.

Several other types of marine protected areas exist in the United States and other countries. The National Estuarine Research Reserve System managed by the United States government, includes 23 designated and protected estuaries. Outside the United States, marine protected-area programs exist as marine parks, reserves and preserves.

Over 100 designated areas exist around the periphery of the Caribbean Sea. Others range from the well-known Australian Great Barrer Reef Marine Park to lesser-known parks in countries such as Thailand and Indonesia, where tourism is placing growing pressures on fragile coral reef systems. As state, national, and international agencies come to recognize the importance of conserving marine biodiversity, marine projected areas whether as sanctuaries, parks, or estuarine reserves, will play an increasingly important role in preserving that diversity.

Question 1.  What does the passage mainly discuss? 

A. Differences among marine parks, sanctuaries, and reserves   

B. Various marine conservation programs 

C. International agreements on coastal protection   

D. Similarities between land and sea protected environments  

Question 2. The word “administered” the passage is closest in meaning to  ……

A. managed               B. recognized 

C. opposed                D. justified 

Question 3. The passage mentions the Monterey Bay National Marine Sanctuary in paragraph 2 as an example of a sanctuary that  ….

A. is not well known  

B. covers a large area                         

C. is smaller than the Fagatele Bay National Marine Sanctuary       

D. was not originally proposed for sanctuary status  

Question 4. According to the passage, when was the National Marine Sanctuaries Program established? 

A. Before 1972              

B. After 1987                              

C. One hundred years before national parks were established   

D. One hundred years after Yellowstone National Park was established 

Question 5. According to the passage, all of the following are achievements of the National Marine Sanctuaries Program EXCEPT …..

A. the discovery of several new marine organisms  

B. the preservation of connections between individual marine species 

C. the protection of coastal habitats   

D. the establishment of areas where the public can observe marine life 

Question 6. The word “periphery” in the passage is closest in meaning to 

A. depth                      B. landmass

C. warm habitat           D. outer edge 

Question 7. The passage mentions which of the following as a threat to marine areas outside the United States? 

A. Limitations in financial support                

B. The use of marine species as food   

C. Variability of the climate                          

D. Increases in tourism 

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer for each of the blanks.

Question 8. He is sleeping in his mother’s house this week as he …..his house painted.

A. has                        B. is having

C. had                        D. has had

Question 9. John and Karen persuaded me ….. the conference.

A. attending                B. attended

C. to attend                 D. to have attended

Question 10. I think it’s ….. to take a few more pictures.

A. enough light           B. lightly enough

C. light enough           D. enough as light

Question 11.  Flower oils are ….. of the ingredients used in making perfume.

A among expensive

B. among the most expensive

C. being most expensive

D. expensive

Question 12. ….I heard the phone ring, I didn’t answer it.

A. because                 B. Only if

C. Even though           D. Provided that

Question 13. Ann has a lot of books, …… she has never read.

A. most of that

B. most of these

C. most of which

D. which most of them

Question 14. My first school day was a ….. event in my life.

A. memory                  B. memorized

C. memorial                D. memorable

Question 15. If we didn’t …. any measures to protect whales, they would disappear forever.

A. use                          B. make

C. take                         D. do

Question 16. People who take on a second job inevitably ….. themselves to greater stress.

A. offer                       B. subject

C. field                        D. place

Question 17. One condition of this job is that you must be …… to work at weekends.

A. available                 B. capable

C. acceptable              D. accessible

Question 18. Could you lend me some money to ….. me over to the end of the month?

A. hand                       B. tide

C. get                          D. make

Question 19. It is the …..of stupidity to go walking in the mountains in this weather.

A. height                     B. depth

C. source                     D. matter

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20. -“ Would you mind lending me you bike?” – “ ……”

A. Yes. Here it is

B. Not at all

C. Great

D. Yes, let’s

Question 21. Havy: “Thanks for your help, Judy.”  Judy: “……..”

A. With all my heart

B. Never remind me

C. It’s my pleasure

D. Wish you

Read the following passage and write the letter A, B, C or D on the top of the first page to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

In the course of its history, human inventions have dramatically increased the average amount of energy available for use per person. Primitive peoples in cold regions burned wood and animal dung to heat their caves, cook food, and drive off animals by fire. The first step toward the developing of more efficient fuels was taken when people discovered that they could use vegetable oils and animal fats in lieu of gathered or cut wood. Charcoal gave off more intensive heat than wood and was more easily obtainable than organic fats. The Greeks first began to use coal for metal smelting in the 4th century, but it did not come into extensive use until the Industrial Revolution.

In the 1700s, at the beginning of the Industrial Revolution, most energy used in the United States and other nations undergoing industrialization was obtained from perpetual and renewable sources, such as wood, water streams, domesticated animal labor, and wind. These were predominantly locally available supplies. By mid-1800s, 91 percent of all commercial energy consumed in the United States and European countries was obtained from wood. However, at the beginning of the 20th century, coal became a major energy source and replaced wood in industrializing countries. Although in most regions and climate zones wood was more readily accessible than coal, the latter represents a more concentrated source of energy. In 1910, natural gas and oil firmly replaced coal as the main source of fuel because they are lighter and, therefore, cheaper to transport. They burned more cleanly than coal and polluted less. Unlike coal, oil could be refined to manufacture liquid fuels for vehicles, a very important consideration in the early 1900s, when the automobile arrived on the scene.

By 1984, non-renewable fossil fuels, such as oil, coal, and natural gas, provided over 82 percent of the commercial and industrial energy used in the world. Small amounts of energy were derived from nuclear fission, and the remaining 16 percent came from burning direct perpetual and renewable fuels, such as biomass. Between 1700 and 1986, a large number of countries shifted from the use of energy from local sources to a centralized generation of hydropower and solar energy converted to electricity. The energy derived from non-renewable fossil fuels has been increasingly produced in one location and transported to another, as is the case with most automobile fuels. In countries with private, rather than public transportation, the age of non-renewable fuels has created a dependency on a finite resource that will have to be replaced.

Alternative fuel sources are numerous, and shale oil and hydrocarbons are just two examples. The extraction of shale oil from large deposits in Asian and European regions has proven to be labor consuming and costly. The resulting product is sulfur-and nitrogen-rich, and large scale extractions are presently prohibitive. Similarly, the extraction of hydrocarbons from tar sands in Alberta and Utah is complex. Semi-solid hydrocarbons cannot be easily separated from the sandstone and limestone that carry them, and modern technology is not sufficiently versatile for a large-scale removal of the material. However, both sources of fuel may eventually be needed as petroleum prices continue to rise and limitations in fossil fuel availability make alternative deposits more attractive.

Question 22. What is the main topic of the passage?

A. Application of various fuels

B. Natural resources and fossil fuels

C. A history of energy use

D. A historical review of energy rates

Question 23. It can be inferred from the first paragraph that

A. coal mining was essential for primitive peoples

B. the Greeks used coal in industrial productions

C.  the development of efficient fuel was a gradual process

D.  the discovery of efficient fuels was mostly accidental

Question 24. The author of the passage implies that in the 1700s, sources of energy were

A. used for commercial purposes

B. used in various combination

C. not derived from mineral deposits

D. it could be converted to automobile fuel.

Question 25. The phrase “the latter” refers to

A. wood                      B. coal

C. most regions            D. climate zones

Question 26. According to the passage, what was the greatest advantage of oil as fuel?

A. it was a concentrated source of energy.

B. it was lighter and cheaper than coal.

C. it replaced wood and coal and reduced pollution.

D. it could be converted to automobile fuel.

Question 27. It can be inferred from the passage that in the early 20th centurgy, energy was obtained primarily from

A. Fossil fuels

B. Nuclear fission

C. Hydraulic and solar sources

D. Burning biomass

Question 28. The author of the passage implies that alternative sources of fuel are curently

A. being used for consumption  

B. available in few locations

C. being explored

D. examined on a large scale

Question 29. The word “prohibitive” is closest in meaning to

A. prohibited               B. provided

C. too expensive          D. too expedient

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the top of the first page to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

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ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 3

1	2	3	4	5
B	A	B	D	A
6	7	8	9	10
D	D	B	C	C
11	12	13	14	15
B	C	C	D	C
16	17	18	19	20
B	A	B	A	B
21	22	23	24	25
B	C	C	C	B
26	27	28	29	30
D	A	A	C	A
31	32	33	34	35
A	A	A	C	D
36	37	38	39	40
D	A	B	B	B
41	42	43	44	45
A	B	C	C	B
46	47	48	49	50
A	D	B	C	A

ĐỀ THI THPT QG MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT NGUYỄN HỮU THỌ- ĐỀ 04

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 1: The maintenance of these old castles must cost a lot of money.

A. building                  B. foundation 

C. destruction             D. preservation

Question 2: People in the mountainous areas are still in the habit of destroying forests for cultivation.

A. planting                  B. farming

C. industry                  D. wood

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 3: Only one person who can provide the best solution to the question will be promoted and ______ a financial grant.

A. equipped                B. served 

C. entitled                   D. awarded

Question 4: If some endangered species ______ in zoos, it would help to ensure their future survival.

A. will be kept            B. are kept 

C. had been kept         D. were kept

Question 5: My grandfather retired from work last month. He _______ for the same company for 40 years.

A. was working           B. had been working

C. has worked             D. had worked

Question 6: This building _______ finished by the end of last year but there have been so many strikes that it isn’t finished yet.

A. will have been 

B. should have been

C. was to have been

D. may not have been

Question 7: Susan rarely stays up late, _______?

A. is she                      B. isn’t she 

C. does she                 D. doesn’t she

Question 8: Hearing about people who mistreat animals makes me go hot under the ______.

A. chin                        B. collar

C. sleeves                    D. vest

Question 9: Florida, ______ the Sunshine state, attracts many tourists every year.

A. is known as            B. that is known as

C. which known as     D. known as

Question 10: You look really tired. You could ______ a week’s holiday, I think.

A. do with                   B. make for 

C. pass for                   D. make with

Question 11: For Arabic speakers, more than two consonants together can be difficult to _______, so they often insert a short vowel between them.

A. announce                B. denounce 

C. pronounce              D. renounce

Question 12: Flat-roofed buildings are not very ______ in areas where there is a great deal of rain or snow.

A. severe                     B. serious 

C. suitable                   D. sensitive

Question 13: The local press has been pouring ______ on the mayor for dissolving the council.

A. scorn                       B. blame 

C. disapproval             D. hatred

Question 14: As a small boy, he was used to ______ alone in the house for an hour or two.

A. being left                B. leaving  

C. be left                     D. leave

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks

Child workers, some as young as 10, have been found working in a textile factory in conditions described as close to slavery to produce clothes that appear destined for one of the major high street retailers.

The discovery of these children working in appalling conditions in the Shahpur Jat area of Delhi has renewed concerns about the (15)______ by some large retail chains of their garment production to India, recognised (16)______ the United Nations as one of the world’s hotspots for child labour. According to one (17)______, over 20 per cent of India's economy is dependent on children, (18)______ comes to a total of 55 million youngsters under 14 working. Consumers in the West should not only be demanding answers from retailers about how their (19)______  are produced but also should be looking into their consciences at how they spend their money and whether cheap prices in the West are worth the suffering caused to so many children.

Question 15: A. outsourcing	B. outsources	C. outsourced	D. outsource
Question 16: A. for	B. with	C. of	D. by
Question 17: A. evaluation	B. investigation	C. calculation	D. estimate
Question 18: A. who	B. which	C. what	D. that
Question 19: A. goods	B. stuff	C. garment	D. ware

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 20: Mike graduated with a good degree. However, he joined the ranks of the unemployed.

A. If Mike graduated with a good degree, he would join the ranks of the unemployed.

B. That Mike graduated with a good degree helped him join the ranks of the unemployed.

C. Mike joined the ranks of the unemployed because he graduated with a good degree.

D. Although Mike graduated with a good degree, he joined the ranks of the unemployed.

Question 21: Nam defeated the former champion in three sets. He finally won the inter-school table tennis championship.

A. Although Nam defeated the former champion in three sets, he did not win the title of inter- school table tennis championship.

B. Being defeated the former champion in three sets, Nam lost the chance to play the final games of inter-school table tennis championship.

C. Having defeated the former champion in three sets, Nam did not hold the title of champion.

D. Having defeated the former champion in three sets, Nam won the inter-school table tennis championship.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 22: He was driving very fast because he didn’t know the road was icy.

A. If he knew the road was icy, he wouldn’t drive so fast.

B. He hadn’t been driving very fast if he would have known the road was icy.

C. If he had known the road was icy, he wouldn’t have been driving so fast.

D. He wasn’t driving very fast if he would know the road was icy.

Question 23: It is difficult to start looking for a job at my age.

A. It is difficult for me to get employed at my age.

B. I’m young, so it is difficult to start looking for a job.

C. Getting employed at such ages is also difficult.

D. I don’t think I can start looking for a job now.

Question 24: I spent more time on the last question than I did on the first four.

A. The last question was the most difficult for me.

B. I answered only the first four questions.

C. I found the last question easier than the other questions.

D. I failed to get to the last question.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions

Unlike these fish, which are actually extinct, the coelacanth is a type of fish that was believed to be extinct. However, an unexpected twentieth- century rediscovery of living coelacanths has brought about a reassessment of the status of the prehistoric sea creature that was believed to have long since disappeared from the Earth.

From fossil remains of the coelacanth, paleontologists have determined that the coelacanth was in existence around 350 million years ago, during the Paleozoic Era, more than 100 million years before the first dinosaurs arrived on the Earth. The most recent fossilized coelacanths date from around 70 million years ago, near the end of the age of dinosaurs. Because no fossilized remnants of coelacanth was believed to have died out around the same time as the dinosaurs.

The prehistoric coelacanth studied by paleontologists had distinctive characteristics that differentiated it from other fish. It was named for its hollow spine and was known to have been a powerful carnivore because of its many sharp teeth and a special joint in the skull that allowed the ferocious teeth to move in coordination with the lower jaw. It also had a pair of fins with unusual bony and muscular development that allowed the coelacanth to dart around the ocean floor. These fins also enable the coelacanth to search out prey trying to hide on the ocean bottom.

In 1938, a living specimen of the coelacanth was discovered in the catch of a fishing boat off the coast of South Africa, and since then numerous other examples of the coelacanth have been found in the waters of the Indian Ocean. This modern version of the coelacanth is not exactly the same as its prehistoric cousin. Today's coelacanth is larger than its prehistoric relative, measuring up to six feet in length and weighing up to 150 pounds. However, the modern version of the coelacanth still possesses the characteristic hollow spine and distinctive fins with their unusual bony and muscular structure.

Question 25: It can be inferred from the passage that the first dinosaurs most likely appeared on Earth around

A. 450 million years ago

B. 350 million years ago

C. 150 million years ago

D. 250 million years ago

Question 26: It can be inferred from the passage that the word “coelacanth” comes from the Greek

A. sharp teeth              B. extinct fish

C. hollow spine            D. bony fingers

Question 27: What is NOT true about the prehistoric coelacanth, according to the passage ?

A. It was smaller than the modern coelacanth.

B. It had a hollow pine and distinctive fins.

C. It weighed less than 150 pounds.

D. It measured as much as six feet in length.

Question 28: The pronoun “It” in the third paragraph refers to

A. coordination           B. coelacanth

C. joint                        D. jaw

Question 29: What is stated in the passage about the prehistoric coelacanth?

A. It had few teeth.

B. It was a rather feeble fish.

C. It lived on plants. 

D. It moved its teeth in an unusual way.

Question 30: This passage is about a fish

A. that is extinct 

C. that is becoming extinct

B. that once was extinct 

D. that is not extinct

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ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 4

1	2	3	4	5
D	B	D	D	B
6	7	8	9	10
B	C	B	D	A
11	12	13	14	15
C	C	A	A	A
16	17	18	19	20
D	D	B	A	D
21	22	23	24	25
D	C	A	A	D
26	27	28	29	30
C	D	B	D	D
31	32	33	34	35
C	D	B	C	B
36	37	38	39	40
B	C	C	B	A
41	42	43	44	45
D	D	C	D	C
46	47	48	49	50
D	A	B	D	D

ĐỀ THI THPT QG MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT NGUYỄN HỮU THỌ- ĐỀ 05

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. change	B. champagne	C. channel	D. choice
Question 2: A. cities	B. areas	C. envelops	D. days

(249245) Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on you answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3: A. ornamental	B. computer	C. courageous	D. industrial
Question 4: A. identity	B. modernize	C. impressive	D. emotion

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5:  I haven’t read any medical books or articles on the subject for a long time, so I’m ________with recent developments.

A. out of reach 

B. out of the condition

C. out of touch

D. out of the question

Question 6:  Kate didn’t enjoy the roller coaster ride because it was________ experience of her life.

A. the most terrifying

B. the most terrified 

C. a most terrified

D. far more terrifying

Question 7:  I assume that you are acquainted ________this subject since you are responsible ________writing the accompanying materials.

A. to/for                           B. with/for 

C. to/to                            D. with/with

Question 8:   Everyone in both cars________injured in the accident last night, ________?

A. was/weren’t they        B. were/ weren’t they

C. was/ wasn’t he            D. were/ were they

Question 9:  When the Titanic started sinking, the passengers were________.

A. horrifying                    B. apprehensive

C. panic-stricken             D. weather-beaten

Question 10:   Jack has a collection of ________.

A. old valuable Japanese postage stamps 

B. old Japanese valuable postage stamps

C. valuable Japanese old postage stamps

D. valuable old Japanese postage stamps

Question 11:  By appearing on the soap powder commercials, she became a ________ name.

A. housekeeper                B. housewife

C. household                    D. house

Question 12:  Jenny: “Was Linda asleep when you came home?”

Jack: “No. She ________TV.”

A. watched

B. had watched 

C. was watching

D. has been watching

Question 13:  This class, ____is a prerequisite for microbiology, is so difficult that I would rather drop it.

A. that                             B. when

C. where                          D. which

Question 14:  During the campaign when Lincoln was first a(n)________ for the Presidency, the slaves on the far-off plantations, miles from any railroad or large city or daily newspaper, knew what the issues involved were.

A. competitor                  B. contestant

C. applicant                     D. candidate

Question 15:   Peter: “What________ your flight?”      

Mary: “There was a big snowstorm in Birmingham that delayed a lot of flights.”

A. held up                        B. postponed up

C. delayed up                   D. hung up

Question 16:   ________ his poor English, he managed to communicate his problem very clearly.

A. Because                      B. Even though 

C. Because of                  D. In spite of

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 17:    Jane is talking to Billy about the meeting.

Jane: “Is everybody happy with the decision?”

Billy: “__________________”

A. That sounds like fun.  

B. Yes, it is certainly.

C. No, have you? 

D. Not really.

Question 18:   Lucy is asking for permission to play the guitar at Pete’s home.

Lucy: “Is it all right if I play the guitar in here while you’re studying?”

Pete: “_________________”

A. Oh, I wish you wouldn’t. 

B. Well, I’d rather not.

C. Well, actually, I’d prefer it if you didn’t.

D. Well, if only you didn’t.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 19:   Nutritionists believe that vitamins circumvent diseases.

A. defeat                         B. nourish

C. help                             D. treat

Question 20:   Adverse weather conditions made it difficult to play the game.

A. favorable                     B. bad 

C. comfortable                D. severe

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 21:  "I have never been to Russia. I think I shall go there next year.” said Bill.

A. Bill said that he had never been to Russia and he thought he would go there the next year.

B. Bill said that he would have never been to Russia and he thinks he would go there the next year.

C. Bill said that he had never been to Russia and he thinks he will go there the next year.

D. Bill said that he has never been to Russia and he thinks he would go there the next year.

Question 22:   People believed that Jane retired because of her poor health.

A. Jane is believed to have retired because of her poor health.

B. Jane was believed to have retired because of her poor health.

C. It is believed that Jane retired because of her poor health.

D. Jane retired because of her poor health was believed.

Question 23:   Charles would have won the essay contest if he had typed his paper.

A. Charles won the essay contest in spite of not typing his paper.

B. Charles did not win the essay contest because he did not type his paper.

C. Typing his paper made Charles win the essay contest.

D. Charles did not win the essay contest even though he typed his paper.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 24 to 30.

Duncan Phyfe made some of the most beautiful furniture found in America. His family name was originally Fife, and he was born in Scotland in 1768. In 1784, the Fife family immigrated to Albany, New York where Duncan’s father opened a cabinetmaking shop. Duncan followed his father’s footsteps and was apprenticed to a cabinetmaker. After completing his training, Duncan moved to New York City. 

Duncan Fife was first mentioned in the 1792 NYC Directory as a furniture “joiner” in business at 2 Broad Street. Two years later, he moved, expanded his business, and changed his name to Phyfe. He was a quiet-living, God-fearing young man who felt his new name would probably appeal to potential customers who were definitely anti-British in this post-Revolutionary War period.

Duncan Phyfe’s name distinguished him from his contemporaries. Although the new spelling helped him better compete with French emigrant craftsmen, his new name had more to do with hanging it on a sign over his door stoop.

The artisans and merchants who came to America discovered a unique kind of freedom. They were no longer restricted by class and guild traditions of Europe. For the first time in history, a man learned that by working hard, he could build his business based on his own name and reputation and quality of work.

Phyfe’s workshop apparently took off immediately. At the peak of his success, Phyfe employed 100 craftsmen. Some economic historians point to Phyfe as having employed division of labor and an assembly line. What his workshop produced shows Phyfe’s absolute dedication to quality in workmanship. Each piece of furniture was made of the best available materials. He was reported to have paid $1,000 for a single Santo Domingo mahogany log.

Phyfe did not create new designs. Rather, he borrowed from a broad range of the period’s classical styles, Empire, Sheraton, Regency, and French Classical among them. Nevertheless, Phyfe’s high quality craftsmanship established him as America’s patriotic interpreter of European design in the late eighteenth and early nineteenth centuries.

Although the number of pieces produced by Duncan Phyfe’s workshop is enormous, comparatively few marked or labeled pieces have been found extant. In antiques shops and auctions, collectors have paid 11,000foracardtable,11,000foracardtable,24,200 for a tea table, and $93,500 for a sewing table.

Question 24: What is the main idea of the passage?

A. The business of cabinetmaking. 

B. The significance of Duncan Phyfe’s name.

C. Duncan Phyfe’s life and career.

D. Duncan Phyfe’s cabinetmaking designs.

Question 25: According to the passage, which of the following does the author imply?

A. Duncan Fife and his father had the same first name.

B. Duncan Fife worked for his father in Scotland.

C. Duncan Fife and his father were in the same business.

D. Duncan Phyfe made over 100 different kinds of tables.

Question 26: Which choice does the word “it” in paragraph 3 refer to?

A. His spelling                 B. His chair

C. His French                  D. His name

Question 27: Which choice is closest in meaning to the word “guild” in paragraph 4?

A. Verdict of a jury 

B. Organization of craftsmen

C. Political party of emigrants

D. Immigrants’ club

Question 28: In his business, Duncan Phyfe used all of the following EXCEPT________.

A. division of labor    

B. an assembly line

C. continental designs  

D. the least expensive materials

Question 29: Based on the information in the passage, what can be inferred about Duncan Phyfe’s death?

A. He died in the eighteenth century.  

B. He died in Albany.

C. He died in the nineteenth century. 

D. He died in Scotland.

Question 30: The author implies that________.

A. furniture from Duncan Phyfe’s workshop no longer exists.

B. furniture from Duncan Phyfe’s workshop costs a lot of money today.

C. furniture from Duncan Phyfe’s workshop was ignored by New Yorkers.

D. furniture from Duncan Phyfe’s workshop was made by his father.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

A rainbow is an optical display of color that usually appears in the sky when a beam of sunlight refracts through millions of raindrops. Each (31)________ color from the spectrum is then sent to your eyes. For this to happen, the angle between the ray of light, the raindrop and the human eye must be between 40 and 42 degrees.

After studying rainbows in (32)________, Sir Isaac Newton was able to explain how they are formed. However, he was color blind, so he had to rely on the eyes of his assistant, who could easily (33)________all the seven colors: red, orange, yellow, green, blue, indigo and violet. His assistant could also clearly tell the difference between indigo and violet.

There are two types of rainbows. Primary rainbows are the most common and have the most distinctive colors, with red appearing on the outside of the arc and violet on the inside. Secondary rainbows are unusual because the light is reflected twice within the raindrop before it (34)________ a rainbow, so the colors are in reverse order and not as bright as primary rainbows.

There is a popular myth that if you reach the end of a rainbow, you will find a pot of gold waiting for you. In fact, it is impossible to do this, because a rainbow has no end - as you go towards the point where the rainbow seems to touch the ground, it moves away from you as quickly as you (35)________.

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ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 5

1	2	3	4	5
B	C	A	B	C
6	7	8	9	10
A	B	A	C	D
11	12	13	14	15
C	C	D	D	A
16	17	18	19	20
D	D	C	B	A
21	22	23	24	25
A	B	B	C	C
26	27	28	29	30
D	B	D	C	B
31	32	33	34	35
D	A	D	A	D
36	37	38	39	40
D	B	C	B	D
41	42	43	44	45
B	C	B	D	D
46	47	48	49	50
A	B	C	C	B

...

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• Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG năm 2021-2022 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THPT Tăng Bạt Hổ
• Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG năm 2021-2022 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THPT Lê Trọng Tấn
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