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Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG năm 2021-2022 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THPT Nam Kỳ Khởi Nghĩa

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HOC247 xin giới thiệu đến quý thầy cô giáo và các em học sinh Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG năm 2021-2022 môn Tiếng Anh được biên soạn và tổng hợp từ 5 đề thi của Trường THPT Nam Kỳ Khởi Nghĩa. Đề thi gồm có các câu trắc nghiệm với đáp án đi kèm sẽ giúp các em luyện tập, làm quen các dạng đề đồng thời đối chiếu kết quả, đánh giá năng lực bản thân từ đó có kế hoạch học tập phù hợp. Mời các em cùng tham khảo!

ATNETWORK

TRƯỜNG THPT NAM KỲ KHỞI NGHĨA

ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM HỌC 2021-2022

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH

(Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút)

1. Đề số 1

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. rained

B. jumped

C. arrived

D. followed

Question 2: A. sun

B. fun

C. hunt

D. put

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3: A. actor

B. adult

C. effort

D. area

Question 4: A. recommend

B. fortunate

C. entertain

D. disappear

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5: He is very handsome, ________?

A. is he           B. are they         C. isn’t he        D. aren’t they

Question 6: This house is going ______ by my mother

A. sold            B. to be sold      C. to sold         D. to sell

Question 7: She likes reading books ________the library.

A. in           B. at           C. on                D. from

Question 8: ______ he worked, the more he earned.

A. The more hard       B. The hard        C. The harder      D. The hardest

Question 9: Indiana University, one of the largest in the nation, is located in a ______town.

A. small beautiful Midwestern

B. beautiful Midwestern small

C. Midwestern beautiful small

D. beautiful small Midwestern

Question 10: At this time last night when she came home, he _______ the newspaper.

A. is reading         B. was reading        C. is reading     D. read

Question 11: People should stop smoking ________ it is extremely detrimental to health.

A. although         B. despite      C. because        D. because of

Question 12: She will take management training course ________.

A. right after the epidemic has been controlled

B. as soon as the epidemic was controlled

C. when the epidemic had been controlled

D. until the epidemic will be controlled

Question 13: ______ the email - supposedly from Boyd's Bank - to be genuine, she was tricked into disclosing her credit card details.

A. Believe        B. Being believed              C. To believe                     D. Having believed

Question 14: The Internet has made ______ between distant parts of the world easier

A. communicate          B. communication             C. communicative             D. communicatively

Question 15: That’s the trouble with the night shift. It ________your private life too much.

A. breaks in        B. breaks into        C. breaks through              D. breaks up

Question 16: Foreign students who are ________a decision about which school to attend may not know exactly where the choices are located

A. doing        B. making    C. taking    D. having

Question 17: The ________ of toothpaste are located in the health and beauty section of the supermarket.

A. tubes          B. pints    C. sticks              D. quarts

Question 18: At the ________level, you can join three-year or four-year colleges.

A. primary               B. secondary       C. postgraduate                  D. undergraduate

Question 19: Alex dreams of going on tour – he’s just waiting for his big ________ to get his foot in the door of the music industry.

A. deal             B. break         C. cake                D. cheese

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s)in each of the following questions.

Question 20: Changes in attitudes, family values, generational status can occur in both the majority and minority cultures as the two interact; however, typically one culture dominates.

A. normally

B. rarely

C. specially

D. uncommonly

Question 21: : Flats which crucial tare both comfortable and reasonably priced are rare in the current context of economic crisis.

A. unusual

B. uncommon 

C. non–standard

D. non–existent

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s)in each of the following questions.

Question 22: We are very grateful to Professor Humble for his generosity in donating this wonderful painting to the museum.

A. meanness           B. sympathy        C. gratitude        D. churlishness

Question 23: The works of such men as the English philosophers John Locke and Thomas Hobbes helped pave the way for academic freedom in the modern sense.

A. terminate           B. prevent            C. initiate             D. lighten

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges

Question 24: Two students Jean and Daniel are talking about English.

- Jean: “Would you say that English is a global language?”

- Daniel: “________. ”

A. Yes, it has.

B. I like it.

C. Oh, absolutely.

D. Yes, it was ever.

Question 25: Sarah and Kathy are talking about bad habits of children

Sarah: “Children under ten shouldn't stay up late to play computer games. ”

Kathy: “______. It’s not good for their health.”

A. I don't quite agree with you

B. Yes, I share your opinion.

C. You are absolute wrong.

D. Surely, they shouldn't

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

The video loggers

One rather unlikely word that has recently entered the language is “blog”, a shortened form of “web log”. A blog is a diary posted on the Internet by the person writing it – the blogger (26)__________ presumably expects (27)__________ people to read it. It is ironical that modern technology is being used to (28)__________ new life into such an old-fashioned form as the personal journal. And now, as the technology about video camera is making easier to use, we have the video log, or “vlog”. Vlogging does not require highly sophisticated equipment: a digital video camera, a high-speed Internet connection and a host are all that is needed. Vloggers can put anything that takes their fancy onto their personal website. Some vloggers have no ambitions rather than to show films they have shot while on holiday in exotic places. (29)__________vlogs can also serve more ambitious purposes. For instance, amateur film-makers who want to make a (30)__________ for themselves might publish their work on the Internet. And increasingly, vlogs are being used to publicize political and social issues that are not newsworthy enough to get coverage by the mass media. It is still too early to predict whether vlogging will ever take off in a major way or if it is just a passing fad, but its potential is only now becoming apparent.

(Adapted from weblog – Wikipedia – The free encyclopedia)

Question 26: A. who

B. which

C. whom

D. when

Question 27: A. the others

B. other

C. another

D. others

Question 28: A. add

B. inhale

C. insert

D. breathe

Question 29: A. However

B. Hence

C. Moreover

D. Therefore

Question 30: A. publicity

B. fame

C. name

D. promotion

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 30 to 34.

Education is much more open-ended and all-inclusive than schooling. Education knows no bounds. It can take place anywhere, whether in the shower or on the job, whether in a kitchen or on a tractor. It includes both the formal learning that takes place in schools and the whole universe of informal learning. The agents of education can range from a revered grandparent to the people debating politics on the radio, from a child to a distinguished scientist. Whereas schooling has a certain predictability, education quite often produces surprises. A chance conversation with a stranger may lead a person to discover how little is known of other religions. People are engaged in education in infancy. Education, then, is a very broad, inclusive term. It is a lifelong process, a process that starts long before the start of school, and one that should be an integral part of one's entire life.

Schooling, on the other hand, is a specific, formalized process, whose general pattern varies little from one setting to the next. Throughout a country, children arrive at school at approximately the same time, take assigned seats, are taught by an adult, use similar textbooks, do homework, take exams, and so on. The slices of reality that are to be learned, whether they are the alphabet or an understanding of the workings of government, have usually been limited by the boundaries of the subjects being taught.  For example, high school students know that they are not likely to find out in their classes the truth about political problems in their communities or what the newest filmmakers are experimenting with. There are definite conditions surrounding the formalized process of schooling.

Question 31: What is the main idea of the passage?

A. The more years students go to school, the better their education is.

B. Students benefit from schools, which require long hours and homework.

C. The best school teach a wide variety of subject.

D. Education and schooling are quite different experiences.

Question 32: The word “chance” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to________.

A. lively     B. unexpected                   C. passive        D. usual

Question 33: The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers________.

A. slices of reality    B. similar textbooks          C. boundaries       D. seats

Question 34: The passage support which of the following conclusions?

A. Education systems need to be radically reformed.

B. Going to school is only part of how people become educated.

C. Education involves many years of professional training.

D. Without formal education, people would remain ignorant.

Question 35: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as agents of education?

A. a distinguished eminent scientist

B. a respected grandparent

C. the people debating politics on the radio

D. political problems

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Cambridge University is considering axing compulsory written exams, allowing students to use laptops or iPads instead, after tutors complained that students' handwriting is becoming illegible. Academics say the move, which would bring an end to over 800 years of tradition, has come about because students rely too heavily on laptops in lectures, and are losing the ability to write by hand.

Dr Sarah Pearsall, a senior lecturer at Cambridge University, said handwriting is becoming a ''lost art'' among the current generation of students. She added, ''It's increasingly hard for our examiners to read students' scripts. Those with illegible writing are forced to come back to their college during the summer holidays to read their answers aloud in the presence of two university administrators. It's extraordinarily commendable that the University is considering reforms to its examination practices.''

Sir Anthony Seldon, Vice-Chancellor of the University of Buckingham, said it is inevitable that universities will move to computers as handwriting deteriorates in the coming years. ''We have to accept the reality. Handwriting has now become an optional, not a necessary, part of education. There simply isn't the same time in the curriculum for learning elegant, beautiful handwriting. Life is so quick now. Everybody writes as if they were a doctor writing a prescription, '' he said. ''Handwriting is not necessary for great thought, great English, or great intelligence. Some of our finest wordsmiths today write using laptops, and we have to fight to preserve what is really important, such as the use of great English or great sentence structures. ''

Others, however, were not very positive about the move. Tracey Trussell, a handwriting expert, urged Cambridge to ensure that students continue to write by hand. She said, ''It's vital that people continue to write by hand. Writing by hand improves memory and equates to a higher rate of comprehension and information retention. '' There is also concern that schools could follow Cambridge's example by moving away from handwriting. Dr Jane Medwell, Associate Professor of Education at the University of Nottingham, is concerned that scrapping handwritten exams in universities could prompt ''downward curriculum pressure'' on primary and secondary schools to follow suit.

(Adapted from http: //www. telegraph. co. uk)

Question 36: Which of the following best serves as the title for the passage?

A. Cambridge University in an Attempt to Improve Students' Handwriting

B. Cambridge University Pondering Changes to its Exam Practices

C. Cambridge University Attacked again for Abolishing Written Exams

D. Cambridge University to Replace Written with Oral Exams

Question 37: According to paragraph 1, Cambridge University has a long-standing tradition of________.

A. offering academic tutorials

B. organising handwritten exams

C. relying heavily on technology

D. training students in legible handwriting

Question 38: The word ''Those'' in paragraph 2 refers to________.

A. examiners      B. students   C. scripts      D. administrators

Question 39: The word "deteriorates'' in paragraph 3 mostly means________.

A. remains unchanged 

B. becomes more important

C. improves gradually 

D. gets worse and worse

Question 40: It can be inferred from what Sir Anthony Seldon said in paragraph 3 that________

A. schools in the country used to have more time for handwriting practice

B. schools in the country have failed to preserve the beauty of English

C. people's handwriting generally reflects their intelligence and linguistic competence

D. the majority of doctors these days no longer write prescriptions by hand

Question 41: The word ''scrapping'' in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to __________.

A. reconsidering         B. eliminating           C. introducing       D. discouraging

Question 42: Which of the following statements is TRUE according to the passage?

A. Cambridge University’s move away from handwriting has already set an unprecedented example for other schools to follow.

B. Sarah Pearsall acknowledged handwriting as an art form to be preserved among the current generation of students at Cambridge University.

C. Sir Anthony Seldon claimed that learning to use great English was more important than learning to write by hand beautifully.

D. Most of the tutors at Cambridge are skeptical of the university's decision regarding handwritten exams

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43: Physics is one of my favorite subjects when I was a student.

Question 44: Some manufacturers are not only raising their prices but also decreasing the production of its products.

Question 45: The whole matter is farther complicated by the fact that Amanda and Jo refuse to speak to each other.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions

Question 46: She started to play the piano 5 years ago.

A. She didn’t play the piano 5 years ago.

B. She has known how to play the piano for 5 years.

C. She played the piano 5 years ago.

D. The last time she played the piano was 5 years ago.

Question 47: Conan said to me, “If I were you, I would read different types of books in different ways.”

A. Conan ordered me to read different types of books in different ways.

B. I said to Conan to read different types of books in different ways to me.

C. I read different types of books in different ways to Conan as he told me.

D. Conan advised me to read different types of books in different ways.

Question 48: John is not here, perhaps he is ill.

A. John needn't be here because he is ill.

B. Because of his illness, John shouldn't have been here.

C. John might be ill, so he is not here.

D. John must be ill, so he is not here.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions

Question 49: Nam was so rude to them last night. Now he feels regretful.

A. Nam regrets to have been so rude to them last night.

B. Nam regrets having so rude to them last night.

C. Nam wishes he hadn’t been so rude to them last night.

D. Nam wishes he weren’t so rude to them last night.

Question 50. He has great intelligence. He can solve all the problems very quicky

A. So intelligent is he that he can solve all the problems very quickly.

B. He is very intelligent that he can solve all the problems very quickly.

C. An intelligent student is he that he can solve all the problems very quickly

D. So intelligent a student is he that he can solve all the problems very quickly.

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 1

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: B

Question 2: D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3: B

Question 4: B

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5: C

Question 6: B

Question 7: A

Question 8: C

Question 9: D

Question 10: B

Question 11: C

Question 12: A

Question 13: D

Question 14: B

Question 15: B

Question 16: B

Question 17: A

Question 18: D

Question 19: B

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s)in each of the following questions.

Question 20: A

Question 21: B

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s)in each of the following questions.

Question 22: A

Question 23: B

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges

Question 24: C

Question 25: D

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

Question 26: A

Question 27: B

Question 28: D

Question 29: A

Question 30: C

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 30 to 34.

Question 31: D

Question 32: B

Question 33: A

Question 34: B

Question 35: D

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Question 36: B

Question 37: C

Question 38: B

Question 39: D

Question 40: A

Question 41: B

Question 42: C

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43: A

Question 44: D

Question 45: B

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions

Question 46: B

Question 47: D

Question 48: C

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions

Question 49: C

Question 50. D

2. Đề số 2

ĐỀ THI THPT QG MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT NAM KỲ KHỞI NGHĨA- ĐỀ 02

ead the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best first each of the numbered blanks from 1 to 5.

Nowadays people are more aware that wildlife all over the world is in (1)______ . Many species of animals are threatened, and could easily become (2)_______ if we do not make an effort to protect them. In some cases, animals are hunted for their fur or for other valuable parts of their bodies. Some birds, such as parrots, are caught (3)______  and sold as pets. For many animals and birds the problem is that their habitat - the place where they live - is disappearing. More land is used for farms, for houses or industry, and there are fewer open spaces than there once were. Farmers use powerful chemicals to help them to grow better crops, but these chemicals pollute the environment and (4)______  wildlife. The most successful animals on earth - human beings - will soon be the only ones (5)______, unless we can solve this problem.

Question 1. A. threat

B. problem

C. danger

D. vanishing

Question 2. A. disappeared

B. vanished

C. extinct

D. empty

Question 3. A. for life

B. alive

C. lively

D. for living

Question 4. A. spoil

B. wound

C. wrong

D. harm

Question 5. A. left

B. over

C. staying

D. survive

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 6. Important features of dehydrated foods are their lightness in weight and their compactness.

A. organic       B. dried     C. frozen        D. healthy

Question 7. Many people criticized the ostentatious lifestyle of some high-ranked officials.

A. debauched     B. immoral    C. showy             D. extravagant

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 8. ‘What I’ve got to say to you now is strictly off the record and most certainly not for publication,’ said the government official to the reporter.

A. already official      

B. beside the point

C. not popular

D. not recorded

Question 9. These were the people who advocated using force to stop school violence.

A. publicly said 

B. openly criticized 

C. publicly supported

D. strongly condemned

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 10. Minh: “My first English test was not as good as I expected.”

- Thomas: “_______.”

A. Good Heavens!

B. Never mind. Better job next time!

C. That’s brilliant enough.

D. It’s okay. Don’t worry.

Question 11. Susan: “_______.” - Peter: “No, thanks. I’m not hungry.”

A. Do you like eating cookies? 

B. Would you like some cookies?

C. Do you have any cookies?  

D. Are cookies your favorite snacks?

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 12. A. household    B. concern      C. garbage      D. conflict

Question 13. A. confidence   B. maximum  C. applicant      D. computer

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in the pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 14. A. area         B. arrange    C. arrive           D. arise

Question 15. A. reduced   B. caused     C. damaged     D. preserved

Read the following pasage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions

As heart disease continues to be the number-one killer in the United States, researchers have become increasingly interested in identifying the potential risk factors that trigger heart attacks. High-fat diets and "life in the fast lane" have long been known to contribute to the high incidence of heart failure. But according to new studies, the list of risk factors may be significantly longer and quite surprising.

Heart failure, for example, appears to have seasonal and temporal patterns. A higher percentage of heart attacks occur in cold weather, and more people experience heart failure on Monday than on any other day of the week. In addition, people are more susceptible to heart attacks in the first few hours after waking. Cardiologists first observed this morning phenomenon in the mid-1980, and have since discovered a number of possible causes. An early-morning rise in blood pressure, heart rate, and concentration of heart stimulating hormones, plus a reduction of blood flow to the heart, may all contribute to the higher incidence of heart attacks between the hours of 8:00 A.M. and 10:00 A.M.

In other studies, both birthdays and bachelorhood have been implicated as risk factors. Statistics reveal that heart attack rates increase significantly for both females and males in the few days immediately preceding and following their birthdays. And unmarried men are more at risk for heart attacks than their married counterparts. Though stress is thought to be linked in some way to all of the aforementioned risk factors, intense research continues in the hope of further comprehending why and how heart failure is triggered.

Question 16. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. Risk factors in heart attacks

B. Seasonal and temporal pattern of heart attacks

C. Cardiology in the 1980s 

D. Diet and stress as factors in heart attacks

Question 17. The word “trigger” as used in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to which of the following?

A. involve                   B. affect

C. cause                     D. encounter

Question 18. What do the second and the third paragraphs of the passage mainly discuss?

A. The link between heart attacks and marriage 

B. Unusual risk factors in heart attacks

C. Age and gender factors in heart attacks

D. Myths about lifestyles and heart attacks

Question 19. The phrase “susceptible to” in the second paragraph could best be replaced by

A. aware of                 B. affected by

C. accustomed to        D. prone to

Question 20. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT a possible cause of any heart attacks?

A. Decreased blood flow to the heart

B. Increased blood pressure

C. Lower heart rate  

D. Increase in hormones

Question 21. Which of the following is NOT cited as a possible risk factor?

A. Having a birthday

B. Getting married

C. Eating fatty foods

D. Being under stress

Question 22. Which of the following does the passage infer?

A. We now fully understand how risk factors trigger heart attacks.

B. We recently began to study how risk factors trigger heart attacks.

C. We have not identified many risk factors associated with heart attacks.

D. We do not fully understand how risk factors trigger heart attacks.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of ther following questions.

Question 23. If it had not rained last night, the roads in the city ______ so slippery now.

A. would not be         

B. must not be

C. could not have been  

D. would not have been

Question 24. My dog as well as my cats ______ twice a day.

A. eat                                 B. eats

C. have eaten                    D. has eaten

Question 25. The doctor advised ______ late.

A. me not staying up

B. me not stay up

C. me not to stay up

D. not to stay up

Question 26. It seems that you are right, ______?

A. doesn’t it                 B. do you

C. aren’t you                D. are you

Question 27. You ______ the locksmith to open the door for you last night before you tried to open it yourself.

A. have had to call

B. ought to have called

C. had better call

D. must call

Question 28. Valentine’s Day, ______ from Roman, is now celebrated all over the world.

A. originate                 B. originating

C. to originate              D. originated

Question 29. Until the situation has settled down, it is _____ to travel to that country.

A. well-advised           B. inadvisable

C. advisable                D. ill-advised

Question 30. The ______ cheered when the final goal was scored in the match today.

A. spectators                B. audience

C. onlookers                 D. viewers

Question 31. The purpose of the survey was to ______ the inspector with local conditions.

A. notify                       B. instruct

C. acquaint                  D. inform

Question 32. If oil supplies run out in 2050 then we need to find ______ energy sources soon.

A. alternate                   B. alternating

C. alternative                D. altering

Question 33. William was 19 years old when he was _____ for war.

A. called up                  B. made up

C. put up                      D. brought up

Question 34. I can’t give you the answer on the _____; I’ll have to think about it for a few days.

A. place                         B. minute 

C. scene                        D. spot

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

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ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 2

1

2

3

4

5

C

C

B

D

A

6

7

8

9

10

B

C

A

B

B

11

12

13

14

15

B

B

D

A

A

16

17

18

19

20

A

C

B

D

C

21

22

23

24

25

B

D

A

B

C

26

27

28

29

30

C

B

D

B

A

31

32

33

34

35

C

C

A

D

B

36

37

38

39

40

C

B

D

C

A

41

42

43

44

45

A

D

D

B

C

46

47

48

49

50

A

C

A

D

B

3. Đề số 3

ĐỀ THI THPT QG MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT NAM KỲ KHỞI NGHĨA- ĐỀ 03

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word in each of the following questions.

Question 1. Everyone is hoping and praying that lasting peace will eventually come to the area.

A. durable                        B. ongoing

C. temporary                    D. enduring

Question 2. Before you begin the exam paper, always read the instructions carefully.

A.  orders                         B. answers

C. rules                            D. direction

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 3. Last year, ABBA made a ____ of seberal million crowns.

A.  win                           B. gain

C. salary                        D. profit

Question 4. If you like asking, there’s a ski ____ under an hour’s driving from Madrid.

A. resort                        B. station

C. place                         D. port

Question 5. He’s very  ____ about his private life. He’s goy no secrets.

A. trustworthy               B. direct

C. open                         D. sincere

Question 6. Even though they don’t agree with what’s happening, they’re too ____ to protest.

A. apathetic       B. subdued         C. quiet              D. outgoing

Question 7. Though  I didn’t want my son to leave home since he was twenty- one, there was nothing I could do to ____ it.

A. hinder      B. resist        C. prevent    D. cease

Question 8. She noticed ____ away from the house.

A. him to run       B. him running       C. his running         D. him run

Question 9. George has ____; he loves cakes, chocolate, ice- cream- anything which is sweet.

A. a sweet mouth

B. sweet lips

C. a sweet tooth

D. a sweet tongue

Question 10. She’s so ____; you really have to watch you say or she ‘ll walk out of the room.

A. high and dry     B. prim and proper        C. rough and ready         D. sick and tired

Question 11. You’ve all ____ the point. The film itself is not racist – it simply tries to make us question our own often racist attitude.

A. mistaken        B. misunderstood       C. missed            D. lost

Question 12. ____ one or more units of living substance called protoplasm.

A. Although all living things that consist of

B. All living things consisting of

C. All living things consist of   

D. In all living things consisting of

Question 13. The production of tin ore in the United States is relatively insignificant, ____ less than one hundred tons annually.

A. amount to      B. in the amount     C. amount to it              D. to the amount of

Question 14. It all happened so quickly, one minute I was making chips and the next the whole kitchen was ____ fire!

A. at        B. on     C. by        D. in

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase for each of the blanks from 15 to 19

About 50 or so kinds modern plastic are made from oil, gas, or coal-non-renewable natural resources.  We (15)___ well over three million tons of the stuff in Japan each year and, sooner or later, most of it is thrown away .A high proportion of our animal consumption is in the (16)____ of  packaging and this constitutes  about seven percent by weight, of our domestic(17) ____ . Almost all of it can be recycled, but very little of it is ,though the plastic recycling industry is growing fast. The plastics themselves are extremely energy - rich – they have a higher calorific(18) ____ than coal and one methodn of “recovery” strongly (19)____ by plastic manufacturers if the conversion  of waste plastic into a fuel.

Question 15. A. consign

B. import

C. consume

D. remove

Question 16. A. form

B. way

C. type

D. kind

Question 17. A. goods

B. refuse

C. rubble

D. requirements

Question 18. A. effect

B. degree

C. value

D. demand

Question 19. A. argued

B. presented

C. desired

D. favored

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 20 to 25.

FIRST TIME IN THE AIR

When John Mills was going to fly in an aeroplane for the first time, he was frightened. He did not like the idea of being thousands of feet up in the air. “ ‘I also didn’t like the fact that I wouldn’t be in control,” says John. “I’m a terrible passenger in the car. When somebody else is driving, I tell them what to so. It drives everybody crazy.”

However John couldn’t avoid flying any longer. It was the only way he could visit his grandchildren in Canada. “I had made up my mind that I was going to do it, I couldn’t let my son, his wife and their three children travel all the way here to visit me. It would be so expensive for them and I know Tom’s business isn’t doing so well at the moment – it would also be tiring for the children – it’s a nine-hour flight!” he says.

To get ready for the flight John did lots of reading about aeroplanes. When he booked his seat, he was told that he would be flying on a Boeing 747, which is better known as a jumbo jet. “I needed to know as much as possible before getting in that plane. I suppose it was a way of making myself feel better. The Boeing 747 is the largest passenger aircraft in the world at the moment. The first one flew on February 9th 1969 in the USA. It can carry up to 524 passengers and 3.400 pieces of luggage. The fuel for aeroplanes is kept in the wings and the 747’s wings are so big that they can carry enough fuel for an average car to be able to travel 16,000 kilometres a year for 70 years. Isn’t that unbelievable? Even though I had discovered all this very interesting information about the jumbo, when I saw it for the first time, just before I was going to travel to Canada, I still couldn’t believe that something so enormous was going to get up in the air and fly. I was even more impressed when I saw how big it was inside with hundreds of people!”

The biggest surprise of all for John was the flight itself. “The take-off itself was much smoother than I expected although I was still quite scared until we were in the air. In the end, I managed to relax, enjoy the food and watch one of the movies and the view from the window was spectacular. I even managed to sleep for a while! Of course,” continues John, “the best reward of all was when I arrived in Canada and saw my son and his family, particularly my beautiful grandchildren. Suddenly, I felt so silly about all the years when I couldn’t even think of getting on a plane. I had let my fear of living stop me from seeing the people I love most in the world. I can visit my son and family as often as I like now!”

Question 20. Why did John Mills fly in an aeroplane?

A. He wanted to go on holiday

B. He wanted to try it.

C. He wanted to see his family

D. He had to travel on business.

Question 21. Why did John read about aeroplane?

A. He wanted to know how they work.

B. It was his hobby.

C. It made him feel safer.

D. He had found a book on them.

Question 22. What happened when he saw the jumbo jet for the first time?

A. He felt much safer.

B. He liked the shape of it.

C. He couldn’t believe how big it was.

D. He thought the wings were very small.

Question 23. How did John feel when the aeroplane was taking off?

A. excited             B. happy

C. sad                   D. frightened

Question 24. What surprised John most about the flight?

A. that he liked the food.

B. that he was able to sleep

C. that there was a movie being shown

D. that the view was good

Question 25. How did John feel about his fears in the end?

A. He thought he had wasted time being afraid.

B. He realized it was okay to be afraid.

C. He hoped his grandchildren weren’t afraid of flying.

D. He realized that being afraid kept him safe.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 26 to 34.

Although noise, commonly defined as unwanted sound, is a widely recognized form of pollution, it is very difficult to measure because the discomfort experienced by different individuals is highly subjective and, therefore, variable. Exposure to lower levels of noise may be slightly irritating, whereas exposure to higher levels may actually cause hearing loss. Particularly in congested urban areas, the noise produced as a by-product of our advancing technology causes physical and psychological harm, and detracts from the quality of life for those who are exposed to it.

Unlike the eyes, which can be covered by the eyelids against strong light, the ear has no lid, and is, therefore, always open and vulnerable; noise penetrates without protection.

Noise causes effects that the hearer cannot control and to which the body never becomes accustomed. Loud noises instinctively signal danger to any organism with a hearing mechanism, including human beings. In response, heartbeat and respiration accelerate, blood vessels constrict, the skin pales, and muscles tense. In fact, there is a general increase in functioning brought about by the flow of adrenaline released in response to fear, and some of these responses persist even longer than the noise, occasionally as long as thirty minutes after the sound has ceased.

Because noise is unavoidable in a complex, industrial society, we are constantly responding in the same way that we would respond to danger. Recently, researchers have concluded that noise and our response may be much more than an annoyance. It may be a serious threat to physical and psychological health and well-being, causing damage not only to the ear and brain but also to the heart and stomach. We have long known that hearing loss is America’s number one nonfatal health problem, but now we are learning that some of us with heart disease and ulcers may be victims of noise as well. Fetuses exposed to noise tend to be overactive, they cry easily, and they are more sensitive to gastrointestinal problems after birth. In addition, the psychic effect of noise is very important. Nervousness, irritability, tension, and anxiety increase affecting the quality of rest during sleep, and the efficiency of activities during waking hours, as well as the way that we interact with each other.

Question 26: Which of the following is the author’s main point?

A. Hearing loss is America’s number one nonfatal health problem.

B. Loud noises signal danger.

C. Noise may pose a serious threat to our physical and psychological health.

D. The ear is not like the eye.

Question 27: According to the passage, what is noise?

A. A byproduct of technology.

B. Physical and psychological harm

C. Congestion..

D. Unwanted sound.

Question 28: Why is noise difficult to measure?

A. All people do not respond to it in the same way.

B. It causes hearing loss.

C. It is unwanted.

D. People become accustomed to it.

Question 29: The word congested in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by ___.

A. hazardous

C. crowded

B. polluted

D. rushed

Question 30: The word it in the first paragraph refers to ___.

A. the quality of life

B. advancing technology

C. the noise

D. physical and psychological harm

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ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 3

1

2

3

4

5

D

D

D

A

C

6

7

8

9

10

A

C

B

C

B

11

12

13

14

15

C

C

D

B

B

16

17

18

19

20

A

B

C

D

C

21

22

23

24

25

A

C

D

B

A

26

27

28

29

30

C

D

A

B

C

31

32

33

34

35

B

D

C

B

C

36

37

38

39

40

A

D

B

B

A

41

42

43

44

45

B

D

A

C

B

46

47

48

49

50

D

B

B

B

C

4. Đề số 4

ĐỀ THI THPT QG MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT NAM KỲ KHỞI NGHĨA- ĐỀ 04

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. complexion

B. examination

C. exaggerate

D. exhibit

Question 2. A. student

B. statue

C. situation

D. actually

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. associate

B. dioxide

C. dedicate

D. cosmetic

Question 4. A. misfortune

B. illegal

C. indifference

D. discotheque

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5. She must               in the garage when we came. That’s why she didn’t hear the bell.

A. have been working  B. be working               C. have worked            D. work

Question 6. It’s a serious operation for a woman as old as my grandmother. She’s very frail. I hope she                     .

A. gets on                      B. comes round            C. pulls through            D. stands up

Question 7. ________ from Tim, all the students said they would go camping.

A. Except                      B. Only                         C. Apart                        D. Separate

Question 8. He has               a valuable contribution to the life of the school.

A. done           B. created                     C. caused                      D. made

Question 9. No matter how much pressure you put on your husband, he won’t budge a(n)               .

A. inch       B. mile                   C. foot                     D. metre

Question 10. The test was not very difficult, but it was               long.

A. too much                  B. so much                    C. much too                  D. very much

Question 11. Policemen are sometimes on               at night.

A. force                         B. alert         C. cover                D. patrol

Question 12. He thinks that I was too friendly               the applicants.

A. with                          B. at           C. on              D. across

Question 13. How can the boss act               nothing had happened?

A. therefore                   B. so                   C. if                               D. as though

Question 14. If you run               Tom, give him my best wishes.

A. over         B. up                             C. into                           D. to

Question 15. I gave the waiter a $100 note and waited for my               .

A. change         B. supply                       C. cash                          D. cost

Question 16.               she phoned me did I remember the appoinment.

A. No sooner      B. Only          C. Not until                   D. Just before

Question 17. I think he is up               the job.

A. to           B. with                          C. for                             D. over

Question 18. The manager will reply to all the letters               are sent to him.

A. that                           B. where                       C. when                         D. who

Question 19. My mother thought that his action was rather out of               .

A. personality                B. character                   C. being                         D. role

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20. Some ethnic groups have strange customs such as walking on fire to prevent natural disasters.

A. methods for doing something

B. accepted ways of doing something

C. skills of doing something

D. ideas about doing something

Question 21. During the war, the shipping lanes proved vulnerable to be attacked.

A. susceptible                B. dangerous                 C. futile                         D. feasible

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22. My brother tends to look on the bright side in any circumstance.

A. be optimistic            B. be pessimistic           C. be confident             D. be smart

Question 23. He was so insubordinate that he lost his job within a week.

A. arrogant                    B. disobedient              C. obedient                   D. understanding

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 24. Marry is talking to Linda over the phone.

Mary: "Thank you for helping me prepare for the party.” Linda:"               "

A. My pleasure

B. The meal was out of this world

C. Never mention me

D. Of course not

Question 25. Linh is going to hold her birthday party at home this Sunday, so she wants to invite some of her friends to attend the party.

Linh: "I would like to invite you to my party this Sunday evening.” Huy: "                           ."

A. Thank you for your offer, but I think it is unnecessary.

B. I would love to come but I have prior commitments. I’m sorry.

C. I am sorry. Can you come to my place?

D. How about going to the cinema?

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.

There are many aspects that are involved in taking care of elderly or aged people. Those (26) ................ have the responsibility of taking care of the aged need to be (27) ............ of the various needs and requirements that the elderly have. Elderly individuals who live on their own, without the support of anyone, may have a certain amount of financial needs. Such people need to fend (28) .............. themselves for everything, including food, groceries, medicines etc. Pensioners    have the benefit of a steady source of monthly income. Those who do not have any (29) ........... or other source of income would have to live entirely on their savings or through special senior citizens’ government financial schemes or (30) .............. from charitable organisations.

(Adapted from http://www.englishdaily626.com)

Question 26. A. who

B. whom

C. which

D. when

Question 27. A. know

B. understand

C. aware

D. learn

  Question 28. A. of

B. for

C. with

D. to

Question 29. A. finance

B. fees

C. expense

D. pension

Question 30. A. benefits

B. management

C. donations

D. interference

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.

For recent graduates, internships may become a stepping stone to full-time, paid employment. Before accepting an offer to work as an intern you should get some information about the company’s reputation of procuring their interns and decide accordingly. If they usually hire one intern but have tens of employees working day and night, it is better to look for other companies. The best place to have an internship position is an organization that gives you an opportunity to  gain real work experience and develop your skills instead of using you as a cheap worker.

Another thing that should be considered is the size of the company. Sometimes bigger and more established organizations are better as they have a clear hierarchy and therefore it gives you a clear idea of your position and the job description and most importantly, it will be easier to get a mentor. Startups with only five employees are usually more flexible in terms of job responsibilities and therefore it makes it harder to define your position and get mentors.

After you choose a company, do a little research on the company including the people who work there. You can do a Google search and comb social media such as LinkedIn, Facebook and Twitter to dig deep about the company’s hiring managers and what they expect from a new employee.

Social media is also very useful to keep in touch with as many people as you can and build  your network. Do not hesitate to maintain any personal connection you have because those connections could be the first ones who inform you about a new job opening or any vacant positions you can apply for.

If you aim for a dream job, do not overlook an entry-level position just because it offers mediocre salary. Entry-level employees are more likely to be given room to grow and learn from their mistakes. They will also be able to figure out the job routines and get used to them when they actually get the position they have been dreaming about.

As your first few jobs might be very demanding yet less rewarding, remember to have fun and enjoy your life. Working overtime may not always be a good idea to accelerate your career, especially if you have to be more stressed than your seniors who earn bigger salaries. Setting the time for exercise and social life will make your life more balanced and stress free.

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ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 4

1A

2A

3C

4D

5A

6C

7C

8D

9A

10C

11D

12A

13D

14C

15A

16C

17A

18A

19B

20B

21A

22B

23C

24A

25B

26A

27C

28B

29D

30C

31B

32C

33A

34A

35D

36B

37B

38B

39A

40A

41D

42B

43A

44B

45C

46C

47A

48B

49C

50B

 

 

5. Đề số 5

ĐỀ THI THPT QG MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT NAM KỲ KHỞI NGHĨA- ĐỀ 05

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 1: She said she had a headache. Otherwise, she ______ in the dance.

A. joined                    

B. had joined

C. would join 

D. would have joined

Question 2: I _______ the living room by the time Dad comes home. He will be surprised.

A. will paint               

B. am painting            

C. have painted          

D. will have painted

Question 3: Margaret would prefer ______ books rather than see their screen adaptations.

A. to read    B. reading      C. read     D. having read

Question 4: Nobody was harmed in the fire, _____?

A. was he                   

B. wasn't he               

C. were they              

D. weren't they

Question 5: Tim's parents ______ happy when knowing his poor academic results at school.

A. mustn't have been 

B. needn't have been

C. shouldn't have been  

D. can't have been

Question 6: An international menu _____ a variety of food can attract most of the tourists.

A. offered      B. offering     C. which offer    D. is offered

Question 7: Not ______ on such a hot day, the beach was crowded.

A. surprise       B. surprised     C. surprising     D. surprisingly

Question 8: She ______ herself on cooking Vietnamese traditional dishes.

A. focuses     B. motivates   C. congratulates     D. prides

Question 9: In the hands of a careless female driver, a LEAD motorbike may become a _____ weapon.

A. fatal     B. mortal        C. lethal      D. deathly

Question 10: Sealing food in an ______ jar starves the bacteria of oxygen and they are unable to reproduce.

A. airborne      B. airtight      C. air-dash      D. air-drop

Question 11: Tom was heartbroken after the failure in the recent match; don't____ salt to the wound by mentioning the match again.

A. put       B. add          C. rub        D. mop

Question 12: The lecture was so boring that the students finally ______ and started daydreaming.

A. put down       B. taken off     C. turned off     D. turned down

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges:

Question 13: The taxi driver and Ann are at the airport.

Taxi driver: "_______?"

- Ann: "28 Croydon Road, Maryland."

A. Have you got a job? 

B. Where are you from?

C. Could you tell me your name?  

D. What's your address, please?

Question 14: John is broke, and he is going to borrow some money from Laura.

- John: “Have you got any money left?”

– Laura: “Unfortunately, __________.”

A. none of all             

B. nothing of all         

C. not even a few      

D. none whatsoever

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Sophia is a social humanoid robot developed by Hong Kong-based company Hanson Robotics. She has been designed to learn and adapt to human behavior and work with humans and has been interviewed around the world. In October 2017, she became a Saudi Arabian citizen, the first robot to receive citizenship of a country.

According to herself, Sophia was activated on April 19, 2015. She is modeled after actress Audrey Hepburn, and is known for her human-like appearance and behavior compared to previous robotic variants. According to the manufacturer, David Hanson, Sophia has artificial intelligence, visual data processing and facial recognition. Sophia also imitates human gestures and facial expressions and is able to answer certain questions and to make simple conversations on predefined topics (e.g. on the weather). The robot uses voice recognition technology from Alphabet Inc. (parent company of Google) and is designed to get smarter over time. The AI program analyses conversations and extracts data that allows her to improve responses in the future. It is conceptually similar to the computer program ELIZA, which was one of the first attempts at simulating a human conversation.

Hanson designed Sophia to be a suitable companion for the elderly at nursing homes, or to help crowds at large events or parks. He hopes that she can ultimately interact with other humans sufficiently to gain social skills.

Sophia has been interviewed in the same manner as a human, striking up conversations with hosts. Some replies have been nonsensical, while others have been impressive, such as lengthy discussions with Charlie Rose on 60 Minutes. In a piece for CNBC, when the interviewer expressed concerns about robot behavior, Sophia joked he had been reading too much Elon Musk and watching too many Hollywood movies. Musk tweeted that Sophia could watch The Godfather and suggested "what's the worst that could happen?"

On October 11, 2017, Sophia was introduced to the United Nations with a brief conversation with the United Nations Deputy Secretary-General, Amina J. Mohammed. On October 25, at the Future Investment Summit in Riyadh, she was granted Saudi Arabian citizenship, becoming the first robot ever to have a nationality. This attracted controversy as some commentators wondered if this implied that Sophia could vote or marry, or whether a deliberate system shutdown could be considered murder. Social media users used Sophia's citizenship to criticize Saudi Arabia's human rights record.

Question 15: What is the passage mainly about?

A. What electronic lifestyle will exit in the future.

B. A company having made a breakthrough in robotics.

C. How a robot can become an electronic citizen.

D. A robot who has received citizenship of a country.

Question 16: The word "variants" in paragraph 2 is closest meaning to

A. exceptions     B. regularities     C. similarities      D. variations

Question 17: Paragraph 2 mainly discusses  

A. What Sophia can do in the same way as humans do

B. Why Sophia has cut over ELIZA in interacting with humans

C. How Sophia has become the best robotic variant these days

D. Sophia has been developed to be most human-like

Question 18: Which of the following statements is NOT true about Sophia according to the passage?

A. Sophia can talk about the topics she has been programed to.

B. Sophia can speak all languages with any accent as programed.

C. Sophia can detect humans' gestures and facial expressions.

D. Sophia can respond impressively in conversations with humans.

Question 19: According to the passage, all of the following statements are true EXCEPT

A. Google has been a part of Alphabet Incorporation

B. ELIZA could not simulate human conversations.

C. Sophia can make jokes when talking with humans.

D. Sophia was intended to work at nursing homes.

Question 20: The word "piece" in paragraph 4 mostly means

A. interview       B. article     C. argument       D. lecture

Question 21: The word "this" in the last paragraph refers to

A. The nationality a robot has gained after being activated

B. The Future Investment Summit granting Sophia citizenship

C. The controversy among commentators about Sophia's citizenship

D. The fact that Sophia was granted citizenship

Question 22: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

A. More and more humanoid robots will be granted citizenship.

B. Sophia would ultimately be a good fit to serve in healthcare.

C. Sophia is the first humanoid robot to be designed.

D. Human and electronic citizens will live together.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 23: The news of the flood (A) in Central provinces were broadcast (B) over radio and television as well as (C) published in the newspaper.(D)

Question 24: It was the garden (A) that I could (B) find your earrings, not (C) anywhere else.(D)

Question 25: She made (A) some very complementary remarks (B) about my English, saying (C) that I spoke quite fluently (D) and comprehensibly.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: It was generous of her to donate so much money to charity.

A. That she donated so much money to charity was generous.

B. She was generous and donated a large amount of money to charity.

C. Donating so much money to charity made her become generous.

D. She donated a large amount of money to charity, which was generous of her.

Question 27: "Why don’t you put a better lock on the door?" said John.

A. John ordered us to put a better lock on the door.

B. John asked us why we put a better lock on the door.

C. John let us put a better lock on the door.

D. John suggested putting a better lock on the door.

Question 28: People believe that he and a friend discovered traces of treasure in the hole.

A. It is believed that he and a friend had discovered traces of treasure in the hole.

B. Traces of treasure are believed to have been discovered in the hole by him and a friend.

C. Traces of treasure were believed to have been discovered in the hole by him and a friend.

D. It was believed that he and a friend had discovered traces of treasure in the hole.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29: David was awarded a medal for bravery. Then he became the centre of attention in his office.

A. Having awarded a medal for bravery, David became the centre of attention in his office.

B. David became the centre of attention in his office before being awarded a medal for bravery.

C. Awarded a medal for bravery, David became the centre of attention in his office.

D. Having become the centre of attention in his office, David was awarded a medal for bravery.

Question 30: I won't sell the painting. He offers me a lot for it.

A. When he offers me a lot to buy the painting, I won't sell it.

B. Were he to offer me much money for the painting, I wouldn't sell it.

C. Whatever price he offered me for the painting, I wouldn't sell it.

D. No matter how much he offers me for the painting, I won't sell it.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

---(Để xem tiếp nội dung của đề thi số 5 các em vui lòng xem tại online hoặc đăng nhập vào HỌC247 để tải về máy)--- 

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 5

1

2

3

4

5

D

D

A

C

A

6

7

8

9

10

B

D

D

C

B

11

12

13

14

15

C

C

D

D

D

16

17

18

19

20

D

D

B

B

A

21

22

23

24

25

D

B

B

A

B

26

27

28

29

30

A

D

B

A

D

31

32

33

34

35

D

B

B

B

C

36

37

38

39

40

A

B

A

A

B

41

42

43

44

45

B

C

C

B

D

46

47

48

49

50

A

C

B

C

B

...

Trên đây là một phần trích đoạn nội dung Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG năm 2021-2022 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THPT Nam Kỳ Khởi Nghĩa. Để xem toàn bộ nội dung các em chọn chức năng xem online hoặc đăng nhập vào trang hoc247.net để tải tài liệu về máy tính.

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