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Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG môn Tiếng Anh năm 2021-2022 có đáp án Trường THPT Trần Phú Lần 2

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Mời các em tham khảo nội dung tài liệu chi tiết sau đây: Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG môn Tiếng Anh năm 2021-2022 có đáp án Trường THPT Trần Phú Lần 2. Tài liệu này bao gồm 5 đề thi do HOC247 sưu tầm và biên soạn kèm theo đáp án chi tiết. Hi vọng đây sẽ là một tài liệu tham khảo bổ ích giúp các em hoàn thành tốt kì thi THPT Quốc gia quan trọng sắp đến!

ATNETWORK

TRƯỜNG THPT TRẦN PHÚ

ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM HỌC 2021-2022

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH

(Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút)

1. Đề số 1

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions from 1 to 2

Câu 1: A. master

B. struggle

C. commit

D. random

Câu 2: A. environmental

B. agricultural

C. international

D. multicultural

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word from 3 to 7

In the U.S., (3)________ the dialogue of inclusion is relatively advanced, even the mention of the word “diversity” can lead to anxiety and conflict. Supreme Court justices disagree on the virtues of diversity and the means for achieving it. Corporations spend billions of dollars to attract and manage diversity both internally and externally, (4)________they still face discrimination lawsuits, and the leadership ranks of the business world remain predominantly white and male.

It is reasonable to ask what (5)________diversity does us. Diversity of expertise confers benefits that are obvious you would not think of building a new car without engineers, designers, and qualitycontrol experts but what about social diversity? What good comes from diversity of race, ethnicity, gender, and sexual orientation? Research has shown that social diversity in a group can cause discomfort, rougher interactions, a lack of trust, greater perceived interpersonal conflict, lower communication, less cohesion, more concern about disrespect, and (6)________ problems. So, what is the upside?

The fact is that if you want to build teams or organizations capable of innovating, you need

diversity. Diversity enhances creativity. It encourages the search for novel information and perspectives, (7) ________to better decision making and problem solving. Diversity can improve the bottom line of companies and lead to unfettered discoveries and breakthrough innovations. Even simply being exposed to diversity can change the way you think.

Câu 3: A. which

B. whose

C. where

D. when

Câu 4: A. consequently

B. despite

C. yet

D. because

Câu 5: A. useful

B. good

C. characteristic

D. kind

Câu 6: A. others

B. the other

C. another

D. other

Câu 7: A. taking

B. reaching

C. leading

D. putting

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions from 8 to 9.

Câu 8: The biological agents now in use are environmentally benign and are harmless to humans.

A. friendly B. unfavorable C. unfriendly D. hostile

Câu 9: The sun is a powerful energy source, and this energy source can be harnessed by installing solar panels.

A. exploited B. dug C. transmitted D. devastated

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges from 10 to 11.

Câu 10: Thiago: “Have you checked your email today?” ~ Ranick: “___________”

A. No, I'll check it later. B. Yes, it's getting extremely slow.

C. All right. I'll do it for you. D. No, it costs a lot.

Câu 11: Kevin: “Mai, what do you think are green activities at home?” ~ Mai: “___________”

A. I’m not sure. It’s important that some people stay in rural areas and work in agriculture.

B. I’m no expert, but I think we should save electricity, water and other energy resources.

C. Well, I totally agree with you. I think everybody should be better aware of green lifestyles.

D. I'm not sure about that. It causes air pollution.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from 12 to 26.

Câu 12: Counter-urbanisation has caused many negative effects, ___________?

A. doesn’t it B. has it C. does it D. hasn’t it

Câu 13: My parents ___________a lot of their time writing letters before they started using social media 2 months ago.

A. have wasted

B. were wasted

C. had wasted

D. has wasted

Câu 14: She was very fascinated by a pair of _____________ shoes in West Lake shopping Mall.

A. new French purple

B. new purple French

C. purple new French

D. French new purple

Câu 15: She walked home by herself, _____________ she knew that it was dangerous.

A. however B. in the event that C. although D. despite

Câu 16: Migrants may lose their cultural identity ____________.

A. while they had become assimilated into the new community

B. when they become assimilated into the new community

C. as soon as they became assimilated into the new community

D. before they will become assimilated into the new community

Câu 17: Money ___________to the homeless shelter by a large number of local citizens so far.

A. will have been donated B. has been donated

C. was donated D. had been donated

Câu 18: _____________ for the first time in 1833, the launch coincides with the Mercury's 180th anniversary.

A. Having been published B. Having published

C. Publishing D. Being publishing

Câu 19: The practice of using more chemicals to improve crop yields is harmful ___________people’s health.

A. at B. of C. with D. to

Câu 20: We are no longer prepared to ___________reckless behaviour, which too often has resulted in irreparable damage to the environment.

A. go down with B. take up with C. put up with D. catch up with

Câu 21: Living in their own country, people can easily acquire and maintain their cultural identity because they are fully ___________ to different aspects of their native culture.

A. used B. exposed C. refused D. objected

Câu 22: Chaplin was not just a genius, he was among the most ___________ figures in film history.

A. influence B. influent C. influential D. influentially

Câu 23: They cannot stand the sight of each other, but they will just have to ___________.

A. grin and bear it B. keep them posted

C. have their wits about it. D. keep a straight face

Câu 24: Most of the people surveyed __________ a high opinion of the organization.

A. give B. make C. have D. think

Câu 25: Another ______ characteristic of water is that water has a heat capacity which is the highest of all liquids and solids except ammonia.

A. exceptionally good B. excellent C. outstanding D. talented

Câu 26: The prospect of the writer under surveillance has long held a ___________ for readers.

A. fascination B. preference C. desire D. love

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions from 27 to 29.

Câu 27: The disabled man used to go swimming with his friends in the afternoons.

A. The disabled man didn’t go swimming with his friends in the afternoons.

B. The disabled man usually goes swimming with his friends in the afternoons.

C. The disabled man got used to go swimming with his friends in the afternoons.

D. The disabled man usually went swimming with his friends in the afternoons.

Câu 28: “I will let you know the answer by the end of this week,” Webber said to Juana.

A. Webber promised to give Juana the answer by the end of the week.

B. Webber suggested giving Juana the answer by the end of the week.

C. Webber insisted on letting Juana know the answer by the end of the week.

D. Webber offered to give Juana the answer by the end of this week.

Câu 29: My classmate paid for her travel in advance, but it wasn’t necessary.

A. My classmate might not have paid for her travel in advance.

B. My classmate may not have paid for her travel in advance.

C. My classmate couldn’t have paid for her travel in advance.

D. My classmate needn't have paid for her travel in advance.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions from 30 to 31

Câu 30: A. preach

B. dead

C. heat

D. seat

Câu 31: A. visited

B. remarked

C. developed

D. matched

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions from 32 to 33.

Câu 32: The country's continued prosperity is dependent on the opportunities and achievements of all its residents.

A. poverty B. inflation C. insecurity D. wealth

Câu 33: I know she’s upset but it’s time for her to pull herself together and stop crying.

A. make herself motivated B. calm herself down

C. control her emotions and behave calmly D. become very angry

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction from 34 to 36.

Câu 34: We spent tens of millions of dong on rent every month, and on top of that is the staff payroll.

A. and B. spent C. of D. staff

Câu 35: I scanned some photos I'd taken, so that I could send it to a friend in Australia.

A. in B. it C. that D. some

Câu 36: Electric devices such as computers contain circuits that send currents between internal

components and develop voltages.

A. components B. that C. as D. Electric

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 37 to 43.

A common phenomenon in arid regions of the world is the whirling vortex called the “dust devil.” Although they resemble tornadoes, dust devils are generally much smaller and less intense than their more destructive cousins. Most dust devils are only a few meters in diameter and reach heights no greater than about 100 meters. Further, these whirlwinds are usually short-lived microscale phenomena: most form and die out within minutes. Unlike tornadoes, which are associated with clouds, dust devils form on days when clear skies prevail. Further, these whirlwinds form from the ground upward, exactly the opposite of tornadoes. Because surface heating is critical to their formation, dust devils occur most frequently in the afternoon, when surface temperatures are highest.

Dust devils form when the hot surface of the earth warms the air above it. When the air near the

surface is considerably warmer than the air a few tens of meters overhead, the layer of air near Earth’s surface becomes unstable. In this situation, warm surface air begins to rise, causing air near the ground to be drawn into the developing whirlwind. A light wind will start this rising air to rotate, and once the rotation has begun, it becomes faster due to the same physical principle that causes ice-skaters to spin faster as they pull their arms closer to their body. As the inwardly spiraling air rises, it carries sand, dust, and other loose debris tens of meters into the air. It is this material that makes a dust devil visible. Occasionally, dust devils form above ground covered with vegetation. Under these conditions, the vortices may go undetected unless they interact with objects at the surface.

Most dust devils are small and short-lived; consequently, they are not generally destructive.

Occasionally, however, these whirlwinds grow to be 100 meters or more in diameter and over a kilometer high. Larger and more vigorous dust devils have a longer lifetime than smaller ones. One large dust devil, with a height of about 750 meters, lasted for seven hours as it traveled 64 kilometers in western Utah. With winds that whirl at speeds that may reach 100 kilometers per hour, such large dust devils can do considerable damage.

Câu 37: The phrase “their more destructive cousins” in the paragraph refers to_______.

A. dust devils B. whirlwinds C. arid regions D. tornadoes

Câu 38: The word “prevail” in line 7 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. dominate B. return C. appear D. increase

Câu 39: The word “critical” in line 8 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. opposed B. useful C. essential D. unique

Câu 40: According to the first paragraph, tornadoes and dust devils differ in all of the following respects EXCEPT______.

A. how often they occur in populated areas

B. how they form

C. the weather conditions that favor their formation

D. their size and duration

Câu 41: Why does the author mention ice-skaters in the second paragraph?

A. To emphasize that whirlwinds move independently

B. To compare the direction of movement in a skater’s rotation to the direction of a whirlwind’s movement

C. To explain the motion of dust devils in familiar terms

D. To explain the effect of wind on the rotation of ice-skaters

Câu 42: According to the second paragraph, what makes the situation in which a dust devil forms unstable?

A. The movement of air tens of meters above Earth’s surface.

B. The fact that a layer of cool air is above a layer of warm air.

C. The fact that winds tend to disturb the warm surface air.

D. The tendency of dust and other debris to be drawn into the air.

Câu 43: In the third paragraph, why does the author mention a large dust devil in western Utah?

A. To argue that western Utah tends to have unusually large dust devils.

B. To give an example of a large dust devil that was originally misclassified as a tornado.

C. To suggest that there is little difference between a large dust devil and a tornado.

D. To illustrate the relationship between size and duration of dust devils.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions from 44 to 45.

Câu 44: I was busy yesterday. I couldn’t complete my homework.

A. Much time though I had yesterday, I could have completed my homework.

B. Only if I had more time yesterday, I could complete my homework.

C. Had I had more time yesterday, I could have completed my homework.

D. As soon as I didn’t have more time yesterday, my homework couldn’t be completed.

Câu 45: My brother was too weak. He couldn't take part in the marathon last week.

A. But for my brother’s weakness, he couldn't have played a part in the marathon last week.

B. So weak was my brother that he couldn’t compete in the marathon last week.

C. Such weak was my brother that he couldn’t fight other competitors of the marathon last week.

D. Had my brother been too weak, he could have joined the marathon last week.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 46 to 50.

History books recorded that the first film with sound was The Jazz Singer in 1927. But sound films, or talkies, did not suddenly appear after years of silent screenings. From the earliest public performances in 1896, films were accompanied by music and sound effects. These were produced by a single pianist, a small band, or a full-scale orchestra; large movie theatres could buy sound-effect machines. Research into sound that was reproduced at exactly at the same time as the pictures - called "synchronized sound" – began soon after the very first films were shown. With synchronized sound, characters on the movie screen could sing and speak. As early as 1896, the newly invented gramophone, which played a large disc carrying music and dialogue, was used as a sound system. The biggest disadvantage was that the sound and pictures could become unsynchronized if, for example, the gramophone needle jumped or if the speed of the projector changed. This system was only effective for a single song or dialogue sequence.

In the "sound-on-film" system, sound was recorded as a series of marks on celluloid which could be read by an optical sensor. These signals would be placed on the film alongside the image, guaranteeing synchronization. Short feature films were produced in this way as early as 1922. This system eventually brought us "talking pictures".

Câu 46: The passage is mainly about the ______________.

A. disadvantages of synchronized sound.

B. research into sound reproduction.

C. history of silent movies.

D. development of sound with movies.

Câu 47: The word "screenings" is closest in meaning to "________________".

A. demonstrations

B. revelations

C. projectors

D. diversions

Câu 48: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a producer of sound to accompany movies?

A. a gramophone B. a single pianist C. a Jazz Singer D. a small band

Câu 49: The phrase "these signals" refers to ______________.

A. sounds B. sensors C. series D. marks

Câu 50: According to the passage, sound-on-film guaranteed synchronization because the recording was ________.

A. made during the film of the picture

B. read by an optical sensor

C. marked on the gramophone

D. inserted beside the image on the film

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 1

1C 2A 3C 4C 5B 6D 7C 8A 9A 10A 11B 12D 13C 14B 15C 16B 17B 18A 19D 20C

21B 22C 23A 24C 25C 26A 27D 28A 29D 30B31A 32A 33D 34B 35B 36D 37D 38A 39C 40A

41B 42B 43D 44C 45B 46D 47C 48C 49D 50D

2. Đề số 2

ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QG MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT TRẦN PHÚ- ĐỀ 02

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 1: More than a mile of roadway has been blocked with trees, stones and other debris, _____ the explosion.

A. causing B. caused by C. which caused by D. which caused

Question 2: I think mobile phones are ______ for people of all ages.

A. usage B. usefully C. useful D. use

Question 3: I _____ an old friend of mine in the street this morning. We haven't seen each other for ages.

A. ran into B. ran out C. came over D. came round

Question 4: In spite of their disabilities, the children at Spring School manage to _____ an active social life.

A. save B. lead C. gather D. take

Question 5: There is nothing in the fridge, _____?

A. isn't there B. is there C. is it D. isn't it

Question 6: The girl proposed that their group leader _____ a camping trip.

A. organized B. organize C. organizes D. organizing

Question 7: "If I _____ and my life depended on the solution, I would spend the first 55 minutes determining the proper question to ask, for once I know the proper question, I could solve the problem in less than five minutes." - Albert Einstein

A. have an hour to solve a problem

B. had an hour solving a problem

C. had had an hour to solve a problem

D. had an hour to solve a problem

Question 8: The number of unemployed people _____ recently.

A. is increasing B. has increased C. have increased D. increase

Question 9: Children are encouraged to read books _____ they are a wonderful source of knowledge.

A. in spite of B. although C. because of D. because

Question 10: _____, we had already put out the fire.

A. Until the firemen arrived to help

B. No sooner the firemen arrived to help

C. By the time the firemen arrived to help

D. After the firemen arrived to help

Question 11: I'm sorry but I assure you that I had no intention _____ offending you.

A. in B. of C. to D. for

Question 12: Because they are a close family, there is probably nothing that can break their _____.

A. share B. contribution C. solidarity D. group

Question 13: Similar to the way they use Facebook, teens _____ the "success" of their photos- even their self - worth by the number of likes or comments they receive.

A. value B. indicate C. weigh D. measure

Question 14: Your store needs a bold sign that will catch a _____ of anyone walking down the street. That may help to sell more products.

A. eye B. peek C. flash D. glimpse

Question 15: She will have to _____ if she wants to pass the entrance exam to university.

A. pull her socks up B. work miracles C. take the trouble D. keep her hand in

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 16: The United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO), was established in 1946.

A. set up B. found out C. run through D. put away

Question 17: Veronica broke the school rules so many times that the headmistress finally had no alternative but to expel her.

A. force her to leave a school B. make her meet the headmaster

C. punish her severely D. beat her violently

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 18: A. repeats B. amuses C. attacks D. coughs

Question 19: A. inadequate B. navigate C. necessitate D.debate

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions

Question 20: A. advent B. asthma C. custom D. deplete

Question 21: A. assimilation B. generosity C. multicultural D. unemployment

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: These days, many people only read printed newspapers once in a while as they tend to access information online.

A. regularly B. attentively C. occasionally D. selectively

Question 23: For many couples, money is the source of arguments, frustration. When it comes to finances and relationships, sharing the financial burden is important.

A. benefit B. responsibility C. prevention D. difficulty

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 24: Lan and Hoa are talking about taking part in non-profit organization this summer.

Mai: - “I like to work part-time for a non-profit organization this summer.”

Hoa: - “________________.”

A. Me too. I'm thinking of applying for 'Hope'.

B. I do, but I don't have enough time for studying.

C. That's great. You have been coming of age.

D. Is that all? How about using time wisely?

Question 25: Peter is talking to Laura about her house.

Peter: “What a lovely house you have!”

Laura: “__________________.”

A. Of course not, it's not costly.

B. Thank you. Hope you will drop

in. C. I think so.

D. No problem.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

The World Health Organization (WHO) is warning young people all over the world that they are also at risk from COVID-19. The WHO said young people are not exempt from catching the coronavirus. Many young people (26) _____ believe they will not catch the virus because of their age. They think it is a disease that only older people catch. The WHO said the truth is (27) _____ young people are catching the coronavirus and becoming ill or dying from it. It added that young people are also spreading the disease to their parents, grandparents and (28) _____ people. The White House also urged young adults to follow advice and to avoid gathering in large groups to help prevent the spread of the virus.

The Director-General of the WHO said: "Today, I have a message for young people: You are not invincible." He added: "This coronavirus could put you in hospital for weeks, or even kill you. Even if you don't get sick, the choices you make about where you go could be the difference between life and death for someone else." The WHO said: "A significant proportion of patients (29) _____ in hospital for COVID-19 around the world are aged under 50." New York Governor Andrew Cuomo said many young people are not (30) _____ the state's social- distancing rules. He told young people that: "This is a public health issue and you cannot be endangering other peoples' health."

(Source: https://breakingnewsenglish.com/)

Question 26: A. really

B. mistakenly

C. strongly

D. frequently

Question 27: A. why

B. what

C. that

D. when

Question 28: A. other

B. others

C. the others

D. the other

Question 29: A. to treat

B. to be treated

C. treating

D. treated

Question 30: A. following 

B. doing

C. making

D. keeping

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, D, on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

An idea came to me, and I turned off the lights in the studio. In the darkness, I put the cello's spike into a loose spot on the carpet, tightened the bow and drew it across the open strings. I took off my shirt and tried it again, it was the first time in my life I'd felt the instrument against my bare chest. I could fell the vibration of the strings travel through the body of the instrument to my own body. I'd never thought about that; music scholars always talk about the resonating properties of various instruments, but surely the performer's own body must have some effect on the sound. As I dug into the notes I imagined that my own chest and lung were extensions of the sound box; I seemed to be able to alter the sound by the way I sat, and by varying the muscular tension in my upper body.

After improvising for a while, I started playing the D minor Bach suite, still in the darkness. Strangely freed of the task of finding the right phrasing, the right intonation, the right bowing, I heard the music through my skin. For the first time I didn't think about how it would sound to anyone else, and slowly, joyfully, gratefully, I started to hear again. The note sang out, first like a trickle, then like a fountain of cool water bubbling up from a hole in the middle of the desert. After an hour or so I looked up, and in the darkness saw the outline of the cat sitting on the floor in front of me, cleaning her paws and purring loudly. I had an audience again, humble as it was.

So that's what I do now with the cello. At least once a day I find time to tune it, close my eyes, and listen. It's probably not going to lead to the kind of come back. I'd fantasized about for so long - years of playing badly have left scars on my technique, and, practically speaking, classical musicians returning from obscurity are almost impossible to promote - but might eventually try giving a recital if I feel up to it. Or better yet, I may pay for Dr. Polk if our date at the concert goes well. Occasionally I fell a stab of longing, and I wish I could give just one more concert on the great stage before my lights blink off, but that longing passes more quickly now. I take solace on the fact that, unlike the way I felt before, I can enjoy playing for myself now. I fell relaxed and expansive when I play, as if I could stretch out my arms and reach from one end of the apartment to the other. A feeling of the completeness and dignity surrounds me and lifts me up.

Question 31. What is the passage mainly about?

A. A musician's feelings when he plays the cello

B. A musician's desire to return to his former profession

C. A musician finding joy in playing music again

D. A musician playing the cello for his cat

Question 32. In paragraph 1, what does the word “it” refer to in the sentence, "I took off my shirt and tried it again."?

A. Drawing the bow across the strings

B. Turning off the lights in the studio

C. Taking off the shirt

D. Tightening the bow

Question 33. In paragraph 2 the author's primary purpose is _______

A. to explain the cellist's feelings of playing before an audience

B. to describe the sound when the cellist plays next to his skin

C. to identify specific pieces of music that the cellist plays

D. to describe the cellist's experience of playing next to his skin

Question 34. All of following are mentioned in paragraph 2 as part of the cellist's new way of playing EXCEPT _______.

A. playing the instrument in the dark

B. thinking of how the music sounded to others

C. “hearing” music through his bare skin

D. not worrying about finding the right phrasing

Question 35. What can be inferred from paragraph 3 about the cellist?

A. He had away enjoyed playing for himself V

B. He had continually performed over the years

C. Previously, he had never played before an audience

D. Previously, he only wanted to play for an audience

Question 36. Based on the information in paragraph 3, what can be inferred about the cellist's attitude toward playing?

A. He feels optimistic C. He feels nervous

B. He is discouraged D. He is reluctant

Question 37. The word blink off in paragraph 3 in closest in meaning to _____.

A. wink B. flicker C. twinkle D. turn off

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, D, on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Thousands of books have been written on the conflict between parents and teenagers. Psychologists and sociologists have spent years trying to understand the reasons for the tension and endless arguments between these two groups.

A close look at these arguments often reveals that the reasons are so trivial that we may wonder what the tears and shouts have all been about. Most arguments are not about major issues like the nuclear bomb or the ecological problems of the universe. The fights are usually about simple matters such as food, clothes, the weekly allowance or the telephone.

Let's take an ordinary day and examine what happens. Problems start around 7 a.m. It is then that parents expect their children to get up, get dressed, eat and go to school. Parents and alarm clocks seem like the enemies of mankind at that early hour. Some parents even expect the "poor" youngsters to tidy up their room and put everything in its place before leaving for school - a ridiculous demand - in the eyes of the "victims". In the afternoon, parents want them to do homework and study hard. They resent their children's endless conversations on the phone. In the evening, they complain about the clothes and jewelry the teenagers wear and preach for hours about the dangers on the road and the need to be home by midnight at the latest, like Cinderella.

Youngsters expect parents to be more flexible; not to preach and lecture but to advise and explain. They would like them to be tolerant of different views, listen to their problems and respect their privacy. However, even if they don't admit it, youngsters need the guidance and support of their parents, their approval or disapproval and even their firm opposition on crucial subjects such as drugs or alcohol. They need limits. They need loving but firm authority. In short, youngsters should be more patient and sensitive to their parents' feelings and parents must understand that they cannot prevent their children from making mistakes. Trial and error is, after all, a very important part of the process of growing up.

Question 38. Most arguments between parents and teenagers are about _____.

A. complicated matters

B. dating relationships

C. money

D. simple matters

Question 39. The word "trivial" is closest in meaning to _______.

A. unimportant B. serious C. necessary D. complex

Question 40. Parents don't want youngsters ______.

A. get up early

B. hang out with their friends

C. wear jewelry

D. talk a lot on the phone

Question 41. The word "victims" in paragraph 3 refers to ________.

A. all the parents

B. all the youngsters

C. youngsters suffering from severe abuse

D. youngsters required to clean up their room

Question 42. Which of the following is TRUE according to paragraph 4?

A. Teenagers don't want to talk or explain anything to their parents.

B. Parents need to stop their children from making mistakes.

C. Making mistakes plays an important role in helping teenagers to be mature.

D. Parents should let their children have freedom to do anything that they like.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

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ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 2

1B 2C 3A 4B 5B 6B 7D 8B 9D 10C 11B 12C 13D 14A 15A 16A 17A 18B 19A 20D 21A 22A 23A 24A 25B 26B 27C 28A 29D 30A 31C 32A 33D 34B 35B 36A 37D 38D 39A 40D 41D 42C 43B 44D 45A 46C 47B 48B 49A 50A

3. Đề số 3

ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QG MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT TRẦN PHÚ- ĐỀ 03

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 1. My brother quickly adapted to his new job at the bank.

A. My brother quickly got used to his new job at the bank.

B. My brother was used to adapting to his new job at the bank.

C. My brother was able to do his new job at the bank easily.

D. My brother's new job at the bank was easy for him to adapt to.

Question 2. "I am very pleased at how things have turned out.", she said to her employees.

A. She asked her employees how things had turned out and was pleased to know it.

B. She complimented her employees for making things turn out

C. She wanted her employees to tell her how many things had turned out.

D. She expressed her satisfaction with the ways things had turned out.

Question 3. What I found surprising was his lack of confidence.

A. He was overconfident, so I was very surprised.

B. His lack of confidence was what I really found.

C. To my surprise, he found himself lacking in confidence.

D. It was his lack of confidence that surprised me.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 4. They are going to have to amputate his left leg which was badly injured in the accident.

A. cut off B. separate C. mend D. remove

Question 5.I was relieved by the news that they had gone home safe and sound.

A. relaxed B. comforted C. concerned D. lightened

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

It is estimated that by 2050 more than two-thirds of the world's population will live in cities, up from about 54 percent today. While the many benefits of organized and efficient cities are well understood, we need to recognize that this rapid, often unplanned urbanization brings risks of profound social instability, risks to critical infrastructure, potential water crises and the potential for devastating spread of diseases. These risks can only be further exacerbated as this unprecedented transition from rural to urban areas continues.

How effectively these risks can be addressed will increasingly be determined by how well cities are governed. The increased concentration of people, physical assets, infrastructure and economic activities mean that the risks materializing at the city level will have far greater potential to disrupt society than ever before.

Urbanization is by no means bad by itself. It brings important benefits for economic, cultural and societal development. Well managed cities are both efficient and effective, enabling economies of scale and network effects while reducing the impact on the climate of transportation. As such an urban model can make economic activity more environmentally friendly. Further, the proximity and diversity and diversity of people can spark innovation and create employment as exchanging ideas breeds new ideas. But these utopian concepts are threatened by some of the factors driving rapid urbanization. For example, one of the main factors is rural-urban migration, driven by the prospect of greater employment opportunities and the hope of a better life in cities. But rapidly increasing population density can create severe problems, especially if planning efforts are not sufficient to cope with the influx of new inhabitants. The result may, in extreme cases, be widespread poverty. Estimates suggest that 40% of the world's urban expansion is taking place in slums, exacerbating socio-economic disparities and creating unsanitary conditions that facilitate the spread of disease.

The Global Risks 2015 Report looks at four areas that face particularly daunting in the face of rapid and unplanned urbanization: infrastructure, health, climate change, and social instability. In each of these areas we find new risks that can best managed or, in some cases, transferred through the mechanism of insurance.

(Adapted from WWW.Zurich. com)

Question 6. According to paragraph 3, what is one of the advantages of urbanization?

A. People may come up with new ideas for innovation

B. It makes water supply system both efficient and effective

C. Weather and climate in the city will be much improved

D. It minimizes risks for economic, cultural and societal development

Question 7. Which statement is TRUE, according to the passage?

A. Urbanization brings important benefits for development as well

B. 54% of the world's population will live in cities by 2050.

C. Risks cannot be addressed effectively no matter how well cities are

D. Rapidly increasing population density can help solve poverty.

Question 8. Which is the most suitable title for the passage?

A. The Global Risks 2015 Report on Developing Urban Areas

B. The Risks of Rapid Urbanization in Developing countries

C. Infrastructure and Economic Activities in Cities

D. Rapid Urbanization Put Cities in Jeopardy

Question 9. The word “addressed” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to .

A. aimed at B. added to C. agreed on D. dealt with

Question 10. What can be inferred from the passage?

A. The increasing number of people in cities can create more employment.

B. Diseases are caused by people migrating to cities.

C. Urbanization can solve the problem of environmental pollution in cities.

D. Poverty may be a foregone conclusion of unplanned urbanization

Question 11. The word "spark" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to .............

A. encourage B. need C. start D. design

Question 12. The word "that" in paragraph 4 refers to .................

A. unsanitary conditions B. socio-economic disparities

C. urban expansion D. disease

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

Singapore was one of the five original member countries that (13) ________ ASEAN in 1967. (14) __________ its independence in 1965, Singapore has become one of the world's most prosperous countries. Singapore is highly ranked for its economic competitiveness, and it was the world's most (15) __________ country from 1997 to 1999 as ranked by the World Economic Forum.

Singapore has (16) _________ an impressive recovery after the Asian financial crisis of 1997-1998. The government is currently restructuring the economy by promoting higher value-added activities in line with a knowledge-based" economy, and by opening up protected sectors such as financial services to increase overall efficiency. Various bilateral free-trade agreements are also being negotiated to improve market access and (17) _____ foreign investment inflows.

Question 13. A. held

B. set for

C. establishes

D. founded

Question 14. A. Since

B. With

C. For

D. Because of

Question 15. A. competitiveness

B. competing

C. competitive

D. competitor

Question 16. A. made

B. done

C. had

D. improved

Question 17. A. encourage

B. dispose

C. lead

D. call

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 18. A. distinguished B. practical C. emission D. respectable

Question 19. A. situation B. disappearance C. economic D. increasingly

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 20. In a formal interview, it is essential to maintain good eye ____with the interviewers.

A. connection B. touch C. link D. contact

Question 21. Sally's low test scores kept her from __________to the university.

A. to admit B. being admitted C. admitting D. to be admitted

Question 22. Jill went to ________ hospital to see her friend.

A. an B. the C. x D. a

Question 23. While my mother ________ a film on TV, my father was cooking dinner. It was March 8th yesterday.

A. watched B. had watched C. was watched D. was watching.

Question 24. Mrs. Jane gave her short speech to express her ________ for the retirement gift.

A. applause B. apportionment C. appreciation D. appeasement

Question 25. People have used coal and oil to ___________ electricity for a long time.

A. cultivate B. breed C. raise D. generate

Question 26. Children should be by their parents on the first day of school.

A. followed B. accompanied C. involved D. associated

Question 27. The shark him while he was paddling on his surfboard.

A. has attacked B. was attacked C. attacked D. had attacked

Question 28.1 couldn't find John at the party last night. If I him, we'd have been happy.

A. met B. meet C. had met D. have met

Question 29. The teacher explained so much stuff in just one lesson that most of the students could ____________ only half of it.

A. take in B. let out C. break up D. get through

Question 30. Each form of mass media has had an important on society.

A. affection B. impact C. role D. pressure

Question 31. ___________ The heavy rain, I walk home without an umbrella.

A. Although B. Though C. Despite of D. Despite

Question 32. We are having _________ terrible weather which is quite strange. Usually ________ weather in UK is not this bad.

A. the - a B. 0 - the C. the - the D. a - the

Question 33. The boys proposed that their group leader a camping trip.

A. organize B. organized C. organizing D. organizes

Question 34. It is imperative what to do when there is a fire.

A. that he knew B. he must know about

C. we knew D. that everyone know

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 35. A car hit the fence of my garden. I was cleaning the swimming pool.

A. A car hit the fence and I was cleaning the swimming pool.

B. While a car hit the fence I was cleaning the swimming pool.

C. I was cleaning the swimming pool when a car hit the fence.

D. I was cleaning the swimming pool then a car hit the fence.

Question 36. Why do you take an umbrella? It is not even raining.

A. You need not to take an umbrella because it is not even raining.

B. You must not take an umbrella because it is not even raining.

C. You cannot take an umbrella because it is not even raining.

D. You need not take an umbrella because it is not even raining.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that is pronounced differently from the rest in each of the following questions.

Question 37. A. gain B. village C. energy D. gesture

Question 38. A. practiced B. wasted C. jumped D. laughed

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that need correction in each of the following questions.

Question 39. There are a number of measures that should be done to protect endangered animals from overhunting.

A. endangered B. from C. should be done D. there are

Question 40. Last month, while my friend was travelling round England by the car, he crashed the car into a tree.

A. the car B. a C. was travelling D. the

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ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 3

1A 2D 3D 4C 5C 6A 7A 8B 9D 10D 11C 12A 13D 14A 15C 16A 17A 18B 19D 20D 21B 22B 23D 24C 25D 26B 27C 28C 29A 30B 31D 32B 33A 34D 35C 36D 37A 38B 39C 40A 41A 42B 43C 44C 45B 46D 47A 48A 49B 50B

4. Đề số 4

ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QG MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT TRẦN PHÚ- ĐỀ 04

Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in each of the following questions. 

Question 1: A. farmers

B. apples

C. wallets

D. handbags 

Question 2: A. birth

B. slice

C. file

D. time

Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3: A. order

B. demand

C. explore

D. invite

Question 4: A. volunteer

B. invention

C. phonetics

D. computer

Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 

Question 5: Neither of them will be treated preferentially, ………? 

A. will them B. won’t them C. will they D. won’t they 

Question 6: These T-shirts and jeans ............... in the US. in 1900. 

A. have made B. made C. were made D. make 

Question 7: The weather is very fine today. Let's go ............... this afternoon.

A. climb B. to climb C. climbing D. climbed 

Question 8: She sat there quietly, but during all that time she was getting .............. Finally, she exploded.

A. more and more angry

B. the more angry 

C. angrier and angrier

D. the most angry 

Question 9: Visitors to the local museum are mostly attracted by ............... rocking chair.

A. an old wooden European beautiful

B. a beautiful old European wooden

C. an old beautiful wooden European

D. a wooden old beautiful European

Question 10: So far they ............ very hard day and night in search for new products.

A. have been working

B. are working

C. had been working

D. work

Question 11: .................. it was raining heavily, he went out without a raincoat.

A. Because B. Because of C. Despite D. Although 

Question 12: Please don't touch anything ....................

A. until the police will come

B. when the police came

C. before the police come 

D. right after the police would come 

Question 13: If you ............. to my advice, you wouldn’t be in this situation now.

A. listened B. had listened C. listen D. were listening 

Question 14: They eventually realize that reckless ............. of the earth’s resources can lead only to eventual global disaster. 

A. exploit B. exploitable C. exploitation D. exploitative 

Question 15: Vi-Dam singing, two kinds of folk music from Nghe An and Ha Tinh province, has been ............... to generations and is still very much alive today. 

A. handed down B. landed on C. passed by D. taken over

Question 16: The pointless war between the two countries left thousands of people dead and seriously ...............

A. injured B. wounded C. spoilt D. damaged 

Question 17: The president ............... tribute to all the people who had supported him.

A. made B. paid C. gave D. told 

Question 18: Eager to be able to discuss my work ............ in French, I hired a tutor to help polish my language skills. 

A. expressively B. articulately C. ambiguously D. understandably

Question 19: She is a rising star as a standup comedian, always able to bring down the ........... during each performance. 

A. house B. rain C. roof D. kennel 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20: There is an increase in the prevalence of electronic books as more people are turning to digitalised reading materials. 

A. deficiency B. intensity C. popularity D. scarcity 

Question 21: On Saturday wearing uniforms is optional so I often choose T-shirt and shorts.

A. compulsory B. voluntary C. uncomfortable D. acceptable

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: The research findings were reliable since modern technology was used to increase the precision of the sampling procedure. 

A. inaccuracy B. exactness C. insecurity D. flexibility 

Question 23: I’m all in favor of ambition but I think when he says he’ll be a millionaire by the time he’s 25, he’s simply crying for the moon

A. longing for what is within the reach

B. regretting for the moon 

C. doing something with vigorous intensity

D. crying a lot and for a long time

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best complete  each of the following exchanges. 

Question 24: Linda is thanking Daniel for his birthday present. 

• Linda: “Thanks for the book. I've been looking it for months.” - Daniel: “ ”

A. Thank you for looking for it.

B. You can say that again. 

C. I'm glad you like it.

D. I like reading books. 

Question 25: Lucy and Jack are talking about their school days.

• Lucy: "I think school days are the best time of our lives."

• Jack: " . We had sweet memories together then." 

A. Absolutely B. That's nonsense C. I'm afraid so D. I doubt it Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30. 

Many groups worldwide are trying to develop vaccines that protect against a wide range of  coronaviruses and prevent (26) _________ pandemic. These efforts have now been boosted by  the discovery that some healthcare workers had pre-existing immunity to the SARS-CoV-2  virus during the first wave of the pandemic. During the first half of 2020, around 700 healthcare  workers in the UK were tested weekly as part of a crowdfunded study called Covid Sortium.  Most of these people, who wore protective equipment, never tested positive for covid-19 in  PCR tests or developed covid-19 antibodies - proteins that (27) _________ to the outside of viruses, preventing cells from being infected. (28) __________, when Leo Swadling and Mala  Maini at University College London and their colleagues looked more closely, they found  some of those (29) ____________ tested negative had a protein in their blood that is linked to  covid-19 infection, as well as T cell responses to the SARS-CoV-2 virus. T cells are  (30) _________ of the immune system. 

Adapted from https ://www. new scientist, com/

Question 26: A. other

B. another

C. many

D. much

Question 27: A. bind

B. respond

C. connect

D. abide

Question 28: A. Therefore

B. Moreover

C. However

D. Because

Question 29: A. where

B. whose

C. whom

D. who

Question 30: A. part

B. piece

C. slice

D. lot

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35. 

The Amazing Race (TAR) is a popular reality TV show. Elise Doganieri and Bertram van  Munster created it in 2001 and since then it has won many awards. In the show, teams travel  around the world to different places. They try to arrive first, or at least not come last and they  also try to win prizes on their journey.

Every year, between 10 and 12 teams play on the show. There are two people in each team  and they must know each other before they come on the game. For example, they can be  husband and wife, parents and children, friends, etc. They have to travel to different countries  and work together on the journey. The teams get some money at the beginning of the race and  they use it to buy food, tickets, etc. They can use planes, trains, bikes or even skis to travel.

The teams explore places they’ve never been to before and have games or ‘challenges’.  These challenges have some connection to the country they are in and can be things like riding  a camel, solving puzzles or eating a lot of food, for example. The teams often have to face  extreme weather conditions during their journey. Many times they are outside in the rain or  snow or in storms and get cold and wet. It’s all part of the experience, though. 

Each week, one team leaves the show, and in the end there are only four teams. The first  team to get to the last city on the journey wins the game. TAR is a very hard game and the  teams become really stressed, but it’s an amazing experience.

 Adapted from https://meaww.com/

Question 31: Which best serves as the title for the passage? 

A. Tips for teams to win the race.

B. A hard race for all teams to win.

C. Places for teams to arrive.

D. A successful reality show. 

Question 32: The word “created” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to .............

A. watched

B. played

C. made

D. decorated 

Question 33: According to the passage, how many players are there on the show?

A. between 10 and 12

B. between 20 and 24 

C. 22

D. 44 

Question 34: What does the word “They” in the second paragraph refer to?

A. tickets

B. trains

C. teams

D. countries 

Question 35: Which of the following difficulties does the writer mention?

A. wild animals

B. bad weather

C. strange food

D. late trains

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

Whether they’re cheering in the stadium, yelling at the referee from the sofa, or singing thier team’s victory song, sports fans exist all over the world. The long-term attchment to a  particular sport or team appears to develop around the age of eight or nine, and the sport or  team a person decides to follow is largely influenced by their social circle rather than their  personal participation in a sport. Research into the psychology of sports fans has revealed some  common principles that apply to the behaviour of most fans. 

Have you ever heard a sports fan boasting, ‘We thrashed the other team today!’ or ‘We are  top of the league at the moment’? Clearly the fan was not personally involved in achieving  either success, yet they use the pronoun ‘we’ to report their team’s performance. Fans’ use of  ‘us’ and ‘we’ to talk about their favourite team is common behaviour. It demonstrates the  strong sense of identity fans feel great and enjoy experiencing the victory as if they had played  a part in the success themselves. 

The opposite of this often happens after a team suffers a defeat. Fans in this case may refer  to the team as ‘they’ in order to distance themselves from their team’s disappointing match  result. A dissatisfied fan is more likely to say ‘they played really badly’ as they want no  responsibility for the depressing final score. Furthermore, they will be unlikely to wear any  clothing that pinpoints them as a supporter after losing to a rival team. However, research  shows that this is not the case with fiercely loyal or ‘true’ fans. They will carry on wearing  their team scarf even when their team performs badly and will say with genuine sadness, ‘they  beat US three nil’. 

Finally, and perhaps most interestingly, is the way in which sports fans swear by their  superstitions or lucky charms. Wearing a certain item of clothing or carrying a lucky object is  common practice of many. People who may not be superstitious in other aspect of their life  will claim that wearing a certain item of lucky clothing will make their team play better.  Equally, an action performed while the team lost will be considered bad luck and will be  avoided in future for fear of jinxing the team. Of course in reality it makes no difference what  kind of hat you wear or whether you have your lucky coin, but superstitions are taken very  seriously by sports fans and I for one would not like to try and persuade them otherwise. 

Adapted from Gold experience by Kathryn Alevizos, Suzane Gaynar & Megan Rodeck

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ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 4

1C 2A 3A 4A 5C 6C 7C 8C 9B 10A 11D 12C 13B 14C 15A 16B 17B 18B 19A 20C 21B 22A 23Q 24C 25A 26B 27A 28C 29D 30A 31D 32C 33B 34C 35B 36A 37B 38B 39A 40D 41D 42B 43B 44B 45D 46D 47D 48B 49C 50B

5. Đề số 5

ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QG MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT TRẦN PHÚ- ĐỀ 05

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 1 to 5. 

Some doctors think that you should drink a glass of water each morning. You should drink  this water first thing, before doing anything else. The temperature of the water should be  similar to body temperature; neither too hot nor too cold. If you drink a glass of water which is  too cold, it can cause an imbalance to the body and slow down the digestive process. Besides,  drinking too hot water can bring about some serious side effects such as extensive damage to  the tissue and other organs. 

Why should you drink this water? Water helps your body in many ways. It helps clean out  your kidneys. It prepares your stomach for digestion. Water can also help your intestines work  better. After drinking water, the intestines can more easily take out nutrients from our food.  Water also helps US go to the bathroom more easily. 

Scientists suggest that people take in 1,600 milliliters of water each day. But don't drink all  of that water in one sitting. If you do, your kidneys will have to work much harder  to eliminate it. It's better to drink some in the morning and some in the afternoon. Some people  think it's better to drink between meals and not during meals. They think water dilutes the  juices produced in our stomachs. This can interfere with normal digestion. Are you drinking  enough water every day? Check the color of your urine. If it is light yellow, you are probably  drinking enough. If your urine is very dark yellow, you probably need to drink more water. A  little more water each day could make you much healthier. 

(Adapted from Reading Challenge 1 by Casey Malareher and Andrea Janzen)

Question 1: What is the main idea of the passage? 

A. How to drink water correctly?

B. The importance of water 

C. The advice of the doctors

D. The best amount of water to drink 

Question 2: The word "which" in paragraph 1 refers to .................

A. water B. a glass of water 

C. water temperature D. body temperature 

Question 3: According to the passage, water is good for the following organs of the body,  EXCEPT ............... 

A. kidneys B. stomach C. livers D. intestines 

Question 4: The word "eliminate" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to .............

A. process B. preserve C. remove D. absorb 

Question 5: Which of the following is NOT true? 

A. You need to drink more water if your urine is light yellow. 

B. Drinking water while having meals may interfere with normal digestion.

C. You shouldn't drink too much water at the same time. 

D. The first thing you should do every morning is to drink water. 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of  the following questions from 6 to 20.

Question 6: Meghan Markle, became a member of British Royal Family upon her _________ to Prince Harry on May 19th, 2018, is an American actress and humanitarian.

A. married B. marrying C. marriage D. marry 

Question 7: She finally achieved her __________ of visiting the USA. 

A. desires B. objective C. target D. ambition 

Question 8: __________ every major judo title, Mark retired from international competition.

A. Having won B. On winning C. When he won D. Winning

Question 9: __________his employees will have worked for two hours.

A. By the time the boss arrives

B. When the boss arrives 

C. Only when the boss arrives

D. After the boss arrives 

Question 10: Drinking too much alcohol is said to ________ harm to our health.

A. make B. lead C. do D. take 

Question 11: Governments decided to take __________ measures to deal with terrorism.

A. threshing B. tough C. enormous D. profound 

Question 12: Helen has just bought _____________ scarves. 

A. wool black new

B. new wool black 

C. black wool new

D. new black wool 

Question 13: The escaped prisoner fought _____________ before he was finally overpowered.

A. head over heels

B. heart and soul

C. tooth and nail

D. foot and mouth

Question 14: __________ I've cleaned it and polished it, it still doesn't look new.

A. Because B. Although C. While D. In spite of 

Question 15: Everyone hopes to gain physical health, _____________? 

A. doesn't she B. don't they C. doesn't he D. do they 

Question 16: We ______ to the hospital to visit Mike when he ______ to say that he was fine.

A. drove - called

B. were driving - was calling 

C. were driving - called

D. drove - was calling 

Question 17: What chemical is this? It's ______ a horrible smell. 

A. giving off B. giving over C. giving down D. giving up 

Question 18: Is he capable ______ doing such a hard job? 

A. in B. of C. for D. with 

Question 19: Today, many serious childhood diseases ______ by early immunization.

A. can be prevented

B. prevent

C. are preventing

D. can prevent

Question 20: The more you practice speaking in public, ______ 

A. the greater confidence you become

B. the more you become confidently

C. the more you become confident

D. the more confident you become

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in  meaning to the underlined word in each of the following questions from 21 to 22.

Question 21: There must be a mutual trust between friends. 

A. belief B. suspicion C. defendant D. reliance 

Question 22: He seems to make the same mistake over and over again

A. repeatedly B. in vain C. by the way D. for good 

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate  the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.

Father's Day was created to complement Mother's Day. Like Mother's Day (23) honors  mothers and motherhood, Father's Day celebrates fatherhood and paternal bonds; it highlights the (24) ________ of fathers in society. Many countries celebrate it on the third Sunday of  June, but it is also celebrated widely on other days. Historically, Sonora Smart Dodd was the  woman behind the celebration of male parenting. Her father, the Civil War veteran William  Jackson Smart, was a single parent who (25) _______ his six children there. After hearing a  sermon about Jarvis' Mother's Day in 1909, she told her pastor that fathers should have a  similar holiday honoring them. Although she initially suggested June 5, her father's birthday,  the pastors did not have enough time to prepare their sermons, and the celebration was deferred  to the third Sunday of June. The first celebration was in Spokane. Washington at the YMCA  Young Men's Christian Association) on June 19, 1910. Since then it has become a traditional  day (26) _________year. 

In recognition of what fathers do for their families, on this day people may have a party  celebrating male parenting or simply make a phone call or send a greeting card. (27)_____,  schools help children prepare handmade gifts for their fathers many days before the  celebration. 

Question 23: A. who

B. where

C. when

D. which

Question 24: A. impact

B. influence

C. conquest

D. effect

Question 25: A. made

B. raised

C. took

D. realized

Question 26: A. another

B. any

C. other

D. every

Question 27: A. However

B. Then

C. Besides

D. In contrast

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the under in each of the  following questions from 28 to 30. 

Question 28: The boy has a lot of toy cars, but he never plays with it. 

A. but

B. never

C. has

D. it 

Question 29: They have carried out exhausting research into the effects of smartphones on  schoolchildren's behaviour and their academic performance

A. into

B. academic performance

C. behaviour

D. exhausting

Question 30: He begins to study English three years ago. 

A. to study

B. three years

C. English

D. begins 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions from 31 to 32. 

Question 31: A. false

B. laugh

C. after

D. glass

Question 32: A. removed

B. rained

C. washed

D. changed

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines  each pair of sentences in the following questions from 33 to 34. 

Question 33: I didn't invite her to the party. I'm really sorry now. 

A. As long as his parents are at home, they will be able to help him. 

B. If only I had been sorry and could have invited her to the party. 

C. I really wish I had invited her to the party. 

D. If I were you, I had invited her to the party. 

Question 34: They finished one project. They started working on the next.

A. Hardly had they finished one project when they started working on the next.

B. Only if they had finished one project did they start working on the next.

C. Had they finished one project, they would have started working on the next.

D. Not until did they start working on the next project then they finished one.

---(Để xem tiếp nội dung của đề thi số 5 các em vui lòng xem tại online hoặc đăng nhập vào HỌC247 để tải về máy)---

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 5

1B 2B 3C 4C 5A 6C 7B 8A 9A 10C 11B 12D 13C 14B 15B 16C 17A 18B 19A 20D 21A 22A 23D 24B 25B 26D 27C 28D 29D 30D 31A 32C 33C 34A 35D 36C 37B 38B 39C 40A 41D 42B 43D 44D 45D 46C 47B 48A 49C 50A

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