Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG môn Tiếng Anh năm 2021-2022 có đáp án Trường THPT Hương Sơn Lần 1

TRƯỜNG THPT HƯƠNG SƠN

ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM HỌC 2021-2022 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH (Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút)

Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in each of the following question.

Question 1: A. farms	B. aunts	C. walls	D. hands
Question 2: A. climb	B. find	C. file	D. shirt

Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following question.

Question 3: A. suggest	B. decide	C. cancel	D. invite
Question 4: A. adventure	B. memory	C. accurate	D. confident

Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5: Lan’s friends passed the final exam, _______?

A. were they

B. did they

C. weren’t they

D. didn’t they

Question 6: This school _______ almost 50 years ago.

A. built

B. was built

C. was building

D. has been built

Question 7: She refused ______ further about the current situation in the company.

 A. commented

B. commenting

C. to commenting

D. to comment

Question 8: It’s becoming ______ to get a good job in this competitive society.

A. more and more hard

B. harder and harder

C. the harder and hardest

D. the most hard

Question 9: Paul has just sold his ______ car and intends to buy a new one.

A. black old Japanese

B. Japanese old black

C. old black Japanese

D. old Japanese black

Question 10: By the time my sister graduates from university, she ______ far away from home for 4 years.

A. had been

B. has been

C. will have been

D. will be

Question 11: Linda didn’t participate in the English Singing Contest ______ her lack of confidence.

A. because of

B. although

C. because

D. despite

Question 12: When Linda called last night, I ______ my favourite show on TV.

A. watched

B. have watched

C. was watching

D. am watching

Question 13: If you ______ to my advice, you wouldn’t have been in that messy situation.

A. listened

B. had listened

C. listen

D. would listen

Question 14: This book is not really ______. It is a waste of money buying it.

A. inform

B. information

C. informative

D. informatively

Question 15: She sounded so convincing to me that she ______ completely with her story.

 A. took me in

B. found me in

C. confided me in

D. listened me up

Question 16: There is a growing ______ of evidence for the existence of black holes in our solar system.

A. mind

B. part

C. body

D. hand

Question 17: These drugs are widely believed to be effective medications. The data, however,_____a different story.

A. talk

B. speak

C. say

D. tell

Question 18: Young people tend to prefer working with managers that are ______ to new ideas.

A. receptive

B. offensive

C. acceptable

D. permissive

Question 19: It would be better for you to reserve ______ until you know all the facts.

A. opinion

B. comment

C. assessment

D. judgement

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20: My neighbor is a reckless driver. He has been fined for speeding this month.

 A. famous B. enormous C. careless D. cautious

Question 21: The washing machine I have just bought is very simple to use. Everyone can use it without any difficulty.

 A. boring B. interesting C. easy D. difficult

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: At first she denied the accusations against her but she finally said yes.

 A. admitted B. promised C. doubted D. refused

Question 23: The writer was really hot under the collar when his novel was mistaken for another.

 A. calm B. worried C. curious D. angry

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 24: Jenny and her teacher are meeting at the bus stop.

- Jenny: “Good afternoon, Miss. How are you?”

- Teacher: “______. And you?”

A. I’m going home

B. I’m leaving now

C. I’m thirty years old

D. Fine, thank you

Question 25: Trang and Linh have just listened to Hoa’s song.

Trang: “Hoa is the best singer in our school.”

Linh: “______ I really love her beautiful voice.”

A. I can’t agree with you more!

B. Yes, tell me about it!

C. That’s OK!

D. Yes, please.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.

Almost one in 10 heads (9%) ___26___ took part in the survey said more than 20% of their teaching staff were absent on the first day of term for Covid-related reasons. The staffing situation is already so critical in some schools that 4% of heads have had to send classes or year groups home for online learning, ___27____ almost 7% have combined classes or year groups in response to teacher absence. Half of school leaders said they were already ___28___ on supply teachers to cover classes, and more than a third (37%) were unable to source the supply staff they need, even via agencies – almost certainly because of high demand. Paul Whiteman, the general secretary of the National Association of Head Teachers (NAHT), said the results of the poll ___29___ a worrying picture of the situation. The findings are based on nearly 2,000 headteachers’ experiences on the first day of term this week. ___30___ people who took part were primary school leaders (76%), 5% were from secondary schools and the rest were made up of nursery, infant, allthrough and middle schools.

(Adapted from https://www.theguardian.com)

Question 26: A. who	B. which	C. whose	D. whom
Question 27: A. because	B. while	C. as	D. when
Question 28: A. reliable	B. keen	C. liable	D. dependent
Question 29: A. painted	B. drew	C. showed	D. took
Question 30: A. another	B. much	C. every	D. most

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.

Today, WHO listed the Moderna COVID-19 vaccine (mRNA 1273) for emergency use, making it the fifth vaccine to receive emergency validation from WHO.

WHO’s Emergency Use Listing (EUL) assesses the quality, safety and efficacy of COVID-19 vaccines and is a prerequisite for COVAX Facility vaccine supply. It also allows countries to expedite their own regulatory approval to import and administer COVID-19 vaccines. The vaccine has already been reviewed by WHO’s Strategic Advisory Group of Experts on Immunization (SAGE), which makes recommendations for vaccines’ use in populations (i.e. recommended age groups, intervals between shots, advice for specific groups such as pregnant and lactating women). The SAGE recommended the vaccine for all age groups 18 and above in its interim recommendations dated 25 January 2021.

The US Food and Drug Administration issued an emergency use authorization for the Moderna vaccine on 18 December 2020 and a marketing authorisation valid throughout the European Union was granted by the European Medicines Agency on 6 January 2021. The WHO’s EUL process can be carried out quickly when vaccine developers submit the full data required by WHO in a timely manner. Once those data are submitted, WHO can rapidly assemble its evaluation team and regulators from around the world to assess the information and, when necessary, carry out inspections of manufacturing sites.

The Moderna vaccine is an mNRA-based vaccine. It was found by the SAGE to have an efficacy of 94.1%, based on a median follow-up of two months. Although the vaccine is provided as a frozen suspension at -25ºC to -15ºC in a multidose vial, vials can be stored refrigerated at 2-8 °C for up to 30 days prior to withdrawal of the first dose, meaning that ultra-cold chain equipment may not always be necessary to deploy the vaccine.

(Adapted from WHO’s news)

Question 31: What could be the best title for the passage?

 A. The US Food and Drug Administration.

B. The Moderna COVID-19 vaccine.

 C. WHO’s Emergency Use Listing.

D. WHO’s Strategic Advisory Group of Experts on Immunization.

Question 32: According to paragraph 3, WHO’s SAGE……

 A. has not allowed the use of the Moderna COVID-19 vaccine because of its unsafety

 B. has never recommended the Moderna COVID-19 vaccine for all age groups 18 and above

 C. has already reviewed the Moderna COVID-19 vaccine

 D. has considered the Moderna COVID-19 vaccine the best vaccine of all time.

Question 33: The word “efficacy” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to……

 A. effort B. influence C. effectiveness D. result

Question 34: The word “which” in paragraph 3 refers to……

 A. WHO B. the Moderna COVID-19 vaccine

 C. WHO’s SAGE D. WHO’s EUL

Question 35: According to the passage, which of the following information is NOT mentioned?

 A. The Moderna vaccine is an mNRA-based vaccine.

 B. The Moderna COVID-19 vaccine is better than the AstraZeneca COVID-19 one.

 C. The Moderna COVID-19 vaccine is the fifth one to receive emergency validation from WHO.

 D. An emergency use authorization was issued for the Moderna vaccine by the US Food and Drug Administration.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.

Human blood comes in four different types, namely A, B, AB and O. In most of the world, most people are ignorant of which blood type they possess, since it is important only if they have to undergo an operation which requires a blood transfusion. In Japan, however, things are different, since a large proportion of the population believes that blood type determines personality and, as a result, over 90% of the population are aware which type they are.

This linking of blood type and personality has ramifications across life, but is especially prominent in prospective relationships and employment. For example, in Japan one popular way to meet romantic partners is to go to specialised venues which conduct speed dating. A single man and woman sit alone together at a table for just a few minutes. Then a bell rings, and they go to sit with someone new. Some such venues hold dating sessions which are limited to men or women of a particular blood type. For those who believe in the blood-type theory, this seems to maximise their chance of finding someone special.

The current popularity of the idea exploded in the 1970s following the publication of a book by Masahiko Nomi, even though he was a lawyer and broadcaster who had no medical or psychological training. His ideas were largely anecdotal, and many critics thought it mere superstition, but the book nevertheless sparked great interest in the general public. Now his son, Toshitaka, continues to promote the theory, and nowadays it is ubiquitous in Japanese popular culture, featuring on morning TV, women’s magazines and best-selling self-help books.

Much like horoscopes in the West, the blood group theory is regularly debunked by scientific experimentation, yet it retains popular appeal. Perhaps one reason for this is that it helps to break the ice in social situations. Japanese people do not always find it easy to express their opinions, so discussing blood types is an indirect way of telling people what you think of them.

Question 36: What could be the best title for the passage?

 A. The blood-type theory

B. Blood and its functions

 C. Different theories about blood type

D. Masahiko Nomi, a famous author

Question 37: How is the blood-type theory used in speed dating?

 A. People go to tables according to their blood types.

 B. Dating couples talk about the theory and what it means.

 C. Some people want to meet only people of a particular blood type.

 D. People try to guess the blood type of their date.

Question 38: What is TRUE about the popularity of the blood-type theory?

 A. It became popular due to the writings of a father-and-son team.

 B. It is popular because of a traditional idea in Japanese culture.

 C. It is not as popular as it was in the 1970s.

 D. It became popular following experiments conducted by Masahiko Nomi.

Question 39: It can be inferred from the passage that in Japan

 A. people associate blood types solely with personality traits.

 B. a complicated scientific theory relating blood types to personality has been developed.

 C. many more people than elsewhere know which type of blood they have.

 D. blood transfusions are made only for certain types of blood.

Question 40: What does the word “they” in the second paragraph refer to?

 A. prospective relationships B. a single man and woman

 C. specialised venues D. a few minutes

Question 41: The word “sparked” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______

 A. spoilt B. improved C. generated D. terminated

Question 42: The word “debunked” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______

 A. recognised B. increased C. decreased D. undervalued

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43: Last year, Tim works as a shipper and he earned twice as much as his brother.

Question 44: These technological developments were hardly imaginary 30 years ago, but now most people are familiar with them.

Question 45: My students are very hard- working and they always finish her homework before going to school.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46: "Why don't we participate in the volunteer work in summer?", said Sophie.

 A. Sophie suggested me to participate in the volunteer work in summer.

 B. Sophie made me participate in the volunteer work in summer.

 C. Sophie suggested participating in the volunteer work in summer.

 D. Sophie asked me why not participate in the volunteer work in summer.

Question 47: It isn’t necessary for us to get a visa for Singapore.

 A. We mustn’t get a visa for Singapore.

B. We needn’t get a visa for Singapore.

 C. We shouldn’t get a visa for Singapore.

D. We may not get a visa for Singapore.

Question 48: He last visited London three years ago.

 A. He hasn’t visited London for three years.

B. He didn’t visit London three years ago.

 C. He has been in London for three years.

D. He was in London for three years.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49: I made two minor mistakes. That's why I did not get full marks for the test.

 A. If I didn't make two minor mistakes, I would have got full marks for the test.

 B. I would have got full marks for the test if there hadn't been two minor mistakes.

 C. Had I made two minor mistakes, I would have got full marks for the test.

 D. If the mistakes hadn't been minor, I could have got full marks for the test.

Question 50: The substance is very toxic. Protective clothing must be worn at all times.

 A. Since the substance is very toxic, so protective clothing must be worn at all times.

 B. So toxic is the substance that protective clothing must be worn at all times.

 C. The substance is such toxic that protective clothing must be worn at all times.

 D. The substance is too toxic to wear protective clothing at all times.

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 1

1B 2D 3C 4A 5D 6B 7D 8B 9C 10C 11A 12C 13B 14C 15A 16C 17D 18A 19D 20C 21C 22A 23A 24D 25A 26A 27B 28D 29A 30D 31B 32C 33C 34C 35B 36A 37C 38A 39C 40B 41C 42D 43A 44B 45C 46C 47B 48A 49B 50B

ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QG MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT HƯƠNG SƠN- ĐỀ 02

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1:	A. laughter	B. caution	C. applause	D. autumn
Question 2:	A. changes	B. durables	C. privileges	D. marches

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3: A. compulsory	B. secondary	C. separate	D. fee-paying
Question 4: A. general	B. popular	C. interrupt	D. dedicate

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5: I can make ____________ a bed in the spare room if you’d like to stay the night.

A. up          B. out          C. for           D. make over

Question 6: It was with _______ greatest difficulty that Brian had persuaded him to join____ Browns.

A. the/Ø          B. the/the           C. Ø/the          D. Ø/Ø

Question 7: Nobody visits the office on Sunday, which means that by the time the first workers _______ the burglary, the burglars may have left the country with the documents.

A. discovered

B. have discovered

C. had discovered

D. discover

Question 8: The man the police caught yesterday __________ bomb attack was also accused ________ in many other crimes previously.

A. prepare/to be involved

B. to prepare/with having been involved

C. preparing /of having been involved

D. preparing /of having involved

Question 9: If she had asked us, we___________ how to fix it, or we ________ at least.

A. knew, tried

B. would know, would try

C. know, try

D. would have known, would have tried

Question 10: James didn’t take ___________ to your suggestion that she was mean with money.

A. kindly          B. pleasantly           C. cheerfully           D. agreeably

Question 11: - “Can you come with me to Huong’s party next weekend?”

“I can’t as I’m busy with my work. ____________, my mother is ill.”

A. Even so          B. After all           C. All the same           D. On top of that

Question 12: The origin of April Fool’s Day, the first day of April, is uncertain, but it _________ to arrival of spring in late March, when nature _________to “fool” humanity with changes in weather.

A. has been related – has said 

B. may be related – is said

C. ought to relate – has been said 

D. relates – is saying

Question 13: The new arrivals may just be an adornment, with little structural importance for the ecosystem. But to Wilkinson, this sounds like _____________ at straws.

A. clutching          B. torching           C. punching           D. plunging

Question 14: Smoking not only cuts your lifespan by affecting your internal organs, but it also ages you on the outside by causing ____ damage.

A. skin          B. skinner           C. skinny           D. skinning

Question 15: - “How did you know that he was lying?”

• “It was just a ________ feeling.”

A. faint          B. gut          C. slight          D. vain

Question 16: How birds manage to ___________ travel between distant locations is one aspect that has fascinated observers for centuries.

A. unerringly           B. incorrectly           C. successfully           D. precisely

Question 17: She __________ her hands in horror at his suggestion that she should marry him.

A. broke up          B. threw up          C. brought up           D. woke up

Question 18: He had been lied to and _________in the back by people that he thought were his friends.

A. knew           B. stabbed          C. gripped            D. tabbed

Question 19: Life here is so good, __________?

A. was it          B. has it           C. isn’t it          D. wasn’t it

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20: Dark clouds began to spread out across the sky, so we rushed to the house as fast as possible.

A. shrink           B. diminish           C. lessen           D. extend

Question 21: If two people in a romantic relationship are lovey-dovey, they show their love for each other in public by touching each other and saying loving things.

A. lovesick           B. romantic           C. demonstrative          D. affectionate

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: Developments in technology mean we can now do banking transactions at our leisure.

A. comfortably 

B. inconveniently 

C. freely 

D. independently

Question 23: He is very stubborn but flattery usually works like a charm on him.

A. is completely successful in

B. takes effect

C. turned out to be a disaster

D. has no effect on

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

The growing popularity of video games, online gaming and videos make children inactive in their daily routine. The time (24) __________ has been spent watching online videos and games can be better utilized by doing some physical activities. Here, parents can become role models in their children’s life. The parents should not make them addicted to the techie-gadgets and be active in their lifestyle so that their kids can also become physically (25) _________ and active.

The best way to become physically fit is to be active in sports and games. The importance of sports in our life is crucial. It not only makes a body physically fit and active but also contributes (26) ________ the mental growth and development. Active participation in sports and games can have many benefits in students’ life. It gives a student a chance to enhance their physical and social skills. It offers a child a change from the monotony of a daily routine. It keeps the stress and anxiety away. However, a proper balance has to be maintained between a child’s maturity, skills and interests.

Nowadays, sports and games are taken to be a good career option as well. It plays a pivotal role in shaping a child’s interest in his profession. Sports and games also help in character building and provide strength and energy. Sport is a form of competitive physical activity (27) ________ by a person via an organized or casual participation. Sports and games not only involve the development of skills but it also stimulates competitive behavior among students. It builds up confidence in the minds of the students. It not only strengthens the physical growth rather it also contributes towards mental growth. (28) _______, it plays an important role in a student’s life.

(Adapted from https://www.budingstar.com)

Question 24:	A. when	B. where	C. which	D. what
Question 25:	A. sound	B. strength	C. mature	D. smart
Question 26:	A. in	B. on	C. into	D. towards
Question 27:	A. performing	B. performed	C. to perform	D. to be performed
Question 28:	A. Hence	B. Finally	C. Furthermore	D. In contrast

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 29: Basing on the clues found, the police managed to apprehend the suspect a few days after the murder.

Question 30: His wife insisted that he stopped sitting around and start to look for a new job.

Question 31: Leisure activities are necessary for personal development and also to maintain good health.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Anthropogenic global warming is a theory explaining today's long-term increase in the average temperature of Earth's atmosphere as an effect of human industry and agriculture.

Since the latter half of the 20th century, growing banks of data and improved climate models have convinced most climate scientists that rising trends in greenhouse gas emissions are directly responsible for a rising trend in atmospheric temperature. The source of these emissions vary, consisting of a mix of gases that include methane and carbon dioxide. While some sources - such as volcanoes - are natural, their overall emissions compared with those produced by human industries, transport, and livestock have been regarded as insignificant over recent centuries.

Greenhouse gases are made of molecules that absorb electromagnetic radiation, such as the light reflecting from the planet's surface, and re-emit it as heat. These gases include methane, carbon dioxide, water, and nitrous oxide. Despite making up only a small percentage of the atmosphere's mix of gases they are very important. If we had no naturally occurring greenhouse gases in the atmosphere at all, the average global temperature on Earth would be a much lower -18 degrees instead of the roughly 15 degrees Celsius we have enjoyed most of human history.

Carbon dioxide levels have steadily risen over the past two centuries, thanks largely to the burning of fossil fuels for electricity general, transportation, and smelting. Current levels are approximately 415 parts per million (ppm), up from pre-industrial levels of around 280 ppm. Models vary in their predictions of further temperature increases, and depend heavily on future trends in greenhouse gas emissions. Conservative estimates by the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change predict an even chance of 4 degrees Celsius rise by the end of the century if current emissions trends continue.

(Source: https://www.sciencealert.com/)

Question 32: Where is the passage possibly taken from?

A. An official business letter. 

B. A brochure for ecotourism.

C. An environmental magazine.

D. A questionnaire at the mall.

Question 33: The word “livestock” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. beast          B. animal           C. cattle           D. poultry

Question 34: According to paragraph 3, what would happen if the Earth were bereft of natural greenhouse gases?

A. The Earth’s temperature would be too cold for the habitation of any living things.

B. The sunny weather would be a permanent setting for the Earth.

C. Most of the Earth’s surface would crack due to the scorching heat.

D. No noticeable changes in the climate would arise.

Question 35: The word “those” in paragraph refers to _______.

A. levels           B. models          C. sources           D. emissions

Question 36: According to paragraph 4, what are the CO₂ - producing fossil fuels utilized for?

A. Fossil fuels, as the main energy source, generate a significant share of electricity.

B. The oil and natural gas industry supply a massive number of jobs.

C. Coals provide the right amount of heat for extracting metal from its ore.

D. Petroleum and other derivatives power various means of transport.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Every summer, when the results of the university entrance exam come out, many newspaper stories are published about students who are top-scorers across the country. Most portray students as hard-working, studious, smart and, generally, from low-income families. They are often considered heroes or heroines by their families, communes, villages and communities. And they symbolize the efforts made to lift them, and their relatives, out of poverty. The students are often too poor to attend any extra-classes, which makes their achievements more illustrious and more newsworthy. While everyone should applaud the students for their admirable efforts, putting too much emphasis on success generates some difficult questions.

If other students look up to them as models, of course, it's great. However, in a way, it contributes to society's attitude that getting into university is the only way to succeed. For those who fail, their lives are over. It should be noted that about 1.3 million high school students take part in the annual university entrance exams and only about 300,000 of them pass. What's about the hundreds of thousands who fail? Should we demand more stories about those who fail the exam but succeed in life or about those who quit university education at some level and do something else unconventional?

"I personally think that it's not about you scoring top in an entrance exam or getting even into Harvard. It's about what you do for the rest of your life," said Tran Nguyen Le Van, He is the founder of a website, vexere.com, that passengers can use to book bus tickets online and receive tickets via SMS. His business also arranges online tickets via mobile phones and email. Van dropped out of his MBA at the Thunderbird School of Global Management in Arizona in the United States. His story has caught the attention of many newspapers and he believes more coverage should be given to the youngsters who can be role models in the start-up community. Getting into university, even with honours, is just the beginning. "We applaud them and their efforts and obviously that can give them the motivation to do better in life. However, success requires more than just scores," Van said. Van once told a newspaper that his inspiration also came from among the world's most famous drop-outs, such as Mark Zuckerberg of Facebook or Bill Gates who also dropped out of Harvard University.

Alarming statistics about unemployment continue to plague us. As many as 162,000 people with some kind of degree cannot find work, according to Labour Ministry's statistics this month. An emphasis on getting into university does not inspire students who want to try alternative options. At the same time, the Ministry of Education and Training is still pondering on how to reform our exam system, which emphasises theories, but offers little to develop critical thinking or practice. Vu Thi Phuong Anh, former head of the Centre for Education Testing and Quality Assessment at Viet Nam National University in HCM City said the media should also monitor student successes after graduation. She agreed there were many success stories about young people, but added that it was imbalanced if students taking unconventional paths were not also encouraged. Viet Nam is, more than ever, in desperate need of those who think outside the box. Time for us to recognise talent, no matter where it comes from or how.

(Source: http://vietnamnews.vn)

Question 37: Which of the following best describes the main idea of this passage?

A. Many students consider universities as their only way after school.

B. A good model of being successful in the real-life out of school.

C. Not many students are successful after graduating from university.

D. University is not the only way to success.

Question 38: What is NOT stated in the passage about the top-scorers in the entrance exam?

A. The majority of them are poor but intelligent and eager to learn.

B. They are hoped to find a way to better their families’ lives.

C. Their success is more glorious because they attend more classes than others.

D. The students are admired for their great efforts.

Question 39: The word “unconventional” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by ____________.

A. common B. unusual C. well-known D. infamous

Question 40: The author described Tran Nguyen Le Van in the third passage as ___________.

A. a good example to achieve success although he didn’t finish his education.

B. a businessman who gains money by selling mobile phones online.

C. a founder whose website was inspired by social networks like Facebook.

D. a top-scorer who books online tickets and confirms through messages.

Question 41: The word “them” in paragraph 3 refers to _________________.

A. honours          B. role-models           C. the youngsters           D. newspapers

Question 42: The word “plague” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ____________.

A. conflict B. afflict C. remind D. bother

Question 43: What can be inferred from the passage?

A. It’s high time for the young to change their ways of thinking about success.

B. High scores are the first step to attain achievements in the future.

C. Failing the entrance exam will not determine that these students are doing unconventional things.

D. The most concerning thing for each student is unemployment.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

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ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 2

1. A	2. B	3. A	4. C	5. A	6. B	7. A	8. C	9. D	10. A
11. D	12. B	13. A	14. A	15. B	16. A	17. B	18. B	19. C	20. D
21. D	22. B	23. D	24. C	25. A	26. D	27. B	28. A	29. A	30. B
31. C	32. C	33. C	34. A	35. D	36. D	37. D	38. C	39. B	40. A
41. C	42. B	43. A	44. D	45. C	46. C	47. C	48. D	49. D	50. A

ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QG MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT HƯƠNG SƠN- ĐỀ 03

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1:	A. brought	B. ought	C. thought	D. though
Question 2:	A. flooded	B. learned	C. implanted	D. improved

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3:	A. relics	B. rely	C. reply	D. release
Question 4:	A. ferocious	B. adventure	C. history	D. achievement

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5: She was not ________ little girl he had known, but she was not yet ________ woman either.

A. a/the          B. the/a           C. a/a           D. the/the

Question 6: If Tom _______ a bit more ambitious, he would have found himself a better job years ago.

A. had been          B. is           C. were           D. was

Question 7: Those students who ___________ the exam are going to take another one held in August.

A. have failed          B. failed          C. had failed          D. were failing

Question 8. She had butterflies in her stomach _________ having prepared carefully for the interview.

A. although          B. due to          C. despite          D. because

Question 9: The main focus _________ interest at the opening ceremony /ˈser.ɪ.mə.ni/ was

the attendance of some celebrities.

A. on          B. at          C. of          D. toward

Question 10: ______________ depends on your gentle persuasion.

A. That he agreed to help you

B. That he agrees to help you

C. Whether he agrees to help you

D. Whether he agreed to help you

Question 11: Once _____________ off by the teacher, the class filed out of the room in silence.

A. being told          B. have been told          C. told          D. having told

Question 12: He was not at all interested in what was going on around him, but insisted _________ back to his country on the first sight.

A. to be sent          B. on sending him           C. to send him           D. on being sent

Question 13: It was reported that three top athletes have been ________ from the championship after positive drug tests.

A. qualification 

B. unqualified 

C. disqualified 

D. qualitatively

Question 14: In the second game, her opponent hurt her leg. Hence, that she became the champion was a/an ________ conclusion.

A. foregone          B. rash           C. amicable           D. unpredictable

Question 15: His poor standard of play fully justifies his __________ from the team for the next match.

A. expulsion          B. dismissal           C. rejection           D. exclusion

Question 16: Although her boss gives quite obvious a hint of dismissing Nancy for her incompetence, she is still __________ ignorant of the fact that she is about to face up to a gloomy scenario of unemployment.

A. jubilantly           B. ecstatically           C. blissfully           D. decorously

Question 17: He never stops smoking; one cigarette after another. I’m afraid he’s become a __________ smoker.

A. chain          B. cord          C. line           D. rope

Question 18: We regret that it is impossible to meet the ______ date for the goods you recently ordered from us.

A. arrival           B. delivery           C. carriage           D. transport

Question 19: __________, he will go out with his friends.

A. When Tony finished his project 

B. When Tony finishes his project

C. When Tony had finished his project 

D. When Tony was finishing his project

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20: I can’t get on well with my boss because of his authoritative manner that at times is almost arrogant.

A. struck up          B. stuck up           C. drunk up           D. sprung up

Question 21: Her passport seemed legitimate, but on closer inspection, it was found to have been altered.

A. invalid          B. illegal           C. improper           D. lawful

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: The schoolboy’s excuse wasn’t credible at all. Nobody in the classroom believed in the far-fetched story he told.

A. reliable           B. predictable          C. knowledgeable          D. unbelievable

Question 23: We have to work against the clock so as to meet the deadline of the clients tomorrow.

A. work in a haste          B. work slowly

C. work as fast as possible           D. work strenuously

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

The string family is the largest section of the orchestra. The four main stringed instruments look similar but are all different sizes. Each can be played by plucking the strings with the fingers or with a bow, which is pulled (24) ____ across the instrument's four strings.

The VIOLIN is the smallest of the string instruments and can play the highest (25) ____. The violin often plays the melody - this is the tune you will be humming after you leave a performance. The VIOLA is slightly larger than the violin. Because it is bigger, it can play lower notes. (26) ____ the viola is only a little bit bigger than the violin, it can be hard to tell them apart. The viola plays many beautiful melodies just like the violin.

The CELLO is (27) ________ the violin and the viola. It is so large that the cellist must sit on a chair holding the cello between his or her knees in order to play. The cello often plays accompaniment parts.

Because it is the largest of the stringed instruments, the DOUBLE BASS plays the lowest notes. This instrument is so large that the bass players have to stand up or sit on tall stools to play it. The bass often plays (28) ____ parts with the cello.

Question 24: A. now and then

B. back and forth

C. again and again

D. high and low

Question 25: A. notes

B. noting

C. notable

D. noted

Question 26: A. Although

B. However

C. Whereas

D. Since

Question 27: A. much larger than

B. the largest between

C. as large as

D. the larger of

Question 28: A. companion

B. companionship

C. accompany

D. accompaniment

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 29: From time memorial, cities have been the central gathering places of human life, from where the great ideas and movements of the world have sprouted.

Question 30: Daisy is on a diet, so she just usually has a sandwich for lunch.

Question 31: This morning one customer phoned to complain that she still hadn't been received the book she had ordered several weeks ago.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

As customers choose brands based on how they make them feel, rather than their actual products or services, there is an intrinsic advantage to those organizations who use designed experiences as a weapon to cut through the most competitive of markets. Those that don’t, operate in what we call the “experience gap”, the space between them and their customer’s expectations of them. Make no mistake, in our high-paced and digitally connected economies, the experience gap is driving markets, fast.

For example, take Instagram and Twitter. These brands filled the demand for a whole new human experience that did not exist before the evolution of digital technologies enabled that. They were pioneers, and there were no established players to unseat. But we are also seeing a similar dynamic in existing industries. New entrants are coming in and taking the space, also using whole new experiences, purely because the incumbents left the door open.

Closer to home, this can be seen with Australian neobanks who are giving customers a better experience than the incumbents. Robert Bell is the CEO at neobank 86400. He says banking has already become quite complicated and he wanted to make a change. His neobank is working to solve customers' problems more holistically. Bell said, “It’s significantly harder work and takes more time to become a bank, but having done that we can have a much better relationship with our customers and we can offer them a lot more products and services.”

Think about that for a moment. Do you notice how better experiences, lead to better relationships, which is then the stepping stone for more offerings? Many brands still jump straight to modified offerings, without gaining that customer connection and the necessary foundation of trust first.

(Source: https://which-50.com/)

Question 32: What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. The importance of experience to competitive advantage.

B. Businesses are unwilling to disrupt themselves.

C. A far-reaching cultural transformation.

D. Knowledge drives behavior, loyalty, satisfaction.

Question 33: The word “them” in paragraph 1 refers to _______.

A. brands          B. customers           C. economies           D. markets

Question 34: According to paragraph 2, what is true about Instagram and Twitter in the stated instance?

A. Their reputation famously preceded even the 4^th Industrial Revolution.

B. They are the one and only companies providing such revolutionary services.

C. They were the trailblazers for the experience-oriented marketing strategy.

D. Prior to their advent, there were already several competitors in the field.

Question 35: According to paragraph 3, what is the attitude of Robert Bell towards the customers?

A. He sees them as modern slaves to consumerism.

B. He maintains a healthy relationship of giving and taking.

C. He displays worship in its purest form towards them.

D. He views them as the golden goose for his business.

Question 36: What does the phrase “stepping stone” in paragraph 4 mean?

A. An asset or possession prized as being the best of a group of similar things.

B. A person who travels without settling down for any significant period of time.

C. An important clue to understanding something that is challenging or puzzling.

D. An action or event that helps one to make progress towards a specified goal.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

The Trump campaign ran on bringing jobs back to American shores, although mechanization has been the biggest reason for manufacturing jobs’ disappearance. Similar losses have led to populist movements in several other countries. But instead of a pro-job growth future, economists across the board predict further losses as AI, robotics, and other technologies continue to be ushered in. What is up for debate is how quickly this is likely to occur.

Now, an expert at the Wharton School of Business at the University of Pennsylvania is ringing the alarm bells. According to Art Bilger, venture capitalist and board member at the business school, all the developed nations on earth will see job loss rates of up to 47% within the next 25 years, according to a recent Oxford study. “No government is prepared,” The Economist reports. These include blue and white collar jobs. So far, the loss has been restricted to the blue collar variety, particularly in manufacturing.

To combat “structural unemployment” and the terrible blow, it is bound to deal with the American people, Bilger has formed a nonprofit called Working Nation, whose mission it is to warn the public and to help make plans to safeguard them from this worrisome trend. Not only is the entire concept of employment about to change in a dramatic fashion, but the trend is also irreversible. The venture capitalist called on corporations, academia, government, and nonprofits to cooperate in modernizing our workforce.

To be clear, mechanization has always cost us jobs. The mechanical loom, for instance, put weavers out of business. But it also created jobs. Mechanics had to keep the machines going, machinists had to make parts for them, and workers had to attend to them, and so on. A lot of times those in one profession could pivot to another. At the beginning of the 20th century, for instance, automobiles were putting blacksmiths out of business. Who needed horseshoes anymore? But they soon became mechanics. And who was better suited?

Not so with this new trend. Unemployment today is significant in most developed nations and it’s only going to get worse. By 2034, just a few decades, mid-level jobs will be by and large obsolete. So far the benefits have only gone to the ultra-wealthy, the top 1%. This coming technological revolution is set to wipe out what looks to be the entire middle class. Not only will computers be able to perform tasks more cheaply than people, but they’ll also be more efficient too.

Accountants, doctors, lawyers, teachers, bureaucrats, and financial analysts beware: your jobs are not safe. According to The Economist, computers will be able to analyze and compare reams of data to make financial decisions or medical ones. There will be less of a chance of fraud or misdiagnosis, and the process will be more efficient. Not only are these folks in trouble, but such a trend is also likely to freeze salaries for those who remain employed, while income gaps only increase in size. You can imagine what this will do to politics and social stability.

(Source: https://bigthink.com/)

Question 37: Which of the following could be the main idea of the passage?

A. Many jobs will disappear in the future.

B. AI will replace the workers’ positions in almost jobs.

C. Manufacturing jobs are predicted to be the first ones to disappear.

D. Changing jobs is not a new trend in the future.

Question 38: It can be inferred from paragraph 2 that “blue and white collar jobs” are related to _______.

A. people whose uniforms’colors are blue and white.

B. people who are distinguished by the colors of their collars.

C. people who do physical work in industry and who work in an office.

D. people (mainly women) who do low-paid jobs, for example in offices and restaurants.

Question 39: The word “irreversible” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ___________.

A. impermanent           B. remediable           C. reparable           D. unalterable

Question 40: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true about jobs in the future?

A. AI, robots and technologies continuously used will put more labourers out of their jobs.

B. Every country has applied many policies to prepare for the massive loss of jobs in the next 25 years.

C. Many different organizations are called to cooperate in renovating the workforce.

D. Working Nation is an organization founded to warn the public and make plans to save people from job loss.

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ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 3

1. D	2. D	3. A	4. C	5. B	6. C	7. A	8. C	9. C	10. C
11. C	12. D	13. C	14. A	15. D	16. C	17. A	18. B	19. B	20. B
21. D	22. D	23. B	24. B	25. A	26. D	27. A	28. D	29. A	30. C
31. B	32. A	33. B	34. C	35. B	36. D	37. A	38. C	39. D	40. B
41. A	42. A	43. C	44. B	45. A	46. C	47. B	48. C	49. B	50. C

ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QG MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT HƯƠNG SƠN- ĐỀ 04

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 1: Deforestation may seriously jeopardize the habitat of many species in the local area.

A. give rise to. B. set fire to. C. make way for. D. do harm to.

Question 2: The atmosphere at work was so bad that Brian eventually decided to hand in his notice.

A. be given a better job.

B. give up his job.

C. notify the boss.

D. apply for another job.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 3: Jenny and Mark are talking about life in the city.

Jenny: I think higher living standard is one of the reasons that many people want to be a city dweller.

Mark: ___________ Many people come to the city to seek their fortune.

A. What rubbish.

B. I don’t think so.

C. That’s nonsense.

D. Absolutely.

Question 4: Peter and Mary are talking about the movie they saw yesterday. Peter: Did you enjoy the movie yesterday?

Mary: ___________ A. Not really. I couldn’t follow the story.

B. No, I dislike moving.

C. Don't mention it.

D. It doesn't matter.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 5 to 9.

Body language is a vital form of communication. In fact, it is believed that the various forms of body language contribute about 70 percent to our comprehension. It is important to note, however, that body language varies in different cultures. Take for example, eye movement. In the USA a child is expected to look directly at a parent or teacher who is scolding him/her. In other cultures the opposite is true. Looking directly at a teacher or parent in such a situation is considered a sign of disrespect.

Another form of body language that is used differently, depending on the culture, is distance. In North America people don't generally stand as close to each other as in South America. Two North Americans who don't know each other well will keep a distance of four feet between them, whereas South Americans in the same situation will stand two to three feet apart. North Americans will stand closer than two feet apart only if they are having a confidential conversation or if there is intimacy between them.

Gestures are often used to communicate. We point a finger, raise an eyebrow, wave an arm – or move any other part of the body – to show what we want to say. However, this does not mean that people all over the world use the same gestures to express the same meanings. Very often we find that the same gestures can communicate different meanings, depending on the country. An example of a gesture that could be misinterpreted is sticking out the tongue. In many cultures it is a sign of making a mistake, but in some places it communicates ridicule. intimacy misinterpreted it.

The dangers of misunderstanding one another are great. Obviously, it is not enough to learn the language of another culture. You must also learn its non-verbal signals if you want to communicate successfully.

(Adapted from "Reading Academic English" by Judy Rapoport, Ronit Broder and Sarah Feingold)

Question 5: The word "it" in paragraph 3 refers to ___________

A. the country.

B. making a mistake.

C. sticking out the tongue.

D. an example.

Question 6: As stated in the passage, in order to communicate successfully with people from another culture, it is advisable for a person ___________

A. to learn only non-verbal signals of that culture.

B. to learn both the language and non-verbal signals of that culture.

C. to use the body language of the people from that culture.

D. to travel to as many countries as possible.

Question 7: What is the passage mainly about?

A. Non-verbal communication across cultures.

B. The significance of non-verbal signals inAmerica.

C. Interpretations of gestures in different cultures.

D. Misunderstandings in communication.

Question 8: Which form of body language is NOT mentioned in the passage?

A. eye movement. B. distance. C. gesture. D. posture.

Question 9: The word "misinterpreted" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to___________

A. mispronounced. B. misbehaved. C. misspelled. D. misunderstood.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 10: A. bear.	B. hear.	C. idea.	D. area.
Question 11: A. explained.	B. kidnapped.	C. involved.	D. damaged.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 12: These days, many people only read printed newspapers once in a while as they tend to access information online.

A. seldom. B. occasionally. C. rarely. D. regularly.

Question 13: English is a compulsory subject in our education, which means every student has to study the subject.

A. difficult. B. optional. C. unnecessary. D. easy.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 14: She borrows a lot of English books from the school library last week.

A. borrows. B. library. C. of. D. from.

Question 15: One of the most influence newspapers in the US is the New York Times, which is widely distributed throughout the world.

A. which. B. influence. C. is. D. throughout the world.

Question 16: After my father got a well-paid job at an international company, we moved to a highly respectful neighbourhood.

A. well-paid. B. respectful. C. international. D. moved.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 17: Julian dropped out of college after his first year. Now he regrets it.

A. Julian regrets having dropped out of college after his first year.

B. Only if Julian had dropped out of college after his first year.

C. Julian regretted having dropped out of college after his first year.

D. Julian wishes he didn’t drop out of college after his first year.

Question 18: We had agood goalkeeper. We didn’t lose the final match.

A. But for a gold keeper, we wouldn’t have lost the final match.

B. If it hadn’t been for the good goalkeeper, we would have lost the final match.

C. We didn't lose the final match even though we had a good goalkeeper.

D. Without a good goalkeeper, we wouldn’t have lost the final match.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the sentence given in each of the following questions.

Question 19: “Would you like to have dinner with me?”, Miss Hoa said to me A. Miss Hoa told me to like to have dinner with her or not.

B. Miss Hoa asked me if would I like to have dinner with her?

C. Miss Hoa invited me to have dinner with her.

D. Miss Hoa suggested me if I would like to have dinner with her or not.

Question 20: My eldest sister started working as a freelance journalist as soon as she graduated from university.

A. No sooner had my eldest sister started working as a freelance journalist than she graduated from university.

B. No sooner had my eldest sister graduated from university than she started working as a freelance journalist.

C. Hardly had my eldest sister started working as a freelance journalist when she graduated from university.

D. After my eldest sister graduated from university, she had started working as a freelance journalist.

Question 21: People think that traffic congestion in the downtown area is due to the increasing number of private cars.

A. The increasing number of private cars is attributed to traffic congestion in the downtown area.

B. The increasing number of private cars is thought to be responsible for traffic congestion in the downtown area.

C. Traffic congestion in the downtown area is blamed for the increasing number of private cars.

D. Traffic congestion in the downtown area is thought to result in the increasing number of private cars.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 22: A. access.    B. argue.       C. visit.        D. confide.

Question 23: A. decision.  B. chemistry.  C. cinema.  D. festival.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 24: When Tom called yesterday, I ___________ the washing-up in the kitchen.

A. did. B. was doing. C. have done. D. am doing.

Question 25: He wrote in his letter that he would ___________ some documents but I couldn’t find anything in the envelope.

A. endure. B. enclose. C. enforce. D. encounter.

Question 26: ___________, she had studied English.

A. After she came to England. B. Before she came to England.

C. While she was in England. D. By the time she comes to England.

Question 27: ___________ about the bad effects of chemical fertilizers, the farmers started using them sparingly on their farm.

A. Having informed. B. Informing. C. Having been informed. D. To inform. Question

28: Everybody is tired of watching the same commercials on TV every night, ___________?

A. are they. B. don’t they. C. aren’t they. D. haven’t they.

Question 29: In case of emergency, you have to act very ___________

A. decisive. B. decide. C. decision. D. decisively.

Question 30: We should use bicycles instead of cars ___________ this will help to reduce exhaust fumes and pollution.

A. because. B. despite. C. because of. D. although.

Question 31: ___________ people’s awareness is very important to save endangered species.

A. Raising. B. Gaining. C. Doing. D. Receiving.

Question 32: After several injuries and failures, things have eventually___________ for

Todd when he reached the final round of the tournament.

A. gone on. B. taken up. C. looked up. D. turned on.

Question 33: The water in this river is seriously polluted, ___________ places some species of native fish in danger of extinction

A. which. B. what. C. who. D. that.

Question 34: He always takes full ___________ of the mistake made by these competitors.

A. profit. B. advantage. C. benefit. D. advice.

Question 35: All the students ___________ part in the final exam must be at school on Sunday.

A. taking. B. to take. C. taken. D. who takes.

Question 36: Her ant gave her a ___________ handbag on her birthday last week.

A. beautiful Korean red.

B. red Korean beautiful.

C. beautiful red Korean.

D. Korean red beautiful.

Question 37: I can’t believe that my expensive bicycle ___________ last night.

A. has stolen. B. stole. C. is stolen. D. was stolen.

Question 38: They are searching ___________ the cause of the leak.

A. out. B. for. C. with. D. at.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 39 to 45.

Many people see large urban cities as a wonder of human imagination and creativity. They represent how far the human population has come in terms of community development. Many positive things come from urbanization, but there are also negatives. This article will discuss and present data on the implications of urbanization on the physical health of humans living in these large urban areas.

As it would be expected, developing countries tend to see more negative physical health effects than modern countries in regard to urbanization. One example of a developing country experiencing these problems is China. China is a country that in the past 30–40 years went from being an agrarian based society to a significant industrialized country. This industrialization has in effect caused the need for more centralized cities, centralized meaning having lots of jobs and living spaces within a close proximity. This is what is known as urbanization. In most recent decades, since China’s change to being more of an industrial based economy, the country has experienced record high numbers of people migrating within its borders. In effect, the number of cities with over 500,000 people has more than doubled. These migrations are typically of people from rural areas of China moving to the new urban areas. Due to this large influx in the urban population, there are many possibilities for health challenges among these people.

One very common and fairly obvious negative aspect of highly congested urban areas is air pollution. Air pollution is defined as any harmful substance being suspended in the air. This could include particulate matter, most commonly attributed to industrial plants and refineries waste, or chemicals like CO2 or Methane (which are also products of plants and  refineries as well as cars and other modes of transportation). Due to a vast number of people in these urbanized cities, the air pollution is known to be very extreme. These conditions can lead to many different health problems such as: Asthma, cardiovascular problems or disease, and different types of cancer (most commonly lung cancer). When exposed to these conditions for a prolonged period of time, one can experience even more detrimental health effects like: the acceleration of aging, loss of lung capacity and health, being more susceptible to respiratory diseases, and a shortened life span.

Another way that urbanization affects the populations’ health is people’s change in diet. For instance, urban cities tend to have lots of accessible, quick, and easy to get food. This food is also more than likely not as high quality as well as contains a large amount of sodium and sugar. Because this food is so accessible, people tend to eat it more. This increase in consumption of low quality food can then lead to diabetes, hypertension, heart disease, obesity, or many other health conditions.

(Adapted from https://medium.com)

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ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 4

1 D 11 B 21 B 31 A 41 B

2 B 12 D 22 D 32 C 42 A

3 D 13 B 23 A 33 A 43 A

4 A 14 A 24 B 34 B 44 D

5 C 15 B 25 B 35 A 45 A

6 B 16 B 26 B 36 C 46 C

7 A 17 A 27 C 37 D 47 D

8 D 18 B 28 C 38 B 48 B

9 D 19 C 29 D 39 A 49 B

10 A 20 B 30 A 40 C 50 B

ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QG MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT HƯƠNG SƠN- ĐỀ 05

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions from 1 to 2

Câu 1: A. master	B. struggle	C. commit	D. random
Câu 2: A. environmental	B. agricultural	C. international	D. multicultural

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word from 3 to 7

In the U.S., (3)________ the dialogue of inclusion is relatively advanced, even the mention of the word “diversity” can lead to anxiety and conflict. Supreme Court justices disagree on the virtues of diversity and the means for achieving it. Corporations spend billions of dollars to attract and manage diversity both internally and externally, (4)________they still face discrimination lawsuits, and the leadership ranks of the business world remain predominantly white and male. It is reasonable to ask what (5)________diversity does us. Diversity of expertise confers benefits that are obvious you would not think of building a new car without engineers, designers, and qualitycontrol experts but what about social diversity? What good comes from diversity of race, ethnicity, gender, and sexual orientation? Research has shown that social diversity in a group can cause discomfort, rougher interactions, a lack of trust, greater perceived interpersonal conflict, lower communication, less cohesion, more concern about disrespect, and (6)________ problems. So, what is the upside?

The fact is that if you want to build teams or organizations capable of innovating, you need diversity. Diversity enhances creativity. It encourages the search for novel information and perspectives, (7) ________to better decision making and problem solving. Diversity can improve the bottom line of companies and lead to unfettered discoveries and breakthrough innovations. Even simply being exposed to diversity can change the way you think.

Câu 3: A. which	B. whose	C. where	D. when
Câu 4: A. consequently	B. despite	C. yet	D. because
Câu 5: A. useful	B. good	C. characteristic	D. kind
Câu 6: A. others	B. the other	C. another	D. other
Câu 7: A. taking	B. reaching	C. leading	D. putting

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions from 8 to 9.

Câu 8: The biological agents now in use are environmentally benign and are harmless to humans.

A. friendly B. unfavorable C. unfriendly D. hostile

Câu 9: The sun is a powerful energy source, and this energy source can be harnessed by installing solar panels.

A. exploited B. dug C. transmitted D. devastated

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges from 10 to 11.

Câu 10: Thiago: “Have you checked your email today?” ~ Ranick: “___________”

A. No, I'll check it later. B. Yes, it's getting extremely slow.

C. All right. I'll do it for you. D. No, it costs a lot.

Câu 11: Kevin: “Mai, what do you think are green activities at home?” ~ Mai: “___________”

A. I’m not sure. It’s important that some people stay in rural areas and work in agriculture.

B. I’m no expert, but I think we should save electricity, water and other energy resources.

C. Well, I totally agree with you. I think everybody should be better aware of green lifestyles.

D. I'm not sure about that. It causes air pollution.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from 12 to 26.

Câu 12: Counter-urbanisation has caused many negative effects, ___________?

A. doesn’t it B. has it C. does it D. hasn’t it

Câu 13: My parents ___________a lot of their time writing letters before they started using social media 2 months ago.

A. have wasted B. were wasted C. had wasted D. has wasted

Câu 14: She was very fascinated by a pair of _____________ shoes in West Lake shopping Mall.

A. new French purple

B. new purple French

. purple new French

D. French new purple

Câu 15: She walked home by herself, _____________ she knew that it was dangerous.

A. however B. in the event that C. although D. despite

Câu 16: Migrants may lose their cultural identity ____________.

A. while they had become assimilated into the new community

B. when they become assimilated into the new community

C. as soon as they became assimilated into the new community

D. before they will become assimilated into the new community

Câu 17: Money ___________to the homeless shelter by a large number of local citizens so far.

A. will have been donated

B. has been donated

C. was donated

D. had been donated

Câu 18: _____________ for the first time in 1833, the launch coincides with the Mercury's 180th anniversary.

A. Having been published

B. Having published

C. Publishing

D. Being publishing

Câu 19: The practice of using more chemicals to improve crop yields is harmful ___________people’s health.

A. at B. of C. with D. to

Câu 20: We are no longer prepared to ___________reckless behaviour, which too often has resulted in irreparable damage to the environment.

A. go down with B. take up with C. put up with D. catch up with

Câu 21: Living in their own country, people can easily acquire and maintain their cultural identity because they are fully ___________ to different aspects of their native culture.

A. used B. exposed C. refused D. objected

Câu 22: Chaplin was not just a genius, he was among the most ___________ figures in film history.

A. influence B. influent C. influential D. influentially

Câu 23: They cannot stand the sight of each other, but they will just have to ___________.

A. grin and bear it

B. keep them posted

C. have their wits about it.

D. keep a straight face

Câu 24: Most of the people surveyed __________ a high opinion of the organization.

A. give B. make C. have D. think

Câu 25: Another ______ characteristic of water is that water has a heat capacity which is the highest of all liquids and solids except ammonia.

A. exceptionally good

B. excellent

C. outstanding

D. talented

Câu 26: The prospect of the writer under surveillance has long held a ___________ for readers.

A. fascination B. preference C. desire D. love

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions from 27 to 29.

Câu 27: The disabled man used to go swimming with his friends in the afternoons.

A. The disabled man didn’t go swimming with his friends in the afternoons.

B. The disabled man usually goes swimming with his friends in the afternoons.

C. The disabled man got used to go swimming with his friends in the afternoons.

D. The disabled man usually went swimming with his friends in the afternoons.

Câu 28: “I will let you know the answer by the end of this week,” Webber said to Juana.

A. Webber promised to give Juana the answer by the end of the week.

B. Webber suggested giving Juana the answer by the end of the week.

C. Webber insisted on letting Juana know the answer by the end of the week.

D. Webber offered to give Juana the answer by the end of this week.

Câu 29: My classmate paid for her travel in advance, but it wasn’t necessary.

A. My classmate might not have paid for her travel in advance.

B. My classmate may not have paid for her travel in advance.

C. My classmate couldn’t have paid for her travel in advance.

D. My classmate needn't have paid for her travel in advance.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions from 30 to 31

Câu 30: A. preach	B. dead	C. heat	D. seat
Câu 31: A. visited	B. remarked	C. developed	D. matched

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions from 32 to 33.

Câu 32: The country's continued prosperity is dependent on the opportunities and achievements of all its residents.

A. poverty B. inflation C. insecurity D. wealth

Câu 33: I know she’s upset but it’s time for her to pull herself together and stop crying.

A. make herself motivated

B. calm herself down

C. control her emotions and behave calmly

D. become very angry

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction from 34 to 36.

Câu 34: We spent tens of millions of dong on rent every month, and on top of that is the staff payroll.

A. and B. spent C. of D. staff

Câu 35: I scanned some photos I'd taken, so that I could send it to a friend in Australia.

A. in B. it C. that D. some

Câu 36: Electric devices such as computers contain circuits that send currents between internal components and develop voltages.

A. components B. that C. as D. Electric

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 37 to 43.

A common phenomenon in arid regions of the world is the whirling vortex called the “dust devil.” Although they resemble tornadoes, dust devils are generally much smaller and less intense than their more destructive cousins. Most dust devils are only a few meters in diameter and reach heights no greater than about 100 meters. Further, these whirlwinds are usually short-lived microscale phenomena: most form and die out within minutes. Unlike tornadoes, which are associated with clouds, dust devils form on days when clear skies prevail. Further, these whirlwinds form from the ground upward, exactly the opposite of tornadoes. Because surface heating is critical to their formation, dust devils occur most frequently in the afternoon, when surface temperatures are highest.

Dust devils form when the hot surface of the earth warms the air above it. When the air near the surface is considerably warmer than the air a few tens of meters overhead, the layer of air near Earth’s surface becomes unstable. In this situation, warm surface air begins to rise, causing air near the ground to be drawn into the developing whirlwind. A light wind will start this rising air to rotate, and once the rotation has begun, it becomes faster due to the same physical principle that causes ice-skaters to spin faster as they pull their arms closer to their body. As the inwardly spiraling air rises, it carries sand, dust, and other loose debris tens of meters into the air. It is this material that makes a dust devil visible. Occasionally, dust devils form above ground covered with vegetation. Under these conditions, the vortices may go undetected unless they interact with objects at the surface.

Most dust devils are small and short-lived; consequently, they are not generally destructive. Occasionally, however, these whirlwinds grow to be 100 meters or more in diameter and over a kilometer high. Larger and more vigorous dust devils have a longer lifetime than smaller ones. One large dust devil, with a height of about 750 meters, lasted for seven hours as it traveled 64 kilometers in western Utah. With winds that whirl at speeds that may reach 100 kilometers per hour, such large dust devils can do considerable damage.

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ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 5

1C 2A 3C 4C 5B 6D 7C 8A 9A 10A 11B 12D 13C 14B 15C 16B 17B 18A 19D 20C 21B 22C 23A 24C 25C 26A 27D 28A 29D 30B 31A 32A 33D 34B 35B 36D 37D 38A 39C 40A 41B 42B 43D 44C 45B 46D 47C 48C 49D 50D

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