Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG môn Tiếng Anh năm 2021-2022 có đáp án Trường THPT Nguyễn Trung Trực

TRƯỜNG THPT NGUYỄN TRUNG TRỰC

ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM HỌC 2021-2022 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH (Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút)

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. compose	B. support	C. precise	D. challenge
Question 2: A. interactive	B. electronic	C. ecology	D. individual

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 3: A. features	B. inserts	C. reveals	D. destroys
Question 4: A. access	B. championship	C. laborer	D. democratic

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5: ______ committee is expected to reach ______ decision this evening.

A. A/a B. The/0 C. 0/a D. The/a

Question 6: There are signs _________ restaurants are becoming more popular with families.

A. that B. which C. what D. whose

Question 7: Euthanasia, also mercy killing, is the practice of ending a life so as to release an individual from an incurable disease or _________ suffering.

A. tolerated B. tolerant C. tolerate D. intolerably

Question 8: _________, she spent nearly an hour walking all around the neighborhood looking for her car.

A. Unable to remember where she was parking

B. Unable to remember where she has parked

C. Forgetting where to park

D. Not remembering where she had parked

Question 9: She is bored with her job which is only concerned _________ costs and fees.

A. about B. to C. with D. of

Question 10: But for my mother’s help for the last two years, I ________________.

A. would succeed

B. would not have succeeded

C. would not succeed

D. could have not succeeded

Question 11: _______________ having a well-paid job, Jake is not contented with his life.

A. Although B. Besides C. Despite D. Because

Question 12: Over a third of the population was estimated to have no __________ tothehealth service.

A. relation B. connection C. access D. link

Question 13: Among all the changes resulting from the ___________ entry of womenintotheworkforce, the transformation that has occurred in the women themselves is not the least

important. A. quantitative B. massive C. surplus D. formidable

Question 14: We talked to each other all night and resolved some of our problem. It's goodto have a proper ______________ sometimes.

A. head-to-head

B. heart-to-head

C. heart-to-heart

D. head-to-heart

Question 15: The new airport was constructed in the _______ of fierce opposition.

A. face B. name C. teeth D. fangs

Question 16: The series became so popular that it was moved to the _______ time spot of 8pm.

A. prime B. leading C. main D. major

Question 17: My mother ________ for a computer company, but she ___________ at hometoday.

A. works – is working

B. works – works

C. is working – works

D. is working – is working

Question 18: My father told me that If we wanted to catch the 6.30 train, that wouldmean_______ the house at 6.00.

A. to leave

B. having left

C. leaving

D. having to be leaving

Question 19: Corona Virus __________ from China is threatening the health of peopleall over the world.

A. is thought to have originated

B. is thought to have been originated

C. thought to have originated

D. thought to have originated

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable responseto complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: Linh: "How often does your brother have to do a night shift?"

Mary: " ______________ "

A. Usually by car, but sometimes he cycles.

B. Three times a week, but sometimes twice.

C. He often starts work at 6, and sometimes at 7.

D. Not much, only a couple of hours every day.

Question 21: John: "___________"

Lucy: "Great. I have twenty students and they can speak English very well."

A. Howis yourclass this term?

B. How many students in your class can speak English?

C. What are you going to do this term?

D. What is the problem with your English students?

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlinedpart that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 22: She said to me (A) that she had just read (B) an interesting book which (C) had a new approach (D) Shakespeare.

Question 23: From bones found (A) in the United States, we have learned (B) that many animals which existed no longer (C) in the world once made their homes (D) there.

Question 24: Companies spend (A) millions of dollars on advertisings (B) and commercials trying (C) to persuade the public to buy (D) their products.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 25: You must drive it home to him that spending too much time playing computergames will do him no good.

A. let him drive his car

B. make him understand

C. allow him to stay

D. give him a lift home

Question 26: Young people often dispense with the traditional ceremonies of marriage. They think weddings are money-consuming and nonsensical.

A. do away with

B. pay no attention to

C. ignore

D. put an end

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 27: Many of us fret about ways in which modern technology distances us from understanding and keeping our customs and traditions.

A. no worry about

B. feel like

C. get involved in

D. are unconcerned about

Question 28: Because of her conservative views, the professor never accepts anything not related to traditional values and the status.

A. conservational

B. progressive

C. modern

D. economic

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet toindicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

An astronaut living in space begins a day in much the same way as he would on earth. Theastronaut is able to brush his teeth and use the toilet in space. It is, however, rather challengingas the water droplets will (29) __________ around. The astronaut will also have to maketodowith sponge baths.

There is a special plan for the astronaut on (30)____________ a spaceship which includes beverages and food items. The astronaut is allowed to have a maximumof threemain meals a day. The meal varies each day until the sixth day. On that day, the menuis (31)_____________ and the astronaut eats the meals he had on the first day. The food (32) ________ is brought on a shuttle mission can be dehydrated, in natural formfor fresh.

Sometimes, they are kept in thermostabilised cans or sealed pouches. It takes only thirtyminutes to cook a delicious meal for a crew of up to seven people on a space mission. (33)_________, astronauts have to eat slowly and carefully or the food will float away.

Question 29: A. dive	B. fall	C. float	D. fly
Question 30: A. board	B. move	C. air	D. business
Question 31: A. repetition	B. repeatedly	C. repeating	D. repeated
Question 32: A. what	B. that	C. whose	D. Ø
Question 33: A. However	B. Moreover	C. Instead	D. In contrast

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 34 to 38.

Earthquakes are destructive events in nature. The damage depends on the size or magnitudeofthe quake. There have never been so many people living in cities in quake zones, and so the worse the damage can be from a big quake, bringing fires, tsunamis, and the loss of life, property, and maybe an entire city.

We understand how earthquakes happen but not exactly where or when they will occur. Until recently, quakes seemed to occur at random. In Japan, government research is nowshowingthatquakes can be predicted. At the Earthquake Research Institute, University of Tokyo, KoshunYamaoka says earthquakes do follow a pattern—pressure builds in a zone and must bereleased.But a colleague, Naoyuki Kato, adds that laboratory experiments indicate that a fault slipsalittle before it breaks. If this is true, predictions can be made based on the detection of slips. Research in the U.S. may support Kato’s theory. In Parkfield, California earthquakes occur about every 22 years on the San Andreas fault. In the 1980s, scientists drilled into the fault andset up equipment to record activity to look for warning signs. When an earthquake hit again, itwas years off schedule. At first the event seemed random but scientists drilled deeper. By2005they reached the bottom of the fault, two miles down, and found something. Data fromtwoquakes reported in 2008 show there were two “slips’—places where the plates widened—beforethe fault line broke and the quakes occurred.

We are learning more about these destructive events every day. In the future we maybeabletotrack earthquakes and design an early-warning system. So if the next great earthquake doeshappen in Tokai, about 100 miles southwest of Tokyo, as some scientists think, the citizensofTokai may have advance warning.

(Adapted from Reading Explorer 3, Nancy Douglas et al., 2010)

Question 34: What is themainidea of the passage?

A. We can predict earthquakes using pre-slip theory.

B. There are now many theories about earthquakes.

C. Research is showing that we may be able to predict earthquakes.

D. Earthquakes are the most destructive natural disaster on earth.

Question 35: The underlined phrase “the worse the damage” in the passage means ___________.

A. The result of a great earthquake is a tsunami or fire that causes great damage.

B. Greater damage will occur from earthquakes in highly populated cities in danger zones.

C. Tsunamis and fire are caused by big earthquakes that we have not been able to predict.

D. Cities and other populous areas may suffer from worse earthquakes than other places.

Question 36: The underlined word “it” in the passage refers to _____________.

A. a fault B. a little C. an experiment D. a pattern

Question 37: Which of the following statements is NOT true?

A. The San Andreas fault is two miles deep.

B. Scientists in the U.S. found slips in the fault in the 1980’s.

C. Earthquakes occur about every 22 years along the San Andreas Fault.

D. The slip at a fault can predict when the fault will break.

Question 38: Evidence for the pre-slip theory has been found by scientists in __________.

A. Japan and the United States

B. Tokai and San Andreas

C. Parkfield and Kato

D. California and Tokyo

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 39 to 45.

If you go back far enough, everything lived in the sea. At various points in evolutionaryhistory,enterprising individuals within many different animal groups moved out onto the land, sometimes even to the most parched deserts, taking their own private seawater withtheminblood and cellular fluids. In addition to the reptiles, birds, mammals and insects whichweseeall around us, other groups that have succeeded out of water include scorpions, snails, crustaceans such as woodlice and land crabs, millipedes and centipedes, spiders andvariousworms. And we mustn’t forget the plants, without whose prior invasion of the land, noneoftheother migrations could have happened.

Moving from water to land involved a major redesign of every aspect of life, includingbreathing and reproduction. Nevertheless, a good number of thoroughgoing land animalslaterturned around, abandoned their hard-earned terrestrial re-tooling, and returned to the water again. Seals have only gone part way back. They show us what the intermediates might havebeen like, on the way to extreme cases such as whales and dugongs. Whales (includingthesmall whales we call dolphins) and dugongs, with their close cousins, the manatees, ceased to be land creatures altogether and reverted to the full marine habits of their remote ancestors.

They don’t even come ashore to breed. They do, however, still breathe air, having never developed anything equivalent to the gills of their earlier marine incarnation. Turtles went back to the sea a very long time ago and, like all vertebrate returnees to the water, they breathe air. However, they are, in one respect, less fully given back to the water than whales or dugongs, for turtles still lay their eggs on beaches.

There is evidence that all modern turtles are descended from a terrestrial ancestor which lived before most of the dinosaurs. There are two key fossils called Proganochelys quenstedti and Palaeochers is talampayensis dating from early dinosaur times, which appear to be close to the ancestry of all modern turtles and tortoise. You might wonder how we can tell whether fossil animals lived in land or in water, especially if only fragments are found. Sometimes it’s obvious. Ichthyosaurs were reptilian contemporaries of the dinosaurs, with fins and stream lined bodies. The fossils look like dolphins and they surely lived like dolphins, in the water. With turtles it is a little less obvious. One way to tell is by measuring the bones of their forelimbs.

(Adapted from Cambridge English IELTS 9)

Question 39: Which of the following best serves as the main idea for the passage?

A. The evidences of the time marine animals moved to land.

B. The relationship between terrestrial species and marine creatures.

C. The reasons why species had to change their living place.

D. The evolution of marine species in changing places to live.

Question 40: According to the first paragraph, reptiles, birds, mammals and insects __________.

A. were the ones living on the marine organisms.

B. moved to deserts to find feeding grounds.

C. left the water at the same time of scorpions, snails and crustaceans.

D. are the species whose ancestors succeeded in moving from water to land.

Question 41: As mentioned in paragraph 2, which of the following species returned to the water least completely?

A. Whales B. manatees C. turtles D. dugongs

Question 42: The word “ceased” in paragraph 2 mostly means ______________.

A. stopped happening or existing

B. got familiar

C. began to happen or exist

D. decided to become

Question 43: The word “incarnation” in the second paragraph could be best replaced by__________.

A. ancestor B. embodiment C. evolution D. natural selection

Question 44: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?

A. Seals areableto live on land and in the water.

B. Some terrestrial habits were remained when the species reverted to water life.

C. Apart from breathing and breeding, marine species were expected to change nothing to live on land.

D. Ichthyosaurs might have resembled dolphins.

Question 45: What does the word “they” in the last paragraph refer to?

A. dinosaurs

B. fins and streamlined bodies

C. ichthyosaurs

D. dolphins

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46: “Shall I post the letter for you?”

A. He asked me if I should post the letter for him.

B. He offered to post the letter for me.

C. He said I should post the letter myself.

D. I wanted him to post the letter for me.

Question 47: It is never too late to give up your prejudices.

A. It is high time you gave up your prejudices.

B. There is not enough time to give your prejudices.

C. There is no point giving up your prejudices.

D. It is too early for you to give up your prejudices

Question 48: As a conductor of heat and electricity, aluminum exceeds all metals except silver, copper and gold.

A. With the exception of aluminum, silver, copper and gold are better than any other metal as conductors of heat and electricity.

B. Aluminum is a better conductor of heat and electricity than silver, copper and gold.

C. Silver, copper and gold are better conductors of heat and electricity than aluminum.

D. Silver, copperand gold are exceeded only by aluminum as conductors of heat and electricity.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49: David was alone and lost in the woods. He did not panic.

A. David did not panic though he was alone and lost in the woods.

B. David wouldn't be panic if he had been alone and lost in the woods.

C. David was alone and lost in the woods so he did not panic.

D. David was alone and lost in the woods because he did not panic.

Question 50: The president failed to explain the cause of the crisis. He did not offer anysolutions.

A. The president either failed to explain the cause of the crisis or offered any solutions.

B. The president failed to explain the cause of crisis, nor did he offered any solutions.

C. The president neither explained the cause of the crisis nor offered any solutions.

D. The president didn’t either fail to explain the cause of crisis or offered no solutions too.

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 1

1. D 2. C 3. B 4. C 5. D 6. A 7. D 8. D 9. C 10. B11. C 12. C 13. B 14. C 15. C 16. A 17. A 18. C 19. A 20. B

21. A 22. D 23. C 24. B 25. B 26. A 27. D 28. B 29. C 30. A

31. D 32. B 33. A 34. C 35. B 36. A 37. B 38. A 39. D 40. D 41. C 42. A 43. B 44. C 45. C 46. B 47. A 48. C 49. A 50. C

ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QG MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT NGUYỄN TRUNG TRỰC- ĐỀ 02

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

1. Peter and Mary are talking about social networks.

- Peter: "Using social networks may have negative effects on students."

- Mary: "____________. It distracts them from their studies."

A. I don't quite agree

B. That's quite true

C. You're wrong

D. I'm not sure about that

2. Laura is telling Bob about her exam results.

- Laura: "____________" - Bob: "That's great. Congratulations!"

A. I've passed the exam with an A.

B. I didn't do well in the exam.

C. I'll get the exam results tomorrow.

D. I hope I'll pass the exam tomorrow.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions

3. The process of urbanization can actually change their mindset and help them accept more progressive ideas.

A. setup B. target C. attitude D. purpose

4. The government's plans to cut taxes really stimulated the economy.

A. discouraged B. started C. weakened D. improved

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

5. The country has been in a very poor economical state ever since the decline of its two major industries..

A. economical B. decline C. has been D. its

6. Last year in the fall they go to Washington where there are many famous monuments, and numerous other things which tourists can do.

A. there are B. which C. go D. other

7. He started as a salesman, then he went on to become a manager, finally finished its career as chairman of the board.

A. its B. to become C. board D. started

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions

8. You guys can go ahead! Once I've finished my work I'll be there in two shakes.

A. lately B. slowly C. quickly D. shortly

9. The instructions were not very clear so I got my friend to explain them to me.

A. understandable B. obvious C. unreliable D. confusing

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

10. Frontline doctors and nurses have devoted their time and hearts ______ taking care of patients with Covid-19.

A. on B. at C. with D. to

11. Linda joined an animal rights group to get in ______ with people who felt the same way as her.

A. contact B. trouble C. effect D. conflict

12. Could you tell me what time the plane to Lien Khuong airport ______ , please?

A. goes up

B. goes off

C. takes up

D. takes off

13. ______ positive for Covid-19, she was treated in isolation in hospital.

A. Testing B. Having tested C. Tested D. To test

14. She wore a ______ dress on her wedding.

A. gorgeous traditional Vietnamese

B. Vietnamese traditional gorgeous

C. Vietnamese gorgeous traditional

D. traditional gorgeous Vietnamese

15. They will have been using this system for 3 years ______.

A. after a new one had been adopted

B. as soon as a new one had been adopted

C. when a new one was adopted

D. by the time a new one is adopted

16. I think he's bitten off more than he can ______ taking all those classes at the same time.

A. sip B. chew C. swallow D. digest

17. Great efforts _______ to contain the spread of Covid-19 in Vinh Phuc recently.

A. have been made

B. made

C. have made

D. were made

18. The students are _______ research on the topic of counter-urbanisation.

A. having B. doing C. holding D. making

19. Despite their financial difficulties, they had a ______ marriage life.

A. happily B. unhappy C. happiness D. happy

20. Nam doesn't work as a Grab taxi driver any more, _______?

A. did he B. has he C. does he D. doesn't he

21. _______ his mobility impairment, he could hardly live on his own.

A. Because B. Despite C. Although D. Because of

22. _____ his mother is away from home, the more he misses her.

A. The longer B. Longest C. Longer D. The longest

23. The increase in the number of young people leaving to work in the cities has had a dramatic ______ on the demography of the villages.

A. impact B. reputation C. focus D. advantage

24. She broke in on while we ______ a discussion on financial issues in my office.

A. were having B. had C. had had D. are having

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions that follow.

David Beckham is an English footballer who has played for Manchester United and Real Madrid, as well as representing his country 100 times. He moved to the Los Angeles Galaxy in 2007 to increase the profile of football in America. He married Spice Girl Victoria Beckham and has become a worldwide celebrity, an advertising brand and a fashion icon.

Beckham was born in London in 1975. His parents were fanatical Manchester United supporters. His talent was obvious from an early age and he signed with Manchester United on his fourteenth birthday. He helped the youth team win several trophies and made his first team debut in 1995. He helped his team achieve considerable success in his eleven seasons with them.

Beckham has been runner-up twice as world football's best player. He won many trophies with Manchester United, including the Champions League, and won a league title with Real Madrid. He also captained his club and country. He was famously sent off in a match against Argentina in the 1998 World Cup. In 2003, Beckham received an honor for services to football from Britain's Queen.

Beckham has many interests off the soccer pitch and is rarely out of the headlines, especially concerning his marriage and children. He has established football academies in Los Angeles and London. In 2006 he was named a judge for the British Book Awards. He lives near Tom Cruise and the two are best buddies. Beckham is also a United Nations Goodwill Ambassador.

25. When did Beckham receive the royal award for his contribution to football?

A. In 1995 B. In 2003 C. In 2006 D. In 1998

26. According to the passage, Beckham has played 100 times for ____.

A. Real Madrid B. the national team of England

C. the national team of America D. Manchester United

27. What is the main idea of the reading passage?

A. Beckham's life before and after getting married

B. Beckham's marriage with a Spice Girl's member

C. The life and career of David Beckham

D. Beckham's family background

28. The word "fanatical" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ____.

A. realistic B. enthusiastic C. inspired D. idealistic

29. Which of the following is NOT mentioned about Beckham?

A. Some of Beckham's interests are not related to football.

B. He was voted one of the best football players of the world more than once.

C. He contributed to the success of the youth team of the Manchester United.

D. He made England lose the match against Argentina in the 1998 World Cup.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

30. A. respected B. emerged C. amputated D. degraded

31. A. made B. cake C. date D. share

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

In order to bring up children, many qualities are required. As well as the usual requirements such as love, patience and understanding, a sense of humor is an important features of any parent's personality. In fact, it's quite an art to (32)_______ a child's bad mood into behavior everyone in the family can live with.(33)_______ aspect of child rearing is teaching children limits and rules. This means the child needs to be aware of (34)_______ his or her rights are and what other people's are, too. Setting limits on children must occur on a daily basis. Temporary measures don't achieve anything but just waste time. A common mistake, (35)_______, is being far stricter than necessary. Parents must be willing to allow their children the opportunity to explore and learn from experience.

What's more, most parents must know the importance of routine as it gets children used to certain everyday activities. For instance, eating at the same time as their parents gets them into the habit of sitting at a table and teaches them how to (36)_______ themselves properly.

Overall, child rearing is no easy task but it is certainly a challenge and a learning experience.

32. A. translate	B. transfer	C. transform	D. transmit
33. A. Another	B. Other	C. Many	D. Few
34. A. when	B. what	C. that	D. where
35. A. therefore	B. however	C. moreover	D. otherwise
36. A. show	B. conduct	C. indicate	D. implement

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

37. It is obligatory for people in this area to wear facemasks whenever they go out in public places.

A. People in this area should wear facemasks whenever they go out in public places.

B. People in this area have to wear facemasks whenever they go out in public places.

C. People in this area might wear facemasks whenever they go out in public places.

D. People in this area needn't wear facemasks whenever they go out in public places.

38. When did they announce their engagement?

A. How long have they been engaged?

B. How long is it since they announced their engagement?

C. How long ago did they get engaged?

D. When was the last time they announced their engagement?

39. "No, I won't do your homework for you," she said to me.

A. She refused to do my homework for me.

B. She reminded me to do my homework.

C. She insisted on doing my homework for me.

D. She denied doing my homework for me.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

40. He badly suffered cyber bullying himself. He realized the true dangers of social media only then.

A. Only when he had realized the true dangers of social media did he badly suffer cyber bullying himself.

B. Not until he had badly suffered cyber bullying himself did he realize the true dangers of social media.

C. Such was his suffering of cyber bullying that he didn't realize the true dangers of social media.

D. But for his terrible suffering of cyber bullying, he would realize the true dangers of social media.

---(Để xem tiếp nội dung của đề thi số 2 các em vui lòng xem tại online hoặc đăng nhập vào HỌC247 để tải về máy)---

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 2

01. B; 02. A; 03. C; 04. D; 05. A; 06. C; 07. A; 08. B; 09. D; 10. D;

11. A; 12. D; 13. C; 14. A; 15. D; 16. B; 17. A; 18. B; 19. D; 20. C;

21. D; 22. A; 23. A; 24. A; 25. B; 26. B; 27. C; 28. B; 29. D; 30. B;

31. D; 32. C; 33. A; 34. B; 35. B; 36. B; 37. B; 38. B; 39. A;

40. B; 41. C; 42. D; 43. A; 44. B; 45. A; 46. A; 47. A; 48. A; 49. B; 50. B;

ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QG MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT NGUYỄN TRUNG TRỰC- ĐỀ 03

Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined and from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. watches	B. involves	C. changes	D. misses
Question 2: A. deal	B. cream	C. sea	D. threat

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3: A. vacancy	B. habitat	C. opponent	D. partnership
Question 4: A. busy	B. polite	C. careful	D. special

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5: He looks for any excuse he can to blow off his _____ to do housework.

A. commitment

B. obligation

C. assignment

D. responsibility

Question 6: Britain has accused Russia _____ poisoning the ex-Russian spy Sergei Skripal and his daughter.

A. of B. on C. for D. from

Question 7: If she were not afraid of flying, she _____ far a lot.

A. have travelled

B . travelled

C. will travel

D. would travel

Question 8: He expected _____ for an Oscar, but he wasn't.

A. nominating B. to nominate C. to be nominated D. being nominated

Question 9: _________, Tim recovered from the sickness quickly.

A. Just cared about Mr.Parks

B. Under the care of Dr.Parks

C. On care of Dr. Parks

D. He had just cared for Dr Parks

Question 10: As John _____ enjoyed doing research, he never could imagine himself pursuing other careers.

A. extremely B. utterly C. thoroughly D. totally

Question 11: In some countries, many old-aged parents like to live in a nursing home. They want to _____ independent lives.

A. give B. lead C. take D. keep

Question 12: Nowadays more and more students _____ work in mountainous areas in summers.

A. voluntarily B. volunteer C. volunteers D. voluntary

Question 13: Although she would have preferred to carry on working, my mum _____ her career in order to have children.

A. repealed B. sacrificed C. abolished D. devoted

Question 14: Everyone will tell you that becoming a parent is challenging, but you never really know what that means until you learn about it the _____ way.

A. long B. direct C. full D. hard

Question 15: Did you read _____ book I lent you last week?

A. a B. the C. an D. no article

Question 16: _____, she complained to the head teacher.

A. Once annoying by the boys' behaviour

B. Annoyed by the boys' behaviour

C. Having annoyed behaviour by the boys

D. She annoyed by the boys' behaviour uncommon

Question 17: Telecom giant Viettel decided to implement the 5G network _____ his technology was still uncommon.

A. because B. in spite of C. although D. because of

Question 18: Malaysia and Indonesia _____ into dumpsites after China had stopped importing their trash.

A. was turning B. turned C. had turned D. has turned

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 19: I am thankful for my wife, who vowed to be my biggest fan on the day we were married and has never once let me down.

A. grateful B. passionate C. supportive D. kind

Question 20: When I was a child I always looked up to my father. He was a real role model for me.

A. understood B. liked C. trusted D. admired

Mark the letter A, B, C, er on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 21: Though I persuaded my boss to solve a very serious problem in the new management system, he just made light of it.

A. completely ignored B. treated as important

C. disagreed with D. discovered by chance

Question 22: My uncle, who is an accomplished guitarist, taught me how to play.

A. unskilled B. ill-educated C. unimpaired D. unqualified

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 23: Linda and Mary are talking about helping the disadvantaged people.

- Linda: "I think we should give care and comfort to the orphan."

- Mary: “_____”

A. OK. No problem.

B. The same to you.

C. Yes, that's a good idea.

D. Thank you.

Question 24: Mary invites Sally to take part in the campaign.

- Mary: "Would you like to join the Green Movement?"

- Sally: “_____”

A. Yes, I'd like to.

B. OK. What's the matter?

C. That's great. Congratulations.

D. Well, you are right.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 25 to 29.

Around 200 million people are employed in tourism worldwide, making it the largest industry in the modern global (25) _____. It is estimated that three-quarters of a billion people go on holiday each year, and industry planners expect this figure to double by 2020. Some of the biggest beneficiaries are less developed countries, where it is often their main source of income.

(26) _____, along with the economic benefits, this mass movement of people has resulted in threats to the environment. People often forget the damage caused by carbon dioxide emissions from aircraft, (27) _____ contribute directly to global warming. Deforestation has cleared land in order to build hotels, airport and roads, and this has destroyed wildlife. In some areas, water shortages are now common because of the need to fill swimming pools and water golf courses for tourists. By pushing up prices for goods and services, tourism can also be (28) _____ to the people who live in tourist destinations.

In response to these concerns, some travel operators now offer environmental friendly holidays. Many of these aim to reduce the negative effect of tourism by (29) _____ only hotels that have invested equipment to recycle waste and use energy and water efficiently. Increasingly, tourists are also being reminded to show respect for the customs of the people whose countries they are going to visit, and to support local businesses, such as restaurants and shops, which depend on tourism for their main income.

(Source: Internet)

Question 25: A. economize	B. economy	C. economical	D. economically
Question 26: A. However	B. In addition	C. Therefore	D. Moreover
Question 27: A. whatever	B. which	C. what	D. that
Question 28: A. helpful	B. changeable	C. harmful	D. secure
Question 29: A. promoting	B. empowering	C. voting	D. permitting

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 30 to 34.

In today's competitive world, what responsible parent would not want to give their children the best possible start in life? For this reason, many parents want their children, often as young as ten months old, to become familiar with computers. They seem to think that if their children grow up with computers, they will be better equipped to face the challenges of the future.

No one has proved that computers make children more creative or more intelligent. The truth may even be the opposite. Educational psychologists claim that too much exposure to computers, especially for the very young, may negatively affect normal brain development. Children gain valuable experience of the world from their interaction with physical objects. Ten-month-old babies may benefit more from bumping their heads or putting various objects in their mouths than they will from staring at eye-catching cartoons. A four-year-old child can improve hand-eye coordination and understand cause and effect better by experimenting with a crayon than by moving a cursor around a computer screen. So, as educational psychologists suggest, instead of government funding going to more and more computer classes, it might be better to devote resources to music and art programs.

It is ludicrous to think that children will fall behind if they are not exposed to computers from an early age. Time is too precious to spend with a "mouse". Now is the time when they should be out there learning to ride a bike. There will be time later on for them to start banging away at keyboards.

Question 30: What would be an appropriate title for this passage?

A. Let kids be kids

B. Computers in schools

C. Never too early to start

D. More computers mean brighter future

Question 31: Children who spend a lot of time on their computers _____.

A. will suffer from brain damage

B. tend to have more accidents than those who do not

C. do not necessarily make more progress than those do not

D. tend to like music and art more than those who do not

Question 32: The pronoun "they" in paragraph 2 refer to _____.

A. heads B. objects C. mouths D. babies

Question 33: Which of the following statements is TRUE according to the passage?

A. Parents should not put off buying a computer for their children.

B. It is better for children to take computer lessons than art lessons.

C. There is no evidence that children who use computers are cleverer than those who do not

D. Computers seriously harm children's eyesight.

Question 34: The word "ludicrous" paragraph 3 mostly means _____.

A. ironic B. sensible C. humorous D. ridiculous

Read the following passage and mark the letter A. B. C. or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.

Biological diversity has become widely recognized as a critical conservation issue only in the past two decades. The rapid destruction of the tropical rain forests, which are the ecosystems with the highest known species diversity on Earth, has awakened people to the importance and fragility of biological diversity. The high rate of species extinctions in these environments is jolting, but it is important to recognize the significance of biological diversity in all ecosystems. As the human population continues to expand, it will negatively affect one after another of Earth’s ecosystems. In terrestrial ecosystems and in fringe marine ecosystems (such as wetlands), the most common problem is habitat destruction. In most situations, the result is irreversible. Now humans are beginning to destroy marine ecosystems through other types of activities, such as disposal and runoff of poisonous waste; in less than two centuries, by significantly reducing the variety of species on Earth, they have irrevocably redirected the course of evolution.

Certainly, there have been periods in Earth’s history when mass extinctions have occurred. The extinction of the dinosaurs was caused by some physical event, either climatic or cosmic. There have also been less dramatic extinctions, as when natural competition between species reached an extreme conclusion. Only 0.01 percent of the species that have lived on Earth have survived to the present, and it was largely chance that determined which species survived and which died out.

However, nothing has ever equaled the magnitude and speed with which the human species is altering the physical and chemical world and demolishing the environment. In fact, there is wide agreement that it is the rate of change humans are inflicting, even more than the changes themselves, that will lead to biological devastation. Life on Earth has continually been in flux as slow physical and chemical changes have occurred on Earth, but life needs time to adapt-time for migration and genetic adaptation within existing species and time for the proliferation of new genetic material and new species that may be able to survive in new environments.

Question 35: What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. The time required for species to adapt to new environments

B. The variety of species found in tropical rainforests

C. The impact of human activities on Earth's ecosystems

D. The cause of the extinction of the dinosaurs

Question 36: The author mentions all of the following is examples of the effect of humans on the world's ecosystems EXCEPT _____.

A. the extensive damage to marine ecosystems

B. the habitat destruction in wetlands

C. the destruction of the tropical rainforests

D. the introduction of new varieties of plant species

Question 37: The word "jolting" in paragraph 1 mostly means _____.

A. appealing B. illuminating C. shocking D. disgusting

Question 38: The word "they" in paragraph 1 refers to _____.

A. species B. centuries C. activities D. humans

Question 39: What can be inferred from the extinction of the dinosaurs in paragraph 2?

A. Not all mass extinctions have been caused by human activity.

B. Actions by humans could not stop the irreversible process of a species' extinction.

C. Earth's climate has changed significantly since the dinosaurs' extinction.

D. The cause of the dinosaurs' extinction is unknown.

Question 40: The word "magnitude" in paragraph 3 mostly means _____.

A. extent B. ignorance C. greed D. concem

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ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 3

Question 1 B Question 11 B Question 21 B Question 31 A Question 41 B

Question 2 D Question 12 A Question 22 A Question 32 D Question 42 A

Question 3 C Question 13 B Question 23 C Question 33 C Question 43 C

Question 4 B Question 14 B Question 24 A Question 34 D Question 44 D

Question 5 D Question 15 B Question 25 A Question 35 C Question 45 B

Question 6 A Question 16 B Question 26 A Question 36 D Question 46 D

Question 7 D Question 17 C Question 27 B Question 37 C Question 47 D

Question 8 C Question 18 B Question 28 C Question 38 D Question 48 C

Question 9 B Question 19 A Question 29 A Question 39 A Question 49 B

Question 10 C Question 20 D Question 30 A Question 40 A Question 50 D

ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QG MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT NGUYỄN TRUNG TRỰC- ĐỀ 04

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions from 1 to 3.

Question 1: Many people think that Steve stole the money.

A. Steve was thought to have stolen the money.

B. Steve was thought to steal the money.

C. It is thought that Steve stole the money.

D. The money is thought to have stolen by Steve.

Question 2: It is open to question as to whether Jane will get the job.

A. If Jane could answer the question, she would get the job.

B. Jane is being interviewed for the job.

C. It is not certain that Jane will get the job.

D. The question is whether Jane will get the job or not.

Question 3: We couldn’t have managed our business successfully without my father’s money.

A. We could have managed our business successfully with my father’s money.

B. If we could manage our business successfully, my father would give us his money.

C. Hadn’t it been for my father’s money, we couldn’t have managed our business successfully.

D. Had it not been for my father’s money, we couldn’t have managed our business successfully.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 4 to 8.

DRINKING AND DRIVING

The legal limit for driving after drinking alcohol is 80 milligrams of alcohol in 100 milliliters of blood, when tested. But there is no sure way of telling how much you can drink before you reach this limit. It varies with each person depending on your weight, your sex, if you’ve just eaten and what sort of drinks you’ve had. Some people might reach their limit after only about three standard drinks.

In fact, your driving ability can be affected by just one or two drinks. Even if you’re below the legal limit, you could still be taken to court if a police officer thinks your driving has been affected by alcohol.

It takes about an hour for the body to get rid of the alcohol in one standard drink. So, if you have a heavy drinking session in the evening you might find that your driving ability is still affected the next morning, or you could even find that you’re still over the legal limit. In addition, if you’ve had a few drinks at lunchtime, another one or two drinks in the early evening may well put you over the legal limit.

In a test with professional drivers, the more alcoholic drinks they had had the more certain they were that they could drive a test course through a set of moveable posts ... and the less able they were to do it! So the only way to be sure you’re safe is not to drink at all.

Alcohol is a major cause of road traffic accidents. One in three of the drivers killed in road accidents have levels of alcohol which are over the legal limit, and road accidents after drinking are the biggest cause of death among young men. More half of the people stopped by the police to take a breathalyzer test have a blood alcohol concentrate of more than twice the legal limit.

It is important to remember that driving after you’ve been drinking doesn’t just affect you. If you’re involved in an accident it affects a lot of other people as well, not least the person you might kill or injure.

Question 4: Alcohol is a major cause of road traffic accidents in that _____.

A. more young men die in drink-related accidents than in any other way

B. most drivers who die in these accidents have been drinking

C. drinking affects people’s eyesight

D. one in three drivers drink heavily

Question 5: When you have been drinking heavily in the evening, the next day you might be _____.

A. unable to drive until the evening

B. still drunk until lunchtime

C. over the legal limit in the morning

D. unable to drive all day

Question 6: The amount of alcohol a person can drink before reaching the legal limit is _____.

A. 800 milligrams of pure alcohol

B. exactly proportional to body weight

C. approximately three standard drinks

D. different for different people

Question 7: What does this article urge you to remember particularly about driving and drinking?

A. You may hurt another road-user.

B. You may be taken to court by the police.

C. You put many other people at risk.

D. You are putting yourself in danger.

Question 8: When might you be taken to court by the police for drinking and driving?

A. When the police think that you have been drinking from the way you are driving.

B. Only when tests show that you have 80mg of alcohol in 100 ml of blood.

C. When you have driven a vehicle after drinking any alcohol at all.

D. When you have drunk at least three drinks before driving.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 9: A. attraction	B. advantage	C. reference	D. infinitive
Question 10: A. opponent	B. disappear	C. arrangement	D. contractual

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 11: Tom had to dip into his savings account to pay for his holiday in Sydney with his girl friend.

A. put money into

B. increase

C. take money from

D. invest money

Question 12: In August 2018, at the Asian Games 2018, Quang Hai scored the only goal in the match between Vietnam and Japan which enabled Vietnam team to fish the group stage as first place on their group.

A. incapacitated

B. disabled

C. facilitate

D. helped

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from 13 to 20.

Have you ever thought about inventing something? Did you worry that your idea was too strange or unrealistic? Well, maybe you should think again. Strange or unrealistic ideas never stopped Arthur Pedrick. Pedrick was a British inventor. Originally a government clerk, he spent his retirement in the 1960s and 1970s developing new and unusual ideas. Some of these ideas contradicted basic physics, but that didn’t stop Pedrick. One of his strangest ideas was a plan to connect large tubes from the continent of Australia all the way to Antarctica, a distance of 10,000 km! These tubes would carry giant ice balls from Antarctica to Australia. This ice would then melt in the Australian desert, and the water would be used in irrigation. Another of Pedrick’s inventions was a radio-controlled golf ball. A golfer could change the speed and direction of the golf ball by small flaps, controlled by computer chips. Using radio waves, the golfer could also find lost golf balls. Arthur Pedrick had thousands of bizarre ideas for inventions, most of which were never built.

Though many of Pedrick’s inventions were never developed, a lot of other strange ideas were. In 1989, a company designed and sold a theft-prevention device for expensive cars. As part of this device, several tubes were attached to the bottom of a car. If someone tried to steal the car, super hot flames would come out of the tubes and burn the car thief. Some people who were not thieves, however, were seriously injured. They accidentally set off the device by walking past the car. Other strange inventions include underwear for dogs and pens with drinkable ink. The underwear keeps dogs from making a mess when they go out for a walk. Also, if you are ever thirsty during a test, a pen with drinkable ink would be very handy! If you have an idea that seems a little out in left field, don’t let that stop you from trying it. You’ll be in good company.

Question 13: What is the main idea of the passage?

A. Some inventions are very strange

B. Some devices can help reduce crime

C. Inventing something is easy

D. Inventions are necessary for a good life

Question 14: According to the passage, how was Pedrick’s plan to bring water to Australia probably unrealistic?

A. Tubes are not strong enough.

B. Australia doesn’t need water.

C. The plan was too expensive.

D. Australia and Antarctica are too far away.

Question 15: What was the problem with the theft prevention device?

A. It didn’t work.

B. It hurt other people besides thieves.

C. Only bicycles could use it.

D. It was too big.

Question 16: According to the passage, what is NOT true about Pedrick?

A. A lot of his inventions were based on physics.

B. He had ever worked as a secretary for the government.

C. He comes from England.

D. He came up with the idea of carrying iceberg from Antarctica to Australia.

Question 17: The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to _____.

A. thieves B. people C. dogs D. pens

Question 18: From the passage, what can be inferred about Arthur Pedrick?

A. He was more interested in creativity than facts.

B. He was a good scientist.

C. He was often bored.

D. He made a lot of money from his inventions.

Question 19: The words “out in left field” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to_____.

A. inventive B. weird C. creative D. innovative

Question 20: In the passage, what is implied when a dog “makes a mess”?

A. It goes to the bathroom.

B. It spreads its food around.

C. It digs in the dirt.

D. It has dirty hair.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions from 21 to 22.

Question 21: A. examined	B. serviced	C. maintained	D. delivered
Question 22: A. dear	B. wear	C. share	D. compare

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions from 23 to 24.

Question 23: Sorry, I can’t come to your party. I am snowed under with work at the moment.

A. busy with

B. free from

C. relaxed about

D. interested in

Question 24: The second summit between US President Donald Trump and North Korean leader Kim Jong Un ended abruptly on Thursday, with a working lunch and a scheduled signing ceremony being called off.

A. unexpectedly

B. gradually

C. suddenly

D. courteously

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions from 25 to 26.

Question 25: We arrived at airport. We realized our passports were still at home.

A. It was until we arrived at the airport that we realize our passports were still at home.

B. We arrived at the airport and realized that our passports are still at home.

C. Not until had we arrived at the airport we realized our passports were still at home.

D. Not until we arrived at the airport did we realize that our passports were still at home.

Question 26: He is very intelligent. He can solve all the problems in no time.

A. He is very intelligent that he can solve all the problems in no time.

B. So intelligent is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.

C. So intelligent a student is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.

D. An intelligent student is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks from 27 to 31.

If you want to prepare yourself for great achievement and have more to _____ (27) to your education or your work, try reading more books. _____ (28) up some of the interestingly informative books and search for well - researched materials that can help you grow. We should encourage our children to read more books and spend less time watching TV. Some people have commented that this is inconsistent. "Why is the written word a superior way to get information than television?" That is _____ (29) interesting point of view worth further _____ (30). Reading is a skill that is in much greater demand than the demand for watching TV. There are no jobs that require a person to be able to watch TV but reading is an integral part of many jobs. The written word is an incredibly flexible and efficient way of communication. You can write something down and, in no time, it can be communicated to many different people. Not only that, we can _____ (31) vast amounts of information through reading in a very short time. A good reader can acquire more information in reading for two hours than someone watching TV can acquire in a full day. You are able to gain a lot of information quickly because you are a fast reader with good comprehension skills. It will save you massive amounts of time and you will be able to assimilate vast quantities of information.

Question 27: A. gain	B. gather	C. collect	D. contribute
Question 28: A. Make	B. Pick	C. Set	D. Take
Question 29: A. a	B. an	C. the	D. no article
Question 30: A. exploration	B. explore	C. explorer	D. explorative
Question 31: A. digest	B. inhale	C. breathe	D. eat

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions from 32 to 34.

Question 32: On the floor of the Pacific Ocean is hundreds of flat-tipped mountains more than a mile beneath sea level.

A. more than

B. On

C. beneath sea level

D. is hundreds of

Question 33: It is important that you turned off the heater every morning before you leave for class.

A. turned off

B. before

C. leave for

D. It

Question 34: Sleeping, resting, and to drink fruit juice are the best ways to care for a cold.

A. to drink

B. juice

C. the best ways

D. Sleeping

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges from 35 to 36.

Question 35: Ken and Tom are high-school students. They meet each other at a gallery but Ken is in a hurry.

Ken: “I’ve got to go, Tom. So long”

Tom: “So long, Ken. And _____.”

A. be careful

B. take care

C. don’t hurry

D. don’t take it seriously

Question 36: Peter: “Is it important?” - Thomas: “_____”

A. Not on your life!

B. It’s a matter of life and death!

C. No worry, that’s nothing.

D. It’s ridiculous!

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from 37 to 50.

Question 37: Jane _____ always _____ her room untidy these days.

A. is/leaving B. was / leaving C. Ø / leaves D. Ø /left

Question 38: They always kept on good _____ with their next-door neighbors for the children’s sake.

A. will B. friendship C. terms D. relations

Question 39: The opposition will be elected into government at the next election, without a _____ of a doubt

A. shade B. shadow C. benefit D. hue

Question 40: _____ her fiction describes women in unhappy marriages.

A. Many of

B. A large number of

C. A great volume of

D. Much of

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ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 4

Question 1 C Question 11 C Question 21 B Question 31 A Question 41 C

Question 2 C Question 12 D Question 22 A Question 32 D Question 42 A

Question 3 D Question 13 D Question 23 B Question 33 A Question 43 C

Question 4 D Question 14 D Question 24 B Question 34 A Question 44 A

Question 5 C Question 15 B Question 25 D Question 35 B Question 45 D

Question 6 D Question 16 A Question 26 B Question 36 B Question 46 D

Question 7 C Question 17 C Question 27 D Question 37 A Question 47 B

Question 8 A Question 18 A Question 28 B Question 38 C Question 48 C

Question 9 C Question 19 B Question 29 B Question 39 B Question 49 A

Question 10 B Question 20 C Question 30 A Question 40 D Question 50 B

ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QG MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT NGUYỄN TRUNG TRỰC- ĐỀ 05

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions

Question 1: I couldn’t decide what to eat. There was nothing _____ the menu that I liked.

A. in B. on C. at D. within

Question 2: There was a bank robbery in our neighborhood this morning. When the police showed up, the robbers _____.

A. disappeared

B. disappear

C. had disappeared

D. would disappear

Question 3: It turned out that we _____ rushed to the airport as the plane was delayed by several hours.

A. hadn’t

B. should have

C. mustn’t have

D. needn’t have

Question 4: My parents lent me the money. _____, I couldn’t have afforded the trip.

A. However

B. Otherwise

C. Therefore

D. Unless

Question 5: Cuts in the health service could have tragic _____ for patients.

A. effect

B. results

C. consequences

D. damage

Question 6: It is _____ practice to look at someone when they talk to you.

A. common B. usual C. normal D. popular

Question 7: Originally, the first European colleges consisted of groups of individuals _____ joined their efforts to study sciences, medicine, and law.

A. who lived together and

B. whose life together so

C. living together and

D. so as to live together and

Question 8: I'll give you the phone number of my hotel so that you can reach me if anything _____.

A. happen B. happened C. had happened D. happens

Question 9: A quilt that looks ordinary _____ may become a work of abstract art when it is hung on a white wall.

A. to be on bed

B. lies on a bed

C. to be lying in bed

D. lying on a bed

Question 10: Our planned visit to _____ United Kingdom fell through because we were unable to get the visas.

A. a B. an C. the D. no article

Question 11: Animals were first domesticated as a source of food and later _____ as a source of clothing and transportation.

A. raised B. bought C. found D. tamed

Question 12: Hector has been _____ of murdering the Japanese visitor.

A. blamed B. charged C. accused D. arrested

Question 13: _____ are that stock price will go up in the coming months.

A. Chances B. Opportunities C. Possibilities D. Conditions

Question 14: It was so _____ a victory that even Smith’s fans couldn’t believe it.

A. surprised B. surprising C. surprise D. surprisedly

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in meaning to each of the following questions

Question 15: I am much worse than Josh is at physics.

A. Josh is not quite as badly at physics as I am.

B. Josh is no any better at physics than I am.

C. Josh is not nearly as bad at physics as I am.

D. Josh is the best at physics.

Question 16: I'm sure it wasn't Mr. Phong you saw because he's on business in Ha Noi.

A. It couldn't be Mr. Phong you saw because he's on business in Ha Noi.

B. You mustn't have seen Mr. Phong because he's on business in Ha Noi.

C. It can't have been Mr. Phong you saw because he's on business in Ha Noi.

D. Mr. Phong is on business in Ha Noi, so you might have seen him.

Question 17: “Would anyone like to express an opinion on this matter?” said he.

A. He asked everyone whether they would like to express an opinion on the matter.

B. He asked everyone as if someone would like to express their opinion on the matter.

C. He doubted that everyone would like to express their opinion on the matter.

D. He wondered that anyone would like to express their opinion on the matter.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions

Question 18: The traffic accident caused a traffic jam. The traffic jam lasted 2 hours.

A. The two–hour traffic jam was brought about by the traffic accident.

B. It was the two–hour traffic jam that caused the traffic accident.

C. There was a traffic accident caused by a two–hour traffic jam.

D. If there weren’t that traffic accident, there wouldn’t be the two–hour traffic jam.

Question 19: All possible means have been used to prevent air pollution. The sky is still not clear.

A. Every possible means has been used to prevent air pollution so that the sky can be clearer.

B. The sky is still not clear due to the fact that all possible means have been used to prevent air pollution.

C. To prevent air pollution, every possible means has been used, and so the sky is still not clear.

D. Every possible means has been used to prevent air pollution, yet the sky is still not clear.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks

The philosopher Aristotle said, “In poverty and other misfortunes of life, true friends are a sure refuge. They keep the young out of mischief; they comfort and aid the old in their weakness, and they incite those in the prime of life to noble deeds. “Growing up”, my mother always used to tell me “your friends are a reflection of you”. I did not quite understand this (20) _____ I started meeting individuals who kept, not so healthy friends in their lives and suddenly, as a young teenager, I learned to understand that the friends I keep in my life (21) _____ who I am and desire to be as a person and therefore I have learned to choose my friends wisely over the years. I do not care about the superficial (22) _____ such as looks, money, success or status but rather I emulate those (23) _____ bring laughter, joy, honesty and who can be there for me and also give me a firm kick in the butt when I need it. I always find it intriguing to meet friends of people I know because I can really get a sense of that person by the company they choose to (24) _____ in their life.

(Source: https://www.psychologytoday.com)

Question 20: A. until	B. when	C. since	D. while
Question 21: A. reflection	B. reflect	C. reflective	D. reflectively
Question 22: A. elements	B. components	C. attributes	D. ingredients
Question 23: A. who	B. whom	C. which	D. where
Question 24: A. have	B. create	C. make	D. keep

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions

Most languages have several levels of vocabulary that may be used by the same speakers. In English, at least three have been identified and described.

Standard usage includes those words and expressions understood, used, and accepted by a majority of the speakers of a language in any situation regardless of the level of formality. As such, these words and expressions are well defined and listed in standard dictionaries.

Colloquialisms, on the other hand, are familiar words and idioms that are understood by almost all speakers of a language and used in informal speech or writing, but not considered acceptable for more formal situations. Almost all idiomatic expressions are colloquial language. Slang, refers to words and expressions understood by a large number of speakers but not accepted as appropriate formal usage by the majority. Colloquial expressions and even slang may be found in standard dictionaries but will be so identified. Both colloquial usage and slang are more common in speech than writing.

Colloquial speech often passes into standard speech. Some slang also passes into standard speech, but other slang expressions enjoy momentary popularity followed by obscurity. In some cases, the majority never accepts certain slang phrases but nevertheless retains them in their collective memories. Every generation seems to require its own set of words to describe familiar objects and events.

It has been pointed out by a number of linguists that three cultural conditions are necessary for the creation of a large body of slang expressions. First, the introduction and acceptance of new objects and situations in the society; second, a diverse population with a large number of subgroups; third, association among the subgroups and the majority population.

Finally, it is worth noting that the terms “standard”, “colloquial”, and “slang” exist only as abstract labels for scholars who study language. Only a tiny number of the speakers of any language will be aware that they are using colloquial or slang expressions. Most speakers of English will, during appropriate situations, select and use three types of expressions.

(Source: Adapted from Practice exercises for the TOEFL)

Question 25: Which of the following could be the best title for the passage?

A. Standard speech

B. Idiomatic phrases

C. Different types of vocabulary

D. Dictionary usage

Question 26: How is slang defined by the author?

A. Words and phrases accepted by the majority of formal usage.

B. Words or phrases understood by the majority but not found in standard dictionaries.

C. Words or phrases that are understood by a restricted group of speakers.

D. Words or phrases understood by a large number of speakers but not accepted as formal usage.

Question 27: The word “obscurity” in paragraph 3 could be best replaced by _____.

A. disappearance B. influence C. qualification D. tolerance

Question 28: The word “them” in paragraph 3 refers to _____.

A. set of words B. slang phrases C. slang D. slang expressions

Question 29: Which of the following is TRUE of standard usage?

A. It is limited to written language.

B. It is only understood by the upper classes.

C. It can be used in formal or informal settings.

D. It is constantly changing.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions

There are three valid arguments to support the preservation of endangered species. An aesthetic justification contends that biodiversity contributes to the quality of life because many of the endangered plants and animals are particularly appreciated for their unique physical beauty. The aesthetic role of nature in all its diverse forms is reflected in the art and literature of every culture, attaining symbolic status in the spiritual life of many groups. According to the proponents of the aesthetic argument, people need nature in all its diverse and beautiful forms as part of the experience of the world.

Another argument that has been put forward, especially by groups in the medical and pharmacological fields, is that of ecological self–interest. By preserving all species, we retain a balance of nature that is ultimately beneficial to humankind. Recent research on global ecosystems has been cited as evidence that every species contributes important or even essential functions that may be necessary to the survival of our own species. Some advocates of the ecological argument contend that important chemical compounds derived from rare plants may contain the key to a cure for one of the diseases currently threatening human beings. If we do not protect other species, then they cannot protect us.

Apart from human advantage in both the aesthetic and ecological arguments, the proponents of a moral justification contend that all species have the right to exist, a viewpoint stated in the United Nations World Charter for Nature, created in 1982. Furthermore, if humankind views itself as the stewards of all the creatures on Earth, then it is incumbent upon human beings to protect them, and to ensure the continued existence of all species. Moral justification has been extended by a movement called “deep ecology", the members of which rank the biosphere higher than people because the continuation of life depends on this larger perspective. To carry their argument to its logical conclusion, all choices must be made for the biosphere, not for people.

(Source: Adapted from Reading Practice for the TOEFL)

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ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 5

Question 1 B Question 11 D Question 21 B Question 31 B Question 41 D

Question 2 C Question 12 C Question 22 C Question 32 C Question 42 D

Question 3 D Question 13 A Question 23 A Question 33 C Question 43 D

Question 4 B Question 14 B Question 24 D Question 34 D Question 44 B

Question 5 C Question 15 C Question 25 C Question 35 C Question 45 B

Question 6 A Question 16 C Question 26 D Question 36 A Question 46 D

Question 7 A Question 17 A Question 27 A Question 37 C Question 47 B

Question 8 D Question 18 A Question 28 B Question 38 A Question 48 D

Question 9 D Question 19 D Question 29 C Question 39 B Question 49 A

Question 10 C Question 20 A Question 30 B Question 40 A Question 50 C

...

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