Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG năm 2021 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THPT Nguyễn Hữu Cầu

BỘ 5 ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA MÔN TIẾNG ANH NĂM 2021

TRƯỜNG THPT NGUYỄN HỮU CẦU

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions.

Question 1. 

A. watched 

B. stopped 

C. lived 

D. cooked

Question 2. 

A. clean 

B. bread 

C. lean 

D. lead

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. 

A. employ 

B. effort 

C. express 

D. reduce

Question 4. 

A. newspaper 

B. dedicate 

C. timetable 

D. commercial

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5. According to FAO, Vietnam is second largest coffee producer in the world after Brazil.

A. an 

B. a 

C. the 

D. Ø

Question 6. If I won the lottery, I you half the money.

A. had given 

B. give 

C. gave 

D. would give

Question 7. When I came to visit her last night, she a bath.

A. had 

B. has 

C. is having 

D. was having

Question 8. _____ I moved in my new apartment, my neighbors have come to my house twice.

A. because 

B. since 

C. when 

D. after

Question 9. The group leader prevented his members_____.

A. from going on 

B. to go on 

C. for going on 

D. about going on

Question 10. ________ she received a big applause.

A. Finished her lecture 

B. Speaking has finished

C. After she finishes speaking 

D. When the speaker finished

Question 11. ________the room, the man was no longer here.

A. Entering 

B. When we entered 

C. On entering 

D. Having entered

Question 12. We regret______ you that we cannot approve your suggestion.

A. inform 

B. to inform 

C. informing 

D. informed

Question 13. His achievements were partly due to the of his wife.

A. assistance 

B. assisted 

C. assist 

D. assistant

Question 14._______ these books to the library, as they will soon overdue.

A. Bring 

B. Take 

C. Fetch 

D. Leave

Question 15. Being helpful is good, but don't allow others to____advantage of your generosity.

A. get 

B. take 

C. use 

D. make

Question 16. Helen’s parents was very pleased when they read her school _______.

A. report 

B. papers 

C. diploma 

D. account

Question 17. We need actions and interventions of the local authorities to prevent national parks from being destroyed by pollution.

A. timely 

B. excitedly 

C. reckless 

D. threateningly

Question 18: We have to pay______to what our parents taught last night.

A. mind 

B. notice 

C. thought 

D. attention

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 19. I could see the finish line and thought I was home and dry.

A. Unsuccessful 

B. hopeful 

C. successful 

D. hopeless

Question 20. If it's raining tomorrow, we'll have to postpone the match till Sunday.

A. play 

B. put off 

C. put away 

D. cancel

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word (s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word (s) in the following question

Question 21. Pointing at someone is considered rude in communication.

A. impolite 

B. humorous 

C. polite 

D. generous

Question 22.This point has been dealt with in the preceding paragraph.

A. following 

B. heading 

C. previous 

D. before

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 23: Two friends Linda and Jane are talking about Jane’s new dress.

- Linda: « What a beautiful dress you are wearing!»

- Jane: »

A. Thank you. That’s a nice compliment. 

B. Don’t say so.

C. Thank you very much. I don’t know that. 

D. I don’t like your saying.

Question 24: Mary is talking to Tom about his new job.

- Mary: « How are you getting on in your new job?»

- Tom: « »

A. It offers good salary. 

B. I’m very well, thanks.

C. I’m really enjoying it. 

D. I have to go to work by bus every day.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 25 to 29.

The General Certificate of Secondary Education or the GCSE examinations for (25)____ are the standard school-leaver qualifications taken by virtually all UK students in the May and June following their 16th birthday. If you come to a UK independent school before (26)____the age of 16, you will study towards GCSE examinations in up to 12 subjects. Some subjects are compulsory, including English and mathematics, and you can select (27)_____, such as music, drama, geography and history from a series of options. GCSEs provide a good all-round education that you can build on at college and eventually at university

AS- and A-levels are taken after GCSEs. They are the UK qualifications most (28)____accepted for entry to university and are available in subjects from the humanities, arts, sciences and social sciences as well as in vocational subjects such (29)___engineering, and leisure and tourism.

You can study up to four subjects at the same time for two years.

Question 25. 

A. big 

B. small 

C. long 

D. short

Question 26. 

A. reach 

B. reaching 

C. being reached 

D. to reach

Question 27. 

A. other 

B. another 

C. each other 

D. others

Question 28. 

A. wide 

B. widen 

C. widely 

D. width

Question 29. 

A. for 

B. as 

C. like 

D. so

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 30 to 34.

In the twentieth - century, people depend on unlimited energy to power their everyday lives. A wide range of energy-run devices and modern conveniences are taken for granted, and although it may seem that we will never be in danger of living without those conveniences, the fact is that many supplies of energy are dwindling rapidly. Scientists are constantly searching for new sources of power to keep modern society running. Whether future populations will continue to enjoy the benefits of abundant energy will depend on the success of this search.

Coal, oil, and natural gas supply modern civilization with most of its power. However, not only are supplies of these fuels limited, but they are a major source of pollution. If the energy demands of the future are to be met without seriously harming the environment, existing alternative energy sources must be improved or further explored and developed. These include nuclear, water, solar, wind, and geothermal power, as well as energy from new, nonpolluting types of fuels. Each of these alternatives, however, has advantages and disadvantages.

Nuclear power plants efficiently produce large amounts of electricity without polluting the atmosphere; however, they are costly to build and maintain, and they pose the daunting problem of what to do with nuclear waste. Hydroelectric power is inexpensive and environmentally safe, but impractical for communities located far from moving water. Harnessing energy from tides and waves has similar drawbacks. Solar power holds great promise for the future but methods of collecting and concentrating sunlight are as yet inefficient, as are methods of harnessing wind power.

Every source of energy has its disadvantages. One way to minimize them is to use less energy. Conservation efforts coupled with renewable energy resources, such as a combination of solar, water, wind, and geothermal energy and alternative fuels, such as alcohol and hydrogen, will ensure supplies of clean, affordable energy for humanity's future.

Question 30. The word "dwindling" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to

A. diminishing 

B. changing 

C. increasing 

D. limiting

Question 31. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

A. Our present energy sources must be eliminated and replaced with alternative sources.

B. Demands for energy in the future are likely to decrease.

C. The search for alternative energy sources is not over.

D. Alternative sources of energy on this planet are very limited.

Question 32. It can be inferred from the passage that .

A. Many alternative energy sources are environmentally hazardous

B. solar and wind power are not promising for the future

C. most alternative energy sources have proven to be impractical

D. nuclear power solves one problem while creating others

Question 33. The passage suggests that .

A. people use energy without giving great thought to where it's coming from

B. modern society requires a minimum amount of energy to keep it running

C. the search for energy sources is mainly a problem for the future

D. scientists believe we will never have to go without our modern conveniences

Question 34. From the passage, it can be inferred that to solve our energy problems .

A. a combination of conservation and invention will be needed

B. we will have to stop using many of our modern conveniences

C. scientists will have to find ways to increase our supplies of coal, oil, and gas

D. scientists will have to find one major source of nonpolluting energy.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.

A number of factors related to the voice reveal the personality of the speaker.

The first is the broad area of communication, which includes imparting information by use of language, communicating with a group or an individual and specialized communication through performance. A person conveys thoughts and ideas through choice of words, by a tone of voice that is pleasant or unpleasant, gentle or harsh, by the rhythm that is inherent within the language itself, and by speech rhythms that are flowing and regular or uneven and hesitant, and finally, by the pitch and melody of the utterance. When speaking before a group, a person's tone may indicate uncertainty or fright, confidence or calm. At interpersonal levels, the tone may reflect ideas and feelings over and above the words chosen, or may believe them. Here, the participant's tone can consciously or unconsciously reflect intuitive sympathy or antipathy, lack of concern or interest, fatigue, anxiety, enthusiasm or excitement, all of which are usually discernible by the acute listener. Public performance is a manner of communication that is highly specialized with its own techniques for obtaining effects by voice and /or gesture. The motivation derived from the text, and in the case of singing, the music, in combination with the performer's skills, personality, and ability to create empathy will determine the success of artistic, political, or pedagogic communication.

Second, the voice gives psychological clues to a person's self-image, perception of others, and emotional health. Self-image can be indicated by a tone of voice that is confident, pretentious, shy, aggressive, outgoing, or exuberant, to name only a few personality traits. Also the sound may give a clue to the facade or mask of that person, for example, a shy person hiding behind an overconfident front.

How a speaker perceives the listener's receptiveness, interest, or sympathy in any given conversation can drastically alter the tone of presentation, by encouraging or discouraging the speaker. Emotional health is evidenced in the voice by free and melodic sounds of the happy, by constricted and harsh sound of the angry, and by dull and lethargic qualities of the depressed.

Question 35.What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. Communication styles.

B. The function of the voice in performance.

C. The production of speech.

D. The connection between voice and personality.

Question 36.According to the passage, an exuberant tone of voice may be an indication of a person's_____.

A. vocal quality 

B. general physical health

C. ability to communicate 

D. personality

Question 37.The word "evidenced" in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to .

A. indicated 

B. questioned 

C. exaggerated 

D. repeated

Question 38.The word "derived" in paragraph one is closest in meaning to .

A. obtained 

B. discussed 

C. registered 

D. prepared 

Question 39. Why does the author mention "artistic, political, or pedagogic communication" in paragraph 1?

A. To contrast them to singing

B. As examples of public performance

C. As examples of basic styles of communication

D. To introduce the idea of self-image

Question 40.According to the passage, an overconfident front may hide .

A. shyness 

B. strength 

C. hostility 

D. friendliness

Question 41.The word "that" in paragraph 2 refer to .

A. Self-image 

B. personality 

C. tone of voice 

D. psychological

Question 42. What does the author mean by staring that "At interpersonal levels, the tone may reflect ideas and feelings over and above the words chosen"?

A. Feelings are more difficult to express than ideas.

B. A high tone of voice reflects an emotional communication.

C. The tone of voice can carry information beyond the meaning of words.

D. Feelings are expressed with different words than ideas are.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43. Upon reaching the destination, a number of personnel is expected to change their reservations and proceed to Hawaii.

A B C D

Question 44. They asked us whether we thought that the statistics had presented fairly and accurately.

A B C D

Question 45. Ms Phuong hardly never misses an opportunity to play in the tennis tournaments.

A B C D

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in meaning to each of the following sentences.

Question 46. The more you talk about it, the worse you’ll feel.

A. Don’t talk about it or you won’t feel bad.

B. Unless you talk more about it, you’ll feel worse.

C. If you talk more about it, you’ll feel worse.

D. Talk more about it and you’ll feel much better.

Question 47. "Stop smoking or you'll be ill," the doctor told me.

A. The doctor advised me to give up smoking to avoid illness.

B. The doctor suggested smoking to treat illness.

C. I was warned against smoking a lot of cigarettes.

D. I was ordered not to smoke to recover from illness.

Question 48. I’m sure Luisa was very disappointed when she failed the exam

A. Luisa must be very disappointed when she failed the exam.

B. Luisa must have been very disappointed when she failed the exam.

C. Luisa may be very disappointed when she failed the exam.

D. Luisa could have been very disappointed when she failed the exam.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49. We didn't want to spend a lot of money. We stayed in a cheap hotel.

A. Rather than spending a lot of money, we stayed in a cheap hotel.

B. In spite of spending a lot of money, we stayed in a cheap hotel.

C. We didn't stay in a cheap hotel as we had a lot of money to spend.

D. We stayed in a cheap hotel, but we had to spend a lot of money.

Question 50. I left the office. There was a power cut just then.

A. I left the office after there was a power cut.

B. Hardly I had left the office when there was a power cut.

C. No sooner had I left the office than there was a power cut.

D. I left the office long before there was a power cut.

ĐÁP ÁN

1. C	2. B	3. B	4. D	5. C	6. D	7. D	8. B	9. A	10. D
11. B	12. B	13. A	14. A	15. B	16. A	17. A	18. D	19. C	20. B
21. C	22. A	23. A	24. C	25. D	26. B	27. D	28. C	29. B	30. A
31. C	32. D	33. A	34. A	35. D	36. D	37. A	38. A	39. C	40. A
41. B	42. C	43. B	44. C	45. C	46. C	47. A	48. B	49. A	50. C

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions

Question 1: 

A. looked 

B. helped 

C. increased 

D. closed

Question 2: 

A. March 

B. synchronized 

C. touching 

D. Punch

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks 3 - 7.

Why do people often get uptight and worried before meeting someone for the first time? It is often said that (3)______a good first impression is very important, and according to recent studies, it appears that there is something to it. In his book, Blink, author Malcolm Gladwell says that we form an opinion of someone in the first 2 seconds after meeting them. In other words, if Gladwell is right, most of us pass (4)______on people we meet almost immediately. It makes (5)______that we create a better first impression when we‟re friendly. A warm smile can really make a difference.

And then if we have interests (6)______common, the other person may feel they want to get t know us. However, when we meet someone from abroad who (7)______ a foreign language, there‟s no need we have to keep our distance from them. If we decided to take the trouble to communicate, we might make a new friend.

Question 3: 

A. passing 

B. doing 

C. having 

D. making

Question 4: 

A. prejudice 

B. doubt 

C. impression 

D. judgement

Question 5: 

A. sense 

B. logic 

C. friends 

D. interest

Question 6: 

A. in 

B. by 

C. to 

D. with

Question 7: 

A. says 

B. talks 

C. speaks 

D. asks

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions 8 - 15.

In the 1960s, The Beatles were probably the most famous pop group in the whole world. Since then, there have been a great many groups that have achieved enormous fame, so it is perhaps difficult now to imagine how sensational The Beatles were at that time. They were four boys from the north of England and none of them had any training in music. They started by performing and recording songs by black Americans and they had some success with these songs. Then they started writing their own songs and that was when they became really popular. The Beatles changed pop music. They were the first pop group to achieve great success from songs they had written themselves. After that it became common for groups and singers to write their own songs. The Beatles did not have a long career. Their first hit record was in 1963 and they split up in 1970. They stopped doing live performances in 1966 because it had become too dangerous for them – their fans were so excited that they surrounded them and tried to take their clothes as souvenirs! However, today some of their songs remain as famous as they were when they first came out. Throughout the world many people can sing part of a Beatles song if you ask them.

Question 8: The passage is mainly about

A. How the Beatles became more successful than other groups

B. Many people‟s ability to sing a Beatles song

C. The Beatles‟ fame and success

D. Why the Beatles split up after 7 years

Question 9: The four boys of the Beatles

A. Received good training in music 

B. Came from a town in the north of England

C. Came from the same family 

D. Were at the same age

Question 10: The word “sensational” is closest in meaning to

A. Notorious 

B. Shocking 

C. Bad 

D. Popular

Question 11: The first songs of the Beatles were……..

A. Paid a lot of money 

B. Written by black Americans

C. Broadcast on the radio 

D. Written by themselves

Question 12: What is not true about the Beatles?

A. They were afraid of being hurt by fans

B. They became famous when they wrote their own songs

C. The members had no training in music

D. They had a long stable career

Question 13: The Beatles stopped their live performances because

A. They were afraid of being hurt by fans.

B. They did not want to work with each other

C. They spent more time writing their own songs

D. They had earned enough money

Question 14: The word “they” is closest in meaning to

A. The Beatles 

B. the fans 

C. the performances 

D. the songs

Question 15: What word might describes the attitudes of the writer?

A. neutral 

B. sarcasm 

C. criticism 

D. admiration

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions 16 - 22.

Have you ever entered a tropical rainforest? It’s a special, dark place completely different from anywhere else. A rainforest is a place where the trees grow very tall. Millions of kinds of animals, insects, and plants live in the rainforest. It is hot and humid in a rainforest. It rains a lot in the rainforest, but sometimes you don't know it's raining. The trees grow so closely together that rain doesn't always reach the ground.

Rainforests make up only a small part of the Earth's surface, about six percent. They are found in tropical parts of the world. The largest rainforest in the world is the Amazon in South America. The Amazon covers 1.2 billion acres, or almost five million square kilometers. The second largest rainforest is in Western Africa. There are also rainforests in Central America, Southeast Asia, Northeastern Australia, and the Pacific Islands Rainforests provide us with many things. In fact, the Amazon Rainforest is called the "lungs of our planet" because it produces twenty percent of the world's oxygen. One fifth of the world's fresh water is also found in the Amazon Rainforest. Furthermore, one half of the world's species of animals, plants, and insects live in the Earth's rainforests. Eighty percent of the food we eat first grew in the rainforest. For example, pineapples, bananas, tomatoes, corn, potatoes, chocolate, coffee, and sugar all came from rainforests. Twenty-five percent of the drugs we take when we are sick are made of plants that grow only in rainforests. Some of these drugs are even used to fight and cure cancer. With all the good things we get from rainforests, it's surprising to find that we are destroying our rainforests. In fact, 1.5 acres, or 6,000 square meters, of rainforest disappear every second. The forests are being cut down to make fields for cows, to harvest the plants, and to clear land for farms. Along with losing countless valuable species, the destruction of rainforests creates many problems worldwide. Destruction of rainforests results in more pollution, less rain, and less oxygen for the world

Question 16: What is the passage mainly about?

A. Kinds of forests. 

B. Facts about rainforests

C. How much oxygen rainforests make. 

D. Where rainforest are located.

Question 17: According to the passage, rainforests provide human all of the following EXCEPT?

A. Drugs used to fight and cure cancer.

B. Oxygen

C. Lung problems.

D. Fresh water.

Question 18: Why is Amazon Rainforest called “Lungs of the planet”?

A. It provides much of our air. 

B. It helps circulation.

C. It uses much of the world’s oxygen. 

D. It helps us breathe.

Question 19: Where would you find the largest rainforest in the world?

A. Southeast Asia. 

B. in South America.

C. Western Africa. 

D. Northeastern Australia.

Question 20: The word “humid” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to______.

A. moist 

B. dehydrated 

C. cool 

D. dry

ĐÁP ÁN

1. D	2. B	3. D	4. D	5. A	6. A	7. C	8. C	9. D	10. D
11. C	12. D	13. A	14. B	15. D	16. B	17. C	18. A	19. B	20. A
21. A	22. B	23. B	24. D	25. A	26. B	27. A	28. B	29. A	30. A
31. D	32. C	33. C	34. C	35. A	36. C	37. B	38. C	39. C	40. A
41. A	42. C	43. A	44. C	45. B	46. C	47. B	48. D	49. D	50. C

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: 

A. watched 

B. laughed 

C. marked 

D. organized

Question 2: 

A. women 

B. men 

C. except 

D. intellectual

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3: 

A. education 

B. entertainment 

C. biology 

D. pessimistic

Question 4: 

A. social 

B. teacher 

C. spirit 

D. protect

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following questions.

Question 5: Daisy is playing in the room and breaks her mother’s flower vase by chance.

Daisy: - “Oh! I’m sorry for breaking your flower vase, Mum.”

Her mother: -“…………..”

A. Never mind. 

B. You don’t mind.

C. You’re welcome. 

D. That’s fine.

Question 6: Peter has just watched Tom’s performance in badminton.

- Peter: “I didn’t know you could play badminton so well, Tom.”

- Tom: “ ……………………. .”

A. Say it again. I like to hear your words.. 

B. Many thanks. That is a nice compliment.

C. You are telling a lie. 

D. I think so. I am proud of myself.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 7: Her health has improved dramatically since she met that doctor.

A. become quicker 

B. become better 

C. become slower 

D. become worse

Question 8: Don’t tell Jane anything about the surprise party for Jack. She has got a big mouth.

A. can’t eat a lot 

B. hates parties 

C. talks too much 

D. can keep secrets

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 9: School uniform is required in most of Vietnamese schools.

A. divided 

B. depended 

C. compulsory 

D. paid

Question 10: My daughter drops a hint to me that we have a party next weekend.

A. suggestion 

B. opposition 

C. calculation 

D. communication

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 11: After she………her performance, she invited the audience to ask questions. 

A. had finishes 

B. had finished 

C. finishing 

D. she will finish

Question 12: The song has…………….. been selected for the 22nd Sea Games, Vietnam.

A. officially 

B. official 

C. office 

D. officer

Question 13: The museum is open to everybody. It ……………. between 9a.m and 5p.m.

A. visits 

B. visited 

C. can visit 

D. can be visited

Question 14: Qualifications and .......... are two most important factors that help you get a good job.

A. politeness 

B. experience 

C. attention 

D. impression

Question 15: Quang Hai’s …….in the final match between Vietnam and Uzbekistan was voted the most beautiful goal on AFC’s website.

A. corner kick 

B. free kick 

C. penalty 

D. goal kick

Question 16: Mary’s encouraging words gave me …….to undertake the demanding task once again.

A. an incentive 

B. a resolution 

C. a point 

D. a target

Question 17: Deforestation……………devastative floods in many parts of the world.

A. starts out 

B. makes up 

C. brings up 

D. results in

Question 18: Air pollution is getting …………..serious in big cities in the world.

A. more and more 

B. the more and the more

C. the most and the most 

D. most and most

Question 19: It………….Susan that you saw last night. She’s abroad with her family.

A. should have been 

B. might have been

C. can’t have been 

D. needn’t have been

Question 20: She asked me ........... my holidays ...........

A. where I spent / the previous year 

B. where I had spent / the previous year

C. where I spent / last year 

D. where did I spend / last year

ĐÁP ÁN

1. D	2. A	3. C	4. D	5. A	6. B	7. D	8. D	9. C	10. A
11. B	12. A	13. D	14. B	15. B	16. A	17. D	18. A	19. C	20. B
21. C	22. D	23. A	24. C	25. D	26. A	27. B	28. A	29. B	30. C
31. C	32. C	33. C	34. D	35. C	36. B	37. B	38. B	39. A	40. B
41. D	42. A	43. A	44. A	45. D	46. C	47. D	48. D	49. B	50. C

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 1.

A. ingredient 

B.era 

C. delete 

D. relief

Question 2.

A. gauche 

B. Achilles 

C. epoch 

D. ache

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 3. 

A. perversity 

B.penetrative 

C. inhabitant 

D. democracy

Question 4.

A. compulsory

B.mountaineer 

C. injurious 

D. accessible

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of thefollowing questions.

Question 5.I’m in favor of his plan. It sounds __________ to me.

A. perfect 

B. perfectly 

C. perfected 

D. perfection

Question 6.In a child, curiosity normally suggests intelligence and is welcomed; but an _____________ adult is best avoided.

A. indulgent 

B.inquisitive 

C. indecisive 

D. indefinite

Question 7.The newly wed ________ spent their honeymoon in Hawaii.

A. pair 

B. two 

C. double 

D. couple

Question 8.I __________ at my watch. It was already well after three.

A. checked 

B.glanced 

C. viewed 

D. faced

Question 9.The man talking to Professor Evers has just been elected to become _____________ MP (Member of Parliament).

A. an 

B. the 

C. 0 

D. a

Question 10.It is not always easy to _____________ a good decision at the last minute.

A. take 

B. make 

C. have 

D. do

Question 11.The more we learn, _____________.

A. we become wise 

B. we become wiser 

C. the wiser we become 

D. wiser we become

Question 12.At 6.00 pm, ___________ was an hour before the plane was due, thick fog descended.

A. when 

B. which 

C. who 

D. that

Question 13.Remember to ______________ your shoes when you are in a Japanese house.

A. take off 

B. put on 

C. turn off 

D. give up

Question 14.This is the photo of my great great grandfather. He ____________ married six times.

A. has been 

B. is 

C. is getting 

D. was

Question 15.She is a _________ girl with _____________.

A. green-eyes/red hair 

B. green-eyed/red hairs 

C. green-eye/a red hair 

D. green-eyed/red hair

Question 16.The Prime Minister ____________ the Parliament, but he did.

A. had better not to dissolve 

B. must have not dissolved giải tán

C. should not have dissolved 

D. need not to dissolve

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined wordfs) in each of the following questions.

Question 17.The incidence of the illness differs greatly between men and women.

A. alters 

B.resembles 

C. contrasts 

D. varies

Question 18.After the accident, the safety inspector threw the book at the company directors.

A. criticized 

B.extolled 

C. punished severely 

D. blamed the fault of

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined wordfs) in each of the following questions.

Question 19.They live in a rather scruffy part of town.

A. small and poor 

B. busy and noisy 

C. untidy and dirty 

D. elite and wealthy

Question 20.That DJ's voice really sets my teeth on edge.

A. exhausts me 

B. excites me 

C. amuses me 

D. annoys me

ĐÁP ÁN

1. B	2. A	3. B	4. B	5. A	6. B	7. D	8. B	9. A	10. B
11. C	12. B	13. A	14. D	15. D	16. C	17. B	18. B	19. C	20. B
21. C	22. C	23. D	24. C	25. A	26. D	27. B	28. C	29. B	30. D
31. D	32. C	33. D	34. B	35. B	36. C	37. D	38. B	39. B	40. A
41. C	42. A	43. D	44. D	45. C	46. C	47. C	48. A	49. B	50. A

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. 

A. hoped 

B. decided 

C. dressed 

D. looked

Question 2. 

A.cooks 

B.loves 

C. joins 

D. spends

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. 

A. maintain 

B. believe 

C. attract 

D. promise

Question 4. 

A. situation 

B. entertainment 

C. certificate 

D.education

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5. Universities send letters of ______ to successful candidates by post.

A. accept 

B. acceptably 

C. acceptance 

D. acceptable

Question 6. I kept them in the ___________

A. black metal small box 

B. small black metal box

C. small metal black box. 

D. metal black small box

Question 7. A university is an -institution of higher education and research, which grants _______ degrees at all levels in a variety of subjects.

A. secondary 

B. optional 

C. academic 

D. vocational

Question 8. Dad is always willing to __________ a hand with cleaning a house.

A. take 

B. give 

C. have 

D. shake

Question 9. _______ is a sport in which people or teams race against each other in boats with oars.

A. Rowing 

B. Windsurfing 

C. Swimming 

D. Water polo

Question 10. He is the man _______ car was stolen last week.

A. whom 

B. that 

C. which 

D. whose

Question 11. Clearing forests for timber has resulted _______ the loss of biodiversity.

A. with 

B. at 

C.in 

D. for

Question 12.Lots of houses _______ by the earthquake last week.

A. are destroyed 

B. have been destroyed 

C.had been destroyed 

D. were destroyed

Question 13.The boy ___________ next to me is my son.

A. Who sit 

B. sitting 

C. sat 

D. is sitting

Question 14. _______ you study for these exams, _______ you will do.

A. The harder / the better 

B. The more / the much

C. The hardest / the best 

D. The more hard / the more good

Question 15. Two tablets ________ twice a day to have you recover from the illness quickly.

A. must take 

B. must be taken 

C. must have taken 

D. must be taking

Question 16. I don't think Peter will come with us, _______?

A. do I

B. will he

C. don't I

D. won't he

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 17. Two friends Laura and Maria are talking about Maria's house.

Laura: "What a lovely house you have!" Maria: " ___________".

A. Thank you. Hope you will drop in 

B. Of course not, it's not costly

C. I think so 

D. No problem

Question 18. "Would you like to have coffee, lemonade, or something different?"

Cathy: "_______________" .

A. I'm afraid not. 

B. Yes, please. 

C. Anything will do. 

D. Never mind.

ĐÁP ÁN

1. B	2. A	3. D	4. C	5. C	6. B	7. C	8. B	9. A	10. D
11. C	12. D	13. B	14. A	15. C	16. D	17. A	18. C	19. D	20. A
21. B	22. D	23. B	24. C	25. C	26. B	27. C	28. D	29. B	30. B
31. C	32. A	33. B	34. B	35. A	36. D	37. A	38. A	39. A	40. B
41. D	42. D	43. C	44. D	45. A	46. D	47. A	48. D	49. D	50. A

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