Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG môn Tiếng Anh năm 2021-2022 có đáp án Trường THPT Hoằng Hóa 4

TRƯỜNG THPT HOẰNG HÓA 4

ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM HỌC 2021-2022 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH (Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút)

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.  

Question 1: Henry was a studious student. He needed no ________ to work hard.

A. Encouraging B. encourage C. encouraged D. encouragement

Question 2: She ________ be ill. I have just seen her playing basketball in the school yard.

A. shouldn't B. needn't C. can't D. mustn't

Question 3: The company is believed ________ a lot of money last year. 

A. lost B. to lose C. to be losing D. to have lost

Question 4: John regrets ________ to his mother's advice. She was right. 

A. not to listen B. not listen C. not listening D. to not listen

Question 5: After the robbery of the bank, the police ________ of the robbers and arrested the whole band. 

A. kept track B. made use C. took notice D. kept pace

Question 6: ________ her pain was severe, she tried to walk to the auditorium to attend the lecture.

A. Despite B. because of C. Although D. Because

Question 7: They haven't finished their homework, ________? 

A. don't they B. haven't they C. do they D. have they

Question 8: ________ to wake him up, I turned off the radio. 

A. Not wanting B. Wanting C. To want D. Because I don't want

Question 9: The company was so successful during the 1990s that it ________ 500 new employees in a period of six months. 

A. put on B. laid on C. took on D. caught on

Question 10: If she had known how awful this job was going to be, she ________ it.

A. wouldn't have accepted.

B. would accept 

C. wouldn't accept

D. would have accepted 

Question 11: I ________ a terrible accident while I ________ on the beach. 

A. was seeing / walked

B. see I am walking 

C. Saw / was walking

D. have seen/were walking 

Question 12: Sarah bought ________ in Chinese Town. 

A. an Indian beautiful old lamp

B. an old beautiful Indian lamp 

C. beautiful old Indian lamp

D. a beautiful Indian old lamp

Question 13: Don't ________ to conclusions, we don't yet know all the relevent facts.

A. rush B. jump C. hurry D. run

Question 14: I didn't suspect anything at first, but when I noticed her going through the office drawers  began to smell ________.

A. a culprit B. a rat C. a pig D. a thief

Question 15: WHO is working with technical partners to understand the potential impact ________ the Omicron variant on our existing countermeasures, including vaccines. 

A. in B. on C. of D. for 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that correction is each of the following questions.  

Question 16: He bought a lot of books, none of them he has ever read.  

A. bought B. has ever read C. them D. none of

Question 17: The council wants to develop more housing outside town, but that is scared land, according to an aborigine at the town meeting. 

A. housing B. scared C. aborigine D. the council 

Question 18: Fifteen minutes are the maximum length of time allotted for the exam

A. allotted B. maximum C. are D. length 

Mark the letter A, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the  underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 

Question 19: I am gripped with a fever whenever a new year is coming.  

A. have got a temperature B. am excited  

C. feel disappointed D. get upset 

Question 20: The dim lights made it hard to see, so Ben squinted to make out the stranger's face in the  distance.  

A. faint B. severe C. muted D. strong 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs  from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. 

Question 21: A. types B. wants C. knocks D. changes

Question 22: A. threat B. thief C. though D. think 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three  in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. 

Question 23: A. reform B. protect C. private D. regard

Question 24. A. encounter B. determine C. continue D. comprehend 

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is OPPOSITE in  meaning to each of the following questions. 

Question 25: She was brought up in a well-off family. She can't understand the problems we are facing. 

A. wealthy B. fine C. poor D. kind 

Question 26: The minister came under fire for his rash decision to close the factory.

A. was dismissed B. was acclaimed C. was criticized D. was penalized

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges. 

Question 27: Thomas and Peter are meeting after a long time. 

Thomas: “How have you been recently?” 

Peter: “________.” 

A. Pretty busy, I think.

B. By car, usually 

C. I am going on holiday next week.

D. I am working here. 

Question 28: Maria and Alex are talking about the environment. 

Maria: “Our environment is getting more and more polluted. Do you think so?” 

Alex: “________. It's really worrying.” 

A. I don't agree

B. I don't think so 

C. I'll think about that

D. I can't agree more 

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each the numbered blanks.  

In some sense, the way we manage our social connections on Facebook is no different from how we  build relationships offline. The need for (29) ______ is one of the most basic motivations underlying  social behavior. We use Facebook to maintain a positive social identity and satisfy needs for acceptance  and social affiliation. 

One study, conducted by researchers in New Zealand, looked into how people weaved Facebook into  their daily lives. They were primarily interested in the social dimensions of Facebook, (30) ______ they  divided into two categories: direct and indirect actions. 

Direct actions include messaging, chat, wall posts, comments, photo tagging, and "likes." Indirect  actions are those where an individual looks at a friend's profile or reads that person's status updates. Mos  Facebook users initiate a combination of direct and indirect actions when they use the website. Some do  this quite (31) ______ with nearly a third of users (31%) posting daily status updates.  

The social benefits of using Facebook to communicate with friends and build relationships are mixed  Researchers at Carnegie Mellon University and Facebook analyzed the server logs of more than a  thousand Facebook users over a period of two months, and conducted a survey to ask users about how  close they feel to their friends, and the frequency with which they make new social connections. They  found that Facebook users who engaged (32) ______ greater direct actions (messaging, commenting)  reported greater bridging (making new friends), social bonding, and self-esteem. (33) ______, users who  had a record of more indirect actions and passive consumption (refreshing the news feed, reading friends'  status updates and Viewing their profiles) reported more frequent feelings of loneliness and lower self esteem.  

(Adapted from http://www.psychologytoday.com)

Question 29: A. link	B. connect	C. Association	D. connectedness
Question 30: A. that	B. who	C. where	D. which
Question 31: A. frequently	B. frequency	C. infrequently	D. infrequent
Question 32: A. out	B. in	C. on	D. off
Question 33: A. Otherwise	B. In contrast	C. Therefore	D. In addition

Read the following passage and mark the letter A B C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct  answer to each of the questions 

People have been donating blood since the early twentieth century to help accident victims and  patients undergoing surgical procedures. Usually a pint of whole blood is donated, and it is then divided  into platelets, white blood cells, and red blood cells. People can donate blood (for red blood cells) every  two months.  

Transfusing the blood from the donor to the recipient is straightforward. It involves taking the blood  from a donor's arm vein by means of a hypodermic syringe. The blood flows through a plastic tube to a  collection bag or bottle that contains sodium citrate, which prevents the blood from clotting. 

When the blood is given t a patient, a plastic tube and hypodermic needle are connected to the  recipient's arm. The blood flows down from the container by gravity. This is a slow process and may last  as long as 2 hours to complete the infusion of blood into the recipient. The patient is protected from being  infected during the transfusion. Only sterile containers, tubing and needles are used, and this helps ensure  that transfused or stored blood is not exposed to disease- causing bacteria. 

Negative reactions to transfusions are not unusual. The recipient may suffer an allergic reaction or be  sensitive to donor leukocytes. Some may suffer from an undetected red-cell incompatibility.  Unexplained reactions are also fairly common. Although they are rare, other causes of such negative  reactions include contaminated blood, air bubbles in the blood, overloading of the circulatory system  through administration. of excess blood, or sensitivity to donor plasma or platelets. 

Today, hospitals and blood banks go to great lengths to screen all blood donors and their blood. All  donated blood is routinely and rigorously tested for diseases, such as RIV (which causes AIDS), hepatitis  B, and syphilis. When the recipient is a new born or an infant, the blood is usually irradiated to eliminate  harmful elements. Donated blood is washed, and the white blood cells and platelets are removed. Storing  the blood sometimes requires a freezing process. To freeze the red blood cells, a glycerol solution is  added. To unfreeze, the glycerol is removed. The ability to store blood for long periods has been a boon  to human health. 

(Adapted from Peterson's Master TOEFL, Reading skill)

Question 34: The word "it" in paragraph 1 refers to __________

A. a pint of whole blood 

B. surgical procedures 

C. surgery patients. 

D. accident victims 

Question 35: All of the following are mentioned as potential negative reactions to transfusion EXCEPT _________

A. allergies

B. air bubbles in the blood 

C. sensitivity to donor leukocytes

D. red-cell incompatibility 

Question 36: The word "undetected" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to __________

A. not found 

B. not illustrated 

C. not wanted 

D. not captured

Question 37: Based on the information in the passage, what can be inferred about blood transfused to  infants and newborns? 

A. It is treated with radiant energy 

B. It is as rigorously tested as blood for adults. 

C. It is not dangerous for children  

D. It is not treated differently from adults 

Question 38: What does the author imply in the passage?  

A. Clotting can not be prevented. 

B. Storing blood benefits mankind. 

C. Transfusing blood is a dangerous process.  

D. Freezing blood destroys platelets. 

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.  

A useful definition of an air pollutant is a compound added directly or indirectly by humans to the  atmosphere in such quantities as to affect humans, animals vegetations, or materials adversely. Air  pollution requires a very flexible definition that permits continuous change. When the first air pollution  laws were established in England in the fourteenth century, air pollutants were limited to compounds that  could be seen or smelled-a far cry from the extensive list of harmful substances known today. As  technology has developed and knowledge of the health aspects of various chemicals has increased, the list  of air pollutants has lengthened. In the future, even water vapor might be considered an air pollutant  under certain conditions. 

Many of the more important air pollutants, such as sulfur oxides, carbon monoxide, and nitrogen  oxides, are found in nature. As the Earth developed, the concentrations of these pollutants were altered by  various chemical reactions, they became components in biogeochemical cycle. These serve as an ai  purifiation scheme by allowing the compounds to move from the air to the water or soil on a global basis  nature's output of these compounds dwarfs that resulting from human activities. 

However, human production usually occurs in a localized area, such as a city. In this localized regions  human output may be dominant and may temporarily overload the natural purifiation scheme of the cycle  The result is an increased concentration of 20% noxious chemicals in the air. The concentrations at which  the adverse effects appear will be greater than the concentrations that the pollutants would have in the  absence of human activities. The actual concentration need not be large for a substance to be a pollutant  in fact the numerical value tells us little until we know how much of an increase this represents over the  concentration that would occur naturally in the area. For example, sulfur dioxide has detectable health  effects at 0.08 parts per million (ppm) which is about 400 times its natural level. Carbon monoxide, however, has a natural level of 0. ppm and is not usually a pollutant until its level reaches about 15 ppm. 

(Adapted from http://www.livescience.com)

Question 39: What does the passage mainly discuss? 

A. The effects of compounds added to the atmosphere  

B. The economic impact of air pollution 

C. How much harm air pollutants can cause  

D. What constitutes an air pollutant 

Question 40: The word "adversely" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to

A. admittedly B. quickly C. considerably D. negatively

Question 41: It can be inferred from the first paragraph that 

A. water vapor is an air pollutant in localized areas. 

B. a substance becomes an air pollutant only in cities.  

C. most air pollutants today can be seen or smelled. 

D. the definition of air pollution will continue to change. 

Question 42: Natural pollutant can play an important role in ling air pollution for which of the following reasons?  

A. They function as part of a purification process. 

B. They have existed since the Earth developed 

C. They occur in greater quantities than other pollutants. 

D. They are less harmful to living beings than are other pollutants. 

Question 43: According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE about human - generated air pollution in localized regions? 

A. It can overwhelm the natural system that remove 

B. It will damage areas outside of the localized regions. 

C. It will react harmfully with naturally occurring pollutants.  

D. It can be dwarfed by nature's output of pollutants in the localized region. 

Question 44: The word "noxious" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to 

A. extensive B. noticeable C. weak D. harmful

Question 45: Which of the following is best supported by the passage? 

A. Human activities have been effective in reducing air pollution. 

B. One of the most important steps in preserving natural lands is to better enforce air pollution laws.

C. To effectively control pollution local government should regularly review their air pollution laws.

D. Scientists should be consulted in order to establish uniform limits for all air pollutants. 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. 

Question 46: That car is beyond my means. 

A. That car is cheap enough for me to buy. 

B. I really do not like that car. 

C. I am intersted in that car. 

D. That car is too expensive for me to buy. 

Question 47: "Don't forget to submit your assignments by Thursday," said the teacher to the students. 

A. The teacher ordered the students to submit their assignments by Thursday. 

B. The teacher reminded the students submit their assignments by Thursday. 

C. The teacher encouraged the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.

D. The teacher allowed the students to submit their assignments by Thursday. 

Question 48: My boss works better when he's pressed for time. 

A. The less time my boss has, he work better. 

B. The more time my boss has, the better he works. 

C. The less time my boss has, the better he works.  

D. The more time my boss has, the less he works. 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. 

Question 49: She was the first woman in the Philippines. She was elected as the president of the country. A. She was the first woman being elected as the president of the Philippines. 

B. She was the first woman to be elected as the president of the Philippines. 

C. She was the first woman who is elected as the president of the Philippines.  

D. She was the first woman to elect as the president of the Philippines 

Question 50: Arthur entered the store. Then, he realized that there was danger  

A. Only when he entered the store then he realized that there was danger. 

B. Only after entering the store did Arthur realize that there was danger. 

C. It was not until Arthur entered the store then, he realized that there was danger. 

D. Not until Arthur entered the store, he realized that there was danger.

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 1

1D 2C 3D 4C 5A 6C 7D 8A 9C 10A 11C 12C 13B 14B 15C 16C 17C 18C 19B 20D 21D 22C 23C 24D 25C 26B 27A 28D 29D 30D 31A 32B 33B 34A 35B 36A 37A 38B 39D 40D 41D 42A 43A 44D 45C 46D 47B 48C 49B 50B

ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QG MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT HOẰNG HÓA 4- ĐỀ 02

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 

Question 1: She failed the University entrance exam _______ her grades were bad. 

A. although B. if C. when D. because

Question 2: Each form of mass media has had an important _______ on society.

A. affection B. pressure C. impact D. role

Question 3: Students use the library's computers to get access _______ the Internet.

A. to B. for C. with D. on

Question 4: It's important that the government _______ more investment in rural areas.

A. encourage B. encouraged C. encouraging D. to encourage 

Question 5: I _______ to the stadium yesterday afternoon to watch the football match between Song Lam  Nghe An and Nam Dinh 

A. go B. went C. was going D. had gone

Question 6: Martin _______ three days doing research on social media before his teacher changed the  topic  

A. spent B. has spent C. had spent D. was spending

Question 7: The pie chart shows the preferred forms of communication recorded _______ in Intel  Secondary School in August 2014. 

A. searched for B. carried out C. approved of D. turned out

Question 8: You can't actually get a lot of _______ from a news report on radio or TV.

A. inform B. informed C. informative D. information

Question 9: If you attend this event, you can meet many people _______ are very talented and polite.

A. whom B. whose C. which D. who

Question 10: Local authorities should find ways to limit the use of private cars and encourage city  _______ to use public transport 

A. planners B. people C. dwellers D. commuters

Question 11: I went to hospital yesterday because I had _______ terrible headache.

A. the B. a C. an D. x

Question 12: Frank requested complete silence while he _______ music. 

A. composes B. composed C. was composing D. had composed 

Question 13: Some foods taste good, _______ they do not have many nutrients. composed

A. but B. and C. or D. for 

Question 14: I remember she wore a _______ dress to go out with her boyfriend last week.

A. cotton white Vietnamese

B. Vietnamese white cotton

C. white Vietnamese cotton

D. white cotton Vietnamese

Question 15: The continued _______ of our ozone may cause terrible destruction to our planet. 

A. conservation B. change C. environment D. depletion 

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the  correct answer to each of the questions. 

The movement of people towards cities has accelerated in the past 40 years, particularly in the less  developed regions, and the share of the global population living in urban areas has increased from one  third in 1960 to 47% (2.8 billion people) in 1999. The world's urban population is now growing by 60  million persons per year, about three times the increase in the rural population. 

Increasing urbanisation results about equally from births in urban areas and from the continued  movement of people from the rural surround. These forces are also feeding the sprawl of urban areas as  formerly rural peri-urban settlements become incorporated into nearby cities and as secondary cities,  linked by commerce to larger urban centres. grow larger. 

The proportion of people in developing countries who live in cities has almost doubled since 1960  (from less than 22% to more than 40%), while in more-developed regions the urban share has grown from  61% to 76%. There is a significant association between this population movement from rural to urban  areas and declines in average family size. 

Asia and Africa remain the least urbanised of the developing regions (less than 38% each). Latin  America and the Caribbean is more than 75% urban, a level almost equal to those in Europe, Northern  America and Japan (all are between 75 and 79%). 

Urbanisation is projected to continue well into next century. By it is expected nearly 5 billion (61%) of  the world's 8.1 billion people will live in cities. The less-developed regions will be more than 57% urban.  Latin America and the Caribbean will actually have a greater percentage of inhabitants living in cities  than Europe will. 

Globally, the number of cities with 10 million or more inhabitants is increasing rapidly, and most of  these new 'megacities' are in the less-developed regions. In 1960, only New York and Tokyo had more  than 10 million people. By 1999, there were 17 cities of more than 10 million people around the world, 13  of these were less-developed regions. It is projected that there will be 26 megacities by 2015, 22 in less 

developed regions (18 will be in Asia); more than 10% of the world's population will live in these cities,  up from just 1.7% in megacities in 1950. 

(http://www.unesco.org/education/tlsfl/mods/theme_popups/mod/3101009.html) 

Question 16: How many cities in less developed regions had more than 10 million inhabitants in 1999? 

A. 17 B. 10 C. 18 D. 13

Question 17: What could be the best title of the passage? 

A. Urbanisation in Asia.

B. Problems in urbanised areas.

C. Global trends towards urbanisation.

D. Births in urban areas. 

Question 18: Which is NOT true about the projection of urbanisation by 2030? 

A. More than 57% of the population in less developed countries will live in cities. 

B. Europe will have more inhabitants living in cities than the Caribbean 

C. Nearly 5 billion of the world population will live in cities.

D. Latin America will have more urban inhabitants than Europe. 

Question 19: What percentage of the world population living in urban areas in 1960? 

A. About 33% B. 47% C. 60%. D. 38%

Question 20: The word "declines" in paragraph 3 most closely means 

A. gaps B. expansions C. moves. D. decreases

Question 21: What does the "who" in paragraph 3 refer to? 

A. countries B. people C. cities D. settlements

Question 22: As in paragraph 4, what is the percentage of urbanisation in Latin America and the  Caribbean? 

A. more than 75% B. more than 79% C. less than 57% D. less than 38% 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction  in each of the following questions. 

Question 23: Despite its frightened appearance, the octopus is shy and completely harmless.

A. Despite B. the C. completely D. frightened

Question 24: Children love playing in the mud, running through paddles, and get very dirty. 

A. get B. in C. running D. dirty 

Question 25: The crime rate in this city has increased from ten per cent last year to thirty per cent by the  end of 2009 due to the influx of the gang element.  

A. to B. due to C. has increased D. the influx 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the  underlined word in each of the following questions. 

Question 26: She thinks that they may not understand the benefits of online information. 

A. points B. features C. advantages D. amounts

Question 27: The air has become more and more polluted because of exhaust fumes from vehicles.

A. wasted B. conserved C. contaminated D. preserved 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to  each of the following questions. 

Question 28: Young people from rural areas need to be told the truth about city life.

A. Young people from rural areas must not be told the truth about city life.  

B. It is worth telling young people from rural areas about the truth of city life. 

C. There is no need to talk about the city life before young people go to the city. 

D. It is essential that young people from rural areas be told the truth about city life.

Question 29: The last time when I saw her was three years ago. 

A. I have seen her for the last three years. 

B. About three years ago, I used to meet her.  

C. I have not seen her for three years. 

D. I saw her three years ago and will never meet her again. 

Question 30: He was very tired, but he agreed to help me with my homework. 

A. Despite being very tired, but he agreed to help me with my homework. 

B. Tired though he was, he didn't agree to help me with my homework.  

C. As tired as was he, he agreed to help me with my homework. 

D. Although he was very tired, he agreed to help me with my homework. 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 

Question 31: They are going to have to amputate his left leg which was badly injured in the accident. 

A. remove B. mend C. separate D. cut off

Question 32: Her only problem is the limited experience because she is too young.

A. narrow B. insufficient C. restricted D. considerable 

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the  correct answer to each of the questions.  

At the end of 2019, a new type of coronavirus started spreading China. This type of coronavirus is  often called 2019-nCov, novel coronavirus, or COVID-19. It is believed that the virus was transmitted  from animals to humans. Some of the first cases were diagnosed in people who had visited a market  selling live seafood and animals. Unfortunately, when viruses are transmitted from animals to people, it  can take scientists a lot of time before they can develop a vaccine or medicines to cure it.  

Some of the symptoms of the coronavirus are fever, cough, runny nose, sore throat, headache, and  trouble breathing. These symptoms are very much like those people have with a cold or the flu. The virus  appears to spread mainly from person to person. The transmission occurs when someone comes into  contact with an infected person. For example, a cough, sneeze or handshake could cause transmission.  The spread may also be caused by coming into contact with something an infected person has touched  and then touching your mouth, nose or eyes. 

There is no specific vaccine or medication to cure the disease, but generally, symptoms will go away  on their own. However, experts recommend seeking medical care early if symptoms feel worse than a  standard cold. Doctors can relieve symptoms by prescribing pain or fever medication. As far as antibiotics  are concerned, they are useless to treat coronavirus. 

(Adapted from MyEnglishpage.com) 

Question 33: Which is NOT mentioned in paragraph 2 as a symptom of the coronavirus?

A. fever B. sore throat C. trouble breathing D. allergic

Question 34: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to  

A. doctors B. antibiotics. C. symptoms D. experts

Question 35: Coronavirus first appeared in _______. 

A. Thailand B. Vietnam C. China D. Malaysia

Question 36: The word “Unfortunately” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.

A. Unluckily B. Unwillingly C. Uncomfortably D. Unacceptably

Question 37: According to paragraph 2, the coronavirus can be transmitted from person to person when  _______.

A. a person shakes hands with someone when meeting each other. 

B. a person coughs or sneezes without covering when talking to others. 

C. someone comes into contact with something an infected person has touched. 

D. doctors can find a vaccine or medicines to cure it 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each  pair of sentences in the following questions. 

Question 38: He behaved in a very strange way. That surprised me a lot. 

A. He behaved in a very strange way, that surprised me a lot.  

B. His behavior was a very strange thing, that surprised me most. 

C. He behaved very strangely, which surprised me a lot. 

D. I was almost not surprised by his strange behavior.  

Question 39: We had a good goalkeeper. We didn't lose the final match. 

A. We had a good goalkeeper, so we lost the final match. 

B. We didn't lose the final match unless we had a good goalkeeper.  

C. If we hadn't had a good goalkeeper, we would have lost the final match. 

D. We lost the match even if we had a good goalkeeper. 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs  from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.  

Question 40: A. ancient B. stranger C. nature D. transfer

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ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 2

1D 2C 3A 4A 5B 6C 7B 8D 9D 10C 11B 12C 13A 14C 15D 16D 17C 18B 19A 20D 21B 22A 23D 24A 25C 26C 27C 28D 29C 30D 31B 32D 33D 34B 35C 36A 37C 38C 39C 40D 41C 42A 43A 44D 45A 46A 47B 48D 49A 50C

ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QG MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT HOẰNG HÓA 4- ĐỀ 03

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three  in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.  

Question 1: A. chemistry B. cinema C. festival D. decision

Question 2: A. access B. visit C. confide D. argue 

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentences that is closest in meaning  to the sentence given in each of the following questions.  

Question 3: People think that traffic congestion in the downtown area is due to the increasing number of  private cars. 

A. The increasing number of private cars is attributed to traffic congestion in the downtown area.

B. Traffic congestion in the downtown area is blamed for the increasing number of private cars.

C. Traffic congestion in the downtown area is thought to result in the increasing number of private  cars.  

D. The increasing number of private cars is thought to be responsible for traffic congestion in the  downtown 

Question 4: "Would you like to have dinner with me?", Miss Hoa said to me 

A. Miss Hoa suggested me if I would like to have dinner with her or not. 

B. Miss Hoa asked me if would I like to have dinner with her? 

C. Miss Hoa told me to like to have dinner with her or not. 

D. Miss Hoa invited me to have dinner with her. 

Question 5: My eldest sister started working as a freelance journalist as soon as she graduated from  university. 

A. Hardly had my eldest sister started working as a freelance journalist when she graduated from  university. 

B. No sooner had my eldest sister started working as a freelance journalist than she graduated from  university. 

C. After my eldest sister graduated from university, she had started working as a freelance journalist.

D. No sooner had my eldest sister graduated from university than she started working as a freelance  journalist. 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction  in each of the following questions. 

Question 6: She borrows a lot of English books from the school library last week.

A. of B. from C. borrows D. library

Question 7: One of the most influence newspapers in the US is the New York Times, which is widely  distributed throughout the world. 

A. influence. B. throughout the world C. is D. which

Question 8: After my father got a well-paid job at an international company, we moved to a highly  respectful neighbourhood. 

A. moved B. respectful C. international D. well-paid

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to  the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 

Question 9: English is a compulsory subject in our education, which means every student has to study  the subject. 

A. optional B. difficult. C. unnecessary D. easy

Question 10: These days, many people only read printed newspapers once in a while as they tend to  access information online. 

A. rarely B. seldom C. regularly D. occasionally 

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the  following questions. 

Question 11: _______ people's awareness is very important to save endangered species.

A. Gaining B. Receiving C. Doing D. Raising

Question 12: Everybody is tired of watching the same commercials on TV every night, _____?

A. haven't they B. are they C. don’t they D. aren’t they

Question 13: In case of emergency, you have to act very ________. 

A. decisive B. decision C. decide D. decisively

Question 14: They are searching _______ the cause of the leak. 

A. at B. for C. out D. with

Question 15: After several injuries and failures, things have eventually _______ reached the final round  of the tournament. 

A. looked up B. turned on C. gone on D. taken up

Question 16: When Tom called yesterday, I _______ the washing-up in the kitchen.

A. was doing B. did C. have done D. am doing

Question 17: He wrote in his letter that he would _______ some documents but I couldn't find anything  in the envelope. 

A. enclose B. encounter C. endure D. enforce

Question 18: All the students ______ part in the final exam must be at school on Sunday.

A. to take B. taken C. who takes D. taking

Question 19: We should use bicycles instead of cars ______ this will help to reduce exhaust fumes and  pollution. 

A. because of B. although C. because D. despite

Question 20: Her ant gave her a ______ handbag on her birthday last week. 

A. red Korean beautiful.

B. beautiful Korean red. 

C. beautiful red Korean.

D. Korean red beautiful. 

Question 21: The water in this river is seriously polluted, ______ places some species of native fish in  danger of extinction 

A. which B. what C. who D. that

Question 22: ______ about the bad effects of chemical fertilizers, the farmers started using them  sparingly on their farm. 

A. Having been informed. B. Informing. 

C. Having informed. D. To inform. 

Question 23: _______, she had studied English. 

A. After she came to England.

B. By the time she comes to England.

C. Before she came to England.

D. While she was in England.

Question 24: I can't believe that my expensive bicycle ______ last night. 

A. has stolen B. stole. C. was stolen D. is stolen

Question 25: He always takes full _______ of the mistake made by these competitors.

A. advice B. profit C. advantage D. benefit 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each  pair of sentences in the following questions. 

Question 26: We had a good goalkeeper. We didn't lose the final match. 

A. Without a good goalkeeper, we wouldn't have lost the final match. 

B. We didn't lose the final match even though we had a good goalkeeper. 

C. But for a gold keeper, we wouldn't have lost the final match. 

D. If it hadn't been for the good goalkeeper, we would have lost the final match. 

Question 27: Julian dropped out of college after his first year. Now he regrets it.

A. Only if Julian had dropped out of college after his first year. 

B. Julian regretted having dropped out of college after his first year. 

C. Julian regrets having dropped out of college after his first year. 

D. Julian wishes he didn't drop out of college after his first year. 

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the  correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 32. 

Body language is a vital form of communication. In fact, it is believed that the various forms of body  language contribute about 70 percent to our comprehension. It is important to note, however, that body  language varies in different cultures. Take for example, eye movement. In the USA a child is expected to  look directly at a parent or teacher who is scolding him/her. In other cultures the opposite is true. Looking  directly at a teacher or parent in such a situation is considered a sign of disrespect. 

Another form of body language that is used differently, depending on the culture, is distance. In North  America people don't generally stand as close to each other as in South America. Two North Americans  who don't know each other well will keep a distance of four feet between them, whereas South Americans 

in the same situation will stand two to three feet apart. North Americans will stand closer than two feet  apart only if they are having a confidential conversation or if there is intimacy between them. Gestures are often used to communicate. We point a finger, raise an eyebrow, wave an arm - or move  any other part of the body - to show what we want to say. However, this does not mean that people all  over the world use the same gestures to express the same meanings. Very often we find that the same  gestures can communicate different meanings, depending on the country. An example of a gesture that  could be misinterpreted is sticking out the tongue. In many cultures it is a sign of making a mistake, but  in some places it communicates ridicule. intimacy misinterpreted it. 

The dangers of misunderstanding one another are great. Obviously, it is not enough to learn the  language of another culture. You must also learn its non-verbal signals if you want to communicate  successfully. 

(Adapted from "Reading Academic English" by Judy Rapoport, Ronit Broder and Sarah Feingold)

Question 28: What is the passage mainly about? 

A. The significance of non-verbal signals in America. 

B. Interpretations of gestures in different cultures. 

C. Non-verbal communication across cultures. 

D. Misunderstandings in communication. 

Question 29: As stated in the passage, in order to communicate successfully with people from another culture, it is advisable for a person _______. 

A. to travel to as many countries as possible. 

B. to learn only non-verbal signals of that culture. 

C. to use the body language of the people from that culture. 

D. to learn both the language and non-verbal signals of that culture.  

Question 30: The word "it" in paragraph 3 refers to _______. 

A. an example B. sticking out the tongue C. making a mistake D. the country

Question 31: Which form of body language is NOT mentioned in the passage? 

A. distance B. eye movement C. posture D. gesture

Question 32: The word "misinterpreted" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. misspelled B. mispronounced C. misunderstood D. misbehaved 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs  from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. 

Question 33: A. kidnapped B. involved C. explained D. damaged

Question 34: A. hear B. area C. idea D. bear 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the  underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 

Question 35: The atmosphere at work was so bad that Brian eventually decided to hand in his notice.

A. be given a better job

B. give up his job  

C. apply for another job

D. notify the boss

Question 36: Deforestation may seriously jeopardize the habitat of many species in the local area.

A. set fire to B. make way for C. do harm to D. give rise to 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete  each of the following exchanges. 

Question 37: Jenny and Mark are talking about life in the city. 

Jenny: I think higher living standard is one of the reasons that many people want to be a city dweller.

Mark: ________. Many people come to the city to seek their fortune. 

A. That's nonsense B. Absolutely 

C. What rubbish D. I don't think so 

Question 38: Peter and Mary are talking about the movie they saw yesterday. 

Peter: Did you enjoy the movie yesterday? 

Mary: _______. 

A. No, I dislike moving

B. Not really. I couldn't follow the story

C. Don't mention it.

D. It doesn't matter 

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the  correct answer to each of the questions from 39 to 45. 

Many people see large urban cities as a wonder of human imagination and creativity. They represent  how far the human population has come in terms of community development. Many positive things come  from urbanization, but there are also negatives. This article will discuss and present data on the  implications of urbanization on the physical health of humans living in these large urban areas. 

As it would be expected, developing countries tend to see more negative physical health effects than  modern countries in regard to urbanization. One example of a developing country experiencing these  problems is China. China is a country that in the past 30-40 years went from being an agrarian based  society to a significant industrialized country. This industrialization has in effect caused the need for more  centralized cities, centralized meaning having lots of jobs and living spaces within a close proximity. This  is what is known as urbanization. In most recent decades, since China's change to being more of an  industrial based economy, the country has experienced record high numbers of people migrating within  its borders. In effect, the number of cities with over 500,000 people has more than doubled. These  migrations are typically of people from rural areas of China moving to the new urban areas. Due to this  large influx in the urban population, there are many possibilities for health challenges among these  people. One very common and fairly obvious negative aspect of highly congested urban areas is air  pollution. Air pollution is defined as any harmful substance being suspended in the air. This could include  particulate matter, most commonly attributed to industrial plants and refineries waste, or chemicals like  CO2 or Methane (which are also products of plants and refineries as well as cars and other modes of  transportation). Due to a vast number of people in these urbanized cities, the air pollution is known to be  very extreme. These conditions can lead to many different health problems such as: Asthma,  cardiovascular problems or disease, and different types of cancer (most commonly lung cancer). When  exposed to these conditions for a prolonged period of time, one can experience even more detrimental 

health effects like: the acceleration of aging, loss of lung capacity and health, being more susceptible to  respiratory diseases, and a shortened life span. 

Another way that urbanization affects the populations' health is people's change in diet. For instance,  urban cities tend to have lots of accessible, quick, and easy to get food. This food is also more than likely  not as high quality as well as contains a large amount of sodium and sugar. Because this food is so  accessible, people tend to eat it more. This increase in consumption of low quality food can then lead to  diabetes, hypertension, heart disease, obesity, or many other health conditions. 

(Adapted from https://medium.com) 

Question 39: The word “congested” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. sparse B. fresh C. overcrowded D. contaminated

Question 40: According to paragraph 2, which of the following is TRUE about China?

A. The population of cities now more than doubles that in the past. 

B. Most of the new urban areas' populations are the emigrants from remote places.

C. Because of urbanization, more immigrants find their ways to new urban areas.

D. This is a developed country in the past 30-40 years. 

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1D 2C 3D 4D 5D 6C7A 8B 9A 10C 11D 12D 13D 14B 15A 16A 17A 18D 19C 20C 21A 22A 23C 24C 25C 26D 27C 28C 29D 30B 31C 32C 33A 34B 35B 36C 37B 38B 39C 40C 41D 42A 43B 44C 45B 46C 47A 48A 49B 50B

ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QG MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT HOẰNG HÓA 4- ĐỀ 04

Read the following and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct  answer to each of the questions from 1 to 7. 

It is estimated that by 2050 more than two-thirds of the world's population will live in cities, up from  about 54 percent today. While the many benefits of organized and efficient cities are well understood, we  need to recognize that this rapid, often unplanned urbanization brings risks of profound social instability,  risks to critical infrastructure, potential water crises and the potential for devastating spread of disease.  These risks can only be further exacerbated as this unprecedented transition from rural to urban areas  continues. 

How effectively these risks can be addressed will increasingly be determined by how well cities are  governed. The increased concentration of people, physical assets, infrastructure and economic activities  mean that the risks materializing at the city level will have far greater potential to disrupt society than  ever before. 

Urbanization is by no means bad by itself. It brings important benefits for economic, cultural and  societal development. Well managed cities are both efficient and effective, enabling economies of scale  and network effects while reducing the impact on the climate of transportation. As such, an urban model  can make economic activity more environmentally-friendly. Further, the proximity and diversity of  people can spark innovation and create employment as exchanging ideas breeds new ideas. 

But these utopian concepts are threatened by some of the factors driving rapid urbanization. For  example, one of the main factors is rural-urban migration, driven by the prospect of greater employment  opportunities and the hope of a better life in cities. But rapidly increasing population density can create  severe problems, especially if planning efforts are not sufficient to cope with the influx of new  inhabitants. The result may, in extreme cases, be widespread poverty. Estimates suggest that 40% of the  world's urban expansion is taking place in slums, exacerbating socio-economic disparities and creating  unsanitary conditions that facilitate the spread of disease. 

The Global Risks 2015 Report looks at four areas that face particularly daunting challenges in the face  of rapid and unplanned urbanization: infrastructure, health, climate change, and social instability. In each  of these areas we find new risks that can best be managed or, in some cases, transferred through the  mechanism of insurance. 

Question 1. Which is the most suitable title for the passage? 

A. The Risks of Rapid Urbanization in Developing Countries 

B. Infrastructure and Economic Activities in Cities 

C. The Global Risks 2015 Report on Developing Urban Areas 

D. Rapid Urbanization Put Cities in Jeopardy 

Question 2. The word “addressed” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.

A. aimed at B. dealt with C. added to D. agreed on

Question 3. According to paragraph 3, what is one of the advantages of urbanization?

A. It minimizes risks for economic, cultural and societal development. 

B. It makes water supply system both efficient and effective. 

C. Weather and climate in the city will be much improved. 

D. People may come up with new ideas for innovation. 

Question 4. The word “spark” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ________.

A. need B. start C. encourage D. design

Question 5. The word "that" in paragraph 4 refers to _______. 

A. urban expansion B. unsanitary conditions 

C. disease D. socio-economic disparities 

Question 6. Which statement is TRUE, according to the passage? 

A. Urbanization brings important benefits for development as well. 

B. 54% of the world's population will live in cities by 2050. 

C. Risks cannot be addressed effectively no matter how well cities are governed.

D. Rapidly increasing population density can help solve poverty. 

Question 7. What can be inferred from the passage? 

A. Poverty may be a foregone conclusion of unplanned urbanization. 

B. Diseases are caused by people migrating to cities. 

C. Urbanization can solve the problem of environmental pollution in cities. 

D. The increasing number of people in cities can create more employment. 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs  from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions 

Question 8. A. wasted B. produced C. indicated D. arrested

Question 9. A. remind B. children C. flight D. widen 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to  the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 

Question 10. What makes the problem worse is that Howard and Tina are not on the same wavelength about how to deal with it. 

A. behave in the same way

B. share their opinions 

C. want the same wave

D. have their length in common

Question 11. My parents always disapproved of my smoking. They even told me once it would stop me  growing taller. 

A. refused B. objected to C. supported D. denied 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three  in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions 

Question 12. A. normal B. friendship C. humour D. attract

Question 13. A. contractual B. addition C. candidate D. appointment

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the  following questions 

Question 14. He is a great sports _______. He rarely misses any sport games although he was busy.

A. player B. enthusiast C. energy D. programmer

Question 15. While I _______ at the bus stop, three buses went by in the opposite direction.

A. was waiting B. waited C. had waited. D. were waiting

Question 16. All nations should _______ hands to work out a plan to solve the problem of global  warming. 

A. shake B. join C. lend D. hold

Question 17. Your sister used to visit you quite often, _______? 

A. didn't she B. doesn't she C. wouldn't she D. hadn't she

Question 18. If we ______ the plans carefully, we would not have had so many serious mistakes.

A. study B. had studied C. studied D. were studying

Question 19. Lionel Messi _______ as one of the best football players of all times.

A. regards B. is regarded C. has regarded D. regard

Question 20. Candidates are advised to dress formally to make a good ______ on job interviewers.

A. impressive B. impression C. impress D. impressively 

Question 21. ______ for 4 hours, they decided to stop to have lunch at a cheap restaurant.

A. Having been walked

B. Having walked  

C. Walking

D. Walked 

Question 22. With greatly increased workloads, everyone is _______ pressure now.

A. upon B. out of C. above opinion D. under for

Question 23. I'm looking for a ______ clock for my bedside table. 

A. small white Swiss

B. Swiss small white 

C. white small Swiss

D. Swiss white small 

Question 24. She _______ her mother for many years up to the time of her death.

A. looked after B. start over C. set up D. go over

Question 25. I had all the information at my _______ before attending the meeting.

A. fingertips B. thumbs C. hands D. fingers 

Question 26: I have been saving money _______ I would like to buy a new computer.

A. despite B. because of C. although D. because

Question 27: The larger the apartment, _______ the rent is. 

A. expensive B. the more expensive 

C. more expensively D. the most expensive 

Question 28: It is alleged that mothers and grandmothers spoil the children by _______ their mistakes.

A. neglecting B. overlooking C. avoiding D. passing 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the  underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 29. We are having a surprise party for Susan next Saturday, so don't give the secret away by  saying anything to her. 

A. ask anyone to come

B. tell her the secret 

C. go to the party

D. find out the secret 

Question 30. There are many TV commercials distracting viewers from watching their favorite films.

A. economics B. businesses C. contests D. advertisements 

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the  correct word that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35. 

The PBT is a pencil and paper test that is offered for two purposes. One purpose of the PBT is for  placement and process evaluation. (31) ______ colleges or institutions use the PBT to test their students.  The scores are not valid outside of the place where they are administered, but the college or institution  accepts the PBT that they administered as an official score. This PBT is also (32) ______ an Intitution  TOEFL. The main purpose of the PBT is to supplement the official Computer-Based TOEFL in areas  where computer-based testing is not possible. The scores are usually valid outside of the place where they  are administered. This PBT is also called a Supplement TOEFL. 

The Paper-Based TOEFL has three parts: Listening Comprehension, Structure and Written Expression,  and Reading. (33) ______, the TEST of Written English (TWE) is an essay that is required to provide a  writing score. The PBT is a (34) _______test, which means that everyone (35) ______ takes the TOEFL  during the same administration will see and answer the same questions. The final score is based on a scale  of 310-677. 

Question 31. A. Each	B. Every	C. Many	D. Much
Question 32. A. called	B. seemed	C. considered	D. appeared
Question 33. A. In other words	B. On the other hand	C. Besides	D. In addition
Question 34. A. style	B. form	C. standard	D. linear
Question 35. A. who	B. whom	C. which	D. where

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ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 4

1A 2B 3D 4B 5B 6A 7A 8B 9B 10B 11C 12D 13C 14B 15A 16B 17A 18B 19B 20B 21B 22D 23A 24A 25A 26D 27B 28B 29B 30D 31C 32A 33B 34C 35A 36D 37B 38A 39A 40C 41A 42C 43B 44D 45D 46D 47D 48B 49C 50B

ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QG MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT HOẰNG HÓA 4- ĐỀ 05

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the  other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. 

Question 1. A. asked	B. burned	C. cared	D. failed
Question 2. A. come	B. hole	C. home	D. hold

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of  sentences in the following questions. 

Question 3. They ate so much chocolate. They feel very sick now. 

A. If only they hadn't eaten so much chocolate, they wouldn't have felt very sick. 

B. They wish they hadn't eaten so much chocolate so that they don't feel very sick now.

C. If they had eaten so much chocolate, they wouldn't have felt very sick. 

D. Provided that they eat so much chocolate, they will feel better now. 

Question 4. We had all arrived home. We felt calm. 

A. Only when we had all arrived home did we feel calm. 

B. Were we to arrive home, we felt calm. 

C. Not only had we all arrived home but also we felt calm. 

D. Had we all arrived home, we felt calm. 

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the  underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 

Question 5. Though I persuaded my boss to solve a very serious problem in the new management system, he just  made light of it. 

A. discovered by chance B. treated as important 

C. completely ignored D. disagreed with 

Question 6. Cocktails are often garnished with paper cocktail umbrellas, live flowers, or plastic animals.

A. blemished B. beautified C. decorated D. embellished 

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct  answer to each of the questions. 

Most people can remember a phone number for up to thirty Seconds. When this short amount of time elapses,  however, the numbers are erased from the memory. How did the information get there in the first place?  Information that makes its way to the short-term memory (STM) does so via the sensory storage area. The brain  has a filter that only allows stimuli that are of immediate interest to pass on to the STM, also known as the  working memory. 

There is much debate about the capacity and duration of short-term memory. The most accepted theory comes  from George A. Miller, a cognitive psychologist who suggested that humans can remember approximately seven 

chunks of information. A chunk is defined as a meaningful unit of information, such as a word or name rather  than just a letter or number. Modem theorists suggest that one can increase the capacity of the short-term  memory and improve the chances of a memory being passed on to long-term storage. 

When making a conscious effort to memorize something, such as information for an exam, many people  engage in "rote rehearsal". By repeating something over and over again. one is able to keep a memory alive.  Unfortunately, this type of memory maintenance only succeeds if there are no interruptions. As soon as a person  stops rehearsing the information, it has the tendency to disappear. When a pen and paper are not handy. people  often attempt to remember a phone number by repeating it aloud. If the doorbell rings or the dog barks to come  in before a person has the opportunity to make a phone call, he will likely forget the number instantly. Therefore,  rote rehearsal is not an efficient way to pass information from short-term to long-term memory. A better way is  to practice "elaborate rehearsal". This involves assigning semantic meaning to a piece of information so that it  can be filed along with other pre- existing long-term memories. 

Encoding information semantically also makes it more retrievable. Retrieving information can be done by  recognition or recall. Humans can easily recall memories that are stored in the long-term memory and used often;  however, if a memory seems to be forgotten, it may eventually be retrieved by prompting. The more cues a  person is given (such as pictures), the more likely a memory can be retrieved. This is why multiple-choice tests  are often used for subjects that require a lot of memorization. 

Question 7. According to the passage, how do memories get transferred to the STM? 

A. They revert from the long-term memory. 

B. They enter via the nervous system. 

C. They are filtered from the sensory storage area. 

D. They get chunked when they enter the brain. 

Question 8. All of the following are mentioned as places in which memories are stored EXCEPT the:

A. maintenance area B. long term memory 

C. SIM D. sensory storage area 

Question 9. Why does the author mention a dog's bark? 

A. To provide a type of interruption 

B. To give an example of a type of memory 

C. To prove that dogs have better memories than humans 

D. To compare another sound that is loud like a doorbell 

Question 10. How do theorists believe a person can remember more information in a short time?

A. By rереаtіng іt B. By organizing it 

C. By drawing it D. By giving it a name 

Question 11. The author believes that role rotation is: 

A. ineffective in the long run

B. the best way to remember something

C. more efficient than chunking

D. an unnecessary interruption 

Question 12. The word elaborate in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to: 

A. efficient B. pretty C. regular D. complex

Question 13. The word it in the last paragraph refers to: 

A. semantics B. encoding C. STM D. information

Question 14. Which of the following is NOT supported by the passage?

A. The working memory is the same as the short-term memory. 

B. Multiple choice exams are the most difficult. 

C. Cues help people to recognize information. 

D. A memory is kept alive through constant repetition. 

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the  position of primary stress in each of the following questions. 

Question 15. A. approve B. nature C. access D. manage

Question 16. A. minimum B. legacy C. conference D. magnetic 

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in  each of the following questions. 

Question 17. Grade 12 students are studying hardly to prepare for the Mock exams next weekend.

A. are B. hardly C. for D. weekend

Question 18. The boy has a lot of assignments to do, but he is too lazy to do it. 

A. has B. assignments C. but D. it 

Question 19. Last month, I go back to my hometown to visit my grandparents. 

A. Last B. go C. hometown D. grandparents 

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following  questions. 

Question 20. Danny has never been to France, ________? 

A. didn't he B. has he C. wasn't he D. is he

Question 21. ________ are masses of snow, ice, and rocks that fall rapidly down a mountainside.

A. Tsunamis B. Wildfire C. Avalanches D. Blizzards

Question 22. ________ the product is safe, many people have stopped buying it. 

A. Because B. Although C. Because of D. Despite

Question 23. I ________ to the radio when Helen phoned. 

A. was listening B. listened C. will listen D. listen

Question 24. ________ the stories about people who reduced their carbon footprint, we started to change our  daily consumption habits. 

A. Having been read B. Being read C. Reading D. Having read

Question 25. She's in her third year of studying ________ at York University. 

A. economic B. economics C. economy D. economical

Question 26. He is responsible ________ recruiting and training new staff 

A. to B. for C. about D. of 

Question 27. I found a(n) ________ bag in my closet but it's still in pristine condition.

A. old sleeping blue

B. blue sleeping old

C. blue old sleeping

D. old blue sleeping

Question 28. I'll feel more relaxed ________ . 

A. after I finish my project

B. after I had finished my project

C. after I finished my project

D. after I'll finish my project

Question 29. My college graduation was a real ________ day for my whole life. 

A. red brick B. red tape C. red ink D. red letter

Question 30. ________ flowers you grow, ________ your garden will be. 

A. The more - The more pretty

B. The more - the prettier 

C. More - prettier

D. More - more pretty 

Question 31. Liverpool's footballers hope to ________ after their defeat in Europe last week.

A. bounce back B. draw back C. pull back D. bring back

Question 32. Drake ________ for drunk driving again. 

A. was arrested B. has arrested C. arrested D. arrest

Question 33. This latest evidence could be the final nail in the ________ for Jackson's case.

A. cave B. casket C. coffin D. cage 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. 

Question 34. "I will come to the interview late," she said. 

A. She told me that she came to the interview late. 

B. She told me that she would come to the interview late. 

C. She told me that she will come to the interview late. 

D. She told me that she had come to the interview late. 

Question 35. It is essential for students to go to school on time. 

A. Students may go to school on time. 

B. Students can go to school on time. 

C. Students mustn't go to school on time. 

D. Students need to go to school on time. 

Question 36. This is the first time he went abroad. 

A. He hasn't never gone abroad before. 

B. He didn't go abroad before. 

C. He has never gone abroad before. 

D. He has ever gone abroad before. 

Mark the letter A, B, C. or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the  underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 

Question 37. During a successful business career, she accumulated a great amount of wealth.

A. gradually increased in number

B. rapidly decreased in number 

C. rapidly increased in number

D. gradually decreased in number

Question 38. The pilot scheme for these new-style statements is now in its second year and has resounding success. 

A. excellent B. enormous C. effective D. exciting 

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of  the following exchanges.

Question 39. Bill is talking to his colleague. 

Bull: "________, Jack?"

- Jack: "Fine! I have just got a promotion." 

A. What are you doing

B. How are you doing 

C. What happened

D. How come 

Question 40. Two students are talking to each other. 

Linh: "What's wrong with you?" - Minh: "________." 

A. Thank you.

B. Yes, I was tired yesterday. 

C. You are welcome.

D. I'm having a headache. 

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. 

Reality television is a genre of television programming which, it is claimed, presents unscripted dramatic or  41. ________ situations, documents actual events, and features ordinary people rather than professional actors. It  could be described as a form of artificial or "heightened" documentary. 42. ________ the genre has existed in  some form or another since the early years of television, the current explosion of popularity dates from around  2000. 

Reality television covers a wide 43. ________ of television programming formats, from games to quiz shows  44. ________ resemble the frantic, often demeaning programmes produced in Japan in the 1980s and 1990s (a  modern example is Gaki no Tsukai), to surveillance - or voyeurism - focused production such as Big Brother 

Critics say that the term "reality television" is somewhat of a misnomer and that such shows 45. ________  portray a modified and highly influenced form of reality, with participants put in exotic locations or abnormal  situations, sometimes coach to act in certain ways by off-screen handlers, and with events on screen manipulated  through editing and other post-production techniques. 

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