Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG môn Tiếng Anh năm 2021-2022 có đáp án Cụm Trường THPT Hưng Yên

CỤM TRƯỜNG THPT HƯNG YÊN

ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM HỌC 2021-2022 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH (Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút)

Choose the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. 

Question 1. To work for ten hours without taking a break, I felt exhausted. 

A. to work B. without C. taking D. exhausted

Question 2. All of the candidate were interviewed individually yesterday. 

A. of B. candidate C. interviewed D. individually

Question 3. It is ASEAN Para Games that my cousin, a disabled athlete, has an opportunity to test his limits.

A. ASEAN Para Games B. disabled athlete C. an opportunity D. to test 

Choose the word whose underlined part differs from the others in pronunciation in the following questions. 

Question 4: A. pharmacy	B. paragraph	C. analysis	D. accurate
Question 5. A. determined	B. conserved	C. followed	D. researched

Read the following passage and choose the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. 

In the 1930s, a lot of people in the USA were out of work. Among these people was a man named Alfred Butts. He always had an interest in word games and so, to fill his time, he planned a game (6) _____ he  called "Lexico". However, he was not completely satisfied with the game, so he made a number of changes to it and, in time, changed its name from “Lexico” to “Alph” and then to “Criss Cross”. He wanted to make some money from his new game but he didn't have any real (7) _____ success. In 1939, Butts happened to meet a man called Jim Brunot who showed an interest in the new game. The two men worked together on (8)  _____ the game and in 1948 it was offered for sale in the United States under its new name - "Scrabble”. At first, it didn't sell very well. In the first year it sold just 2,250 sets and by 1951 it had only reached 8,500 sets a year. Then, in 1952 the manager of Macy's department store in New York, Jack Strauss, happened to play "Scrabble” while he was on holiday. He thought it was a wonderful game and, when he went back to work after his holiday, he (9) _____ that Macy's should stock the game and make an effort to call the public's attention to it. As a result, "Scrabble” became a big success in the United States and it soon (10) _____ to Australia and then to other English-speaking countries. 

Question 6. A. which	B. what	C. when	D. how
Question 7. A. commercial	B. inventive	C. copyrighted	D. marketing
Question 8. A. creating	B. developing	C. advertising	D. selling
Question 9. A. thought	B. advised	C. insisted	D. recommended
Question 10. A. sold	B. succeeded	C. developed	D. spread

Choose the word(s) SIMILAR in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 11. When no one knows anything about the truth, don't let the cat out the bag.

A. hide the secret

B. keep the bag away from the cat

C. reveal the true story

D. keep the cat inside the bag

Question 12. The discovery of the penicillin was regarded as a major step in the history of medicine.

A. thought B. considered C. reported D. believed 

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges.

Question 13. Silas is talking to his roommate, Salah, about the Olympic Games.

- Silas: "Do you think our country can host the Olympic Games some day in the future?"

- Salah: “_____ . We can't afford such a big event." 

A. Yes, you're right.

B. I can't agree with you more.

C. You can say that again.

D. No, I don't think so. 

Question 14. Jenny and Jimmy are talking about university education. 

- Jenny: "I think having a university degree is the only way to succeed in life." 

- Jimmy:"_____ . There are successful people without a degree." 

A. That's life!

B. I can't agree more. 

C. That's all right.

D. I don't quite agree. 

Choose the sentence that best COMBINES each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 15. Their dog was fierce. Nobody would visit them. 

A. If their dog weren't fierce, somebody would visit them. 

B. So fierce was their dog that nobody would visit them. 

C. Their dog was fierce enough for anybody to visit them. 

D. So fierce a dog did they had that nobody would visit them. 

Question 16. They asked me a lot of questions in the interview. I couldn't answer any of them.

A. All of the questions that they asked me in the interview were easy to answer.

B. They asked me a lot of questions in the interview, most of which I couldn't answer.

C. I could answer only a few questions that they asked me in the interview. 

D. I was asked a lot of questions in the interview, none of which I could answer.

Choose the sentence that is CLOSEST in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 17. My sister can't get the job because her English is not good.

A. If my sister had been good at English, she would have got the job. 

B. My sister will get the job if her English is good. 

C. My sister could get the job if her English were good. 

D. If my sister gets the job, her English will be good. 

Question 18. It is necessary for you to submit your assignment by the deadline.

A. Your assignment will be submitted by the deadline. 

B. The deadline for your assignment is coming very soon. 

C. You submitted your assignment by the deadline. 

D. Your assignment needs to be submitted by the deadline. 

Question 19. We realized only then that some valuable things had been stolen.

A. After we realized that we have some valuable things protected. 

B. Only then did we realize that some valuable things had been stolen. 

C. Only then we realized that some valuable things have been stolen. 

D. After that, we realized that we had some valuable things protected. 

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 20. For reasons of personal safety, the informant wishes to remain _____ .

A. anonymous B. positive C. sympathetic D. correct

Question 21. The jury took two days to _____ a verdict. 

A. reach B. come C. decide D. act

Question 22. I am sure that I was _____ awake when I was driving last night.

A. high B. deep C. long D. wide

Question 23. Lucia acted as if she _____ everything. In fact, she was not at the meeting.

A. knows B. had known C. had been known D. knew

Question 24. This _____ houses the largest telescope in the country. 

A. observant B. observation C. observational D. observatory

Question 25. Last year, they visited _____ St.Paul's Cathedral and the Tower.

A. an B. a C. no article D. the

Question 26. The last book fair _____ more than 1,000 students from 45 universities.

A. attended B. participated C. attracted D. invented

Question 27. This whole lab report is badly written. _____, it is inaccurate.

A. However B. Hence C. Moreover D. Although

Question 28. It was the first time I _____ a holiday in Hawaii with my family. 

A. had had B. was having C. had D. have had

Question 29. A team of engineers and scientists in Singapore want to build a new Rosetta “Stone" or Disk  _____ the same idea of parallel texts. 

A. are using B. using C. used D. use

Question 30. The new car model of this year is _____ than last year's model. 

A. more fast and economical

B. faster and economical 

C. more fast and more economical

D. faster and more economical

Question 31. _____ my brother bought his girlfriend a beautiful bunch of roses. 

A. It was for her 25^th birthday that

B. Her 25^th birthday was that 

C. It was for her 25^th birthday when

D. Her 25^th birthday was when

Question 32. I _____ in my stomach before I presented my paper in London. I experience a lack of confidence from time to time. 

A. was under the bridge 

B. had terrible butterflies 

C. saw eye to eye 

D. dropped a line 

Question 33. That store sells really _____ curtains. 

A. long silk violet Chinese

B. long violet Chinese silk 

C. Chinese silk long violet

D. Chinese long silk violet. 

Choose the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 

Question 34. Many workers families have to tighten their belt because of their low salary. 

A. spend less 

B. be extravagant 

C. dress in loose clothes 

D. put on tighter belts 

Question 35. Fruit and vegetables grew in abundance on the island. The islanders even exported the surplus.

A. excess B. large quantity C. sufficiency D. small quantity 

Read the following passage and choose the correct answer to each of the questions. In the exploration of the linguistic life circle, it is apparent that it is much more difficult to learn a second  language in adulthood than a first language in childhood. Most adults never completely master a foreign  language, especially in phonology - hence the foreign accent. Their development often 'fossilizes' into  permanent error patterns that no teaching or correction can undo. Of course, there are great individual  differences, which depend on effort, attitudes, amount of exposure, quality of teaching, and plain talent, but  there seems to be a cap for the best adults in the best circumstances.

Many explanations have been advanced for children's superiority: they exploit the simplified, repetitive conversation between parents and children, make errors unselfconsciously, are more motivated to  communicate, like to conform, are not set in their ways, and have no first language to, interfere. But some of  these accounts are unlikely, based on what is known about how language acquisition works. Recent evidence  is calling these social and motivation explanations into doubt Holding every other factor constant, a key  factor stands out: sheer age. Systematic evidence comes from the psychologist Elissa Newport and her  colleagues. They tested Korean and Chinese-born students at the University of Illinois who had spent at least  ten years in the U.S. The immigrants were given a list of 276 simple English sentences, half of them  containing some grammatical error. 

The immigrants who came to the U.S. between the ages of three and seven performed identically to  American-born students. Those who arrived between the ages of 8 and 15 did worse the later they arrived,  and those who arrived between 17 and 39 did the worst of all, and showed huge variability unrelated their  age of arrival. 

Question 36. The word "who" refers to _____ . 

A. Elissa Newport B. students C. colleagues D. Koreans

Question 37. The word "set" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _____ . 

A. stable B. changed C. formed D. fixed 

Question 38. The passage mainly discusses _____ . 

A. adult differences in learning a foreign language 

B. children's ability to learn a language 

C. research into language acquisition 

D. the age factor in learning languages fast 

Question 39. According to the passage, what is NOT the reason for young children's quick language  learning? 

A. Their approach is flexible. 

B. They make many mistakes. 

C. They frequently repeat words. 

D. They want to talk. 

Question 40. In the experiment in the passage, the psychologists discovered _____ . 

A. Students who arrived late were worst of all. 

B. Older students were unable to learn English. 

C. Most students had lived in the U.S. for more than ten years. 

D. Young students learn English best. 

Choose the word that differs from the others in the position of primary stress in the following questions. 

Question 41. A. accidental

B. unattractive 

C. optimistic

D. anonymous

Question 42. A. prevent

B. maintain

C. measure

D. prefer

Read the following passage and choose the correct answer to each of the questions. It is hard to get any agreement on the precise meaning of the term 'social class'. In everyday life, people tend  to have a different approach to those they consider their equals from which they assume with people they  consider higher or lower than themselves in the social scale. The criteria we use to ‘place’ a new  acquaintance; however, are a complex mixture of factors. Dress, way of speaking, area of residence in a  given city or province, education and manners all play a part. 

In ancient civilizations, the Sumerian, for example, which flourished in the lower Euphtates valley from 2000  to 5000 B.C. social differences were based on birth, status or rank, rather than on wealth. Four main classes  were recognized. These were the rulers, the priestly administrators, the freemen (such as craftsmen,  merchants or farmers) and the slaves. 

In Greece, after the sixth century B.C., there was a growing conflict between the peasants and the landed  aristocrats, and a gradual decrease in the power of the aristocracy when a kind of 'middle class' of traders and  skilled workers grew up. The population of Athens, for example, was divided into three main classes which  were politically and legally distinct. About one-third of the total were slaves, who did not count politically at  all, a fact often forgotten by those who praise Athens as the nursery of democracy. The next main group  consisted of resident foreigners, the ‘metics', who were freemen, though they too were allowed no share in  political life. The third group was the powerful body of citizens', who were themselves divided into sub classes. 

In the later Middle Ages, however, the development of a money economy and the growth of cities and trade  led to the rise of another class, the ‘burghers' or city merchants and mayors. These were the predecessors of  the modern middle classes. Gradually high office and occupation assumes importance in determining social  position, as it became more and more possible for a person born to one station in life to move to another. This  change affected the towns more than the country areas, where remnants of feudalism lasted much longer. 

Question 43. The 'burghers' of the later Middle Ages _____ . 

A. were mainly to be found in country areas 

B. ignored class distinctions 

C. created an entirely new social class 

D. became more powerful than the old aristocracy 

Question 44. The word "predecessors” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to _____ . 

A. descendants B. authorities C. ancestors D. supporters 

Question 45. The passage is mainly about _____ . 

A. the human history 

B. the modern society 

C. the division of social classes in the ancient world 

D. the social life in ancient Greece 

Question 46. The decline of the Greek aristocracy's power in the sixth century B.C. _____. 

A. was assisted by a rise in the number of slaves 

B. coincided with the rise of a new 'middle class' of traders and peasants

C. caused international conflicts in the area 

D. lasted for only a short time 

Question 47. Athens is often praised as the nursery of democracy _____ . 

A. because even very young children could vote 

B. because its three main classes were politically and legally distinct 

C. even though slaves were allowed to vote 

D. in spite of its heavy dependence on slave labour 

Question 48. We evaluate other people's social position by _____ . 

A. finding out how much their salary is 

B. questioning them in great details 

C. their dress, manners, area of residence and other factors 

D. the kind of job they do 

Question 49. The four main classes of Sumerian civilization _____ . 

A. did not include slaves 

B. were not clearly defined 

C. took little account of status or rank 

D. took little account of financial standing 

Question 50. The word "criteria” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to _____ . 

A. criticisms 

B. characteristics 

C. words 

D. standards of judgement

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 1

1A 2B 3A 4A 5D 6A 7A 8B 9C 10D 11C 12B 13D 14D 15B 16D 17C 18D 19B 20A 21A 22D 23B 24D 25C 26C 27C 28A 29B 30D 31A 32B 33B 34B 35D 36B 37D 38D 39B 40D 41D 42C 43C 44C 45C 46B 47B 48D 49C 50D

ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QG MÔN TIẾNG ANH- CỤM TRƯỜNG THPT HƯNG YÊN- ĐỀ 02

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 

Question 1. On his 15^th birthday, Nick’s mother gave him a ______ bike. 

A. Japanese blue nice

B. nice blue Japanese 

C. blue nice Japanese

D. nice Japanese blue 

Question 2. Governments around the world have ______ many national parks to save endangered species from extinction. 

A. carried out B. set up C. went on D. took off

Question 3. ________ hard all day, I was exhausted. 

A. worked B. Having worked C. Work D. To work

Question 4. Children living in remote and mountainous areas may not receive a good ______.

A. education B. educative C. educate D. educated

Question 5. The more I concentrate, _______ my answers are. 

A. the accurater

B. the most accurate 

C. the more accurate

D. more accurate 

Question 6. Linda took great photos of butterflies while she _______ in the forest.

A. is hiking B. hiked C. had hiked D. was hiking

Question 7. Bob was going to propose to Alexandra last night, but in the end he _______ and decided to  wait a bit longer. 

A. was all ears B. got cold feet 

C. broke a leg D. was given the green light

Question 8. Most of the e-mail accounts at our company ________ by a virus last week.

A. have been affected

B. affected 

C. was affected

D. were affected 

Question 9. She made the _______ mistake of forgetting to put the “s” on the verb in the third person singular. 

A. classical B. famous C. important D. classic

Question 10. I will have finished making dinner ______. 

A. once mom came home

B. as soon as mom came home

C. after mom had come home

D. by the time mom comes home

Question 11. People are worried ______ losing their jobs during the Covid-19 pandemic.

A. of B. at C. about D. over

Question 12. A ________ of dancers from Beijing is one of the leading attractions in the festival.

A. packet B. troop C. troupe D. herd

Question 13. She didn’t go for a walk yesterday, _________?

A. doesn't she B. does she C. did she D. didn’t she

Question 14. The biggest fear is that humans might _________ control over robots.

A. keep B. lose C. gain D. take

Question 15. _____ the sky was grey and cloudy, we went to the beach. 

A. Because B. Although C. Because of D. Despite 

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. 

Why do people like to chew gum? Some people say they like the taste. (16)________say they can  think better if they chew gum. Some people chew it when they have some boring work to do. Others chew gum when they are nervous. Gum is a mixture of things. For many years gum companies made gum from chicle. Chicle is a natural gum from a tree in Mexico and Central America. Now companies use plastic and rubber made from petroleum (17)________of chicle. Gum must be soft so that you can chew it. A softener keeps it soft. The gum company makes the softener from vegetable oil. A sweetener makes  the gum sweet. The sweetener is usually sugar. Then the company (18) _______ the flavor. Thomas Adams made the first gum from chicle in 1836. (19)___________, chewing gum was not new. The Greeks chewed gum from a tree (20)________ 2,000 years ago. Mayan Indians in Mexico chewed chicle.  Indians in the Northeastern United States taught Europeans to chew gum from a tree there. People first made bubble gum in 1928. Children like to blow bubble with bubble gum. Some university students do, too. 

(Adapted from https://www.nationalgeographic.com/)

Question 16. A. The others	B. Others	C. Other	D. The other
Question 17. A. aside	B. instead	C. apart	D. inside
Question 18. A. fits	B. adds	C. puts	D. places
Question 19. A. But	B. Though	C. Moreover	D. However
Question 20. A. than	B. over	C. more	D. above

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 

Some doctors think that you should drink a glass of water each morning. You should drink this water first thing, before doing anything else. The temperature of the water should be similar to body temperature; neither too hot nor too cold. 

Why should you drink this water? Water helps your body in many ways. It helps clean out your kidneys. 

It prepares your stomach for digestion. Water can also help your intestines work better. After drinking water, the intestines can more easily take out nutrients from our food. Water also helps us go to the bathroom more easily.  

Scientists suggest that people take in 1,600 milliliters of water each day. But don’t drink all of that water in one sitting. If you do, your kidneys will have to work much harder to eliminate it. It’s better to drink some in the morning and some in the afternoon. Some people think it’s better to drink between meals and not during meals. They think water dilutes the juices produced in our stomachs. This can interfere with normal digestion. 

Are you drinking enough water every day? Check the color of your urine. If it is light yellow, you are probably drinking enough. If your urine is very dark yellow, you probably need to drink more water. A little more water each day could make you much healthier. 

(Adapted from Reading Challenge 1 by Casey Malarcher and Andrea Janzen) 

Question 21. What is the main idea of the passage? 

A. How to drink water correctly?

B. The advice of the doctors

C. The best amount of water to drink

D. The importance of water

Question 22. According to the passage, water is good for the following organs of the body, EXCEPT ___________. 

A. livers B. stomach C. kidneys D. intestines

Question 23. The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to ___________. 

A. your kidney B. water C. your body D. your stomach

Question 24. The word “eliminate” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______________.

A. absorb B. remove C. process D. preserve

Question 25. Which of the following is NOT true? 

A. You shouldn’t drink too much water at the same time. 

B. You need to drink more water if your urine is light yellow. 

C. The first thing you should do every morning is to drink water. 

D. Drinking water while having meals may interfere with normal digestion. 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. 

Question 26. A. funny B. rubbish C. student D. upper

Question 27. A. engaged B. threatened C. appeared D. decided 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 

Question 28. The new college is intended to improve the life chances of children in the inner city.

A. opportunities B. productions C. communities D. questions

Question 29. The factory is fined for discharging dangerous chemicals into the river.

A. releasing B. keeping C. increasing D. decreasing 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions 

Question 30. She fell over in the last minutes. She didn’t win the race. 

A. Not having won the race, she fell over in the last minutes 

B. She could have won the race if she hadn’t fallen over in the last minutes. 

C. She didn’t win the race even though she fell over in the last minutes

D. If she didn’t fall over in the last minutes, she would win the race. 

Question 31. The people in my neighborhood enjoy the peace of the life in the countryside. They don’t want to move to another place. 

A. So peaceful is the life in the countryside that the people in my neighborhood don’t want to move to another place. 

B. Provided the life in the countryside were peaceful, the people in my neighborhood wouldn’t want to move to another place. 

C. Only when the people in my neighborhood enjoyed the peace of the life in the countryside did they want to move to another place. 

D. Without the peace of the life in the countryside, the people in my neighborhood wouldn’t want to move to another place. 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 

Question 32. It’s quite disappointing that some people still turn a blind eye to acts of injustice they witness in the street. 

A. take no notice of

B. have no feeling for 

C. pay attention to

D. show respect for

Question 33. Children brought up in a caring environment tend to grow more sympathetic towards others. 

A. dishonest B. healthy C. loving D. hateful 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. 

Question 34. A. answer B. become C. pollute D. appear

Question 35. A. scientific B. activity C. biology D. geography 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. 

Question 36. My younger sister starts learning English when she was at primary school.

A. My B. starts C. when D. primary school

Question 37. People may also become celebrations due to media attention on their lifestyle, wealth, or controversial actions, or for their connection to a famous person. 

A. may B. celebrations C. controversial D. connection

Question 38. They are having his house painted by a construction company. 

A. having B. his C. painted D. construction 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes the following exchanges.

Question 39. Tom is talking to Jane. 

- Tom: “I’m sorry. I forgot your birthday.” 

- Jane: “__________”

A. Good idea.

B. Thanks a lot.

C. Never mind.

D. Same to you.

Question 40. Minh and Nam are talking about Nam’s cat. 

- Minh: “What a lovely cat you have! Nam.” 

- Nam: “_______” 

A. Congratulations!

B. Me too. 

C. Thank you.

D. No problem. 

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. 

Educating children at home as an alternative to formal education is an option chosen by families in many parts of the world. The homeschooling movement is popular in the United States, where close to one million Children are educated at home. In Canada, 1 percent of school-age children are homeschooled, and the idea also enjoys growing popularity in Australia, where 20,000 families homeschool their children. The movement is not limited to these countries. Homeschooling families can be found all over the world, from Japan to Taiwan to Argentina to South Africa. 

Homeschooling is not a novel idea. In fact, the idea of sending children to spend most of their day away from home at a formal school is a relatively new custom. In the United States, for example, it was not until the latter part of the nineteenth century that state governments began making school attendance compulsory. Before that, the concept of a formal education was not so widespread. Children learned the skills they would need for adult life at home from tutors or their parents, through formal instruction or by working side by side with the adults of the family. 

In the modern developed world, where the vast majority of children attend school, families choose homeschooling for a variety of reasons. For people who live in remote areas, such as the Australian outback or the Alaskan Wilderness, homeschooling may be their only option. Children who have exceptional talents in the arts or other areas may be homeschooled so that they have more time to devote to their special interests. Much of the homeschooling movement is made up of families who, for various reasons, are dissatisfied with the schools available to them. They may have a differing educational philosophy, they may be concerned about the safety of the school environment, or they may feel that the local schools cannot adequately address their children's educational needs. Although most families continue to choose a traditional classroom education for their children, homeschooling as an alternative educational option is becoming more popular. 

(Source: https://www.beyondteaching.com/) 

---(Để xem tiếp nội dung của đề thi số 2 các em vui lòng xem tại online hoặc đăng nhập vào HỌC247 để tải về máy)---

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 2

1B 2B 3B 4A 5C 6D 7B 8D 9D 10D 11C 12C 13C 14B 15B 16B 17B 18B 19D 20B 21D 22A 23B 24B 25B 26C 27D 28A 29A 30B 31A 32C 33D 34A 35A 36B 37B 38B 39C 40C 41A 42B 43D 44D 45D 46C 47A 48B 49B 50C

ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QG MÔN TIẾNG ANH- CỤM TRƯỜNG THPT HƯNG YÊN- ĐỀ 03

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to  each of the following questions from 1 to 3. 

Question 1: I haven't seen my aunt and her husband for years. 

A. I saw my aunt and her husband for years. 

B. I have seen my aunt and her husband for years. 

C. I last saw my aunt and her husband years ago. 

D. I didn't see my aunt and her husband years ago. 

Question 2: "I'm sorry I forgot your birthday," he told me. 

A. He begged me to forget my birthday.

B. He complained that I forgot his birthday.

C. He refused to go to my birthday party.

D. He apologized for forgetting my birthday.

Question 3: It isn't necessary for you to go out at this time at night. 

A. You may not go out at this time at night.

B. You should go out at this time at night.

C. You needn't go out at this time at night.

D. You must go out at this time at night.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the  following questions from 4 to 18. 

Question 4: Students often use their calculators to solve difficult questions, ______?

A. don't we B. do they C. don't they D. do we

Question 5: A few days ago. Tom's car _______ by one of the teenagers in his neighborhood.

A. has been stolen

B. was stolen

C. was stealing

D. is stolen

Question 6: Huy Hoang is good _______ swimming. He won the gold medal last year.

A. for B. about C.at D. in

Question 7: The more exams students have to take they become. 

A. the most anxious

B. as anxious as

C. more anxious

D. the more anxious

Question 8: His younger sister gave him a _______ wallet as a souvenir when she returned from summer vacation. 

A. small brown leather

B. leather small brown 

C. brown small leather

D. small leather brown 

Question 9: When Carol called last night, I _______ my favorite show on television.

A. had watched B. were watching C. have watched D. was watching

Question 10: Mrs. Nga tested positive for coronavirus ______ she was in close contact with her husband  who had been infected with the virus. 

A. though B. due to C. despite D. because

Question 11: Bill's mother won't let him watch his favorite program _______. 

A. once he finished the housework

B. as soon as he will finish the housework

C. after he had finished the housework

D. until he finishes the housework

Question 12: _______ all the lights and other electric devices, the student(s) left the classroom.

A. Turned off

B. Having turned off 

C. To have turned off

D. Having been turned off 

Question 13: Many twelfth-graders find it hard to ______ what university to apply to.

A. decisively B. decide C. decision D. decisive

Question 14: I have to _______ my notes once again to make sure I have learned all important details before the exam. 

A. run across B. go over C. take after D. pull down

Question 15: Mary applied for a _______ in the firm that I had worked for. 

A. position B. location C. site D. space

Question 16: If you are caught coming into the country as an illegal immigrant, you will be ______.

A. dispatched B. deported C. discharged D. dismissed

Question 17: His mother had a ______ when his teacher said that he had played truant many times

A. buffalo B. deer C. bee D. cow

Question 18: Thomas didn't have to go to prison but he was placed under house ______ for six months.

A. investigation B. record C. arrest D. management 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions from 19 to 21. 

Question 19: The candidates wore face masks while taking the test in the national high school exam next  year. 

A. wore B. national C. test D. taking Question 20: Most workers seem to be happy with her new working conditions. 

A. seem B. with C. her D. conditions Question 21: Given its recent cancellations of numerous flights, many people have expressed doubts  about the reliance of the airline. 

A. cancellations B. numerous C. expressed D. reliance 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each  pair of sentences in the following questions from 22 to 23. 

Question 22: I didn't read the book from which the film was made. I can't tell you about it.

A. If I had read the book from which the film was made, I could have told you about it.

B. I wish I had read the book from which the film was made. 

C. As long as I didn't read the book from which the film was made, I can't tell you about it.

D. I wish I had read the book from which the film was made and could tell you about it.

Question 23: Her friends saw heartbreaking photos from the second wave of the covid-19 pandemic in  India. And then, they were well aware of the complication of the deadly virus. 

A. Not until did her friends see heartbreaking photos from the second wave of the covid-19 pandemic  in India they were well aware of the complication of the deadly virus. 

B. But for her friends' good awareness of the complication of the deadly virus, they couldn't have seen heartbreaking photos from the second wave of the covid-19 pandemic in India. 

C. Hardly had her friends been well aware of the complication of the deadly virus when they saw  heartbreaking photos from the second wave of the covid-19 pandemic in India. 

D. Only after her friends had seen heartbreaking photos from the second wave of the covid-19  pandemic in India were they well aware of the complication of the deadly virus. 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of  the following exchanges from 24 to 25. 

Question 24: Linda and Peter are talking about safe driving. 

- Linda: "I think drink-driving should be severely punished." 

- Peter: "_______. It may cause accidents or even deaths." 

A. I don't think so

B. You're wrong 

C. I don't understand what you mean

D. I absolutely agree with you

Question 25: Jenifer and John were talking about their study at school. 

- Jenifer: "I thought your English skill was a lot better, John." 

- John: "_______." 

A. No, thanks. I think I can do it.  

B. You've got to be kidding. I thought it was still bad. 

C. Thank you. I'd love to.  

D. Yes, please. Just a little. 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or Don pour answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the  underlined word(s) in each of the following questions from 26 to 27. 

Question 26: If violent crime continues unchecked, the government will take more drastic measures in  this country. 

A. uninsured B. uncontrolled C. untested D. untreated

Question 27: The way the team clinched the title in the last three minutes is one of the greatest moments  in world football. 

A. robbed B. destroyed C. won D. dealt 

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the  correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 32. 

Education has been the focus of media attention since the virus has intermittently closed classrooms  and campuses over the past year. But despite the disruption, the widespread shift to online learning has  given learners and education providers a glimpse of the future. 

For our latest Better Managers Briefing. I spoke with Paul Geddes - CEO of technology training  provider QA; and Tim Stewart – the vice chancellor of BPP University and a professor of business  education. 

Taking education online was the first and most obvious short-term delivery impact of the pandemic.  For example, Tim says that for him and BPP as an awarding body, the biggest accomplishment was being  able to move assessments online, enabling thousands of students to sit hundreds of exams under 

Supervision and be able to continue gaining credits and to graduate. "Inevitably, after the pandemic, some  of this will move back offline," he predicts, "but I think we will see a much more significant role for  online teaching, online assessment, online socializing and online libraries." 

Mixing "on-demand" digital delivery with live online learning has been essential at QA, says Paul.  "For learners, live lessons mean that you're more likely to tum up, you're focused, you're going to pay  attention and not be distracted... because your trainer could ask you a question at any time," he says. "You  can ask questions, you're part of a cohort that can learn from each other and the subject matter can be  tailored to your understanding." Paul believes, "If you're in a cohort of learners, it's still important that  you can have a cup of coffee with them and chat through what you've just learned in class. But I don't  think things will return fully to where they were in terms of physical attendance." 

(Source: https://www.managers.org.uk/) 

Question 28: Which could be the best title of the passage? 

A. Between going online or staying offline. 

B. How to thrive in the workforce of the future. 

C. The changing landscape of education, 

D. What makes teaching and learning successful. 

Question 29: The word "intermittently" in paragraph 1 mostly means _______.

A. customarily B. repeatedly C. sporadically D. continually

Question 30: Which is NOT mentioned about online learning during the pandemic?

A. Students can be supervised individually through technology. 

B. Students can sit through tests and be graded. 

C. Students can continue their degree and graduate normally. 

D. Students can interact with the teacher and other students. 

Question 31: The word "them" in paragraph 4 refers to _______. 

A. trainers B. questions C. things D. learners

Question 32: According to the passage, how will the education change after the pandemic?

A. Companies will invest more in digital infrastructure. 

B. Digital delivery will be mixed with live learning. 

C. Physical classrooms will have lower rates of attendance. 

D. Technical and soft skills will be added to the curriculum. 

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the  correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 33 to 37. There are many reasons why Japanese people live longer than the rest of us. One reason might be  soybean products like tofu, natto and miso. Scientists from the National Institute of Health and Nutrition  in Tokyo conducted a study into the health benefits of soybeans and their products. They found that  eating soybean based food can lower the risk of death from heart attacks, stroke and (33) _______  cardiovascular problems. They said: "A higher intake of fermented soy products was (34) _______ with a  lower risk of mortality."

Soybeans and fermented soybean products are superfoods (35) ______ are rich in protein, and  unsaturated fats. They are also a source of potassium and other minerals. (36) ______, the fiber found in  soy can help to lower cholesterol and boost weight loss. While some scientists say that miso can harm  people's health because it contains a lot of salt, the Japanese researchers explained that the salt in miso  does not (37) _______ people at risk of salt-related health problems like high blood pressure. 

(Adapted from medical express.com)

Question 33: A. other	B. each	C. another	D. every
Question 34: A. related	B. attached	C. linked	D. associated
Question 35: A. which	B. who	C. when	D. where
Question 36: A. Although	B. However	C. Moreover	D. Therefore
Question 37: A. run	B. put	C. have	D. take

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the  correct answer to each of the questions from 38 to 44. 

There's more to getting promoted than showing up and working hard. It's about going the extra mile  and exceeding expectations, said Ian Siegel, CEO of ZipRecruiter. But if you think you're doing that and you still aren't reaping the rewards, the reasons why you aren't moving up could be a little more subtle. 

Managers are often in charge of a lot of people. So, don't shy away from directly asking for a  promotion. "Make it an actual topic of conversation," said Joel Garfinkle, executive coach and author of  the book Getting Ahead: Three Steps to Take Your Career to the Next Level. "You need to share your  aspirations openly and specifically with your boss and ask exactly what you need to do to get promoted.",  added Garfinkle. 

Doing your job does not show that you're a leader. "Working hard doesn't mean you will get promoted,  you have to demonstrate that you are going to be better for the company at the higher level." said Kathy Caprino, career and executive coach. And that means finding ways to showcase your leadership capabilities. For instance, raise your hand to manage a new project, or volunteer to teach a session at work in an area of your expertise. 

Also, it's imperative that the people above and below you respect you. "If your boss doesn't like you, you aren't getting a promotion," said Carpino. Being a team player is also crucial. “Working well with others is incredibly important for people to see you as a valued partner," said Blair December, a career expert. Asking for feedback from (peers after a project or assignment can help open the lines of communication and keep relationships strong, she added. 

Finally, remember that being good at what you do doesn't mean you are ready to move on to the next level. Don't just look at the job description of your current job. Review the responsibilities of the role above you and look for any gaps or areas where you can improve. "Look at the next level and what that position requires and then look at your current skill set and the ability to do that position and work toward closing that gap.", recommended Garfinkle. 

(Adapted from http://edition.ch.com) 

---(Để xem tiếp nội dung của đề thi số 3 các em vui lòng xem tại online hoặc đăng nhập vào HỌC247 để tải về máy)---

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 3

1C 2D 3C 4C 5B 6C 7D 8A 9D 10D 11D 12B 13B 14B 15A 16B 17D 18C 19A 20C 21D 22D 23D 24D 25B 26B 27C 28C 29C 30A 31D 32B 33A 34D 35A 36C 37B 38A 39A 40D 41D 42A 43A 44C 45A 46A 47A 48B 49C 50B

ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QG MÔN TIẾNG ANH- CỤM TRƯỜNG THPT HƯNG YÊN- ĐỀ 04

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. 

Question 1: A. informed	B. impressed	C. installed	D. admired
Question 2: A. planet	B. fashion	C. travel	D. nature

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of stress in each of the following questions. 

Question 3: A. deny	B. finish	C. admit	D. forget
Question 4. A. cinema	B. attitude	C. occasion	D. document

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to  each of the following questions. 

Question 5: Would you show me ______ shortest way to the airport? 

A. the B. Ø C. an D. a

Question 6: In the early 21^st century, with the ______ of mobile communication technology, the mobile  phone has emerged as a new and unique channel. 

A. explosion B. explosive C. explode D. explodent

Question 7: Laboratory tests carried ______ by three independent teams of experts have given similar  results. 

A. about B. out C. forth D. up

Question 8: I think that he danced ______ than his friend 

A. more beautiful

B. most beautiful

C. more beautifully

D. most beautifully

Question 9: The children have never read that book before, ______? 

A. haven't they B. have they C. hasn't he D. has he

Question 10: I ______ home when I met my former teacher. 

A. was walking B. would walk C. walked D. had walked

Question 11: There was a ______ table in the middle of the room. 

A. Japanese round beautiful wooden

B. beautiful wooden round Japanese

C. beautiful wooden Japanese round

D. beautiful round Japanese wooden

Question 12: Bruce was not praised ______ he was a hard worker. 

A. despite B. in spite of C. although D. no matter how

Question 13: They insist that every family member ______ conversations with him.

A. will initiate B. initiating C. initiates D. initiate

Question 14: Xoan singing is a vocal art of villages in the ancestral land of Phu Tho. It has been ______  for generations and the oral tradition is still very much alive today.

A. handed down B. landed on C. passed by D. taken over

Question 15: New technology is seen as a ______ issue for the next five years and every school will  benefit in some way. 

A. marginal B. central C. peripheral D. crucial

Question 16: The tap is dripping, the bath's overflowing, the plumber's on holiday; what a fine kettle of  ______ this is!” 

A. fish B. shrimp C. dolphin D. whale

Question 17: Cultural _______ are characteristics shared by individuals belonging to the same group or  community 

A. identities B. identifiers C. factors D. identifications

Question 18: We ______ look to Peter whenever there is a problem with our computer system

A. variously B. variably C. invariably D. unvariedly

Question 19: ______ the Vietnamese athlete, closely followed by his rivals. 

A. Coming B. Coming in C. Came in D. In came 

Mark the letter A. B. C. or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. 

Question 20: To produce a favourite impression, one needs to pay attention to his personal appearance.

A. favourite B. one C. pay attention D. personal

Question 21: When we were in Canada, we play basketball almost every day. 

A. When B. in C. play D. almost

Question 22: K-pop girl group Blackpink will be celebrating the fifth anniversary of her debut with the  unveiling of a special film. 

A. celebrating B. anniversary C. her D. a 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the  underlined word in each of the following questions. 

Question 23: You know you didn't study hard, so you're going to have to face the music and take the  class again next semester if you really want to graduate. 

A. accept reality B. get the approval C. receive backing D. call for aid

Question 24: Species that have already lost habitat because of deforestation are given higher priority in  the plan due to their greater risk of extinction. 

A. a thing that you do often and almost without thinking 

B. the place where a particular type of animal or plant is normally found 

C. a subject that students don't understand 

D. a theme that everyone likes to discuss 

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the  correct answer to each of the questions.

The body language people use often communicates more about their feelings than the words they are  saying. We use body movements, hand gestures, facial expressions, and changes in our voice to  communicate with each other. Although some body language is universal, many gestures are culturally  specific and may mean different things in different countries. 

If you want to give someone the nod in Bulgaria, you have to nod your head to say no and shake it to  say yes - the exact opposite of what we do! In Belgium, pointing with your index finger or snapping your  fingers at someone is very rude. 

In France, you shouldn't rest your feet on tables or chairs. Speaking to someone with your hands in  your pockets will only make matters worse. In the Middle East, you should never show the soles of your  feet or shoes to others as it will be seen as a grave insult. When eating, only use your right hand because  they use their left hands when going to the bathroom. 

In Bangladesh, the 'thumbs-up' is a rude sign. In Myanmar, people greet each other by clapping, and in  India, whistling in public is considered rude.  

In Japan, you should not blow your nose in public, but you can burp at the end of a meal to show that  you have enjoyed it. The 'OK' sign (thumb and index finger forming a circle) means 'everything is good'  in the West, but in China it means nothing or zero. In Japan, it means money, and in the Middle East, it is  a rude gesture. 

Question 25: What would be the best title of the passage? 

A. Body language and cultural differences. 

B. Culture in different countries 

C. What should be noticed when you visit Middle East 

D. Signals in different culture. 

Question 26: Different countries are all mentioned in the passage EXCEPT _____.

A. China B. Japan C. France D. Canada

Question 27: The word "others" in paragraph 3 refers to _____. 

A. other people B. other shoes C. other soles D. other feet

Question 28: It is mentioned in the passage that many gestures ______. 

A. may mean different things in different countries 

B. are not used to communicate our feelings 

C. can be used to greet each other in public 

D. are used in greeting among men and women 

Question 29: What can best replace the word "universal" in the final paragraph?

A. global B. national C. local D. extensive 

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the  correct answer to each of the questions. 

Until fairly recently, explaining the presence of human beings in Australia was not such a problem. At the beginning of the twentieth century, it was thought that Aborigines had been on the continent for no more than 400 years. As recently as the 1960s, the time-frame was estimated to be perhaps 8,000 years. Then in 1969 a geologist from the Australian National University in Canberra was poking around on the

shores of a long-dried lake bed called Mungo in a dry and lonely corner of New South Wales when something caught his eye. It was the skeleton of a woman sticking out slightly from a sandbank. The bones were collected and sent off for carbon dating. When the report came back, it showed that the  woman had died 23,000 years ago. Since then, other finds have pushed the date back further. Today the  

evidence points to an arrival date of at least 45,000 years ago but probably more like 60,000. The first occupants of Australia could not have walked there because at no point in human times has Australia not been an island. They could not have arisen independently because Australia has no apelike creatures from which humans could have descended. The first arrivals could only have come by sea, presumably from Timor or the Indonesian archipelago, and here is where the problems arise. In order to put Homo sapiens in Australia you must accept that at a point in time so remote that it precedes the known rise of behaviourally modern humans, there lived in southern Asia a people so advanced that they were finishing inshore waters from boats of some sort. Never mind that they the archaeological record shows no one else on earth doing this for another 30,000 years. Next, we have to explain what led them to cross at least sixty miles of open sea to reach a land they  could hardly have known was there. The scenario that is usually described is of a simple fishing craft  probably little more than a floating platform - accidentally carried out to sea probably in one of the  sudden storms that are characteristic of this area. This craft then drifted helplessly for some days before  washing up on a beach in northern Australia. So far, so good. 

The question that naturally arises - but is seldom asked - is how you get a new population out of this. If  it's a lone fisherman who is carried off to Australia, then clearly he must find his way back to his  homeland to report his discovery and persuade enough people to come with him to start a colony. This  suggests, of course, the possession of considerable sailing skills. 

By any measure this is a staggeringly momentous achievement. And how much notice is paid to it?  Well, ask yourself the last time when you read anything about it. When was the last time in any context  concerning human movements and the rise of civilisations that you saw even a passing mention of the  role of aborigines? They are the planet's invisible people. 

A big part of the problem is that for most of us it is nearly impossible to grasp what an extraordinary span  of time we are considering here. Assume for the sake of argument that the Aborigines arrived 60,000  years ago (that is the figure used by Roger Lewin of Havard in Principles of Evolution, a standard text).  On that scale, the total period of European occupation of Australia represents about 0.3 percent of the  total. In other words, for the first 99.7 per cent of its inhabited history, the Aborigines had Australia to  themselves. They have been there an unimaginably long time. 

(From: First Practice Tests Extra) 

Question 30: What did the discovery of the skeleton show? 

A. Aborigines used to live in very remote parts of Australia. 

B. The area called Mungo, now dry, was once a lake. 

C. Aborigines have been in Australia for longer than previously thought. 

D. The Aborigine population was larger than originally thought. 

Question 31: Which of the following statements is NOT true, according to the text?

A. Australia has always been an island since people existed. 

B. Australian apes became extinct before human times. 

C. Aborigines probably originated in Timor or Indonesia. 

D. Aborigines must have arrived in Australia by sea. 

Question 32: Why is it so surprising that Homo sapiens got to Australia? 

A. It required skills that people generally developed very much later 

B. People in that area were less advanced than other peoples at this time. 

C. Only much smaller boats have been found elsewhere from this period. 

D. Aborigines are not particularly known for their sailing skills. 

Question 33: What usually provides the explanation for the Aborigines arrival in Australia?

A. their curiosity

B. bad weather 

C. a desire for better fishing

D. hunger for land 

Question 34: Which word could replace "staggeringly" without changing the meaning?

A. extraordinarily

B. shockingly

C. wonderfully

D. desperately

Question 35: What does the writer seem most surprised by at the end of this extract?

A. the way that Aborigines managed to establish themselves in Australia 

B. how badly European settlers treated Australian Aborigines 

C. how long Australian Aborigines have lived on the continent 

D. the fact that so little attention is paid to this aspect of human history 

---(Để xem tiếp nội dung của đề thi số 4 các em vui lòng xem tại online hoặc đăng nhập vào HỌC247 để tải về máy)---

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 4

1B 2D 3B 4C 5A 6A 7B 8C 9B 10A 11D 12C 13D 14A 15D 16A 17B 18C 19D 20A 21C 22C 23A 24B 25A 26D 27A 28A 29A 30C 31B 32A 33B 34A 35D 36D 37C 38A 39B 40C 41D 42C 43C 44A 45D 46D 47D 48A 49C 50C

ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QG MÔN TIẾNG ANH- CỤM TRƯỜNG THPT HƯNG YÊN- ĐỀ 05

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part  differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. 

Question 1: A. piece	B. pie	C. peace	D. please
Question 2: A. custom	B. adjustment	C. agriculture	D. costume

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other  three in position of primary stress in each of the following questions. 

Question 3: A. program	B. regard	C. service	D. impact
Question 4: A. popular	B. media	C. creative	D. audience

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate underlined part that needs correction  in each of the following questions. 

Question 5: The man that you are looking for living next door. 

A. are B. the C. living D. that

Question 6: It is important that the patient stays in bed until he fully recovers from the operation.

A. operation B. stays C. important D. until

Question 7: If we had more time last week, we would certainly have finished the project on time. 

A. the B. certainly C. had D. on 

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 

Question 8: I accidentally __________Mike when I was crossing a street downtown yesterday.

A. paid attention to

B. kept an eye on

C. lost touch with

D. caught sight of

Question 9: Not until now _________popularly recognized that man is destroying the environment.

A. does it become B. it has become C. has it become D. it becomes

Question 10: Laura's tired because she ____________all day. 

A. has shopped B. has been shopping C. shops D. shopped

Question 11: “Don't stay up late any longer, ___________?” 

A. should you B. won't you C. will you D. do you

Question 12: Paul noticed a job adve

rtisement while he ______________along the street.

A. was walking

B. had walked

C. walked

D. would walk

Question 13: If people and businesses don't go green, we will soon _________our natural resources. A. deplete B. preserve C. replenish D. dispose 

Question 14: The man ______on the chair behind me kept talking during the film, _______really  annoyed me.

A. having sat/ that

B. sitting/ which

C. to sit/ what

D. to be sitting/ who

Question 15: More and more investors are pouring _______money into food and beverage start-ups.

A. X B. the C. an D. a

Question 16: There is no excuse for your late submission! You _________the report by last Monday.

A. mightn't have finished

B. needn't have finished 

C. should have finished

D. must have finished 

Question 17: The __________friendly products are designed not to harm the natural environment.

A. environmentalist B. environment C. environmentally D. environmental

Question 18: The market for tablets is becoming _____________all the time.

A. more competitiver and competitiver

B. competitiver and competitiver

C. more competitive and competitive

D. more and more competitive

Question 19: Paul has just sold his ______________car and intends to buy a new one.

A. old Japanese black

B. black old Japanese 

C. Japanese old black

D. old black Japanese 

Question 20: I've never really enjoyed going to the ballet or the opera; they're not really my ______.

A. biscuit B. cup of tea C. piece of cake D. sweets and candy

Question 21: Americans account ____________12% of the US population. 

A. of B. on C. with D. for

Question 22: Spider monkeys are the best climbers in the jungle, _______they do not have thumbs.

A. nevertheless B. for C. although D. despite 

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to  complete each of the following changes. 

Question 23: “Would you like to have dinner with me?” - “ __________.” 

A. I'm very happy.

B. Yes, so do I.

C. Yes, it is.

D. Yes, I'd love to

Question 24: Student: “Could you help me to fax this report?” Librarian: “ 

A. Certainly. What's the fax number?

B. Sorry I have no idea 

C. What rubbish! I don't think it's helpful

D. It's very kind of you to say so 

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to  the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 

Question 25: Educators are complaining that students rely on social media so much that they lose  the ability to think critically. 

A. insist on B. appear on C. depend on D. decide on

Question 26: He did his work reluctantly because he did not like the culture of this company.

A. slowly B. inefficiently C. unwillingly D. successfully 

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning  to the underline word(s) in each of the following questions. 

Question 27: Using social networks helps you keep in touch with friends and family any time.

A. catch up with

B. keep track of

C. lose touch with

D. put up with

Question 28: My cousin tends to look on the bright side in any circumstance.

A. be pessimistie

B. be optimistic

C. be confident

D. be smart 

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in  meaning to each of the following questions. 

Question 29: Susan hasn't driven a car before. 

A. It is the first time Susan goes by car. 

B. It is the first time Susan has driven a car. 

C. It is the first time Susan is driving a car. 

D. It is the first time Susan goes in a car. 

Question 30: He never suspected that she was a witch. 

A. Never did he suspect that a witch she was. 

B. At no time did he suspect that she was a witch. 

C. Never a witch did he suspect that she was. 

D. No before did he suspect was she a witch. 

Question 31: "Why don't you complain to the company. John?" said Peter. 

A. Peter suggested John to complain to the company. 

B. Peter suggested that John should complain to the company. 

C. Peter asked John why he doesn't complain to the company. 

D. Peter advised John complaining to the company. 

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each  pair of sentences in the following questions. 

Question 32: A thermometer is an instrument. We use it to measure the temperature.

A. A thermometer is an instrument which is used to measure the temperature.

B. We use thermometer which measure the temperature. 

C. We use it to measure the temperature which is a thermometer. 

D. A thermometer is an instrument which we use it to measure the temper 

Question 33: We cut down many forests. The Earth becomes hot. 

A. The more we cut down forests, the hotter the Earth becomes. 

B. The more forests we cut down, the hotter the Earth becomes. 

C. The more we cut down forests, the Earth becomes hotter. 

D. The more forests we cut down, the Earth becomes hotter. 

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the  correct word or phrase that best fits each of the number blanks from 34 to 38. 

Our classes take place for three hours every morning from Monday to Friday. The (34) _________size is twelve and the average is ten. We use modern methods (35) __________teaching  and learning, and the school has a language laboratory, a video camera and recorders. You will only 

be successful in improving your English; however, if you work hard and practise speaking English as  much as you can. You will take a short (36) __________in English as soon as you arrive. In this way,  we can put you in a (37) ____________at the most suitable level. 

The emphasis is on oral communication practice in a wide (38) __________of situations at the  advanced knowledge. You will learn how to use language correctly and appropriately when you talk  to native speakers. In addition, you will develop such study skills as reading efficiently, writing  articles and reports, and note-taking from books and lectures.

---(Để xem tiếp nội dung của đề thi số 5 các em vui lòng xem tại online hoặc đăng nhập vào HỌC247 để tải về máy)---

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 5

1B 2D 3B 4C 5C 6B 7C 8D 9C 10B 11C 12A 13A 14B 15A 16C 17C 18D 19D 20B 21D 22C 23D 24A 25C 26C 27C 28A 29B 30B 31B 32A 33B 34B 35A 36A 37D 38A 39D 40A 41B 42D 43D 44D 45A 46A 47A 48A 49D 50C

...

Trên đây là một phần trích đoạn nội dung Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG môn Tiếng Anh năm 2021-2022 có đáp án Cụm Trường THPT Hưng Yên. Để xem toàn bộ nội dung các em chọn chức năng xem online hoặc đăng nhập vào trang hoc247.net để tải tài liệu về máy tính.

Mời các em tham khảo tài liệu có liên quan:

• Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG môn Tiếng Anh năm 2021-2022 có đáp án Trường THPT Chuyên Lam Sơn Lần 2
• Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG môn Tiếng Anh năm 2021-2022 có đáp án Trường THPT Tiên Du Lần 1

Hy vọng bộ đề thi này sẽ giúp các em học sinh ôn tập tốt và đạt thành tích cao trong kì thi sắp tới.