Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG năm 2021 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THPT Cần Vương

BỘ 5 ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QG NĂM 2021 MÔN TIẾNG ANH

TRƯỜNG THPT CẦN VƯƠNG

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 1: Despite their normal cylindrical form, some of the documents  ______ on silk that were found at Mawangdui, an archaeological site in southeastern China, were folded into rectangles.

A. wrote                      B. written

C. were written           D.  be written

Question 2: John's ______ and efficiency at the company led to his promotion to Sales Manager.

A. punctuality             B. punctual

C. punctuate               D. punctually

Question 3: I am sure your sister will lend you a sympathetic_____when you explain the situation to her.

A. eye                          B. ear

C. arm                         D. finger

Question 4: Mr. Pike is certainly a______writer; he has written quite a few books this year.

A. prolific                    B. fruitful

C. fertile                      D. successful

Question 5: We were quite impressed by the ______ students who came up with the answer to our question almost instantly.

A. absent-minded       B. big-headed

C. quick-witted           D. bad-tempered

Question 6: My cousin was nervous about being interviewed on television, but he ______ to the occasion wonderfully.

A. raised                      B. rose

C. fell                          D. faced

Question 7: Daisy has spent the last two weekends _____ hundreds of photographs so that she can put them in separate albums.

A. playing at               B. sorting out

C. cutting off              D. filling up

Question 8: I didn’t see the red light at the crossroads. Otherwise, I _____ my car.

A. stopped

B. had stopped

C. would have stopped

D. would stop

Question 9: I much preferred it when we _____ to Wales every summer on holiday.

A. used to go

B. were used to going

C. had gone

D. have been going

Question 10: The incident happening last week left her ______ confused and hurt.

A. feel                         B. felt

C. feeling                    D. to feel

Question 11: “We gave them the money yesterday, but we haven't received a receipt yet, ______?’’ she asked her husband.

A. didn't we                B. have we

C. did we                    D. haven’t we

Question 12: You and your big mouth! It was supposed to be a secret. You _____ her!

A. shouldn't have told

B. mightn’t have told

C. mustn't have told

D. couldn't have told

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 13.

A. notify           B. advocate

C. influence       D. interfere

Question 14:

A. royal             B. unique

C. remote          D. extreme

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) or phrase(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the bold and underlined word(s) or phrase(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 15: Many organizations have been involved in drawing up the report on environmental campaigns.

A. concerned about               B. confined in

C. enquired about                  D. engaged in

Question 16. His girlfriend’s behavior at the party was unacceptable, which made everyone there shocked.

A. out of practice                   B. out of line

C. out of the habit                  D. out of sight

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) or phrase(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the bold and underlined word(s) or phrase(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 17: If any employee knowingly breaks the terms of this contract, he will be dismissed immediately.

A. coincidentally                    B. deliberately

C. instinctively                       D. accidentally

Question 18: Wendy is on the horns of a dilemma: she just wonders whether to go for a picnic with her friends or to stay at home with her family.

A. unwilling to make a decision

B. able to make a choice

C. eager to make a plan

D. unready to make up her mind

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose bold and underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 19:

A. custom                   B. cushion

C. mushroom              D. culture

Question 20:

A. presses                  B. precedes 

C. judges                    D. catches

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer that best fits the blank space in the following passage.

21^st CENTURY TEACHERS: INEVITABLE CHANGES

21^st century teachers need to serve as a guide or mentor for their students, not as the all- knowing sage providing them with everything they need. Nowadays, with so much access (21) ______ resources of all kinds, children invariably know more than teachers on different topics, step ahead of the technology. Teachers need to be empowered as facilitators for learning, so that they can empower their students in (22) ______.

This shift is great news for teachers. Instead of struggling to give kids all the information in areas (23) ______ they know little about, teachers can support students as they make their own steps into different fields. It’s about preparing them to go beyond their seniors, ensuring they have the skills to do it, and assisting them along the way.

(24) ______, teachers need to be forward-thinking, curious and flexible. They must be learners: learning new teaching methods, and learning alongside their students. Simply asking questions like “What will my students need dozens of years from now?” or “How can I help give them those skills?” can change teachers' (25) ______, make them a leader, and bring about changes in the classroom, school and community.

Question 21.

A. to                           B. with

C. for                          D. in

Question 22:

A. sight                       B. use

C. line                         D. turn

Question 23:

A. what                        B. that

C. where                     D. whom

Question 24:

A. For instance            B. Therefore

C. In practice              D. Otherwise

Question 25:

A. knowledge               B. prejudice

C. mindset                  D. judgement 

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions

For centuries, time was measured by the position of the sun with the use of sundials. Noon was recognized when the sun was the highest in the sky, and cities would set their clock by this apparent solar time, even though some cities would often be on a slightly different time. Daylight Saving Time (DST), sometimes called summer time, was instituted to make better use of daylight. Thus, clocks are set forward one hour in the spring to move an hour of daylight from the morning to the evening and then set back one hour in the fall to return to normal daylight.

Benjamin Franklin first conceived the idea of daylight saving during his tenure as an American delegate in Paris in 1984 and wrote about it extensively in his essay, "An Economical Project." It is said that Franklin awoke early one morning and was surprised to see the sunlight at such an hour. Always the economist, Franklin believed the practice of moving the time could save on the use of candlelight, as candles were expensive at the time.

In England, builder William Willett (1857–1915) became a strong supporter for Daylight Saving Time upon noticing blinds of many houses were closed on an early sunny morning. Willet believed everyone, including himself, would appreciate longer hours of light in the evenings. In 1909, Sir Robert Pearce introduced a bill in the House of Commons to make it obligatory to adjust the clocks. A bill was drafted and introduced into Parliament several times but met with great opposition, mostly from farmers. Eventually, in 1925, it was decided that summer time should begin on the day following the third Saturday in April and close after the first Saturday in October.

The U.S. Congress passed the Standard Time Act of 1918 to establish standard time and preserve and set Daylight Saving Time across the continent. This act also devised five time zones throughout the United States: Eastern, Central, Mountain, Pacific, and Alaska. The first time zone was set on "the mean astronomical time of the seventy-fifth degree of longitude west from Greenwich" (England). In 1919, this act was repealed.

President Roosevelt established year-round Daylight Saving Time (also called War Time) from 1942–1945. However, after this period, each state adopted its own DST, which proved to be disconcerting to television and radio broadcasting and transportation. In 1966, President Lyndon Johnson created the Department of Transportation and signed the Uniform Time Act. As a result, the Department of Transportation was given the responsibility for the time laws. During the oil embargo and energy crisis of the 1970s, President Richard Nixon extended DST through the Daylight Saving Time Energy Act of 1973 to conserve energy further. This law was modified in 1986, and Daylight Saving Time was reset to begin on the first Sunday in April (to spring ahead) and end on the last Sunday in October (to fall back).

Question 26: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to 

A. Franklin’s idea of daylight saving

B. Franklin's first conception

C.  Franklin’s first official tenure

D. Franklin’s delegation

Question 27: The word “obligatory” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to           

A. imperative              B. approved

C. deficient                 D. peculiar

Question 28: Who opposed the bill that was introduced in the House of Commons in the early 1900s?

A. Sir Robert Pearce

B. television and radio broadcasting companies

C. farmers

D. the U.S. Congress

Question 29: The word “devised” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to   

A. divided                   B. invented

C. ordered                   D. adapted

Question 30: Which of the following statements is true of the U.S. Department of Transportation?

A. It was created by President Richard Nixon.

B. It set standards for DST throughout the world.

C. It constructed the Uniform Time Act.

D. It oversees all time laws in the United States.

Question 31: The Daylight Saving Time Energy Act of 1973 was responsible for

A. extending Daylight Saving Time in the interest of energy conservation

B. preserving and setting Daylight Saving Time across the continent

C. instituting five time zones in the United States

D. conserving energy by giving the Department of Transportation authority over time laws

Question 32: Which of the following would be the best title for this passage?

A. Lyndon Johnson and the Uniform Time Act

B. The History and Rationale of Daylight Saving Time

C. The U.S. Department of Transportation and Daylight Saving Time

D. Daylight Saving Time in the United States

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 33: Harry is talking to Judy over the phone.

Harry: “Thank you for helping me prepare for my birthday party, Judy.”

Judy: “_______.”

A. It’s my pleasure

B. That’s out of this world

C. Never mention me

D. Of course not

Question 34: Tom and Josh are discussing their summer vacation plan.

Tom: “ _______.”

Josh: “I don’t think that’s a good idea because it will be costly and strenuous.”

A. Is it wise to climb Mount Everest when we are in India this summer?

B. What if weclimb Mount Everest when we are in India this summer?

C. How come will we climb Mount Everest when we are in India this summer?

D. Why don’t we climb Mount Everest when we are in India this summer?

(248391) Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions

Question 35: Neither (A) the Minister nor his colleagues has given (B) an explanation for (C) the chaos in the financial market (D) last week.

Question 36: To (A) everyone's surprise, (B) it wasn't in Bristol which (C) he made (D) his fortune, although that’s where he was born.

Question 37: This might not (A) matter with (B) you, but some people are (C) going to be negatively (D) affected by this decision.

Read the following passage, and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

SHAYNE’S DREAMS COME TRUE - BUT WILL THEY BE SHATTERED?

It is a week before The X Factor live tour when I meet the winner of the series, Shayne Ward. “It has been mental,” he says, referring to the past six months of his life. “I've just been talking to Louis Walsh on the phone. Louis Walsh!” Walsh, a top record producer and The X Factor judge, now manages Shayne’s career. “I was talking to Simon Cowell (a celebrity record producer) yesterday!” He shakes his head in amazement. And these people are telling me they're excited about working with me. “I can't get my head round it.”

Shayne is about as natural as any pop star arriving in the public arena can be. “I just can’t accept where I am now” he says sincerely. “It doesn't feel real. To me, this is just a job.” “What do you think being famous feels like?” I ask him. “I'm not sure, to be honest. Different from this?” he laughs, with only a hint of nerves. Since winning The X Factor, Shayne's success has been phenomenal. His debut single took just three days to reach the number one spot. On tour, he's going to play to audiences of 10,000 on average. He has already brought the house down at a gig in his home city. “I walked out after that performance and just thought, “I’m dreaming!””

Shayne is one of a family of seven children. Times were hard, but he has never wished or a different childhood. Although he thought about going to college, he ended up leaving school at sixteen, just to help his mother pay the rent. He set out on his reality show journey shortly afterwards. When he told he friends he had an audition for The X Factor, none of them really believed him. “I thought I’d go fot it because my family wanted me to, but I never really believed that I would win.”

Naturally, Ward is a fan of reality TV talent shows. “They're brilliant, because people who want recording contracts try for years and get nowhere. Then these competitions come along the people at home decide whether they like the singers or not. So its not just a few people at a record company deciding who gets a chance.” But the previous winner of The X Factor only had one hit. He hasn't been heard of since then. Is Shayne Ward going to be another talent show flop?

A lot of people feel cynical about reality TV show winners and their chances of continuing success. Audiences usually lose interest in them as soon as the show has finished. In fact, contestants on shows like Big Brother are given severe warnings from the show’s producers beforehand, basically telling them “you will not be liked”. Talent shows like The X Factor have to offer contestants a kind of stardom though, and something they can think of as a career, months afterwards at least.

Question 38: The word “mental” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to

A. psychiatric             B. physical

C. crazy                     D. mind-bending

Question 39: The word “it” in the first paragraph refers to

A. the tour                  B. the experience

C. the phone call         D. the show

Question 40: Which of the following statement is TRUE about Shayne Ward?

A. He is certain how well known he is.

B. He finds his present situation unacceptable.

C. He is confused about the nature of fame.

D. He thinks his job isn’t particularly glamorous.

Question 41: After performing in his home city, Shayne felt

A. overwhelmed         B. embarrassed

C. disappointed          D. relieved

Question 42: After leaving school at the age of sixteen, Shayne

A. set off on a trip

B. gave up performing

C. got himself a job

D. applied to a college

Question 43: The word “flop” in the passage is closest in meaning to

A. someone who is unpopular

B. someone who is unsuccessful

C. someone who isn’t ambitious

D. someone who lacks character

Question 44: According to the passage, who decide the winner of a reality TV talent show?

A. audiences              

B. contestants

C. previous winners

D. record companies

Question 45: What does the writer suggest about reality talent show winners?

A. They are treated badly by producers.

B. Their fame is short-lived.

C. Audiences never really like them.

D. They don’t expect to be popular.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 46: Steve said to Mike, “Don’t touch the electric wires. It might be deadly.”

A. Steve advised Mike not to touch the electric wires as it might be deadly.

B. Steve warned Mike not to touch the wires as it might be deadly.

C. Steve suggested that Mike not touch the electric wires as it might be deadly.

D. Steve did not allow Mike to touch the electric wires as it might be deadly.

Question 47: I did not see Susan off at the airport. I feel bad about it now.

A. I could have seen Susan off at the airport.

B. If only I had seen Susan off at the airport.

C. That I did not see Susan off at the airport escapes me now.

D. It suddenly dawns on me that I should have seen Susan off at the airport.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 48: Sam doesn’t find it difficult to get up early in the morning.

A. Sam is in two minds about getting up early in the morning.

B. Sam is not hesitant to get up early in the morning.

C. Sam is accustomed to getting up early in the morning.

D. Sam is pleased with getting up early in the morning.

Question 49: People rumour that the Prince secretly got married to an ordinary girl.

A. The Prince is rumoured to have secretly got married to an ordinary girl.

B. It was rumoured that the Prince secretly got married to an ordinary girl.

C. The Prince was rumoured to secretly get married to an ordinary girl.

D. The Prince had secretly got married to an ordinary girl, as it was rumoured.

Question 50: There is no doubt that Martin is the best candidate for the job.

A. Martin is by all means the best candidate for the job.

B. Without question, Martin is the best candidate for the job.

C. In all likelihood, Martin is the best candidate for the job.

D. Quite by chance, Martin is the best candidate for the job.

ĐÁP ÁN

1	2	3	4	5
B	A	B	A	C
6	7	8	9	10
B	B	C	B	C
11	12	13	14	15
B	A	D	A	D
16	17	18	19	20
B	D	B	B	B
21	22	23	24	25
A	D	B	B	C
26	27	28	29	30
A	A	C	B	D
31	32	33	34	35
A	D	A	D	B
36	37	38	39	40
C	A	C	C	D
41	42	43	44	45
A	C	B	A	B
46	47	48	49	50
B	B	C	A	B

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Câu 1:

A. campaign               B. sculpture

C. hostess                   D. floppy

Câu 2:

A. apologize               B. sacrifice

C. accompany             D. determine

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from  the other three in  pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Câu 3:

A. refreshment            B. effective

C. residential               D. enthusiastic

Câu 4:

A. blamed                   B. approached

C. secured                  D. installed

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Câu 5: When she died, she gave _____ all her money to a charity for cats.

A. off                          B. out

C. away                       D. up

Câu 6: The telephone _____ by Alexander Graham Bell.

A. invented                 B. be invented 

C. was invented          D. is inventing

Câu 7: After a short holiday, he  _____ himself once more to his studies.

A. exerted                   B. converted

C. applied                   D. engaged

Câu 8: Do you remember Mr.Brown _____ taught us how to write an English essay?

A. that                         B. whom

C. who                         D. those

Câu 9: If my candidate had won the election, I _____ happy now.

A. would be                B. would have been

C. will be                    D. am

Câu 10: This is just a(n) _____ meeting; you can dress casually like jeans and T-shirt.

A. formal                     B. formally

C. informally                D. informal

Câu 11: The computer has had an enormous _____ on the way we work.

A. impression              B. change

C. influence                D. success

Câu 12: Our project was successful _____ its practicality.

A. in terms of              B. with a view to

C. on behalf of            D. regardless

Câu 13: Why don’t you have your brother _____ the roof?

A. repairs                     B. to repair

C. repair                      D. repaired

Câu 14: Martina _____ all of the questions correctly since she began this grammar program course.

A. answers                  B. has answered

C. answered                D. is answering

Câu 15: In the first _____ year of the English Literature program, the core subjects were The Development of the Novel and Contemporary Poetry.

A. study                      B. optional

C. compulsory             D. academic

Câu 16: I don’t know how many _____, but it sounds like that they have a dozen.

A. do they have children

B. children do they have

C. children they have

D. they have children

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Câu 17: Peter: “Don’t fail to send your parents my regards.”

         Susan: “_____.”

A. You’re welcome.

B. Thanks, I will.

C. Good ideas, thanks

D. It’s my pleasure.

Câu 18: Tom: “I’m sorry, I left my guitar home.”

         Helen: “_____, I’ve got another one here.”

A. No way

B. Never mind

C. Well, you do? I’m sorry

D. Oh. What’s a pity for that.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word (s) in each of the following questions.

Câu 19: Local charity organization benefited the fire victims.

A. donated                  B. claimed 

C. prevented               D. protested

Câu 20: Please stop making that noise! It really gets on my nerves.

A. cheers me up          B. wakes me up

C. amuses me              D. annoys me

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet  to  indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Câu 21: After the marriage, Ruth decided to settle permanently inNew York.

A. sustainably             B. constantly

C. temporarily             D. regularly

Câu 22: She was happy that she could get in touch with a lot of her old friends when she went abroad to study.

A. lose contact with

B. lose control of

C. put in charge of

D. make room for

ĐÁP ÁN

1	2	3	4	5
A	B	C	B	C
6	7	8	9	10
C	C	C	A	D
11	12	13	14	15
C	A	C	B	D
16	17	18	19	20
C	B	B	A	D
21	22	23	24	25
C	A	C	B	D
26	27	28	29	30
D	C	B	A	A
31	32	33	34	35
A	D	D	A	D
36	37	38	39	40
D	A	A	B	A
41	42	43	44	45
B	D	A	C	C
46	47	48	49	50
C	D	B	C	C

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 1.

A. diverse            B. current

C. justice             D. series

Question 2.

A. interview        B. compliment

C. sacrifice          D. represent

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 3.

A. supportive      B. substantial 

C. compulsory     D. curriculum

Question 4.

A. listens             B. reviews 

C. protects           D. enjoys

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following question.

Question 5. If an alarm _____, the thieves wouldn’t have broken into his house.

A. installed

B. had installed

C. have installed

D. had been installed

Question 6. I know you didn’t want to upset me but I’d sooner you _____ the whole truth yesterday.

A. have told                           B. told

C. could have told                 D. had told

Question 7. A fire in the _____ building could be a problem for fightfires.

A. ninety-storeys-tall

B. ninety-storey-tall

C. ninety-tall-storey

D. ninety-storeyed

Question 8. There has been little rain in this area for months, _____?

A. has it                             B. has there

C. hasn’t it                         D. hasn’t there

Question 9. She could _____ in the garden when we came around, which would explain why she didn’t hear the bell.

A. work

B. be working

C. have worked

D. have been working

Question 10. The party leader traveled the length and _____ of the country in an attempt to spread his message.

A. width                      B. distance

C. diameter                 D. breadth

Question 11. Many young people have objected to _____ marriage, which is decided by the parents of the bride and groom.

A. sacrificed                  B. contractual

C. agreed                      D. shared

Question 12. The doctor _____ the cut on my knee and said it had completely healed up.

A. looked into                 B. researched

C. examined                   D. investigated

Question 13. Karen is so _____ that she thinks she is more important than anyone else.

A. meticulous                B. pretentious

C. ironic                        D. susceptible

Question 14. “This room is filled with smoke”. “Yes, this is a ____ room.”

A. smoke-filled                B. smoke-filling

C. filling-smoke               D. smoking-filled

Question 15. As an ASEAN member, Vietnam has actively participated in the groups programs and has also created new_____ and cooperation mechanics.

A. initiatives                    B. initiators 

C. initiations                    D. initiates

Question 16. Vietnam U23 made not only Asia but also Europe keep a close eye on them. They _____ internationally.

A. have made headlines

B. had made headlines

C. have done headlines

D. did headlines

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 17. The first few days at university can be very daunting, but with determination and positive attitude, freshman will soon fit in with the new environment.

A. interesting                    B. memorable

C. serious                         D. depressing

Question 18. The guards were ordered to get to the king’s room on the double.

A. in a large number

B. very quickly

C. on the second floor 

D. every two hours

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 19. Strongly advocating healthy foods, Jane doesn’t eat any chocolate.

A. denying                   B. supporting

C. advising                   D. impugning

Question 20. The nominating committee always meet behind closed doors, lest its deliberations become known prematurely.

A. privately                    B. safely

C. publicly                      D. dangerously

ĐÁP ÁN

1	2	3	4	5
A	D	C	C	C
6	7	8	9	10
D	B	B	D	D
11	12	13	14	15
B	C	B	A	A
16	17	18	19	20
A	D	B	D	C
21	22	23	24	25
C	B	C	B	D
26	27	28	29	30
D	D	A	B	B
31	32	33	34	35
C	C	A	A	C
36	37	38	39	40
A	A	C	B	D
41	42	43	44	45
A	A	B	B	D
46	47	48	49	50
B	D	B	D	B

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

              Plants are subject to attack and infection by a remarkable variety of symbiotic species and have evolved a diverse array of mechanisms designed to frustrate the  potential colonists. These can be divided into preformed or passive defense mechanisms  and inducible or active systems. Passive plant defense comprises physical and chemical  barriers that prevent entry of pathogens, such as bacteria, or render tissues unpalatable or toxic to the invader. The external surfaces of plants, in addition to being covered by an epidermis and a waxy cuticle, often carry spiky hairs known as trichomes, which either prevent feeding by insects or may even puncture and kill insect larvae. Other trichomes are sticky and glandular and effectively trap and immobilize insects. If the physical barriers of the plant are breached, then preformed chemicals may inhibit or kill the intruder, and plant tissues contain a diverse array of toxic or potentially toxic substances, such as resins, tannins, glycosides, and alkaloids, many of which are highly effective deterrents to insects that feed on plants. The success of the Colorado beetle in infesting potatoes, for example, seems to be correlated with its high tolerance to alkaloids that normally repel potential pests. Other possible chemical  defenses, while not directly toxic to the parasite, may inhibit some essential step in the establishment of a parasitic relationship. For example, glycoproteins in plant cell walls may inactivate enzymes that degrade cell walls. These enzymes are often produced by bacteria and fungi.

            Active plant defense mechanisms are comparable to the immune system of  vertebrate animals, although the cellular and molecular bases are fundamentally different. Both, however, are triggered in reaction to intrusion, implying that the host has some means of recognizing the presence of a foreign organism. The most dramatic example of an inducible plant defense reaction is the hypersensitive response. In the hypersensitive response, cells undergo rapid necrosis ― that is, they become diseased 

and die ― after being penetrated by a parasite ; the parasite itself subsequently ceases to grow and is therefore restricted to one or a few cells around the entry site. Several theories have been put forward to explain the bases of hypersensitive resistance.

Question 1. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. How the immune system of animals and the defense mechanisms of plants differ

B. How plant defense mechanisms function

C. Theories on active plant defense mechanisms

D. The success of parasites in resisting plant defense mechanisms

Question 2. The phrase "subject to" in line 1 is closest in meaning to

A. attractive to

B. strengthened by

C. classified by

D. susceptible to

Question 3. The word "puncture" in line 8 is closest in meaning to

A. surround                  B. pinch

C. pierce                      D. cover

Question 4. The word "which" in line 13 refers to

A. barriers                   B. tissues

C. substances             D. insects

Question 5. Which of the following substances does the author mention as NOT necessarily being toxic to the Colorado beetle?

A. Alkaloids                B. Glycosides

C. Resins                    D. Tannins

Question 6. Why does the author mention "glycoproteins" in line 17?

A. To illustrate how chemicals function in plant defense

B. To emphasize the importance of physical barriers in plant defense

C. To compare plant defense mechanisms to the immune system of animals

D. To introduce the discussion of active defense mechanisms in plants

Question 7. Where in the passage dose the author describe an active plant-defense reaction?

A. Lines 1-3                 B. Lines 13-15

C. Lines 19-23             D. Lines 4-6

Question 8. The passage most probable continues with a discussion of theories on

A. the basis of passage plant defense

B. the principles of the hypersensitive response.

C. how chemicals inhibit a parasitic relationship.

D. how plants produce toxic chemical.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the top of the first page to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 9.

A. music                      B. refusal

C. studying                  D. human

Question 10.

A. vehicle                     B. hospital 

C. honest                      D. heir

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the top of the first page to indicate the word that  differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the  following questions.

Question 11.

A. necessarily               B. originally

C. elaborately               D. mysteriously

Question 12.

A. favorable                  B. democracy 

C. relationship               D. evaluate

ĐÁP ÁN

1	2	3	4	5
B	D	C	C	A
6	7	8	9	10
A	C	B	C	B
11	12	13	14	15
A	A	A	D	C
16	17	18	19	20
D	A	B	A	C
21	22	23	24	25
C	D	D	D	D
26	27	28	29	30
A	D	A	B	D
31	32	33	34	35
C	D	C	A	B
36	37	38	39	40
B	B	B	C	B
41	42	43	44	45
B	D	D	A	A
46	47	48	49	50
D	C	A	A	C

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 1.

A. epidemic                     B. outstanding

C. eternal                        D. contribute

Question 2.

A. complete                     B. accuse

C. demand                       D. argue

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) whose underlined part differs from the other pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 3.

A. values                         B. accelerates

C. responsibilities             D. waves

Question 4.

A. supported                   B. mended

C. dressed                      D. attracted

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 5.     Bush: “______________.”

                        Clinton: “No, but thanks all the same.”

A. Another cup of coffee?

B. May I help you?

C. Would you like a slice of salad?  

D. How about having dinner out?

Question 6.     Tom: “Would you please drive me to class today?”

                        Thuy: “________________.”

A. No, I don’t mind

B. You are welcome

C. Yes, I’d be glad to 

D. Thank you for all

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in the meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 7. We had a quite fantastic day out at the seaside; everybody had a whale of a time.

A. had a chance to see a whale

B. had a lot of time to play

C. enjoyed playing with a whale 

D. enjoy themselves a lot

Question 8. The term yard was used extensively by English as the measurement from the tip of a man’s nose to the tip of his outstretched thumb.

A. occasionally                 B. widely

C. lengthily                      D. precisely

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 9. He was utterly devastated by the news.

A. surprise                       B. happy

C. upset                           D. shocked

Question 10. The Browns are both unemployed. With their six children they must be in a tight corner these day.

A. in disappointment 

B. in a bad condition

C. wealthy 

D. exhausted

ĐÁP ÁN

1	2	3	4	5
A	D	B	C	A
6	7	8	9	10
C	D	B	B	C
11	12	13	14	15
A	D	A	B	C
16	17	18	19	20
B	C	A	D	B
21	22	23	24	25
C	B	A	C	D
26	27	28	29	30
A	A	D	A	A
31	32	33	34	35
A	B	D	C	A
36	37	38	39	40
C	A	B	A	D
41	42	43	44	45
A	C	C	C	C
46	47	48	49	50
A	A	D	C	A

  ---

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