Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG năm 2021 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THPT Duy Tân

BỘ 5 ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QG NĂM 2021 MÔN TIẾNG ANH

TRƯỜNG THPT DUY TÂN

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1.

A. expands                       B. installs 

C. swallows                       D. rejects

Question 2.

A. purpose                         B. compose

C. suppose                         D. propose 

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3.

A. compulsory                 B. certificate 

C. category                      D. accompany

Question 4.

A. decent                    B. secure

C. maintain                 D. confide

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following question.

Question 5. I _____ the garden. No sooner had I finished watering it than it came down in torrents.

A. shouldn’t have watered  

B. mustn’t have watered

C. can’t have watered   

D. needn’t have watered

Question 6. A true relationship is thought to be a friendship that may _____ through changes in the lives of the friends.

A. entail                       B. remain

C. endure                    D. continue

Question 7. I’m not going to go ice skating! I’d only fall over and _____ a fool of myself.

A. create                      B. show

C. do                            D. make

Question 8. Silence _____ the theatre as the audience awaited the opening curtain with expectation and excitement.

A. fell in with                B. came between

C. hung over                D. dropped out of

Question 9. The scientists _____ on this project try to find the solutions to air pollution.

A. working                       B. worked

C. are working                 D. who working

Question 10. If Nam had passed the GCSE examination, he _____ to take the entrance examination to the university.

A. would have been allowed

B. would have allowed

C. will have allowed

D. would allow

Question 11. When the kids asked him about his girlfriend, he’d go as red as a _____.

A. tomato                     B. chili

C. strawberry                D. beetroot

Question 12. My brothers are often very ____ to what I say. They are really lovable.

A. obedience                B. obedient

C. obey                         D. obstacle

Question 13. I must warn you I am not used to _____ so rudely

A. speak                         B. be spoken 

C. speak to me               D. being spoken to

Question 14. He is tired now. He _____ the gardening for hours.

A. has done                   B. is doing 

C. did                             D. has been doing

Question 15. Let me explain everything to you, _____?

A. shall we                      B. will you 

C. will we                        D. do you

Question 16. The trouble with James is that he never _____ on time for a meeting.

A. turns up                   B. takes off 

C. takes up                  D. turns down

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 17. As orders are becoming more and more, we’ve been rushed off our feet all week.

A. very angry                   B. very busy 

C. very worried                D. very happy

Question 18. The atomic bomb annihilated the whole city, so nothing was left standing.

A. disturbed                     B. constructed  

C. converted                    D. destroyed

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 19. The minister came under fire for his rash decision to close the factory.

A. was dismissed            B. was acclaimed 

C. was criticized              D. was penalized

Question 20. Those who advocate for doctor-assisted suicide say the terminally ill should not have to suffer.

A. support                               B. oppose 

C. annul                                  D. convict

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 21. Mr. Collin is speaking to his student, Brian.

Mr. Collin: “You’ve been making very good progress. I’m proud of you!”

Brian: “_____”

A. No problem

B. Don’t worry about it!

C. Everything’s alright. Thank you.  

D. I really appreciate you saying that.

Question 22. Peter: “Could you fill it up, please?”

Ivan: “_____”

A. Sure. Shall I check the oil as well?

B. Not at all. I’ll fill the oil for you.

C. Certainly. My job is to fill in the application. 

D. Where? Of course not.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 23. People say that at least ten applicants have been selected for the job interview.

A. It is said that well over ten people are interested in having an interview for the job.

B. It is said that no fewer than ten people are going to be interviewed for the job.

C. People say that fewer than ten job interviews have been held so far.

D. I have heard that only ten people have been chosen to have the job interviewed.

Question 24. Eating with chopsticks feels strange to Jonathan.

A. Eating with chopsticks isn’t what Jonathan used to.       

B. Jonathan is not used to eating with chopsticks.                            

C. Not feeling strange, Jonathan tries eating with chopsticks.                      

D. Jonathan didn’t use to eat with chopsticks.

Question 25. “Why don’t you have your room repainted?” said Robert to Lan.

A. Robert suggested having Lam’s room repainted.

B. Robert asked Lam why you didn’t have your room repainted.

C. Robert wanted to know why Lam doesn’t have his room repainted.

D. Robert suggested that Lam should have his room repainted.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 26. In your country, schools are open to all. The accept children of any race, color or creed.

A. In our country, schools are open to all children irrespective of race, color or creed.

B. In our country, schools are open to all children except for race, color or creed.

C. Apart from  race, color or creed, schools are open to all children in your country.

D. Children of any race, color or creed can be admitted to our schools when they are opened.

Question 27. He felt very tired. He was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.

A. He felt so tired that he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.

B. Feeling very tired, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.

C. Tired as he might, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.

D. As result of his tiredness, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D in your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 28. Thomas refused to join the school basketball team, this was not good news at all.

A. to join                     B. school

C. this                         D. good

Question 29. I am now in my attempt winning a place at the same university to my brother.

A. now in                      B. winning 

C. at the same              D. to

Question 30. However type of raw materials is used in making paper, the process is essentially the same.

A. However                  B. is used

C. paper                       D. essentially

Read the following passage and mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the blanks.

     British families started going on holiday to the seaside around the middle of the 19th century. The invention of the railways made this possible. The first holidaymakers were quite rich and went for their health and education. The seaside was a place to be (31) ______ of illnesses, and doctors recommended bathing in the sea and drinking sea water. Also to increase their knowledge, families attended concerts and read books from libraries.

    At that time, ordinary working people had very little time (32) ______. However, in 1871, the government introduce four “Bank Holidays” – national holiday days. This allowed people to have a day or two out, which now and then gave them a taste for leisure and the seaside. At first they went on day-trips, taking (33) ______ of special cheap tickets on the railways. By the 1880s, rising incomes meant many ordinary workers and their families could have a week’s holiday at the seaside. Rail fares were reduced and cheap hotels were built to (34) ______ them. Holidaymakers enjoyed being idle, sitting on the beach, bathing in the sea, and eating ice-cream. Cheap entertainment was (35) ______ offer and holidaymakers went to have fun.

       Today, the English seaside remained popular, with more than 18 million holidays taken there each year.

Question 31.

A. recovered                 B. cured  

C. improved                   D. remedied

Question 32.

A. out                            B. off 

C. from                          D. away

Question 33.

A. opportunity              B. benefit 

C. profit                       D. advantage

Question 34.

A. cater                         B. board 

C. lodge                         D. accommodate

Question 35.

A. for                            B. on

C. in                              D. to

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

    William Sydney Porter (1862-1910), who wrote under the pseudonym of O. Henry, was born in North Carolina. His only formal education was to attend his Aunt Lina’s school until the age of fifteen, where he developed his lifelong love of books. By 1881 he was a licensed pharmacist. However, within a year, on the recommendation of a medical colleague of his Father’s, Porter moved to La Salle County in Texas for two years herding sheep. During this time, Webster’s Unabridged Dictionary was his constant companion, and Porter gained a knowledge of ranch life that he later incorporated into many of his short stories. He then moved to Austin for three years, and during this time the first recorded use of his pseudonym appeared, allegedly derived from his habit of calling “Oh, Henry” to a family cat. In 1887, Porter married Athol Estes. He worked as a draftsman, then as a bank teller for the First National Bank.

      In 1894 Porter founded his own humor weekly, the “Rolling Stone”, a venture that failed within a year, and later wrote a column for the Houston Daily Post. In the meantime, the First National Bank was examined, and the subsequent indictment of 1886 stated that Porter had embezzled funds. Porter then fled to New Orleans, and later to Honduras, leaving his wife and child in Austin. He returned in 1897 because of his wife’s continued ill-health, however she died six months later. Then, in 1898 Porter was found guilty and sentenced to five years imprisonment in Ohio. At the age of thirty five, he entered prison as a defeated man; he had lost his job, his home, his wife, and finally his freedom. He emerged from prison three years later, reborn as O. Henry, the pseudonym he now used to hide his true identity. He wrote at least twelve stories in jail, and after re-gaining his freedom, went to New York City, where he published more than 300 stories and gained fame as America’s favorite short Story writer. Porter married again in 1907, but after months of poor health, he died in New York City at the age of forty-eight in 1910. O. Henry’s stories have been translated all over the world.

Question 36. According to the passage, Porter’s Father was _____.

A. the person who gave him a life-long love of books          

B. a medical doctor

C. a licensed pharmacist

D. responsible for his move to La Salle County in Texas

Question 37. Why did the author write the passage?

A. to outline the career of a famous American

B. because of his fame as America’s favorite short story writer

C. because it is a tragic story of a gifted writer

D. to outline the influences on O. Henry’s writing

Question 38. The word “imprisonment” in paragraph 2 is closet in meaning to ____________.

A. captivity                     B. escape

C. insult                         D. punishment

Question 39. What is the passage primarily about?

A. The life and career of William Sydney Porter.

B. The way to adopt a nickname.

C. O.Henry’s influence on American literature.

D. The adventures of O.Henry.

Question 40. The author implies which of the following is true?

A. Porter’s wife might have lived longer if he had not left her in Austin when he fled.

B. Porter was in poor health throughout his life.

C. O. Henry is as popular in many other countries as he is in America.

D. Porter would probably have written less stories if he had not been in prison for three years.

Question 41. Which of the following is true, according to the passage?

A. Porter left school at 15 to become a pharmacist

B. Porter wrote a column for the Houston Daily Post called “Rolling Stone”                      

C. The first recorded use of his pseudonym was in Austin                                       

D. Both of Porter’s wives died before he died

Question 42. The word “pseudonym” in the passage refers to _____.

A. William Sydney Porter

B. O. Henry 

C. Athol Estes

D. the Aunt Lina

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

INTERNET JOBS

     Contrary to popular belief, one does not have to be a trained programmer to work online. Of course, there are plenty of jobs available for people with high-tech computer skills, but the growth of new media has opened up a wide range of Internet career opportunities requiring only a minimal level of technical expertise. Probably one of the most well-known online job opportunities is the job of Webmaster. However, it is hard to define one basic job description for this position. The qualifications and responsibilities depend on what tasks a particular organization needs a Webmaster to perform.

      To specify the job description of a Webmaster, one needs to identify the hardware and software the website the Webmaster will manage is running on. Different types of hardware and software require different skill sets to manage them. Another key factor is whether the website will be running internally or externally (renting shared space on the company servers). Finally, the responsibilities of a webmaster also depend on whether he or she will be working independently, or whether the firm will provide people to help. All of these factors need to be considered before one can create an accurate webmaster job description.

    Webmaster is one type of Internet career requiring in-depth knowledge of the latest computer applications. However, there are also online jobs available for which traditional skills remain in high demand. Content jobs require excellent writing skills and a good sense of the web as a “new media’.

    The term “new media” is difficult to define because it compasses a constantly growing set of new technologies and skills. Specifically, it includes websites, email, internet technology, CD-ROM, DVD, streaming audio and video, interactive multimedia presentations, e-books, digital music, computer illustration, video games, virtual reality, and computer artistry.

    Additionally, many of today’s Internet careers are becoming paid-by-the-job professions. With many companies having to downsize in tough economic items, the outsourcing and contracting of freelance workers online has become common business practice. The Internet provides an infinite pool of buyers from around the world with whom freelancers can contract their services. An added benefit to such online jobs is that freelancers are able to work on projects with companies outside their own country.

    How much can a person make in these kinds of careers? As with many questions related to today’s evolving technology, there is no simple answer. There are many companies willing to pay people with Internet skills salaries well over $70,000 a year. Generally, webmasters start at about $30,000 per year, but salaries can vary greatly. Freelance writers working online have been known to make between $40,000 to $70,000 a year.

Question 43. Which of the followings is true about the job of the freelance writers?

A. They may work with others in the company.

B. It is considered a “content” job.   

C. They manage hardware and software.

D. They require in-depth knowledge of applications.

Question 44. The word “vary” in paragraph 6 can be best replaced by _________

A. decrease                             B. change

C. differ                                    D. increase

Question 45. It can be inferred from the passage that _________.

A. only skilled workers make good money.

B. online workers can work full-time online.

C. it is easy to become a webmaster.

D. workers with limited computer skills can not work online.

Question 46. According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE of webmasters?

A. They never work independently.

B. The duties they perform depend on the organization they work for.

C. They require a minimal level of expertise.

D. They do not support software products.

Question 47. What is the purpose of the passage?

A. To inform people about the tasks and the roles of a webmaster.

B. To inform people about employment related to the Internet.

C. To inform people about the computer industry.

D. To explain why webmasters make a lot of money.

Question 48. According to the passage, all of the followings are TRUE except _________.

A. Webmasters must have knowledge of the latest computer applications.

B. Online workers can not free themselves from the office.

C. “New media” is not easy to define.

D. There are online jobs available for workers with minimal computer skills.

Question 49. Which of the followings is not mentioned as part of the “new media”?

A. Internet technology

B. writing skills

C. websites

D. video games

Question 50. The word “identify” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to __________.

A. name                                 B. discover

C. encounter                          D. estimate

ĐÁP ÁN

1	2	3	4	5
D	A	C	A	D
6	7	8	9	10
B	D	C	A	A
11	12	13	14	15
D	B	D	D	A
16	17	18	19	20
A	B	D	C	B
21	22	23	24	25
D	B	B	B	D
26	27	28	29	30
A	C	C	D	A
31	32	33	34	35
B	B	D	D	B
36	37	38	39	40
B	A	A	A	C
41	42	43	44	45
C	B	B	C	B
46	47	48	49	50
C	B	B	B	A

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1.    

A. expands                  B. travels 

C. appoints                  D. animals

Question 2.    

A. stagnant                  B. vacancy

C. charity                     D. habitat

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3.    

A. argument                B. marvellous

C. sacrifice                  D. supportive

Question 4.    

A. swallow                    B. approach

C. nonsense                 D. nursery

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following question.

Question 5. I'm sorry because I've lost the key to the drawer ________ all the important papers are kept.

A. which                     B. whose 

C. who                        D. where

Question 6. Mary ____ with her dolls when she was younger.

A. used to play

B. is used to playing  

C. used to playing

D. is used to play

Question 7. Susan is fed ________ with the housework.

A. of                            B. up

C. at                            D. on

Question 8. If I were you, I __________ for that English course.

A. would have applied  

B. will apply

C. would apply

D. should apply

Question 9. My sister _________ for you for an hour.

A. was looking                     B. is looking

C. has been looking             D. looked

Question 10. She wrote her composition carefully to avoid ________ mistakes.

A. to make                  B. made 

C. making                    D. will make

Question 11. The employer suffered from depression _________ by overwork and ill-health.

A. brought on              B. taken up

C. come about             D. put through

Question 12. Tom painted his room black. It looks dark and deary. He _________ a different color.

A. should choose

B. must have chosen  

C. should have chosen  

D. has to choose

Question 13. The investors bought a deserted warehouse __________ convert it into a shopping mall for the townspeople.

A. so that                   

B. lest they may 

C. with a view to           

D. in order to

Question 14. She is _______ than her sister.

A. the most beautiful

B. more beautiful

C. beautifully

D. the beautiful

Question 15. I don't think Peter will reject that job offer, ______?

A. do I                        B. will he

C. don't I                      D. won't he

Question 16. I heard _____ that Jack has been dropped from the basket team.

A. in the woods

B. on the olive branch            

C. on the grapevine  

D. under your feet

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 17. Parents play a crucial role in a child's upbringing in the formative years. They are really the driving force behind whatever the children do.

A. motivation               B. completion  

C. progress                  D. satisfaction

Question 18. We should join hands to protect our environment.

A. take up                   B. put up

C. work together          D. make decisions

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 19. She was brought up in a well-off family. She can't understand the problems we are facing.

A. kind                        B. poor  

C. rich                         D. wealthy

Question 20. James may get into hot water when driving at full speed after drinking.

A. get into trouble       B. fall into disuse

C. remain calm            D. stay safe

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 21.   - Tom: "Would you like a cup of tea?"

                        - Linda: " _____. "

A. Yes, help youself  

B. Yes, do it yourself

C. Yes, please

D. Yes, that's a good idea

Question 22.   - John: “What an attractive hair style you have got, Mary.”

- Mary: “____”

A. I don't like your saying

B. Thank you very much, i'm afraid.

C. Thank you for your compliment.

D. You are telling a lie.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 23. She had only just put the phone down when her boss rang back.

A. Hardly had she put the phone down when her boss rang back.

B. No sooner had she put the phone down when her boss rang back.

C. Hardly did she put the phone down when her boss rang back.

D. Hardly she had put the phone down when her boss rang back.

Question 24. People rumour that the leader has been suffering from a rare disease.

A. A rare disease is rumoured to be causing suffering to the leader.

B. It was rumoured that the leader has been suffering from a rare disease.

C. The leader is rumoured to have been suffering from a rare disease.

D. The leader has been rumoured to suffer from a rare disease.

Question 25. "No, I won't go to work at the weekend." Said Sally.

A. Sally apologized for not going to work at the weekend.

B. Sally regretted not going to work at the weekend.

C. Sally refused to go to work at the weekend.

D. Sally promised to go to work at the weekend.

ĐÁP ÁN

1	2	3	4	5
C	B	D	C	D
6	7	8	9	10
A	B	C	C	C
11	12	13	14	15
A	C	D	B	B
16	17	18	19	20
C	A	C	B	C
21	22	23	24	25
C	C	A	C	C
26	27	28	29	30
C	C	B	C	B
31	32	33	34	35
D	A	B	C	A
36	37	38	39	40
D	C	B	D	B
41	42	43	44	45
C	D	C	C	D
46	47	48	49	50
C	A	C	C	B

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 1. Only their own mother can tell Simon and Mike apart.

A. No one other than their own mother can separate Simon and Mike.

B. Simon and Mike bear some resemblance to each other.

C. It's very difficult to distinguish Simon and Mike.

D. Except for their own mother, no one can talk to Simon and Mike.

Question 2. "How beautiful is the dress you have just bought!" Peter said to Mary.

A. Peter promised to buy Mary a beautiful dress.

B. Peter said thanks to Mary for her beautiful dress.

C. Peter asked Mary how she had just bought her beautiful dress.

D. Peter complimented Mary on her beautiful dress.

Question 3. Those who are riding a motorbike are not allowed to take off their helmet.

A. People must never take their helmet off while they are riding a motorbike.

B. Those who are wearing a helmet are not allowed to ride a motorbike.

C. It is the helmet that one needn't wear when he is riding a motorbike

D. You should not wear a helmet when you are riding a motorbike.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 4. Exemplification is always necessary when you are addressing a younger audience.

A. illustration              B. variation 

C. simplification          D. exaggeration

Question 5. When heated to temperatures above 1250 degrees Centigrade, clay fuses and becomes pottery or stoneware.

A. melts together        B. steams up

C. breaks down           D. burns off

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 6. Steve______his chances of passing by spending too much time on the first question.

A. threw away                        B. threw in 

C. threw off                            D. threw out

Question 7. By the time Brown's daughter graduates,_______retired.

A. he'll have                            B. he 

C. he'll being                           D. he has

Question 8. Nobody likes his behavior,______?

A. doesn’t he                          B. do they  

C. don't they                           D. does he

Question 9. ______ ten minutes earlier, you would have got a better seat.

A. Were you arrived

B. If you arrived

C. If you hadn't arrived

D. Had you arrived

Question 10. After congratulating his team, the coach left, allowing the players to let their ______ down for a while.

A. hearts                                  B. hair 

C. souls                                   D. heads

Question 11. Extinction means a situation ______ a plant, an animal or a way of life stops existing.

A. to which                             B. for which

C. on which                            D. in which

Question 12. Making mistake is all ________ of growing up.

A. bits and bobs              B. odds and ends

C. part and parcel            D. top and bottom

Question 13. The judge ______ murderer to a lifetime imprisonment.

A. prosecuted                         

B. sentenced 

C. convicted                          

D. accused

Question 14. When my children _____  their toys, I donated them to a charity.

A. outnumbered                      B. outworn

C. outlasted                            D. outgrew

Question 15. The song has______been selected for the 2018 World Cup, Russia.

A. office                                 B. officer

C. officially                             D. official

Question 16. Alice said: “That guy is______ gorgeous. I wish he would ask rne out.”

A. dead-centre                    B. drop shot  

C. jumped-up                      D. drop-dead

Question 17. This factory produced_______motorbikes in 2008 as in the year 2006.

A. as many as twice 

B. as twice many                    

C. twice as many       

D. as twice as many

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 18. The continental shelf (A) is the shadow area (B) of the ocean floor (C) that is closest to (D) the continents.

Question 19. She had so many (A) luggage that there was (B) not enough room (C) in the car for it.(D)

Question 20. Her application for a visa (A) was turned down (B) not only because it was incomplete (C) and incorrectly filled out but also because it was written in pencil.(D)

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 21.

A. energetic                B. epidemic 

C. initiative                 D. economic

Question 22.

A. expert                       B. mature 

C. channel                   D. secret

ĐÁP ÁN

1	2	3	4	5
C	D	A	A	A
6	7	8	9	10
A	A	B	D	B
11	12	13	14	15
D	C	B	D	C
16	17	18	19	20
D	C	D	A	C
21	22	23	24	25
C	B	B	A	B
26	27	28	29	30
D	C	D	D	B
31	32	33	34	35
B	B	C	A	C
36	37	38	39	40
C	A	B	D	D
41	42	43	44	45
B	C	D	B	C
46	47	48	49	50
B	A	A	A	C

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 1 to 8.

The world is losing languages at an alarming rate.  Michael Krauss suggested that of the approximately 6,000 human languages alive today, only 350 to 500 are safe from extinction.  Some linguists estimate that a language dies every two weeks or so.  At the current rate, by 2100, about 2,500 native languages could disappear.

Languages become extinct for many reasons.  Through imperialism, colonizers impose their languages on colonies.  Some politicians believe multilingualism will fragment national interests.  Thus they prohibit education in all but the national language.  Another reason for language death is the spread of more powerful languages.  In the world today, several languages, including English, are so dominant in commerce, science, and education, that languages with fewer speakers have trouble competing.

Although in the past, governments have been one of the primary causes of language death, many have now become champions of preserving endangered languages and have had some significant successes.  Two outstanding examples are the revival of Hebrew and Irish.  Hebrew was considered a dead language, like Latin, but is now the national language of Israel.  Irish was not dead, but severely threatened by English when the government of Ireland began its rescue immediately after the establishment of the Irish Free State in 1922.  All students in public schools must now take some classes in Irish and there are Irish programs in major media, such as television and radio. According to the Irish government, approximately 37% of the population of Ireland now speaks Irish.

One of the largest programs to revive languages, Documenting Endangered Languages (DEL), is being conducted by three U.S. government agencies: the National Science Foundation, the National Endowment for the Humanities, and the National Museum of Natural History.  Researchers funded by these agencies are recording interviews with the mostly elderly people who still speak the languages.  Analyses of these interviews will help linguists publish dictionaries and grammars of the languages.  Eventually, linguists hope to establish language-training programs where younger people can learn the languages, carrying them on into the future.

The linguists participating in DEL defend spending millions of dollars to preserve dying languages.  They point out that when a language dies, humanity loses all of the knowledge of the world that that culture held.  Traditional healers in rural areas have given scientists important leads in finding new medicines; aspirin is an example of these.  But one of the most common reasons given by these researchers is that studying languages gives us insight into the radically different way humans organize their world.  David Lightfoot, an official at the National Science foundation, gives the example of Guguyimadjir, and Australian aboriginal language, in which there are no words for “right” or left,” only for “north,” “south,” “east,” and “west.”

Many researchers are optimistic that the efforts to save dying languages will succeed, at least in part.  Bruce L. Cole, Chairman of the National Endowment for the Humanities, said, “Not only is this a time of great potential loss, it is also a moment for enormous potential gain.  In this modern age of computers and our growing technological capabilities, we can preserve, assemble, analyze, and understand unprecedented riches of linguistic and cultural information.”

Question 1: What is the best title for this passage?

A. Similarities between Engendered Species

B. Preserving Endangered Languages

C. Linguistic Globalization

D. How Languages Die and Efforts to Revive Them

Question 2: According to the passage, which language is a dead language?

A. Irish                             B. English

C. Hebrew                        D. Latin

Question 3: It can be inferred from paragraph 3 that ______.

A. It is the Governments that make the right policies on language preservation.

B. No governments can preserve languages once they have disappeared.

C. Governments are more concerned with their imperialism than language preservation.

D. Governments take education as the tool to spread their languages.

Question 4: The word “revive” in paragraph 4 mostly means _______.

A. bring in                       B. bring back 

C. regain                         D. retain

Question 5:According to the passage, what would linguists in the DEL project like to do someday?

A. Record interviews with elderly people

B. Get funding from the government

C. Teach endangered languages to young people

D. Write a dictionary and grammar for Irish

Question 6:The word “these” in paragraph 5 refers to ______.

A. dying languages

B. traditional healers

C. important leads  

D. new medicines

Question 7:David Lightfoot gives the example of Guguyimadjir in order to ______.

A. protest against spending millions of dollars to preserve dying languages

B. describe how humanity loses all of the knowledge of the world through dead languages

C. prove that languages give us insight into different ways humans organize their world

D. show how language preservation helps traditional healers in rural areas find new medicines

Question 8:How would you describe Bruce Cole’s opinion of the DEL project?

A. He thinks that we will lose the fight to save endangered languages.

B. He believes that it isn’t worth the time and energy required to save languages.

C. He believes we can save significant amounts of information about languages.

D. He thinks that we will be able to save Guguyimadjir, the aboriginal language.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 9:

A. daunt                      B. astronaut

C. vaulting                   D. aunt

Question 10:

A. clear                         B. treasure

C. spread                      D. dread

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 11:

A. leftover                    B. conical 

C. sacrifice                   D. supportive

Question 12:

A. swallow                    B. confide

C. maintain                   D. install

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 13:Harry does not eat like a horse anymore.

A. Harry used to eat like a horse.

B. Harry used to eat a horse.

C. Harry does not like a horse.

D. Harry has never eaten too much.

Question 14:“How long have you been in this job?” She asked him.

A. She asked him how long he has been in that job.

B. She asked him how long has he been in that job.

C. She asked him how long he had been in that job.

D. She asked him how long had he been in that job.

Question 15:People think that traffic congestion in the downtown area is due to the increasing number of private cars.

A. Traffic congestion in the downtown area is blamed for the increasing number of private cars.

B. The increasing number of private cars is thought to be responsible for traffic congestion in the downtown area.

C. The increasing number of private cars is attributed to traffic congestion in the downtown area.

D. Traffic congestion in the downtown area is thought to result in the increasing number of private cars.

ĐÁP ÁN

1	2	3	4	5
D	D	A	B	C
6	7	8	9	10
D	C	C	D	A
11	12	13	14	15
D	A	A	C	B
16	17	18	19	20
D	C	C	B	D
21	22	23	24	25
A	B	D	B	A
26	27	28	29	30
D	B	B	C	B
31	32	33	34	35
C	D	A	C	C
36	37	38	39	40
A	A	A	B	A
41	42	43	44	45
D	C	B	A	C
46	47	48	49	50
A	B	D	C	B

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE  in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following question.

Question 1: The mountainous region of the country is thinly populated. It has only 300 inhabitants.

A. sparsely                   B. greatly

C. densely                    D. largely

Question 2: Josh may get into hot water when driving at full speed after drinking.

A. get into trouble                  

B. stay safe                

C. fall into disuse       

D. remain calm

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following question.

Question 3: This company's new products have tripled its profits in only one year.

A. The company has greatly increased the number of new products.

B. The company has increased its profits 100 percent

C. The company’s profits are three times higher this year than last year.

D. The company has had an unprofitable year.

Question 4: Viet Nam carried out an intensive training program for its athletes, but the results were not as high as expected.

A. There is no expectation for Vietnamese athletes to win due to lack of training.

B. Whereas Vietnamese athletes were intensively trained, their performance was below expectation.

C. Vietnamese athletes were intensively trained carefully, and they won all the matches.

D. It might not be possible for Vietnamese athletes to get good results because their training was not careful.

Question 5: Though he had known about it well in advance, he pretended to be surprised at having a birthday party.

A. He acted surprised about being given a birthday party, but he had known about it a long time before

B. Despite only pretending to be surprised at the birthday party, he had actually been completely unaware of it.

C. He knew about the birthday party a long time before, yet he wasn't pretending when he acted surprised.

D. He was quite surprised at their throwing him a birthday party, though he could have found out it well before.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 6: Smallpox is a dangerous disease. Malaria is a dangerous disease.

A. Smallpox is a dangerous disease, and so is malaria.

B. Malaria is a dangerous disease, but smallpox is not.

C. Neither smallpox nor malaria is a dangerous disease.

D. Either smallpox or malaria is a dangerous disease.

Question 7: The dogs watch the chicken coop. The dogs protect the chickens from wolves.

A. Protecting the chickens from wolves, the dogs watch the chicken coop from them.

B. They protect the chickens from wolves as the dogs watch the chicken coop.

C. The dogs watch the chicken coop to protect the chickens from wolves.

D. Watching the chicken coop because the dogs protect chickens from wolves.

Read the following pasage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions

Any list of the greatest thinkers in history contains the name of the brilliant physicist Albert Einstein. His theories of relativity led to entirely new ways of thinking about time, space, matter, energy, and gravity. Einstein's work led to such scientific advances as the control of atomic energy, even television as a practical application of Einstein's work.

In 1902 Einstein became an examiner in the Swiss patent office at Bern. In 1905, at age 26, he published the first of five major research papers. The first one provided a theory explaining Brownian movement, the zig-zag motion of microscopic particles in suspension. The second paper laid the foundation for the photon, or quantum, theory of light. In it he proposed that light is composed of separate packets of energy, called quanta or photons, that have some of the properties of particles and some of the properties of waves. A third paper contained the "special theory of relativity" which showed that time and motion are relative to the observer, if the speed of light is constant and the natural laws are the same everywhere in the universe. The fourth paper was a mathematical addition to the special theory of relativity. Here Einstein presented his famous formula, E = m(cc), known as the energy mass equivalence. In 1916, Einstein published his general theory of relativity. In it he proposed that gravity is not a force, but a curve in the space-time continuum, created by the presence of mass.
Einstein spoke out frequently against nationalism, the exalting of one nation above all others. He opposed war and violence and supported Zionism, the movement to establish a Jewish homeland in Palestine. When the Nazis came to power in 1933, they denounced his ideas. He then moved to the United States. In 1939 Einstein learned that two German chemists had split the uranium atom. Einstein wrote to President Franklin D. Roosevelt warning him that this scientific knowledge could lead to Germany developing an atomic bomb. He suggested the United States begin its own atomic bomb research.

Question 8: According to the passage l, Einstein's primary work was in the area of

A. chemistry                B. biology 

C. physics                   D. math

Question 9: Which of the following inventions is mentioned in the passage as a practical application of Einstein's discoveries?

A. Radio                     B. Television

C. Automobiles           D. Computer

Question 10: According to the passage, Einstein supported all of the following except

A. nationalism

B. the establishment of a Jewish homeland in Palestine

C. atomic bomb research in the United States.

D. the defeat of the Nazis.

Question 11: According to the passage in which country did Einstein live in 1930s?

A. Switzerland                       

B. the United States  

C. Germany               

D. Israel

Question 12: The word “exalting”  in the passage is closest in meaning to              

A. criticism                  B. elimination

C. support                   D. elevation

ĐÁP ÁN

1	2	3	4	5
C	B	C	B	A
6	7	8	9	10
A	C	C	B	A
11	12	13	14	15
B	D	C	D	C
16	17	18	19	20
D	C	D	D	B
21	22	23	24	25
C	A	B	D	A
26	27	28	29	30
B	C	B	D	C
31	32	33	34	35
A	C	B	B	C
36	37	38	39	40
A	B	A	B	B
41	42	43	44	45
A	B	D	D	A
46	47	48	49	50
B	D	B	C	B

 ---

Trên đây là một phần trích đoạn nội dung Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG năm 2021 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THPT Duy Tân. Để xem thêm nhiều tài liệu tham khảo hữu ích khác các em chọn chức năng xem online hoặc đăng nhập vào trang hoc247.net để tải tài liệu về máy tính.

Hy vọng tài liệu này sẽ giúp các em học sinh ôn tập tốt và đạt thành tích cao trong học tập.

Mời các em tham khảo tài liệu liên quan khác:

• Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG năm 2021 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THPT Huỳnh Tịnh Của
• Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG năm 2021 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THPT Trưng Vương

Chúc các em học tập tốt!