Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG năm 2021-2022 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THPT Sơn Tây

TRƯỜNG THPT SƠN TÂY

ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM HỌC 2021-2022 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH (Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút)

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. attained	B. resolved	C. disused	D. decreased
Question 2. A. dream	B. mean	C. peace	D. steady

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. career	B. prospect	C. effort	D. labour
Question 4. A. obedient	B. decision	C. mischievous	D. biologist

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5. It is impossible for him to be financially independent at such an early age, _______?

A. isn't it       B. is it           C. doesn't he                    D. does he

Question 6. We can’t go along here because the road _______.

A. is repairing             B. is repaired      C. is being repaired         D. repairs

Question 7. He harbors a deep resentment _______ his parents for his miserable childhood.

A. on       B. from             C. for               D. against

Question 8. The more manufacturers advise, _______ they sell.

A. the most products

B. the products more

C. the more products

D. most products

Question 9. Her husband bought her a______ scarf when he went on holiday in Singapore last week.

A. beautiful silk yellow

B. beautiful yellow silk 

C. yellow silk beautiful

D. yellow beautiful silk

Question 10. He had a bad fall while he ______ his roof.

A. was repairing              B. repaired            C. repairs       D. will repair

Question 11. The new supermarket is so much cheaper than the one in John Street. _______, they do free home deliveries.

A. Moreover

B. Consequently

C. Nevertheless

D. Instead

Question 12. By the time the software _______ on sale next month, the company ______ $2 million on developing it.

A. went – had spent

B. will go – has spent     

C. has gone – will spend

D. goes – will have spent

Question 13. _______ the age of 21, he was able to gamble in Las Vegas.

A. When reached            B. Reached    

C. As reaching                 D. Upon reaching

Question 14. Both inventors and engineers look for ways to improve things in areas like health, food, safety, transportation, aerospace, electronics, _______, and the environment.

A. communication           B. communicative

C. communicator            D. communicating

Question 15. I try to be friendly but it is hard to _______ some of my colleagues.

A. get on with                 B. watch out for

C. come up with              D. stand in for

Question 16. Most people are interested in _______ about famous celebrities, which is why tabloid magazines still exist.

A. juicy chatter               B. juicy gossip

C. gossip freely               D. juicy talk

Question 17. Union leaders feel it is time Cabinet Ministers put their _______ on the table regarding their long-term plans.

A. cards            B. hands           C. feet           D. papers

Question 18. There’s no need for you to try to _______ an argument with him. You need to calm down or your relationship will get worse.

A. win          B. beat       C. defeat        D. gain

Question 19. Does television adequately reflect the ethnic and cultural _______ of the country.

A. custom         B. diversity            C. alternation                  D. minority

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20. It is firmly believed that books are a primary means for disseminating knowledge and information.

A. inventing   B. distributing         C. classifying      D. adapting

Question 21. The amount spent on defense is in sharp contrast to that spent on housing and health.

A. blare         B. flask               C. stark           D. spark

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22. Today, illegal hunting still threatens many species, especially large mammals such as tigers, rhinoceros, bears and even primates.

A. allowed by law 

B. forbidden by law

C. introducing a law

D. imposing a law

Question 23. Tom was too wet behind the ears to be in charge of such a difficult task.

A. full of experience 

B. lack of responsibility

C. without money

D. full of sincerity

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 24. Two friends Diana and Anne are talking about their upcoming exams.

- Diana: “Our midterm exams will start next Tuesday, are you ready?”

- Anne: “_______”.

A. I’m half ready. 

B. God save you.

C. Thank you so much 

D. Don’t mention it!

Question 25. Two neighbors are talking to each other about their work.

- Sanji: "I'm taking a break from my gardening. There seems to be no end to the amount of work I have to do."

- Nico: “_______”

A. I do, too.

B. Not at all

C. I'm glad I'm not in your shoes.

D. There's no doubt about that.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each the numbered blanks.

In an educational context, the term ‘learner independence’ has gained increasing importance in recent years. It is of particular (26) _______ to language learning and commonly refers to the way students confidently control and organise their own language learning process. While some people seem to have an almost instinctive flaw for languages, (27) _______ have to rely on strategies to maximise their skills and learn a foreign language more effectively.

The main thing to remember is that becoming a truly independent learner ultimately depends above all on taking responsibility for your own learning and being prepared to take every opportunity available to you to learn. You also increase your chances of (28) _______ by learning according to your own needs and interests, using all available resources. Research shows that learners (29) _______ adopt this approach will undoubtedly manage to broaden their language abilities considerably and, (30) _______,  are mote likely to achieve their objectives in the longer term.

(Adapted from “Complete Advanced” by Laura Mathews and Barbara Thomas)

Question 26. A. resemblance	B. acceptance	C. relevance	D. acquaintance
Question 27. A. each	B. every	C. others	D. Few
Question 28. A. interest	B. failure	C. suspicision	D. success
Question 29. A. who	B. why	C. which	D. where
Question 30. A. though	B. as a result	C. because	D. in contrast

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the question.

The generation gap that was so in evidence during the 60s has resurfaced, but it is not the disruptive force that it was during the Vietnam era, a 2009 study suggests. The Pew Research Center study found that 79% of Americans see major differences between younger and older adults in the way they look at the world. In 1969, a Gallup Poll found that a smaller percentage, 74%, perceived major differences.

Today, however, although more Americans see generational differences, most do not see them as divisive. That is partly because of the areas of difference. The top areas of disagreement between young and old, according to the Pew Research Study, are the use of technology and taste in music. Grandparents are likely to have observed these differences in their grandchildren who are tweens, teens, and young adults.

If large differences between the generations exist, why don't they spawn conflict? The answer is twofold.

First, the two largest areas of difference—technology and music—are less emotionally charged than political issues. The older generation is likely to be proud of the younger generation's prowess in technology rather than to view it as a problem. As for the musical differences, each generation wants its own style of music, and the older generation generally can relate to that desire.

Second, in the other areas of difference, the younger generation tends to regard the older generation as superior to their own generation—clearly a difference from the 1960s with its rallying cry of "Don't trust anyone over thirty." According to the Pew study, all generations regard older Americans as superior in moral values, work ethic and respect for others.

(Adapted from www.verywellfamily.com)

Question 31. Which of the following could be the main idea of the passage?

A. Generation gap doesn’t cause a big problem in American families.

B. Different points of view are the main problem between generations in America.

C. The generation gap in the past was different from that in modern time.

D. The areas of differences in generation gap have changed over the years.

Question 32. The word “divisive” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.

A. agreeing                      B. positive           C. serious       D. discordant

Question 33. What are the two reasons why large differences between generations don’t cause disagreement?

A. The generosity of the elder generation and the attitude of the younger generation.

B. The different styles of music and the knowledge of the elder generation.

C. The major aspects of differences between generations and the respect to the elder generation.

D. The pride of the elder generation and the obedience of the younger one

Question 34. The word “their” in the last paragraph refers to _______.

A. the older generation’s  

B. the younger generation’s

C. supervisor’s  

D. over-thirty people’s

Question 35. According to the passage, which is NOT true?

A. The majority of Americans agree generations’ viewpoint to be the major differences.

B. Technology is one of the two biggest areas creating the gap between the old and the young.

C. Grandparents feel uncomfortable with their grandchildren because of their better technology skills.

D. The elderly in America are admired in moral values, work ethic and respect for others.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the question.

The reason women appear to be at greater risk of developing Alzheimer’s disease than men might be due to a number of genetic, anatomical and even social influences, researchers have suggested.

Recent figures show about 65% of those with living with dementia in the UK are women, with a similar statistic seen in the US for Alzheimer’s disease, while dementia is the leading cause of death for women in England. Alzheimer’s disease is only one of the types of dementia, but the most common form. While one explanation is that dementia risk increases with age, and women have longer life expectancies than men, new research suggests there might be more to the matter, including that protein tangles found within neurons and linked to Alzheimer’s disease might spread differently in women’s brains than men’s.

The study, presented at the Alzheimer’s Association International Conference in Los Angeles by researchers from Vanderbilt University and which has not yet been peer-reviewed, used scans from a method called positron emission tomography. That allowed them to look at the way clumps of a protein called tau were spread in the brains of 123 men and 178 women without cognitive problems, as well as 101 men and 60 women with mild cognitive problems – although not yet diagnosed with Alzheimer’s disease. Cognitively normal older people often have small amounts of tau in certain areas of their brain.

From the data the team could build maps showing which areas of the brain show similar signals relating to tau in the scans, suggesting they are somehow connected. “Based on that we kind of try to reconstruct the pattern of spread,” Dr Sepideh Shokouhi, who is presenting the research, told the Guardian. “It is kind of like reconstructing a crime scene.” The team says the results suggest these maps look different in women and men, suggesting tau might be able to spread more rapidly across the female brain.

Other research presented at the conference – and also not yet peer reviewed – added weight to the idea that there might be differences between men and women that affect dementia risk. Research by scientists at the University of Miami has revealed a handful of genes and genetic variants appear to be linked to Alzheimer’s disease in just one biological sex or the other. While the actual importance of these factors has yet to be unpicked, and the study only looked at white participants, the team says it underscores that there could be a genetic reason for differences in the risk of dementia in men and women, and the way it develops.

(Adapted from https://www.theguardian.com)

Question 36. Which of the following could be the best title of the passage?

A. The differences between male and female brain and the condition for Alzheimer’s.

B. Research shines light on why women are more likely to develop Alzheimer’s.

C. The method for treating Alzheimer’s in women

D. Alzheimer’s – the leading cause of death for women.

Question 37. The following are the reasons for Alzheimer’s disease, EXCEPT _______.

A. gene      B. anatomy                      C. age                              D. job

Question 38. The word “tangles” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.

A. muddles      B. orders                         C. arrangements              D. positions

Question 39. What does the word “their” in paragraph 3 refer to?

A. 123 men’s and 178 women’s without cognitive problems

B. 101 men’s and 60 women’s with mild cognitive problems

C. cognitively normal older people’s

D. people’s with Alzheimer’s disease

Question 40. According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE?

A. The data from the maps may help researchers find out the treatment for dementia.

B. The men’s life expectancies are longer than women’s, so they are less suffered from Alzheimer’s.

C. All the research at the conference has been peer-reviewed before presented.

D. Female brains are likely more convenient for tau to develop than male ones.

Question 41. The word “revealed” in the last paragraph could be best replaced by _______.

A. discovered         B. created              C. experimented              D. treated

Question 42. It can be inferred from the last paragraph that _______.

A. researchers are sure that the differences between genders will affect Alzheimer’s risk.

B. the influence of a handful of genes and genetic variants on Alzheimer’s has not been scientifically illuminated.

C. the research has studied all groups of participants for the risk of dementia.

D. the results of all research on Alzheimer’s are different from each other.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43. The composer Verdi has written the opera Aida to celebrate the opening of the Suez Canal, but the opera was not performed until 1871.

A. has written

B. to celebrate

C. opening of

D. was not performed

Question 44. If one has a special medical condition such as diabetes, epilepsy, or allergy, it is advisable that they carry some kind of identification in order to avoid being given improper medication in an emergency.

A. has            B. they            C. carry           D. being

Question 45. The field of Artificial Intelligence research was found at a workshop held on the campus of Dartmouth College during the summer of 1956.

A. field           B. was found                  C. held on                        D. the

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46. We started working here three years ago.

A. We worked here for three years.

B. We have no longer worked here for three years.

C. We have worked here for three years.

D. We will work here in three years.

Question 47. “My father doesn’t work in the factory any more” Bella told us.

A. Bella said that her father no longer worked in the factory.

B. Bella wished that her father didn’t work in the factory any more.

C. Bella hoped that her father was used to working in the factory

D. Bella denied that her father used to work in the factory.

Question 48. I’m sure that they had practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals.

A. They couldn’t have practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals

B. They must have practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals

C. They shouldn’t have practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals

D. They might have practiced hard for the games as they won a lot of medals.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49. Lan didn't apply for the job in the library and regets it now.

A. Lan wishes she had applied for the job in the library.

B. Lan wishes she have applied for the job in the library.

C. Lan wishes she has applied for the job in the library.

D. Lan wishes she applies for the job in the library.

Question 50. Helen wrote a novel. He made a cowboy film, too

A. Helen wrote not only a novel but also made a cowboy film.

B. Helen both wrote a novel as well as made a cowboy film.

C. Helen either wrote a novel or made a cowboy film.                                 

D. Not only did Helen write a novel but she also made a cowboy film.

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 1

1. D	6. C	11. A	16. B	21. C	26. C	31. A	36. D	41. A	46. C
2. D	7. D	12. D	17. A	22. A	27. C	32. D	37. A	42. B	47. A
3. A	8. C	13. D	18. A	23. A	28. D	33. C	38. A	43. A	48. B
4. C	9. B	14. A	19. B	24. A	29. A	34. B	39. D	44. B	49. A
5. A	10. A	15. A	20. B	25. C	30. B	35. C	40. A	45. B	50. D

ĐỀ THI THPT QG MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT SƠN TÂY- ĐỀ 02

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. helped	B. cleaned	C. played	D. runed
Question 2. A. tangle	B. dangerous	C. battle	D. calculate

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. deploy	B. maintain	C. focus	D. attain
Question 4. A. uncertain	B. arrogant	C. familiar	D. impatient

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5. Everyone was taken to hospital last night, _______?

A. weren’t they               B. were they       C. wasn’t he                    D. was he

Question 6. The application form______to the university before May 31st.

A. must send     B. sent          C. must be sending          D. must be sent

Question 7. Brain’s attitude _______ his work has always been very positive.

A. with           B. into         C. at           D. towards

Question 8. The faster we walk,_______we will get there.

A. the soonest         B. the soon       C. the more soon             D. the sooner

Question 9. Indiana University, one of the largest ones in the nation, is located in a ______town.

A. small beautiful Midwestern

B. beautiful Midwestern small

C. Midwestern beautiful small

D. beautiful small Midwestern

Question 10. While my father______a film on TV, my mother was cooking dinner.

A. watched       B. was watching             C. had watched               D. watches

Question 11. _______, the young mother appeared visibly very happy after the childbirth.

A. Tired as she was         B. She was tired              C. As tired                       D. Despite tired

Question 12. _______, they will have done their homework.

A. By the time you finish cooking

B. By the time you finished cooking

C. When you finish cooking

D. While you finish cooking

Question 13. _______ yesterday, we saw many deer.

A. While we hiking through the woods

B. Hiking through the woods

C. During hiked through the woods

D. Hiking through the woods we

Question 14. It is desirable that the hotel manager remember to call the _______ staff every 6 months to clean up the air conditioners.

A. maintaining         B. maintain    C. maintainable               D. maintenance

Question 15. While I was looking through my old albums the other day, I _______ this photograph of my parents’ wedding.

A. took after      B. made up         C. turned down               D. came across

Question 16. We were so looking forward to stretching out on the beach in the sunshine, but it _______ the whole time we were there.

A. poured with rain

B. rained dogs and cats

C. dropped in the bucket

D. made hay while the sun shined

Question 17. Last year, the company went _______ up after the one of its senior executives offered his resignation.

A. straight         B. belly          C. stomach      D. cloud

Question 18. Volunteers may be required to obtain Red Cross _______ in order to serve through hospitals and healthcare organizations or provide disaster relief.

A. diploma      B. certification                C. license    D. degree

Question 19. A new TV show has sparked ________ by showing the positive side of dropping out of college.

A. controversy                 B. argument         C. contention   D. debate

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20. I knew she was only flattering me because she wanted to borrow some money.

A. teasing        B. threatening                 C. praising                       D. helping

Question 21. An indecisive commander is unlikely to win the confidence of his men.

A. slow         B. determined                 C. hesitant                       D. reliant

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22. Some vegetables are grown without soil and artificial light.

A. real                             B. natural                        C. genuine                       D. true

Question 23. I was going to have a go at parachuting but lost my nerve at the last minute.

A. was determined to go ahead

B. lost my temper

C. was discouraged from trying

D. grew out of it

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 24. Tom is in Ho Chi Minh city and asks a passer-by the way to the railway station.

- Tom: “Can you show me the way to the railway station, please?”

- Passer-by: “_______”

A. No way.

B. Just round the comer over there.

C. Look it up in a dictionary! 

D. There’s no traffic near here.

Question 25. Two students are discussing their previous English class.

- Student 1. “I think the teacher should give us more exercises.”

- Student 2. “_______”

A. Yes, let’s

B. Ok

C. That’s rubbish

D. That’s what I was thinking

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each the numbered blanks.

Speech is one of the most important (26) ______ of communicating. It consists of far more than just making noises. To talk and also to be understood by (27) ______ people, we have to speak a language. That is, we have to use combinations of sounds that everyone agrees to stand for a particular object or idea. Communication would be impossible it everyone made up their own language.

Learning a language properly is very (28) ______. The basic vocabulary of English is not very large, and only about 2,000 words are needed to speak it quite well. (29) ______ the more idea you can express, the more precise you can be about their exact meaning. Words are the main thing (30) ______ we use in communicating what we want to say. The way we say the words is also very important. Our tone of voice can express many emotions and show whether we are pleased or angry, for instance.

Question 26. A. rules	B. reasons	C. ways	D. tests
Question 27. A. other	B. another	C. others	D. The other
Question 28. A. easy	B. expensive	C. simple	D. important
Question 29. A. Although	B. Therefore	C. But	D. However
Question 30. A. where	B. which	C. who	D. whom

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer to each of the question.

The concept of traffic-free shopping areas goes back a long time. During the Middle Ages, traffic- free shopping areas known as souks were built in Middle Eastern countries to allow people to shop in comfort and safety. As far back as 2,000 years ago, road traffic was banned from central Rome during the day to allow for the free movement of pedestrians, and was only allowed in at night when shops and markets had closed for the day.

The modern, traffic-free shopping street was born in Europe in the 1960s, when both city populations and car ownership increased rapidly. Dirty exhaust fumes from cars and the risks involved in crossing the road were beginning to make shopping an unpleasant and dangerous experience. Many believed the time was right for experimenting with car-free streets, and shopping areas seemed the best place to start.

At first, there was resistance from shopkeepers. They believed that such a move would be bad for business. They argued that people would avoid streets if they were unable to get to them in their cars. When the first streets in Europe were closed to traffic, there were even noisy demonstrations as many shopkeepers predicted they would lose customers.

However, research carried out afterwards in several European cities revealed some unexpected statistics. In Munich, Cologne and Hamburg, visitors to shopping areas increased by 50 percent. On Copenhagen’s main shopping street, shopkeepers reported sales increases of 25-40 percent. Shopkeepers in Minneapolis, USA, were so impressed when they learnt this that they even offered to pay for the construction and maintenance costs of their own traffic-free streets.

With the arrival of the traffic–free shopping street, many shops, especially those selling things like clothes, food and smaller luxury items, prospered. Unfortunately, it wasn’t good news for everyone, as shops selling furniture and larger electrical appliances actually saw their sales drops. Many of these were forced to move elsewhere, away from the city centre. Today they are a common feature on the outskirts of towns and cities, often situated in out- of-town retail zones with their own car parks and other local facilities.

(Adapted from Complete IELTS Band 4-5 by Rawdon Wyatt)

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ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 2

1. A	6. D	11. A	16. A	21. C	26. C	31. A	36. A	41. D	46. B
2. B	7. D	12. A	17. B	22. B	27. A	32. B	37. B	42. A	47. A
3. C	8. D	13. B	18. B	23. A	28. D	33. B	38. C	43. A	48. B
4. B	9. D	14. D	19. A	24. B	29. C	34. C	39. D	44. A	49. C
5. A	10. B	15. D	20. C	25. D	30. B	35. B	40. C	45. D	50. C

ĐỀ THI THPT QG MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT SƠN TÂY- ĐỀ 03

Read the following passage and mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the blanks.

Higher education also provides a competitive edge in the career market. We all know that in the economic times we are living in today, finding jobs is not guaranteed. The number of people unemployed is still relatively high, and the number of new career (1) ............ isn’t nearly enough to put people in jobs they are seeking.

As a job seeker, you’re competing with a high number of experienced workers (2) .............. have been out of the workforce for a while and are also seeking work. (3) ..........., when you have a higher education, it generally equips you for better job security. Generally speaking, employers tend to value those who have completed college than those who have only completed high school and are more likely to replace that person who hasn’t (4) .................. a higher education. Furthermore, some companies even go so far as to pay your tuition because they consider an educated (5) ............. to be valuable to their organization. A college education is an investment that doesn’t just provide you with substantial rewards. It benefits the hiring company as well.

Question 1: A. responsibilities	B. activities	C. opportunities	D. possibilities
Question 2: A. who	B. where	C. whose	D. which
Question 3: A. Otherwise	B. Moreover	C. Therefore	D. However
Question 4: A. permitted	B. refused	C. applied	D. received
Question 5: A. employment	B. employer	C. employee	D. unemployed

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 6: A. campus	B. plane	C. game	D. base
Question 7: A. enjoyed	B. loved	C. joined	D. helped

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 8: A. parent	B. attempt	C. women	D. dinner
Question 9: A. assistance	B. appearance	C. position	D. confidence

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following question.

Question 10: In 1959, the political philosopher Hannah Arendt became the first woman .......... a full professor at Princeton University.

A. to appoint 

B. who be appointed as 

C. to be appointed

D. was appointed

Question 11: ....................... you like what I want to do or not, you won’t make me change my mind.

A. Because                  B. Whatever

C. If                            D. When

Question 12: Do you think doing the household chores is the .............. of the women city?

A. responsible             B. responsive 

C. responsibility          D. responsibly

Question 13: Peter has been studying for almost three years and he will have this degree and return to his country in ......... six months.

A. others                     B. the other 

C. other                       D. another

Question 14: You will have to ............ your holiday if you are too ill to travel.

A. put aside                 B. call off 

C. back out                 D. cut down

Question 15: Never before ............ such a severe flood in this mountainous area.

A. do I see                  B. I have seen

C. I had seen               D. have I seen

Question 16: With what my parents prepare for me in terms of education, I am ................. about my future.

A. confide                   B. confident

C. confidence             D. confidential

Question 17: The goal is to make higher education available to everyone who is will and capable his finacial situation.

A. regardless of           B. owing to

C. in terms of              D. with reference to

Question 18: .............. number of boys were swimming in the lake, but I didn’t know ............... exact number of them.

A. A/the                      B. A/an 

C. The/the                   D. The/an

Question 19: The course was so difficult that I didn’t ............... any progress at all.

A. do                           B. make

C. produce                  D. create

Question 20: Oxfam tries to send food to countries where people are suffering ............... malnutrition.

A. by                           B. of

C. for                          D. from

Question 21: ................. the table, Mr.Robert called the family for support.

A. Being laid               B. Having laid

C. Have laid                D. Having lying

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: This boy is poorly-educated and doesn’t know how to behave properly.

A. ignorant                B. uneducated

C. knowledgeable       D. rude

Question 23: Urbanization is the shift of people moving from rural to urban areas, and the result is the growth of cities.

A. transposition           B. maintenance 

C. variation                 D. movement

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 24: Hoa is asking Hai, who is sitting at a corner of the room, seeming too shy.

- Hoa: “Why aren’t you taking part in our activites?                                         ”

- Hai: “ Yes, I can. Certainly”

A. Can you help me with this decorations?

B. Can I help you?

C. Shall I take your hat off?

D. Could you please show me how to get the nearest post office?

Question 25: Mary is talking to a porter in the hotel lobby.

- Poter: “Shall I help you with your suitcase?”

- Mary: “                                       ”

A. That’s very kind of you.

B. What a pity!

C. I can’t agree more. 

D. Not a chance.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 26: Face-to-face socializing is not as preferred as virtual socializing among the youth.

A. instant                    B. available

C. direct                      D. facial

Question 27: With so many daily design resources, how do you stay-up-date with technology without spending too much time on it?

A. connect to the Internet all day

B. update new status

C. use social network daily 

D. get latest information

Mark the letter A, B, C or D in your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 28: Our teacher encourages us using a dictionary whenever we are unsure of the meaning of a word.

A. of   

B. using

C. meaning of the word         

D. whenever

Question 29: The number of students attending universities to study economics have increased steadily in the last few years.

A. economics              B. of students 

C. have                      D. attending

Question 30: I am not fond of reading fiction books as they are imaginable ones which are not real.

A. imaginable              B. as

C. fond of                    D. are

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

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ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 3

1	2	3	4	5
C	A	D	D	C
6	7	8	9	10
A	D	B	D	C
11	12	13	14	15
B	C	D	B	D
16	17	18	19	20
B	A	A	B	D
21	22	23	24	25
B	C	B	A	A
26	27	28	29	30
C	D	B	C	A
31	32	33	34	35
C	A	B	B	A
36	37	38	39	40
C	D	A	C	B
41	42	43	44	45
D	D	A	B	C
46	47	48	49	50
D	A	A	A	D

ĐỀ THI THPT QG MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT SƠN TÂY- ĐỀ 04

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Câu 1: Tung: “Your shoes are terrific, Tuan. The colour quite suits you.”    

Tuan: “______”

A. Really? 

B. Do you like them?

C. You must be kidding. My shirt is nice, isn’t it?

D. I’m glad you like them.

Câu 2: Lan: “Would you say the Great Wall is among the seven man-made wonders of the world?”

Trang: “_______”

A. That’s the least I could do.

B. Do you think so, too?

C. There’s no doubt about that.

D. It was created by ancient Chinese people, wasn’t it?

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 3 to 7.

Back in the 1960s and 1970s, the world was becoming more aware of the destructive effects of industry (3)______ the environment and people were starting to think seriously about ways of protecting the environment. One man who was particularly affected by this subject was Gerard Morgan-Grenville. As Morgan-Grenville travelled round earning his living as a gardener, he noticed signs of the damage that was being done to the countryside around him. It wasn't long before Morgan-Grenville decided that he had to do something about this situation. He felt that if people could be shown a better way of living then maybe they would be interested enough to try to protect their (4)_____ environment.

Mr. Morgan-Grenville decided to set up a project (5) ______ would prove what was happening to our surroundings and what could be done about it. So, in 1975, Morgan-Grenville created the Centre for Alternative Technology (CAT) in a village in Wales.

The main aim of CAT is to search for an ecologically better way of living by using technology which (6) _____ no harm to the environment. One of the most important things CAT did initially was to explore and demonstrate a wide range of techniques and to point out which ones had the least destructive results on the world around us. (7)____, CAT provides information and advice to people all over Britain and all over the world. If more and more individuals are informed about how much damage our modern lifestyle is causing to the planet, maybe more of them would be prepared to look for practical solutions to environmental problems.

Câu 3: A. for	B. to	C. with	D. on
Câu 4: A. worthless	B. valueless	C. precious	D. priceless
Câu 5: A. that	B. he	C. it	D. this
Câu 6: A. gets	B. makes	C. plays	D. does
Câu 7: A. Therefore	B. However	C. Moreover	D. Although

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Câu 8: A. volunteer      B. trust             C. fuss              D. judge

Câu 9: A. houses          B. services      C. passages     D. techniques

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Câu 10: Since the death of Laura's father, her mother has become a breadwinner to support the family.

A. a person who bakes bread every morning

B. a bakery-owner

C. a person who delivers bread to make money

D. a person who goes out to work to earn money

Câu 11: Peter is the black sheep of the family, so he is never welcomed there.

A. a beloved member

B. a bad and embarrassing member

C. the only child

D. the eldest child

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Câu 12: Children are expected to make the right thing both at school and at home.

A. to make                       B. the

C. are expected                D. both

Câu 13: We will have a fund-raising dinner at Rex Hotel tonight.

A. at                                 B. will have

C. a                                  D. fund-raising

Câu 14: It was on 12^th April, 1961 when the first human, a Soviet cosmonaut, flew into space.

A. a Soviet cosmonaut    B. when

C. flew                           D. into space

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Câu 15: His physical condition was not an impediment to his career as a violinist. He has won a lot of prizes.

A. difficulty                    B. barrier

C. advantage                 D. disadvantage

Câu 16: Both universities speak highly of the programme of student exchange and hope to cooperate more in the future.

A. express disapproval of

B. voice opinions on

C. find favor with

D. resolve a conflict over

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 17 to 24.

The difference between the nuclear family and the extended family is that a nuclear family refers to a single basic family unit of parents and their children, whereas the extended family refers to their relatives such as grandparents, in-laws, aunts and uncles, etc. In many cultures, and particularly indigenous societies, the latter is the most common basic form of social organization.

   A nuclear family is limited, according to Kristy Jackson of Colorado State University, to one or two parents (e.g. a father and mother) and their own child, or children, living together in a single house or other dwellings. In anthropology, they only must be related in this fashion; there is no upper or lower limit on the number of children in a nuclear family.

   The extended family is a much more nebulous term, but in essence refers to kin or relations not covered by the above definition. In historical Europe and Asia as well as in Middle Eastern, African, and South American Aboriginal cultures, extended family groups were typically the most basic unit of social organization. The term can differ in specific cultural settings, but generally includes people related in age or by lineage. Anthropologically, the term “extended family” refers to such a group living together in a household, often with three generations living together (grandparents, parents, and children) and headed in patriarchal societies by the eldest man or by some other chosen leadership figure. However, in common parlance, the term “extended family” is often used by people simply to refer to their cousins, aunts, uncles, and so on, even though they are not living together in a single group.

Historically, most people in the world have lived in extended family groupings rather than in nuclear families. This was even true in Europe and in the early United States, where multiple generations often lived together for economic reasons. During the 20^th century, average income rose high enough that living apart as nuclear families became a viable option for the vast majority of the American population. In contrast, many indigenous societies and residents of developing countries continue to have multiple generations living in the same household. The rise of the nuclear family in the modern West does not necessarily mean that family arrangements have stabilized, either. The rapid growth in single-parent households, for instance, also represents a substantial change in the traditional nuclear family. More couples are also choosing not to have children at all.

Câu 17:  What is the passage mainly about?

A. The dominance of nuclear families over extended ones

B. The dominance of extended families over nuclear ones

C. A distinction between nuclear families and extended ones

D. The changes of family types over times

Câu 18:  The word “the latter” in paragraph 1 refers to ______.

A. family unit

B. relatives

C. the nuclear family

D. the extended family

Câu 19:  Historically, extended families were the most basic unit of social organization in all of the following places EXCEPT ______.

A. The Middle East         B. Asia

C. North America           D. Europe

Câu 20:  The word “patriarchal” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. ruled or controlled by men

B. equal for both men and women

C. simple with no rules and laws

D. modern with advanced facilities

Câu 21: According to the passage, single-parent households ______.

A. are not defined by anthropologists

B. are the existing trend of family arrangement

C. are included in the term “nuclear family”

D. are on the decrease

Câu 22:  The word “viable” in paragraph 4 could be best replaced by _______.

A. impossible                   B. possible

C. explainable                  D. fashionable

Câu 23:  Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?

A. Since the 20^th century, more and more American couples have lived in extended families because of the financial burdens.

B. Nuclear families are the most basic form of social organization all over the world.

C. The popularity of nuclear families in western countries helps to stabilize family arrangement.

D. Traditional nuclear families have changed a lot over times.

Câu 24:  What can be inferred from the reading passage?

A. Indigenous communities have been completely eradicated all over the world.

B. In the future, all extended families will be replaced by nuclear ones.

C. Anthropology is a science concerning human race and its development.

D. Couples with no children can’t be defined as families.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Câu 25: She didn’t understand the benefits of volunteering until she joined this club.

A. Not until she joined this club did she understand the benefits of volunteering.

B. It was not until she joined this club did she understand the benefits of volunteering.

C. Not until did she join this club, she understood the benefits of volunteering.

D. Not until she joined this club that she understood the benefits of volunteering.

Câu 26: He didn’t prepare well for his GCSE examination and he regrets it now.

A. Unless he had prepared well for his GCSE examination, he wouldn’t regret it now.

B. But for his ill preparation for his GCSE examination, he wouldn’t regret it now.

C. If it hadn’t been for his good preparation for his GCSE examination, he wouldn’t regret it now.

D. If he had prepared well for his GCSE examination, he wouldn’t have regretted it now.

Câu 27: People believe that Chinese people invented paper.

A. Paper is believed to have been invented by Chinese people.

B. Paper is believed to be invented by Chinese people.

C. It was believed that Chinese people invent paper.

D. Chinese people are believed to invent paper.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.

The weather is a national obsession in Britain, perhaps because it is so changeable. It's the national talking point, and most people watch at least one daily weather forecast. Most of the viewers imagine that the presenter does little more than arrive at the studio a few minutes before the broadcast, read the weather, and then go home. 

In fact, this image is far from the truth. The two-minute bulletin which we all rely on when we need to know tomorrow's weather is the result of a hard day's work by the presenter, who is actually a highly-qualified meteorologist.

Every morning, after a weather forecaster arrives at the TV studios, his/her first task of the day is to collect the latest data from the National Meteorological Office. The information is very detailed and includes predictions, satellite and radar pictures, as well as more technical data. After gathering all the relevant material from this office, the forecaster has to translate the scientific terminology and maps into images and words which viewers can easily understand. The final broadcast is then carefully planned. The presenter decides what to say and in what order to say it. Next a “story board” is drawn up which lays out the script word for word.   

The time allocated for each broadcast can also alter. This is because the weather report is screened after the news, which can vary in length. The weather forecaster doesn't always know how much time is available, which means that he/she has to be thoroughly prepared so that the material can be adapted to the time available.  

What makes weather forecasting more complicated is that it has to be a live broadcast and cannot be pre-recorded. Live shows are very nerve-racking for the presenter because almost anything can go wrong. Perhaps the most worrying aspect for every weather forecaster is getting the following day's predictions wrong. Unfortunately for them, this is not an unusual occurrence; the weather is not always possible to predict accurately.

These days, a weather forecaster's job is even more complicated because they are relied upon to predict other environmental conditions. For example, in the summer the weather forecast has to include the pollen count for hay fever sufferers. Some also include reports on ultraviolet radiation intensity to help people avoid sunburn. The job of a weather forecaster is certainly far more sophisticated than just pointing at a map and describing weather conditions. It's a job for professionals who can cope with stressful and challenging conditions.

Câu 28:  The passage is mainly about ______.

A. weather forecast in England

B. a weather forecaster’s job

C. the most widely watched TV programme

D. the competition between weather forecast and other TV programmes

Câu 29:  The word “bulletin” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. show                           B. advertisement

C. report                          D. forecast

Câu 30:  In Britain, people's attitude to the weather _____.

A. is a national problem

B. depends on the prediction being for a sunny or rainy day

C. is quite neglectful

D. makes it a top discussion topic

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ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 4

1	2	3	4	5
D	C	D	D	A
6	7	8	9	10
D	C	A	D	B
11	12	13	14	15
D	A	C	A	C
16	17	18	19	20
A	C	D	C	A
21	22	23	24	25
C	B	D	C	C
26	27	28	29	30
B	A	B	C	D
31	32	33	34	35
C	D	B	B	C
36	37	38	39	40
B	B	A	A	A
41	42	43	44	45
D	A	A	B	D
46	47	48	49	50
C	A	D	B	A

ĐỀ THI THPT QG MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT SƠN TÂY- ĐỀ 05

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 1: He has sold his house and has no job and so now he has next to nothing.

A. he has nothing at all

B. he is unemployed

C. he has almost no money 

D. he has a few things

Question 2: Don't play down John’s contribution to the research.

A. pretend

B. go along with

C. undervalue

D. cooperate

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 3: It’s no use trying to persuade Tom to change his mind.

A. It’s a waste of time trying to persuade Tom to change his mind.

B. There’s no point to try to persuade Tom to change his mind.

C. It’s worth trying to persuade Tom to change his mind.

D. It's useful trying to persuade Tom change his mind.

Question 4: After what he did, he deserves to be put away for life.

A. He should be pensioned forever because of his good life.

B. He deserves to be praised for his whole life.

C. He should be imprisoned for what he has done.

D. His wrong doings deserve to be forgiven.

Question 5: His story was so funny that it made us all laugh.

A. His story couldn't make us laugh.

B. His story was very funny and we couldn’t help laughing.

C. We all laughed at him for his story.

D. His story was too funny to laugh.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 6: A. crashed      B. killed      C. cured      D. waved

Question 7: A. laugh          B. high       C. thought   D. eight

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 8: I met my long-lost brother. I was at a loss for words.

A. When the speaker met his brother, he refused to say anything.

B. When the speaker met his brother, he was puzzled about what to say.

C. When the speaker met his brother, he had nothing pleasant to say.

D. When the speaker met his brother, he had much to say.

Question 9: I strongly disapproved of your behavior. However, I will help you this time.

A. Despite of my strong disapproval of your behavior, I will help you this time.

B. Because of your behavior, I will help you this time.

C. Although I strongly disapproved of your behavior, but I will help you this time.

D. Despite my strong disapproval of your behavior, I will help you this time.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions

The ocean bottom - a region nearly 2.5 times greater than the total land area of the Earth - is a vast frontier that even today is largely unexplored and uncharted. Until about a century ago, the deep-ocean floor was completely inaccessible, hidden beneath waters averaging over 3,600 meters deep. Totally without light and subjected to intense pressures hundreds of times greater than at the Earth's surface, the deep-ocean bottom is a hostile environment to humans, in some ways as forbidding and remote as the void of outer space.

 Although researchers have taken samples of deep-ocean rocks and sediments for over a century, the first detailed global investigation of the ocean bottom did not actually start until 1968, with the beginning of the National Science Foundation's Deep Sea Drilling Project (DSDP).Using techniques first developed for the offshore oil and gas industry, the DSDP's drill ship, the Glomar Challenger, was able to maintain a steady position on the ocean's surface and drill in very deep waters, extracting samples of sediments and rock from the ocean floor.

 The Glomar Challenger completed 96 voyages in a 15-year research program that ended in November 1983. During this time, the vessel logged 600,000 kilometers and took almost 20,000 core samples of seabed sediments and rocks at 624 drilling sites around the world. The Glomar Challenger's core samples have allowed geologists to reconstruct what the planet looked like hundred of millions of years ago and to calculate what it will probably look like millions of years in the future. Today, largely on the strength of evidence gathered during the Glomar Challenger's voyages, nearly all earth scientists agree on the theories of plate tectonics and continental drift that explain many of the geological processes that shape the Earth.

 The cores of sediment drilled by the Glomar Challenger have also yielded information critical to understanding the world's past climates. Deep-ocean sediments provide a climatic record stretching back hundreds of millions of years, because they are largely isolated from the mechanical erosion and the intense chemical and biological activity that rapidly destroy much land-based evidence of past climates. This record has already provided insights into the patterns and causes of past climatic change - information that may be used to predict future climates.

Question 10: The word "they" in paragraph 4 refers to

A. climates                  B. sediments

C. cores                       D. years

Question 11: The word "strength" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to   

A. endurance               B. purpose

C. basis                       D. discovery

Question 12: The word "extracting" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to

A. removing                B. breaking

C. locating                  D. analyzing

Question 13: The word "inaccessible" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to

A. unreachable            B. unsafe

C. unusable                 D. unrecognizable

Question 14: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as being a result of the Deep Sea Drilling Project?

A. Geologists were able to determine the Earth's appearance hundreds of millions of years ago.

B. Two geological theories became more widely accepted by scientists.

C. Geologists observed forms of marine life never before seen.

D. Information was revealed about the Earth's past climatic changes.

Question 15: Which of the following is TRUE of the Glomar Challenger?

A. It is a type of submarine.

B. It is an ongoing project.

C. It has gone on over 100 voyages

D. It made its first DSDP voyage in 1968.

Question 16: What is the main topic of the passage?

A. The Earth's climate millions of years ago

B. The first detailed study of the bottom of the ocean

C. Geologists' predictions for the future environment of the Earth

D. Marine life deep in the ocean

Question 17: The Deep Sea Drilling Project was significant because it was

A. an attempt to find new sources of oil and gas

B. the first extensive exploration of the ocean bottom

C. composed of geologists from all over the world

D. funded entirely by the gas and oil industry

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 18: By this time next summer, you _______ your studies at the university of medicine.

A. will complete

B. are completing

C. complete

D. will have completed

Question 19: If I had enough money, I _______ abroad to improve my English.

A. would go               B. should go

C. will go                   D. should have to go

Question 20: My father is interested _______ playing chess with his friends.

A. on                           B. with

C. of                            D. in

Question 21: The man ______ spoke to John over there is my brother.

A. which                     B. whom

C. who                        D. whose

Question 22: ______ electricity you use, _______ your bill will be.

A. More/higher

B. The more / the high

C. The more/ the higher

D. The most/ the higher

Question 23: _______ he had enough money, he refused to buy a new car.

A. In spite                   B. Although

C. Despite                   D. In spite of

Question 24: When I got up this morning, the kitchen was spotless. Alex ______ it before she went to bed last night.

A. should have tidied

B. needn't have tidied

C. must have tidied

D. mustn't have tidied

Question 25: Whenever I have problems, Jane is always very dependable. She never _______.

A. lets me down 

B. takes me up

C. calls me off

D. catches me out

Question 26: I am looking forward to _______ you at your sister's wedding.

A. seeing                     B. see

C. to see                     D. saw

Question 27: He locked the doors _______ be disturbed when he was studying for his exams.

A. in order not                  B. in order that 

C. in order to                    D. in order not to

Question 28: The government has enacted laws to protect gorillas to ensure their _______.

A. growth                        B. life 

C. existence                    D. survival

Question 29: When I went on a holiday with my friends I bought a pair of ______.

A. Italian old lovely shoes 

B. lovely old Italian shoes

C. Italian lovely old shoes 

D. old lovely Italian shoes

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 30: A pessimistic person always sees things on the dark sides.

A. difficult                   B. intelligent

C. comfortable            D. sanguine

---(Để xem tiếp nội dung của đề thi số 5 các em vui lòng xem tại online hoặc đăng nhập vào HỌC247 để tải về máy)--- 

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 5

1	2	3	4	5
C	C	A	C	B
6	7	8	9	10
A	A	B	D	B
11	12	13	14	15
C	A	A	C	D
16	17	18	19	20
B	B	D	A	D
21	22	23	24	25
C	C	B	C	A
26	27	28	29	30
A	D	D	B	D
31	32	33	34	35
D	B	A	B	D
36	37	38	39	40
B	B	A	B	D
41	42	43	44	45
C	A	A	B	B
46	47	48	49	50
B	D	D	C	C

...

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Mời các em tham khảo tài liệu có liên quan:

• Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG năm 2021-2022 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THPT Hoàng Diệu
• Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG năm 2021-2022 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THPT Tam Phú

Hy vọng bộ đề thi này sẽ giúp các em học sinh ôn tập tốt và đạt thành tích cao trong kì thi sắp tới.