Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG môn Tiếng Anh năm 2021-2022 có đáp án Trường THPT Quyết Thắng

TRƯỜNG THPT QUYẾT THẮNG

ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM HỌC 2021-2022 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH (Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút)

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. shortage	B. storage	C. garage	D. encourage
Question 2: A. eternal	B. energy	C. eradicate	D. eliminate

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions

Question 3: A. medicine	B. endanger	C. addition	D. survival
Question 4: A. musician	B. officer	C. pianist	D. triangle

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 5: There has been insufficient rainfall over the past two years, and farmers are having trouble.

A. adequate        B. unsatisfactory               C. abundant        D. dominant

Question 6: She was so insubordinate that she lost her job within a week.

A. fresh           B. disobedient                   C. obedient       D. understanding

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 7: Help and supports are rapidly sent to wherever there are victims of catastrophe.

A. sudden great disaster

B. warfare

C. poverty and famine

D. diseases and illnesses

Question 8: You must answer the police’s questions truthfully: otherwise, you will get into trouble.

A. as trustingly as you can

B. with a negative attitude

C. in a harmful way

D. exactly as things really happen

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 9: Tom: “How did you get here?” - John: "______ ”

A. The train is so crowded. 

B. I came here last night.

C. I came here by train. 

D. Is it far from here?

Question 10: Mai: “It’s been a tough couple of months, but I think the worst is behind us now.” Nam: “______”

A. Good! 

B. Good luck! 

C. Good morning.

D. Goodness me!

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 11: His ______ and bad work led to his dismissal from the company.

A. unpunctual                    B. unpunctuality               C. inpunctual       D. inpunctuality

Question 12: The smell of the sea ______ her childhood.

A. took her in

B. took after

C. took her back to

D. took it for granted

Question 13: Can you tell me who is responsible ______ luggage?

A. to check        B. checking      C. for checking                 D. about checking

Question 14: Not only ______ the exam but she also got a scholarship.

A. did she pass

B. she passed 

C. she has passed

D. has she passed

Question 15: What made Mark ______ his family and his job? Where did he go and why?

A. walk away on

B. leave out at 

C. go off on

D. walk out on

Question 16: My mother has ______ for a bargain.

A. a sharp ear

B. a strong head

C. a keen eye

D. a keen ear

Question 17: Despite all the interruptions, she ______ with her work.

A. pressed on                    B. held on                          C. stuck at                         D. hung out

Question 18: My grandfather is getting old and forgetful. ______ , he is experienced.

A. Be that as it may

B. Regardless

C. Inasmuch as it is

D. Consequently

Question 19: Rarely have I visited ______ Bangkok, the capital of Thailand.

A. as a beautiful city as

B. as beautiful a city as

C. as beautiful as the city

D. as a city as beautiful as

Question 20. I read the essay again and again ______ avoiding making spelling mistakes.

A. in terms of

B. by means of

C. with a view to

D. in view of

Question 21. Not until a monkey is several years old ______ to exhibit signs of  independence from its mother.

A. beginning 

B. does it begin

C. and begin

D. it begins

Question 22. He suffered from depression ______ by overwork and ill-health.

A. brought on

B. coming about

C. taken up

D. pull through

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.

Easter is a holiday in late March or early April, the first Sunday after the first full moon after 21 March. Many people (23) ______ it with their family or have a short holiday/ vacation. It is also an important  Christian  festival.  Easter  Sunday,  the  day  of  the  Resurrection,  is  the  end  of  Lent (24) ______  the most important date in the Christian year. Many people who do not go to church at other times go on Easter Sunday. It was once common for people to wear new clothes to church on this day. Women wore new hats, called Easter bonnets. Today, people sometimes make elaborately decorated Easter bonnets for fun. A few people send Easter cards with religious symbols on them or pictures of small chickens, lambs, rabbits and spring flowers, all traditionally associated (25) ______ Easter.

The Friday before Easter Sunday is called Good Friday and is (26) ______ as the day Christ was crucified (= hanged on a cross to die). On Good Friday many people eat hot cross buns (= fruit buns decorated with a simple cross). The Monday after Easter is called Easter Monday. In Britain Good Friday and Easter Monday are both bank holidays. In the US, each company decides for  itself (27) ______ to close or remain open on those days.

Question 23. A. take	B. use	C. spend	D. expend
Question 24. A. for	B. as	C. and	D. nor
Question 25. A. toward	B. with	C. to	D. from
Question 26. A. missed	B. recalled	C. reminded	D. remembered
Question 27. A. if	B. how	C. why	D. whether

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.

It is estimated that over 99 percent of all species that ever existed have become extinct. What causes extinction? When a species is no longer adapted to a changed environment, it may perish. The exact causes of a species' death vary from situation to situation. Rapid ecological change may render an environment hostile to a species. For example, temperatures may change and a species may not be able to adapt. Food Resources may be affected by environmental changes, which will then cause problems for a species requiring these resources. Other species may become better adapted to an environment, resulting in competition and, ultimately, in the death of a species.

The fossil record reveals that extinction has occurred throughout the history of Earth. Recent analyses have also revealed that on some occasions many species became extinct at the same time - a  mass extinction. One of the best-known examples of mass extinction occurred 65 million years ago with the demise of dinosaurs and many other forms of life. Perhaps the largest mass extinction was the one  that occurred 225 million years ago. When approximately 95 percent of all species died, mass extinctions can be caused by a relatively rapid change in the environment and can be worsened by the close interrelationship of many species. If, for example, something were to happen to destroy much of the plankton in the oceans, then the oxygen content of Earth would drop, affection even organisms not living in the oceans. Such a change would probably lead to a mass extinction.

One interesting, and controversial, finding is that extinctions during the past 250 million years have tended to be more intense every 26 million years. This periodic extinction might be due to intersection of the Earth’s orbit with a cloud of comets, but this theory is purely speculative. Some researchers have also speculated that extinction may often be random. That is, certain species may be eliminated and others  may survive for no particular reason. A species’ survival may have nothing to do with its ability or inability to adapt. If so, some of evolutionary history may reflect a sequence of essentially random events.

Question 28. The word “it” in paragraph 1 refers to                   

A. environment                 B. species             C. extinction      D. 99 percent

Question 29. What does the author say in paragraph 1 regarding most species in Earth’s history?

A. They have remained basically unchanged from their original forms.

B. They have been able to adapt to ecological changes.

C. They have caused rapid change in the environment.

D. They are no longer in existence.

Question 30. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 1 as resulting from rapid ecological change?

A. Temperature changes

B. Availability of food resources

C. Introduction of new species

D. Competition among species

Question 31. The word “demise” in line 10 is closest in meaning to

A. change                          B. recovery                        C. help         D. death

Question 32. Why is “plankton” mentioned in paragraph 2?

A. To demonstrate the interdependence of different species

B. To emphasize the importance of food resources in preventing mass extinction.

C. To illustrate a comparison between oiganisms that live on the land and those that live in the ocean

D. To point out that certain species could never become extinct.

Question 33. Which of the following can be inferred from the theory of periodic extinction mentioned in paragraph 3?

A. Many scientists could be expected to disagree with it

B. Evidence to support the theory has recently been found.

C. The theory is no longer seriously considered.

D. Most scientists believe the theory to be accurate.

Question 34. In paragraph 3, the author makes which of the following statements about a species’ survival?

A. It reflects the interrelationship of many species.

B. It may depend on chance events.

C. It does not vary greatly from species to species

D. It is associated with astronomical conditions.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.

A considerable body of research has demonstrated a correlation between birth order and aspects such as temperament and behavior, and some psychologists believe that birth order significantly affects the development of personality. Psychologist Alfred Adler was a pioneer in the study of the relationship between birth order and personality. A key point in his research and in the hypothesis that he developed based on it was that it was not the actual numerical birth position that affected personality; instead, it was the similar responses in large numbers of families to children in specific birth order positions that had an effect. For example, first - borns, who have their parents to themselves initially and do not have to deal with siblings in the first part of their lives, tend to have their first socialization experiences with adults  and therefore tend to find the process of peer socialization more difficult. In contrast, later-born children have to deal with siblings from the first moment of their lives and therefore tend to have stronger socialization skills.

Numerous studies since Adler’s have been conducted on the effect of birth order and personality. These studies have tended to classify birth order types into four different categories: first-born, second- born and/or middle, last, and only child.

Studies have consistently shown that first-bom children tend to exhibit similar, positive and negative personality traits. First-borns have consistently been linked with academic achievement in various studies; in one study, the number of National Merit scholarship winners who are first - borns was found to be equal to the number of second - and third-borns combined. First - borns have been found to be more responsible and assertive than those born in other birth-order positions and tend to rise to positions of leadership more often than others; more first - borns have served in the U.S. Congress and as U.S. presidents than have those born in other birth - order positions. However, studies have shown that first-borns tend to be more subject to stress and were considered problem children more often than later-borns.

Second-born and/or middle children demonstrate markedly different tendencies from firstborns. They tend to feel inferior to the older child or children because it is difficult for them to comprehend that their lower level of achievement is a function of age rather than ability, and they often try to succeed in areas other than those in which their older sibling or siblings excel. They tend to be more trusting, accepting, and focused on others than the more self-centered first-borns, and they tend to have a comparatively higher level of success in team sports than do first-borns or only children, who more often excel in individual sports.

The last-born child is the one who tends to be the eternal baby of the family and thus often exhibits a strong sense of security. Last-borns collectively achieve the highest degree of social success and demonstrate the highest levels of self - esteem of all the birth-order positions. They often exhibit less competitiveness than older brothers and sisters and are more likely to take part in less competitive group games or in social organizations such as sororities and fraternities.

Only children tend to exhibit some of the main characteristics of first-borns and some of the characteristics of last-borns. Only children tend to exhibit the strong sense of security and selfesteem exhibited by last-borns while, like first-borns, they are more achievement oriented and more likely than middle-or last-borns to achieve academic success. However, only children tend to have the most problems establishing close relationships and exhibit a lower need for affiliation than other children.

Question 35. The word body in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by                   .

A. corpse              B. amount          C. organization                  D. skeleton

Question 36. The word it in paragraph 1 refers to                   .

A. personality                    B. component                    C. research       D. hypothesis

Question 37. What is stated in paragraph 1 about Adler?

A. He was one of the first to study the effect of birth order on personality.

B. He believed that it was the actual birth order that affected personality.

C. He had found that the responses by family members had little to do with personality.

D. He was the only one to study birth order.

Question 38. The word traits in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to                   .

A. stresses         B. marks          C. characteristics               D. fears

Question 39. Which of the sentences below expresses the essential information in the bold sentence in paragraph 3? Incorrect choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out essential information.

A. In spite of certain characteristics that first-borns possess, many of them become leaders.

B. An interesting fact that is difficult to explain is that many first-borns have served in high government positions.

C. Because first-borns tend to be very assertive, they are uncomfortable serving in government positions.

D. Several examples support the idea that first-borns have characteristics that make them leaders.

Question 40: The word accepting in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to                   .

A. tolerant      B. affectionate                  C. admissible        D. respectable

Question 41. Which of the following is NOT true?

A. First-borns tend to do well in individual sports.

B. Middle children tend to have a preference for team sports.

C. Last-borns tend to prefer games with fierce competition.

D. Only children tend to prefer individual over team sports.

Question 42. Which of the following would be most likely to have a successful career but few close friendships?

A. A second-born

B. A middle child 

C. A last-born

D. An only child

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 43: His dog was so fierce that nobody would visit him.

A. He had a such fierce dog that nobody would visit him.

B. He had so fierce a dog that nobody would visit him.

C. He had a so fierce dog that nobody would visit him.

D. His dog was too fierce to visit.

Question 44: "If I were you, I’d buy that house." Ms. Hoa said to Ms. Lan.

A. Ms. Hoa promised Ms. Lan that he would buy that house.

B. Ms. Hoa advised Ms. Lan to buy that house.

C. Ms. Hoa suggested Ms. Lan to buy that house.

D. Ms. Hoa forced Ms. Lan to buy that house.

Question 45: You needn’t hurry because there is a delay of about two hours.

A. There is a delay of about two hours and therefore you mustn’t hurry.

B. It is not possible for you to hurry because there is a delay of about two hours.

C. It is not necessary for you to hurry because there is a delay of about two hours.

D. You mustn’t hurry because there is a delay of about two hours.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 46: (A) After writing it, the essay must (B) be duplicated by the student himself and handed (C) in to the department secretary before (D) the end of the month.

Question 47: It is the (A) high time Tim (B) understands (C) how to behave properly (D) towards the old men.

Question 48: She finds (A) the work she (B) has to do quite (C) easily; boredom is her (D) biggest problem.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49: You’d better take the keys. It’s possible I’ll come home late.

A. You’d better take the keys as I possibly come home late.

B. You’d better take the keys in case I come home late.

C. I’ll probably come home late so that you’d better take the keys.

D. If I come home late, you’d better take the keys.

Question 50: We chose to find a place for the night. We found the bad weather very inconvenient.

A. Bad weather was approaching, so we started to look for a place to stay.

B. The bad weather prevented us from driving any further.

C. Seeing that the bad weather had set in, we decided to find somewhere to spend the night.

D. Because the climate was so severe, we were worried about what we’d do at night.

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 1

Câu	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Đáp án	C	B	A	A	A	C	A	D	C	A
Câu	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Đáp án	B	C	C	A	D	C	A	A	B	C
Câu	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Đáp án	B	A	C	C	B	D	D	B	D	C
Câu	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Đáp án	D	A	A	B	B	C	A	C	D	A
Câu	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Đáp án	C	D	B	B	C	A	B	C	B	C

ĐỀ THI THPT QG MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT QUYẾT THẮNG- ĐỀ 02

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. courage	B. honour	C. favour	D. labour
Question 2: A. inform	B. situation	C. dialogue	D. signal

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions

Question 3: A. passion       B. escape           C. prefer           D. review

Question 4: A. auditory      B. evidence         C. currency       D. distinguish

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 5: Affluent families find it easier to support their children financially.

A. Wealthy      B. Well-off          C. Privileged      D. Impoverished

Question 6: His friend’s thoughtless comments made him very angry.

A. honest         B. kind               C. pleasant        D. thoughtful

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 7: The conference was held with a view to laying down rules for the treatment and protection  of the wounded and the disaster-stricken.

A. establishing

B. putting down

C. cancelling

D. putting aside.

Question 8: My father is always bad-tempered when I leave my room untidy.

A. feeling embarrassed

B. talking too much

C. very happy and satisfied

D. easily annoyed or irritated

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 9: Jane: “How about a game of cards?” - Mary: “.............”

A. Good idea.

B. I’m afraid I do.

C. No, it’s interesting, isn’t it?

D. Sorry, I don’t like to work.

Question 10: David: “Wait! I have something to do before we can go to the movies.”

Mary: “______! We don’t have much time, honey.”

A. Leave immediately 

B. Come on

C. Come at once

D. No way

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 11: How can the manager act ______ nothing had happened?

A. therefore                       B. so                                  C. if               D. as though

Question 12:  She used to work here as a nurse, ______ she?

A. did                                B. didn’t                           C. wouldn’t         D. use

Question 13: My wife was good enough to ______ my mistake.

A. oversee                         B. overtake                        C. overdo         D. overlook

Question 14: Okay, I ______ the tickets if you buy the drinks.

A. will buy                        B. buy                               C. would buy     D. bought

Question 15: If  you are ______ with your goods, contact us within a week of receipt, and we will refund your money in full.

A. not completely satisfied

B. not completely satisfying

C. not completely satisfactory

D. not satisfied completely

Question 16:  I don’t remember ______ of your decision to change our plan.

A. to tell                            B. being told                     C. telling           D. to be told

Question 17: I would sooner you ______ your phone in the meeting.

A. shouldn’t have used

B. shouldn’t use

C. not to use

D. didn’t use

Question 18: Never in my life ______ such an intelligent boy.

A. I have met

B. I haven’t met

C. have I met

D. haven’t I met

Question 19: My mother usually buys her clothes ______ . It’s cheaper than going to the dress maker.

A. on the house

B. off the peg

C. in public

D. on the shelf

Question 20. Don’t worry about trying to catch last bus home, as we can easily ______ you up for the night.

A. keep            B. put               C. take                  D. Set

Question 21. We have a party tonight and Mary is worried about ______ 

A. what to wear

B. which wearing

C. these wearing

D. that she wearing

Question 22. The girl proposed that their group leader ______ a camping trip.

A. organized                      B. organize          C. organizes      D. organizing

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.

In order that they could ensure higher (23) ______, TV producers have developed a whole new breed of programmes featuring real people. In Europe the most famous of these (24) ______ reality TV shows was probably Big Brothers, where 12 ordinaiy people volunteered to live under the watchful eye of TV cameras 24 hours a day. In America, the top show was Survivor, based on a similar concept, in which 16 constants are abandoned on a desert island. But the ultimate example of the genre must surely  be  The  Osbournes, first (25) ______ on MTV in 2002, in which the homelife of rock star Ozzy Osbourne  and  his  family  was  laid  bare  to  public  scrutiny.  Obsoume  himself  was  already  a (26) ______ name as the former lead singer of the highly successful heavy-metal group, Black Sabbath, The show was described as a real-life sitcom because it (27) ______ light  on  Ozzy’s softer, more humorous side. It revealed his devotion to his teenage kids, even though he was often heard yelling and swearing at them. The programme brought in millions for the Osbourne family and certainly blurred the boundaries between reality and television.

Question 23. A. scores	B. levels	C. sequences	D. ratings
Question 24. A. so-called	B. alleged	C. renowned	D. adept
Question 25. A. played	B. dubbed	C. cast	D. broadcast
Question 26. A. common	B. known	C. household	D. domestic
Question 27. A. opened	B. wound	C. shed	D. set

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.

Magazines have been a major growth area of popular in the 20th century. Specialist magazines cater to every imaginable field and activity. In the United Kingdom, over 12,000 periodicals, magazines, bulletins, annuals, trade journals, and academic journals are published on a regular basis. There are   some

40 women’s magazines and over 60 dealing with particular sports games, hobbies, and pastimes.  Although some US magazines, such as The Saturday Evening Post, has succumbed to the circulations, The Reader’s Digest over 16 million, the National Geographic over 10 million. For many people, magazines have been the most available and widely used form of continuing education, providing information about history, geography, literature, science, and the arts, and as well as guidance on gardening, cooking, home decorating, financial management, psychology, even marriage and family life.

Until the rise of television, magazines were the most available form of cheap, convenient entertainment in the English-speaking world. Radio served a similar function, but it was more limited in what it could do. Magazines and television, however, both address the more powerful visual sense.  During the third quarter of the 20th century, coincident with a dramatic rise in the popularity of television, many general-interest, especially illustrated magazines went out of business. The shift in attention of a mass audience from reading such magazines to watching television has been a major factor in this  decline, but it is an implicit tribute to the older genre that its programs are generally organized in a single format and content.

Question 28. The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to                   .

A. television              B. publishing       C. entertainment       D. radio

Question 29. From the passage it can be inferred that                    .

A. movies have replaced magazines

B. the author is fond of magazines

C. almost all magazines are printed in English

D. home decorating magazines are dramatic

Question 30. According to the passage, which of the following magazines is no longer printed?

A. The Saturday Evening post

B. The Reader’s Digest

C. The Nation

D. The National Geographic

--(Để xem tiếp nội dung của đề thi số 2 các em vui lòng xem tại online hoặc đăng nhập vào HỌC247 để tải về máy)--- 

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 2

Câu	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Đáp án	A	C	A	D	D	D	A	D	A	B
Câu	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Đáp án	D	B	D	A	A	B	D	C	B	B
Câu	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Đáp án	A	B	D	A	D	C	C	D	B	A
Câu	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Đáp án	A	D	D	B	B	D	C	C	C	D
Câu	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Đáp án	D	B	A	D	C	C	C	C	D	D

ĐỀ THI THPT QG MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT QUYẾT THẮNG- ĐỀ 03

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. mechanic    B. parachute      C. chemistry       D. character

Question 2: A. sugar            B. season          C. serious          D. secret

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions

Question 3: A. untrustworthy B. diversity     C. encouraging     D. inattentive

Question 4: A. uncertain          B. arrogant   C. familiar            D. impatient

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 5: Names of people in the newspaper were changed to preserve anonymity.

A. reveal         B. conserve                       C. cover            D. presume

Question 6: There are several different kinds of faults in reading which are usually more exaggerated with foreign learners.

A. overestimated

B. understated 

C. overemphasized

D. undertaken

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 7: The teacher gave some hints on what could come out for the examination.

A. effects        B. symptoms           C. suggestions                   D. demonstrations

Question 8: Relaxation therapy teaches us not to fret over small problems in life.

A. get involved in

B. worry about

C. look for 

D. get angry about

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 9: Hoa: “Well, I hope you enjoyed your meal.” - Mai: “                  ”

A. Oh, absolutely delicious. 

B. No problem.

C. Yes, that’s very interesting. 

D. Yeah, that’s right.

Question 10: Linda: “Do you have a minute?” - Tim: “...............”

A. Sorry, I haven’t got it here. 

B. Well. I’m not sure when.

C. Good, I hope so. 

D. Sure. What’s problem?

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 11: It was ............... we couldn’t stop laughing.

A. such a funny story that

B. so a funny story that

C. a very funny story that

D. so a laughing story that

Question 12: How well people remember things ______ on many different factors.

A. depends                        B. depended                     C. depending                    D. depend

Question 13: I think the ______ thing would be to catch a bus home. I'm tired of walking.

A. sensitive                        B. sensational                    C. sensible                         D. senseless

Question 14: Mai’s encouraging words gave me ______ to undertake the demanding task once again.

A. an incentive                  B. a resolution                   C. a point                          D. a target

Question 15: Everyone knows about pollution problems, but not many people have ______ any solutions.

A. come up with

B. thought over

C. got round to

D. looked into

Question 16: In most ______ developed countries, over 50% of ______ population attends higher education at some time in their lives.

A. 0/0                                B. the / 0                           C. 0 / the            D. the/a

Question 17: ______ calculations have shown that the earth’s resources may run out before    the end of the next century.

A. Crude                           B. Blunt                            C. Rude               D. Raw

Question 18: I walked away as calmly as I could. ______ , they would have thought I was a thief.

A. If so    B. Or else                          C. In case          D. Owing to

Question 19: After the flood, all the drains were overflowing ______ storm water.

A. with             B. by                C. from                              D. for

Question 20: The total cost to renovate the building was $20 million, ______ double the original estimate.

A. mostly        B. most all         C. the most                        D. almost

Question 21. In my opinion, the changes to our education system have been to good ______ 

A. outcome           B. upshot            C. influence                       D. effect

Question 22. He expects that the new trend will soon ______ here.

A. take up           B. catch up       C. catch on                        D. identify with

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.

Mobile phones emit microwave radio emissions. Researchers are questioning whether exposure to these  radio  waves might (23)  ______ to  brain  cancer.  So  far,  the  data  are  not conclusive. The scientific evidence does not enable us to say with certainly that mobile phones are categorically (24) ______. On the other hand, current research has not yet proved clear adverse effect associated with the prolonged use of mobile phones.

Numerous studies are now going on in various countries. Some of the results are contradictory but others have shown an association between mobile phone use and cancer. (25)  ______, these studies are preliminary and the issue needs further, long - term investigation. (26) ______ the scientific data is more definite, it is prudent for people to try not to   use mobile phones for long periods of time. Don’t think that hands free phones are any safer either. At the moment, research is in fact showing the (27) ______ and they may be just as dangerous. It is also  thought that young people whose bodies are still growing may be at particular risk.

Question 23. A. cause	B. bring	C. produce	D. lead
Question 24. A. risky	B. secure	C. unhealthy	D. safe
Question 25. A. While	B. Though	C. Additionally	D. However
Question 26. A. Until	B. When	C. Provide	D. As
Question 27. A. way	B. truth	C. opposite	D. fact

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.

Though Edmund Halley was very famous because of his achievements as an astronomer, he was a scientist of diverse interests and great skill. In addition to studying the skies, Halley was also deeply interested in exploring the unknown depths of the oceans. One of his lesser-known accomplishments that were quite remarkable was his design for a diving bell that facilitated exploration of the watery depths.

The diving bell that Halley designed had a major advantage over the diving bells that were in use prior to his. Earlier diving bells could only make use of the air contained within the bell itself, so divers had to surface when the air inside the bell ran low. Halley’s bell was an improvement in that its design allowed for an additional supply of fresh air that enabled a crew of divers to remain underwater for several hours.

The diving contraption that Halley designed was in the shape of a bell that measured three feet across the top and five feet across the bottom and could hold several divers comfortably; it was open at the bottom so that divers could swim in and out at will. The bell was built of wood, which was first heavily tarred to make it water repellent and was then covered with a half-ton sheet of lead to make the bell heavy enough to sink in water. The bell shape held air inside for the divers to breathe as the bell sank to the bottom.

The air inside the bell was not the only source of air for the divers to breathe, and it was this improvement that made Halley’s bell superior to its predecessors. In addition to the air already in the bell, air was also supplied to the divers from a lead barrel that was lowered to the ocean floor close to the bell itself. Air flowed through a leather pipe from the lead barrel on the ocean floor to the bell. The diver  could breathe the air from a position inside the bell, or he could move around outside the bell wearing a diving suit that consisted of a lead bell-shaped helmet with a glass viewing window and a leather body suit, with a leather pipe carrying fresh air from the diving bell to the helmet.

Question 28: The subject of the preceding passage was most likely Halley’s                   .

A. childhood 

B. invention of the diving bell

C. work as an astronomer 

D. many different interests

Question 29: Halley’s bell was better than its predecessors because it                   .

A. was bigger

B. weighed less

C. could rise more quickly

D. provided more air

Question 30: The expression “ran low” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to

A. sank to the bottom

B. had been replenished

C. was almost exhausted

D. move slowly

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ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 3

Câu	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Đáp án	B	A	D	B	A	B	C	B	A	D
Câu	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Đáp án	A	A	C	A	A	C	A	B	A	D
Câu	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Đáp án	D	C	D	D	D	A	C	C	D	C
Câu	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Đáp án	C	C	C	D	D	C	A	B	D	D
Câu	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Đáp án	C	A	B	D	D	C	A	C	A	D

ĐỀ THI THPT QG MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT QUYẾT THẮNG- ĐỀ 04

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. predator           B. restore       C. recollect        D. preface

Question 2: A. apprehension  B. equation    C. precaution    D. discretion

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions

Question 3: A. opponent     B. contractual     C. disappear    D. arrangement

Question 4: A. uncertain       B. arrogant       C. familiar         D. impatient

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 5: Slavery was abolished in this country.

A. instituted                      B. eradicated                     C. eliminated                     D. required

Question 6: Mary decided to remain celibate and devote her life to helping the homeless and orphans.

A. single                            B. married           C. divorced                       D. separated

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 7: My husband has lost his job, so we’ll have to tighten our belt to avoid getting into debt.

A. earn money

B. spend money

C. sit still 

D. economize

Question  8:  When  our  rent  increased  from  $100  to  $200  a  month,  we  protested  against  such a tremendous increase.

A. light            B. huge                 C. tiring       D. difficult

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 9: Ken and Laura are saying goodbye to each other after going to LOTTE Center. And they are going to have a date with each other later.

Laura: “Well, it’s getting late. Maybe we could get together sometime.” - Ken: “                  ”

A. Nice to see back you

B. Take it easy.

C. Sounds good. I’ll give you a call.

D. Yes, I’ve enjoyed it.

Question 10: “Don’t forget to send your parents my regards.” - “                  ”

A. It’s my pleasure

B. Good idea, thanks

C. Never mind

D. Thanks, I will

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 11: Genetically, the chimpanzee is more similar to humans ________ 

A. are than any other animal 

B. than any other animal

C. any other animal is

D. and any other animal is

Question 12: When the weather was very hot in summer, sales of bottles of water went ________ the roof.

A. through                         B. to               C. above                            D. over

Question 13: If we leave here now, we can drive half the distance before we stop ________ lunch.

A. for having                     B. having had                    C. having         D. to have

Question 14: He lifted the phone receiver, ________ slightly.

A. his hands trembling

B. his hands were trembling

C. his hands trembled 

D. with his hands trembling

Question 15: No matter ________ , he was an accomplished composer while still a child.

A. how it seems remarkable

B. how remarkable it seems

C. it seems remarkable how

D. how seems it remarkable

Question 16: Such a doctor ________ retire from his job before the retirement age.

A. as well as

B. may as well 

C. so as to 

D. as much as

Question 17: By 1820, there were over sixty steamboats on the  Mississippi river, ________ were quite luxurious.

A. which many

B. many of them

C. many of which

D. many that

Question 18: We put his success ________ his efforts.

A. up to                             B. down to                        C. off at                             D. up with

Question 19: The judge ________ the pedestrian for the accident.

A. accused                         B. charged                         C. sued                              D. blamed

Question 20. Linda had a problem with her finances, so we talked ________ 

A. over

B. it over

C. over it 

D. over and over

Question 21. My brother and I will never get along. We’re ________ .

A. cats and dogs 

B. chalk and cheese

C. salt and pepper

D. brick and mortar

Question 22. The book says that the revolution was ________ off by the assassination of the president.

A. launched         B. cropped         C. triggered         D. prompted

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.

What is meant by the term economic resources? In general, these are all the natural, man-made, and human resources that go into the production of goods and services. Economic resources can be brokendown into (23) ________ general categories: property resource - land and capital, and human resources - labor and entrepreneurial skills.

What do economists mean (24) ________ land? Much more than the non-economist, land refers to all the natural resources (25) ________ are usable in the production process: arable land, forests, mineral and oil deposits, and so on. What about capital? Capital goods are all the manmade aids to producing, storing, transporting, and distributing goods and services. Capital goods differ from consumer goods in that (26) ________ satisfy wants directly, while the former do so indirectly by facilitating the production of consumer goods. It should be noted that capital as defined here does not refer to money. Money, as such, produces nothing.

The term labor refers to the physical and mental talents of humans used to produce goods and services (with the exception of a certain set of human talents, entrepreneurial skills, which will be considered separately because of their special significance). Thus the services of a factory worker or an office worker, a ballet dancer or an astronaut all fall (27) ________ the general heading of labor.

Question 23: A. many	B. some	C. two	D. six
Question 24: A. calling	B. with	C. using	D. by
Question 25: A. these	B. what	C. they	D. that
Question 26: A. lately	B. the latter	C. the latest	D. later
Question 27: A. into	B. to	C. from	D. under

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.

Esperanto is what is called a planned, or artificial, language. It was created more than a century ago by Polish eye doctor Ludwik Lazar Zamenhof. Zamenhof believed that a common language would help to alleviate some of the misunderstandings among cultures.

In Zamenhof’s first attempt at a universal language, he tried to create a language that was as uncomplicated as possible. This first language included words such as ab, ac, ba, eb, be, and ce. This did not result in a workable language in that these monosyllabic words, though short, were not easy to understand or to retain.

Next, Zamenhof tried a different way of constructing a simplified language. He made the words in his language sound like words that people already knew, but he simplified the grammar tremendously. One example of how he simplified the language can be seen in the suffixes: all nouns in this language end in o, as in the noun amiko, which means “friend”, and all adjectives end in -a, as in the adjective bela, which means “pretty”. Another example of the simplified language can be seen in the prefix mal-, which makes a word opposite in meaning; the word malamiko therefore means “enemy”, and the word malbela therefore means “ugly” in Zamenhof’s language.

In 1887, Zamenhof wrote a description of this language and published it. He used a pen name, Dr. Esperanto, when signing the book. He selected the name Esperanto because this word means “a person who hopes” in his language. Esperanto clubs began popping up throughout Europe, and by 1950, Esperanto had spread from Europe to America and Asia.

In 1905, the First World Congress of Esperanto took place in France, with approximately 700 attendees from 20 different countries. Congresses were held annually for nine years, and 4,000 attendees were registered for the Tenth World Esperanto Congress scheduled for 1914, when World War I erupted and forced its cancellation.

Esperanto has had its ups and downs in the period since World War I. Today, years after it was introduced, it is estimated that perhaps a quarter of a million people are fluent in it. This may seem like a large number, but it is really quite small when compared with the billion English speakers and billion Mandarin Chinese speakers in today’s world. Current advocates would like to see its use grow considerably and are taking steps to try to make this happen.

Question 28: The topic of this passage is                   .

A. how language can be improved

B. a language developed in the last few years

C. one man’s efforts to create a universal language

D. using language to communicate internationally

Question 29: According to the passage, Zamenhof wanted to create a universal language                   .

A. to create one world culture

B. to resolve cultural differences

C. to provide a more complex language

D. to build a name for himself

Question 30: It can be inferred from the passage that the Esperanto word malespera means                   .

A. hopelessness                 B. hope          C. hopeful   D. hopeless

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ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 4

Câu	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Đáp án	B	B	C	B	A	B	D	B	C	D
Câu	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Đáp án	B	A	D	B	B	B	C	B	D	B
Câu	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Đáp án	B	C	C	D	D	B	D	C	B	D
Câu	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Đáp án	D	B	D	B	B	A	A	D	C	A
Câu	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Đáp án	B	D	C	A	C	B	B	D	C	B

ĐỀ THI THPT QG MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT QUYẾT THẮNG- ĐỀ 05

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. encourage	B. entertain	C. endanger	D. envelop
Question 2: A. paradise	B. reliable	C. helpline	D. illiterate

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions

Question 1: A. quality	B. solution	C. compliment	D. energy
Question 2: A. preference	B. attraction	C. advantage	D. infinitive

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 5: We should husband our resources to make sure we can make it through these hard times.

A. spend                            B. manage           C. use up                           D. marry

Question 6: Sorry, I can’t come to your birthday party. I am snowed under with work now.

A. relaxed about

B. busy with

C. interested in

D. free from

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 7: All the students were all ears when the teacher started talking about the changes in the next exam.

A. attentive                       B. restless           C. silent                             D. smiling

Question 8: The augmentation in the population has created a fuel shortage.

A. increase                         B. necessity       C. demand                        D. decrease

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 9: - Mark: “You stepped on my toes!” - Mike: “                   .”

A. Are you sure? It’s understandable. 

B. Really? I’m glad. 

C. I’m sorry but I meant it.

D. I’m terribly sorry. I didn’t mean it.

Question 10: Customer: “Can I try this sweater on?” Salesgirl: “                .”

A. No, the shop is closed in half an hour

B. Sorry, only cash is accepted here

C. Yes, it is quite cheap. It costs one hundred dollars

D. Sure, the changing rooms are over there

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 11: You look upset. Have you and Kelly _______ again?

A. gone out                       B. gone grey                      C. fallen out                      D. let off

Question 12: All _______  we had been told turned out to be untrue.

A. that             B. which                            C. what                             D. where

Question 13: My aunt used to be a woman of great _______, but now she gets old and looks pale.

A. beauty           B. beautiful                       C. beautifully                    D. beautify

Question 14: _______ no taxi, they had to walk home.

A. There was 

B. There being

C. Because there being

D. There is

Question 15: There has been little rain in this region for several months, _______?

A. has it 

B. has there

C. hasn’t it

D. hasn’t there

Question 16: Tim was _______ to the court for jury duty, but took a doctor's sick note with him and was excused.

A. pulled                           B. assembled                     C. summoned                    D. requested

Question 17: She was ill for six weeks and _______ with her schoolwork.

A. picked up                      B. told off        C. turned out                     D. fell behind

Question 18: Her car needs _______ .

A. be fixed                        B. fixing          C. to fix                            D. fixed

Question 19: I’m afraid that I can’t give you the answer off the top of my _______, but I’ll find it out for you.

A. tongue          B. hand           C. mind                             D. head

Question 20. To _______ should I write if I want to make a complaint?

A. which                            B. what               C. who                              D. whom

Question 21. Three wolves ran through the forest in _______ of a deer.

A. following                      B. chase         C. hunting                         D. pursuit

Question 22. _______ his good work and manners, he didn’t get a promotion.

A. Because of  

B. In spite of  

C. Even though

D. As a result of

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.

No one can know when sports began. Since it is impossible to imagine a time when children did not spontaneously run races or wrestle, it is clear that children have always included sports in their play, but one  can  only  speculate  about the (23)                    of  sports  as  autotelic  physical  contests for adults. Hunters are depicted in prehistoric art, but it cannot be known (24)          the hunters pursued their prey   in a mood of grim necessity or with the joyful abandon of sportsmen. It is   certain, (25)                        , from the rich literary and iconographic evidence of all ancient civilizations that hunting soon became an end in itself at least for royalty and nobility. Archaeological evidence also indicates that ball games were common among ancient peoples as different as the Chinese and the like those recommended for health by the Greek physician Galen in the 2nd century AD.

Question 23: A. emergence	B. emerge	C. emergency	D. immersion
Question 24: A. when	B. whether	C. how	D. why
Question 25: A. therefore	B. so	C. consequently	D. however
Question 26: A. competitive	B. competitively	C. noncompetitive	D. competition
Question 27: A. definite	B. defined	C. definitive	D. definition

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.

Very few people in the modem world obtain their food supply by hunting and gathering in the natural environment surrounding their homes. This method of harvesting from nature s provision is the oldest subsistence strategy, and has been practiced for at least two million years. It was, indeed, the only way to obtain food until rudimentary farming and the domestication of animals were introduced about 10,000 years ago.

Because hunter-gathers have fared poorly in comparison with their agricultural cousins, their  numbers have dwindled, and they have been forced to live in marginal environments such as deserts forests or arctic wasteland. In higher latitudes, the shorter growing season has restricted the availability of plant life. Such conditions have caused a greater independence on hunting, and along the coasts and waterways, on fishing. The abundance of vegetation in the lower latitudes of the tropics, on the other hand, has provided a greater opportunity for gathering a variety of plants. In short, the environmental differences have restricted the diet and have limited possibilities for the development of subsistence societies. Contemporary hunter-gathers may help us understand our prehistoric ancestors. We know from observation of modem hunter- gathers in both Africa and Alaska that society based on hunting and gathering must be very mobile. While the entire community camps in a central location, a smaller party harvests the food within a reasonable distance from the camp. When the food in the area is exhausted, the community moves on to exploit another site. We also notice a seasonal migration on pattern evolving for most hunter gathers, along with a restrict division of labor between sexes. These patterns of behavior may be similar to those practiced by mankind during the Paleolithic Period.

Question 28. With which of the following topics is the passage primarily concerned?

A. The Paleolithic period

B. Subsistence farming

C. Hunter- gatherers

D. Marginal environment

Question 29. The word “rudimentary” is closest in meaning to                   .

A. rough                            B. preliminary                   C. ancient        D. backward

Question 30. The word “abundance” is closest in meaning to                   .

A. plenty                           B. amount                         C. density          D. majority

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ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 5

Câu	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Đáp án	B	D	B	A	C	D	A	A	D	D
Câu	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Đáp án	C	A	A	A	B	C	D	B	D	D
Câu	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Đáp án	D	B	A	B	D	C	B	C	B	A
Câu	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Đáp án	B	D	B	A	B	D	B	C	A	D
Câu	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Đáp án	B	C	D	A	B	B	A	A	D	C

...

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