Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG môn Tiếng Anh năm 2021-2022 có đáp án Trường THPT An Phú

TRƯỜNG THPT AN PHÚ

ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM HỌC 2021-2022 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH (Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút)

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 1: The burglar might come back. You’d better change all the locks.

A. If you don’t change all the locks, the burglar could come back.

B. The burglar will come back unless you change all the locks.

C. You’d better change all the locks or the burglar will come back.

D. You’d better change all the locks in case the burglar will come back.

Question 2: My personal opinion doesn’t really matter. You need to decide for the good of everyone.

A. Though my personal opinion really matters, we need to decide for the good for everyone.

B. Deciding for the good of everyone makes our personal opinion not really matter at all.

C. We need to decide for the good for everyone, so my personal opinion doesn’t really matter.

D. If my personal opinion doesn’t really matter, we need to decide for the good of everyone.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3: A. analyst               B. interview          C. technician             D. fabulous

Question 4: A. participate         B. medieval           C. development         D. contributor

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

Culture has a strong influence on non–verbal communication. Even the simple act of looking someone in the eye is not at all that simple. In the USA, Americans are (5)    to look directly at people when speaking to them. It shows interest in what they are saying and is thought to carry a (6) ______ of honesty. Meanwhile, in Japan and Korea, people avoid long periods of eye contact. It is considered more polite to look to the side during a conversation. The Lebanese, (7) _______, stand close together and look intensely into each other's eyes. The action shows sincerity and gives people a better sense of what their counterparts want. Given such differences with even the most common expressions, people (8) ______ travel or work abroad have a real need to learn the other culture's body language. People tend to be unaware of the messages they are sending to others. So, it is (9) ______ to consider your own body language before dealing with people from other cultures. Knowing about the body language of friends, clients, and colleagues can be very helpful in improving understanding and avoiding miscommunication.

Question 5:	A. encouraged	B. assisted	C. forbidden	D. opposed
Question 6:	A. sense	B. taste	C. sound	D. touch
Question 7:	A. therefore	B. in addition	C. in contrast	D. moreover
Question 8:	A. who	B. where	C. which	D. whose
Question 9:	A. usefulness	B. useful	C. useless	D. used

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 10: A drug may affect several functions, even though it’s targeted at only one.

A. A drug is taken for a specific purpose, but it may have a range of other effects.

B. However effective a drug may be, its functions have to be several.

C. Despite various other uses, a drug usually has a function for a special effect.

D. The functions expected of a drug are various even if it is used for a specific disease.

Question 11: Most of the river ferries have been cancelled today due to the lack of visibility caused by the fog.

A. A few of the ferries need to be rescheduled because of the fog that is causing poor visibility on the river.

B. Since today’s fog is obstructing visibility, the majority of the river ferries will not be running.

C. Because of the fog, it will be difficult for most of the ferries to cross the river safely today.

D. Whenever visibility is poor owing to the fog, nearly all of the river ferries are cancelled during the day.

Question 12: Wouldn’t it better to let them know about the alterations to the plan?

A. Don’t you think they should be informed about the changes in the plan?

B. Shouldn’t they have been consulted before the scheme was changed?

C. Why haven’t they been informed about the new development?

D. We’d better ask them to change the plan, hadn’t we?

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) that is CLOSET in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 13: Being a single mother no longer carries the social stigma that is used to.

A. difficulty          B. holiness                       C. stain                             D. trial

Question 14: The members of the orchestra have arrived an hour prior to the performance for a short rehearsal.

A. when             B. before                          C. after                             D. while

Read the passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Dark matter in the universe is believed by some scientists to be a substance that is not readily observable because it does not directly refract light or energy. Its existence can only be deduced because of the effect that it has on surrounding matter. In fact, some members of the scientific community have argued that dark matter does not actually exist. Others, however, believe in its existence, in part because the scientific community does not have a complete understanding of gravita science. On the other hand, some would argue that it is the understanding of gravitational science that leads most scientists to believe in the existence of dark matter, because without dark matter, there are many cosmological phenomena that are difficult to explain.

For example, dark matter in the universe may have a peculiar effect on the Milky Way galaxy.  Some scientists believe that the interaction between dark matter and other smaller, nearby galaxies is causing the Milky Way galaxy to take on a warped profile. It has been asserted that not only does dark matter exist, it may also be responsible for the Milky Way’s unusual shape. The interaction referenced involves two smaller galaxies near the Milky Way, called Magellanic clouds, moving through an enormous amount of dark matter, which, in effect, enhances the gravitational pull that the two Magellanic clouds could have on the Milky Way and other surrounding bodies. Without the existence of the dark matter, the Magellanic clouds would not have sufficient mass to have such a strong effect on the bend of the Milky Way galaxy.

The strongest evidence for the validity of this hypothesis rests in Newtonian physics, and the hypothesis that anything with mass will exert a gravitational pull. The Milky Way and other galaxies with peculiar warped shapes are being molded by a gravitational force. However, there is nothing readily observable with sufficient mass that could cause such a high level of distortion via gravitational pull in  the vicinity of the Milky Way. Therefore, something that is not easily observed must be exerting the necessary force to create the warped shape of the galaxy.

Aaron Romanowsky and several colleagues have questioned the effect that dark matter might have on galaxies. They point to the existence of several elliptical galaxies surrounded by very little dark matter as evidence that dark matter is not, in fact, the cause of the warped galaxies. While they do not claim that their findings should be interpreted to conclude that dark matter does not exist, they apparently believe that the results of their studies cast doubt on some of the conventional theories of galaxy formation and manipulation.

Several models constructed by researchers from the University of California at Berkeley, however, point to the idea that dark matter is the most likely explanation for the distorted shape of the Milky Way and other galaxies. Using computer models, they have mapped the likely interactions between certain galaxies and the surrounding dark matter, and those models have shown not only the possibility that dark matter is responsible for the warped shape of the Milky Way, but that the relationship between the dark matter and the Magellanic clouds is dynamic; the movement of the clouds through the dark matter seems to create a wake that enhances their gravitational influence on the Milky Way.

Question 15: The passage states that some members of the scientific community are reluctant to believe in the existence of dark matter because:

A. no one understands how to apply gravitational science.

B. dark matter has little effect on surrounding matter.

C. dark matter cannot be directly observed.

D. there is absolutely no evidence for the existence of dark matter.

Question 16: As it is used in paragraph 1, the term phenomena most nearly means:

A. surprises.                    B. problems.                   C. occurrences.               D. attitudes.

Question 17: What does the passage offer as evidence for the existence of dark matter?

A. A photograph taken with the aid of a refracting telescope.

B. The enormous mass of Magellanic clouds.

C. The shape of the Milky Way galaxy.

D. A complete understanding of gravitational science.

Question 18: According to the passage, what is Aaron Romanowsky’s theory regarding dark matter?

A. Dark matter has not effect at all on the shape of a galaxy.

B. It cannot be conclusively proven that dark matter affects the shape and formation of galaxies.

C. Computer models suggest that dark matter is responsible for warped galaxies.

D. The discovery of certain galaxies disproves the theory that dark matter exists in the universe.

Question 19: The last paragraph supports the general hypothesis provided earlier in the passage that:

A. computer models are necessary for an understanding of gravitational science.

B. dark matter has little to no effect on the formation of certain cosmological phenomena.

C. the effect of Magellanic clouds on galaxies is enhanced by dark matter.

D. the shape of the Milky Way galaxy can be deduced by observing the matter surrounding it.

Question 20: The word conventional paragraph 4 most nearly means:

A. formally disputed.    B. strictly interpreted.   C. easily understood.    D. generally accepted.

Question 21: The word “they” in paragraph 5 refers to:

A. models                        B. researchers                 C. interactions     D. galaxies

Question 22: The passage supports which of the following statements about dark matter?

A. Its presence is readily observable to researchers who completely understand how to apply gravitational science.

B. If it does not exist, the universe is largely empty.

C. Its existence is inferred by some researchers based on observations of cosmological bodies composed of ordinary matter.

D. Its existence has been conclusively proven by computer models.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 23: The escaping prisoner camped in ________ woods but he didn’t light ________ fire because ________ smoke rising from the wood might attract ________ attention.

A. the/a/–/–                      B. a/the/the/–                   C. the/a/–/the                   D. a/a/–/–

Question 24: “Why is your street such a mess?”

– “Oh, the council _______up the road, but they should finish this weekend?”

A. is digging                   B. had been digging      C. dug                              D. have been digging

Question 25: He ________ have watered the plants. If he had, they wouldn’t have withered.

A. mayn’t                         B. can’t                             C. shouldn’t                    D. needn’t

Question 26: I’ve just been offered a new job! Things are ________ .

A. looking up                  B. turning up                  C. clearing up                 D. making up

Question 27: ________ for a second interview will be informed by mail.

A. Who chosen               B. All chosen                   C. If you are chosen       D. Those are chosen

Question 28: I believe that judges should be independent ________ the government.

A. of                                  B. to                                  C. with                             D. on

Question 29: Although David was ________ after a day’s work in the office, he tried to help his  wife the household chores.

A. exhausting                  B. exhausted                   C. exhaust                        D. exhaustive

Question 30: The goal is to make higher education available to everyone who is willing and capable ________ his financial situation.

A. with reference to       B. regardless of               C. in terms of                  D. owing to

Question 31: ________ proficiency in German would be of much help, it is not a requirement for the advertised position.

A. Although                    B. Regarding                   C. Otherwise                   D. Despite

Question 32: The curriculum at the public school is as good ________ of any private school.

A. as or better than that

B. as or better than those

C. as or better that 

D. or better than

Question 33: Anne was not ________ to think that the best was too difficult.

A. among the people

B. who

C. the one who

D. the only one

Question 34: My uncle was ________ ill last month; however, fortunately, he is now making a   slow but steady recovery.

A. seriously                     B. critically                      C. deeply                         D. fatally

Question 35: The fussy child ate only a few ________ of noodles.

A. slices                           B. bars                              C. pieces                          D. strands

Question 36: True friends always stand by you when you’re ________ .

A. home and dry

B. high and low

C. on and off

D. down and out

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 37: “I apologize for keeping you waiting for 2 hours. My car broke down on the way” –  “________”

A. Your apology is accepted. 

B. It’s my pleasure.

C. Thank you.

D. You are welcome.

Question 38: Peter: “How are you today?” – Susan: “________ ”

A. I feel like a million stars.

B. I feel like a million dollars.

C. I can feel it in my bone. 

D. I feel your ears burning.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 39: A severe illness when she was just nineteen months old deprived the well–known writer and lecturer Helen Keller from both her sight and hearing.

A. just                               B. deprived                     C. when                            D. from both

Question 40: He didn’t know who it was and couldn’t imagine why they did it, but there must have been somebody that started the rumor which he was from London and very wealthy.

A. which                          B. who                              C. why                              D. that

Question 41: It is believed that in the near future robots will be used to doing things such as cooking.

A. such as

B. in the near future

C. It is believed 

D. be used to doing

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to  the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 42: Earthworms help to aerate the soil.

A. suffocate                     B. destroy                        C. argue                           D. adjust

Question 43: He was imprisoned because he revealed secrets to the enemies.

A. disowned                   B. declared                      C. betrayed                      D. concealed

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 44:      A. control                    B. ecology                   C. contour                   D. combine

Question 45:      A. though                    B. breath                      C. arithmetic               D. threaten

Reading the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on you answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks.

The growth of cities, the construction of hundreds of new factories, and the spread of railroads in  the United States before 1850 had increased the need for better illumination. But the lighting in American homes had improved very little over that of ancient times. Through the colonial period, homes were lit with tallow candles or with a lamp of the kind used in ancient Rome – a dish of fish oil or other animal or vegetable oil in which a twisted rag served as a wick. Some people used lard, but they had to heat charcoal underneath to keep it soft and burnable. The sperm whale provided superior burning oil, but this was expensive. In 1830 a new substance called “camphene” was patented, and it proved to be an excellent illuminant. But while camphene gave a bright light it too remained expensive, had an unpleasant odor,  and also was dangerously explosive.

Between 1830 and 1850, it seemed that the only hope for cheaper illumination in the United States was the wider use of gas. In the 1840s, American gas manufacturers adopted improved British techniques for producing illuminating gas from coal. But the expense of piping gas to the consumer remained so high that until the mid–nineteenth century gas lighting was feasible only in urban areas, and only for public buildings for the wealthy. In 1854, a Canadian doctor, Abraham Gesner, patented a process for distilling a pitch like mineral found in New Brunswick and Nova Scotia that produced illuminating gas and an oil  that he called “kerosene” (from “keros”, the Greek word for wax, and “ene” because it resembled camphene). Kerosene, though cheaper than camphene, had an unpleasant odor, and Gesner never made his fortune from it. But Gesner had aroused a new hope for making illuminating oil from a product  coming out of North American mines.

Question 46: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a reason why better lighting had become necessary by the mid–nineteenth century?

A. increases in the number of new factories

B. growth of cities

C. development of railroads

D. demand for better medical facilities

Question 47: The word “this” in paragraph 1 refers to ________ .

A. oil                                B. charcoal                       C. lard                              D. wick

Question 48: What can be inferred about the illuminating gas described in the passage?

A. It had an unpleasant smell.

B. It was not allowed to be used in public buildings.

C. It was not widely available until mid–nineteenth century.

D. It was first developed in the United States.

Question 49: The word “resembled” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ________ .

A. cost the same as         B. was made from          C. sounded like              D. was similar to

Question 50: Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage?

A. a description of events in chronological order

B. a comparison of two years

C. an analysis of scientific findings

D. the statement of a theory and possible explanations

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 1

Question 1	D	Question 2	C	Question 3	C	Question 4	B	Question 5	A
Question 6	A	Question 7	C	Question 8	A	Question 9	B	Question 10	A
Question 11	B	Question 12	A	Question 13	C	Question 14	B	Question 15	C
Question 16	C	Question 17	C	Question 18	B	Question 19	C	Question 20	D
Question 21	B	Question 22	C	Question 23	A	Question 24	D	Question 25	B
Question 26	A	Question 27	D	Question 28	A	Question 29	B	Question 30	B
Question 31	A	Question 32	A	Question 33	D	Question 34	A	Question 35	D
Question 36	D	Question 37	A	Question 38	B	Question 39	D	Question 40	A
Question 41	D	Question 42	A	Question 43	D	Question 44	C	Question 45	A
Question 46	D	Question 47	A	Question 48	C	Question 49	D	Question 50	A

ĐỀ THI THPT QG MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT AN PHÚ- ĐỀ 02

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. weave         B. please             C. seafood        D. clear

Question 2: A. frame          B. artisan            C. attraction      D. handicraft

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions

Question 3: A. solidarity     B. communicate      C. documentary    D. dedication

Question 4: A. tradition      B. modernize            C. impressive       D. emotion

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 5: Lan’s replies were inconsistent with her previous testimony.

A. contradicted                 B. compatible                    C. enhanced                      D. incorporated

Question 6: My grandparents are really tight with their money. They hate throwing away food and  never eat out.

A. to spend much money too easily

B. to not like spending money

C. to not know the value of money

D. to save as much money as possible

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 7: The sales clerk was totally bewildered by the customer’s behavior.

A. disgusted                      B. puzzled                         C. angry                            D. upset

Question 8: My two children were full of beans today, looking forward to their trip.

A. disappointed

B. hyperactive

C. melancholy

D. lively and in high spirits

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 9: - Tim: “Wow! You look terrific in that new dress!” - Lisa: “....................”

A. Oh, what a pity! 

B. I’m afraid so!

C. Thank you. I’m glad you think so. 

D. Why dare you say so?

Question 10: David and Tom are meeting after a long time David: “How have you been recently?”

- Tom: “........................”

A. I am going on holiday next week.

B. By bus, usually

C. I am working here. 

D. Pretty busy, I think

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 11: Kelly and Tim persuaded me .............. the party.

A. attending                      B. attended                       C. to attend                       D. to be attended

Question 12:  I should leave here. I don’t want to ........... my welcome.

A. give up                         B. go off                           C. run down                      D. wear out

Question 13: There were many politicians at the meeting, several of ............ were very young.

A. that                               B. whom                           C. who                              D. which

Question  14:  Tim  didn’t  do  his  homework,  so  the  teacher  became  very angry. He .................. his homework.

A.  must have done           B. should have done         C. might have                   D. will have done

Question 15: Some people say that they are .............. of events going on elsewhere.

A. ignorance                      B. ignorantly                     C. ignorant                        D. ignoring

Question 16: Our new classmate, John is a bit of a rough ........... but I think I’m going to  like him once I get used to him.

A. stone                             B. rock                              C. diamond                       D. pearl

Question 17: The judge ..... murderer to a lifetime imprisonment.

A. prosecuted                    B. sentenced                      C. convicted                      D. accused

Question 18: The problem needs to be .............. immediately, otherwise it will be too late.

A. addressed                     B. focused                         C. monitored                     D. checked

Question 19: - Did you remember to give Linda the money you owed her?

- Yes, I gave it to her ............. I saw her.

A. while                             B. the moment                   C. suddenly                       D. once

Question 20. ............... me to your mother when you are in New York.

A. Tell                               B. Remind                         C. Remember                    D. Greet

Question 21. Tim was disappointed because he .............. for the train for two hours.

A. was waiting                  B. waited                          C. has been waiting          D. had been waiting

Question 22. Everybody thinks that the play last night was very successful, ..................?

A. don’t they                     B. doesn’t he                     C. was it                            D. wasn’t it

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.

In the past, the process of choosing a career was a much simpler matter than it is today. Aboy often followed in his father’s footsteps. His sister learned the household skills that (23) ........... her to become a wife and mother. Nowadays young people grow up in a much freer society (24) ................. they enjoy almost unlimited career opportunities. In recent years, there (25) .............. an enormous increase in the kinds of vocations from which it is possible to choose. In addition, many of the barriers to career opportunity that existed only a few decades ago, such as (26) ........... based on sex or religion or ethnic origins, are (27) ........... disappearing.

Question 23. A. had prepared	B. may prepare	C. was prepared	D. would prepare
Question 24. A. where	B. when	C. why	D. whom
Question 25. A. had been	B. has been	C. will be	D. was
Question 26. A. judgment	B. perception	C. devotion	D. discrimination
Question 27. A. rapidly	B. incessantly	C. categorically	D. vigilantly

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.

In 1900 the United States had only three cities with more than a million residents-New York, Chicago, and Philadelphia. By 1930, it had ten giant metropolises. The newer ones experienced remarkable growth, which reflected basic changes in the economy. The population of Los Angeles (114,000 in 1900) rose spectacularly in the early decades of the twentieth century, increasing a dramatic 1,400 percent from 1900 to 1930.

A number of circumstances contributed to the meteoric rise of Los Angeles. The agricultural potential of the area was enormous if water for irrigation could be found, and the city founders had the vision and dating to obtain it by constructing a 225-mile aqueduct, completed in 1913, to tap the water of the Owens River. The city had a superb natural harbor, as well as excellent rail connections. The climate made it possible to shoot motion pictures year-round; hence Hollywood not only supplied jobs but also disseminated an image of the good life in Southern California on screens all across the nation. The most important single industry powering the growth of Los Angeles, however, was directly linked to the automobile. The demand for petroleum to fuel gasoline engines led to the opening of the Southern California oil fields, and made Los Angeles North America’s greatest refining center.

Los Angeles was a product of the auto age in another sense as well: its distinctive spatial organization depended on widespread private ownership of automobiles. Los Angeles was a decentralized metropolis, sprawling across the desert landscape over an area of400 square miles.

It was a city without a real center. The downtown business district did not grow apace with the city as a whole, and the rapid transit system designed to link the center with outlying areas withered away from disuse. Approximately 800,000 cars were registered in Los Angeles County in 1930, one per 2.7 residents. Some visitors from the east coast were dismayed at the endless urban sprawl and dismissed Los Angeles as a mere collection of suburbs in search of a city. But the freedom and mobility of a city built on wheels attracted floods of migrants to the city.

Question 28. What is the passage mainly about?

A. The growth of cities in the United States in the early 1900s

B. The development of the Southern California oil fields

C. Factors contributing to the growth of Los Angeles

D. Industry and city planning in Los Angeles

Question 29. The author characterizes the growth of new large cities in the United States after 1900 as resulting primarily from                   .

A. new economic conditions

B. images of cities shown in movies

C. new agricultural techniques

D. a large migrant population

Question 30. The word “meteoric" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to                   .

A. rapid                             B. famous                          c. controversial                  D. methodical.

Question 31. According to the passage, the most important factor in the development of agriculture around Los Angeles was the                   .

A. influx of “new residents to agricultural areas near the city.

B. construction of an aqueduct.

C. expansion of transportation facilities

D. development of new connections to the city’s natural harbor

Question 32. According to the passage, the initial success of Hollywood’s motion picture industry was due largely to the                    .

A. availability of many skilled workers

B. beauty of the countryside

C. region’s reputation for luxurious lifestyles

D. region’s climate and good weather

Question 33. It can be inferred from the passage that in 1930 the greatest number of people in the Los Angeles area were employed in                   .

A. farming

B. oil refining

C. automobile manufacturing

D. the motion picture industry

Question 34. The visitors from the east coast mentioned in the passage thought that Los Angeles

A. was not accurately portrayed by Hollywood images

B. lacked good suburban areas in which to live

C. had an excessively large population

D. was not really a single city

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.

According to sociologists, there are several different ways in which a person may become recognized as the leader of a social group in the United States. In the tamily, traditional cultural patterns confer leadership on one or both of the parents. In other cases, such as friendship groups, one or more persons may gradually emerge as leaders, although there is no formal process of selection. In larger groups, leaders are usually chosen formally through election or recruitment.

Although leaders are often thought to be people with unusual personal ubility, decades ot research have failed to produce consistent evidence that there is any category ot “natural leaders”. It seems that there is no set of personal qualities that all leaders have in common; rather, virtually any person may be recognized as a leader if the person has qualities that meet the needs ot that particular group.

Furthermore, although it is commonly supposed that social groups have a single leader, research suggests that there are typically two different leadership roles that are held by different individuals. Instrumental leadership is leadership that emphasizes the completion of tasks by a social group.

Group members look to instrumental leaders to “get things” done.” Expressive leadership, on the other hand, is leadership that emphasizes the collective well-being of a social group’s member. Expressive leaders are less concerned with the overall goals of the group than with providing emotional support to group members and attempting to minimize tension and conflict among them. Group members expect expressive leaders to maintain stable relationships within the group and provide support to individual members.

Instrumental leaders are likely to have a rather secondary relationship to other group members. They give orders and may discipline group members who inhibit attainment of the group’s goals. Expressive leaders cultivate a more personal or primary relationship to others in the group. They offer sympathy when someone experiences difficulties or is subjected to discipline, are quick to lighten a serious moment with humor, and try to resolve issues that threaten to divide the group. As the differences in these two roles suggest, expressive leaders generally receive more personal affection from group members; instrumental leaders, if they are successful in promoting group goals, may enjoy a more distant respect.

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ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 2

1D	2A	3B	4B	5B	6A	7B	8D	9C	10D
11C	12D	13B	14B	15C	16C	17B	18A	19B	20C
21D	22A	23D	24A	25B	26D	27A	28C	29A	30A
31B	32D	33B	34D	35D	36C	37B	38A	39D	40C
41C	42A	43A	44D	45A	46A	47A	48C	49A	50A

ĐỀ THI THPT QG MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT AN PHÚ- ĐỀ 03

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. pedal           B. petrol        C. pretty            D. petty

Question 2: A. sunbathe     B. father       C. theater         D. weather

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions

Question 3: A. available      B. depression   C. education        D. majority

Question 4: A. medicine     B. graduate        C. confident         D. encourage

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 5: It’s very difficult to tell her to give in because she is so big-headed.

A. wise             B. generous                       C. modest      D. arrogant

Question 6: To his dismay, his name was not on the list.

A. disappointment             B. depression                    C. happiness                      D. pessimism

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 7: There are many TV commercials which distracting viewers from watching their favorite films.

A. economics          B. businesses                     C. contests                        D. advertisements

Question 8: I knew she was only flattering me because she wanted to borrow some money.

A. teasing        B. threatening                   C. praising                         D. helping

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 9: - David: “I didn’t do well in the final exam.” - Kelly: “_________.”

A. That’s a shame!

B. Don’t mention it!

C. What a drag!

D. That will be the day!

Question 10: Tim and Mark are university students. They are going on a field trip. Tim: “What do we have to bring for the trip?”

Mark: “_________.”

A.  What an interesting book you have!

B. We’ll set off very early, you know.

C. All the coursebooks, of course. 

D. Well, don’t make a fuss.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 11: Making mistakes is all …………….. of growing up.

A. bits and bobs

B. chalk and cheese

C. part and parcel 

D. from top to bottom

Question 12: Over the years, he gradually became impervious _________ about  his wife’s comments about his chosen profession and in the end she stopped complaining.

A. about                            B. for                                 C. of                                  D. to

Question 13: Hoa hoped _________ to join the club. She could make friends with many people here.

A. being invited                B. to invite                        C. to be invited                 D. inviting

Question 14: Sometimes in a bad situation, there may still be some good things. Try not to “throw out the _________ with the bathwater”.

A. fish                               B. duck                             C. baby                              D. child

Question 15: David is a rich man because he _________ a lot of money last year.

A. went through                B. checked in                    C. fell behind                    D. came into

Question 16: This job requires  some important _________. You have to be good at  operating machines and dealing with people,

A. degrees                         B. knowledge                    C. techniques                    D. skills

Question 17: An endangered species is  a species _________ population is so small that it is in  danger of becoming extinct.

A. whose                           B. which                            C. what                             D. who

Question 18: They have _________ a lot of extensive research into renewable energy sources.

A. carried                          B. done                             C. solved                           D. made

Question 19: With this type of insurance, you’re buying _________ of mind.

A. peace                            B. satisfaction                   C. calmness                       D. contentment

Question 20. The recent heavy rain has helped to reduce the water _________ 

A. poverty                         B. shortage                        C. plenty                           D. abundance

Question 21. _________  over long distances is a fact that everyone knows.

A. That electricity transmitting 

B. That electricity can be transmitted

C. That electricity

D. That can be transmitted

Question 22. My grandmother _________ her whole life to looking after her children.

A. paying                           B. using                             C. spending                       D. devoting

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.

Welcome to the Netherlands, a tiny country that only extends, at its broadest, 312 km north to  south, and 264 km east to west  - (23) _________ the land area increases slightly each year as a  result of continuous land reclamation and drainage. With a lot of heart and much to offer, ‘Holland,’ as it is (24) _________ known to most of us abroad - a name stemming from its once most prominent provinces  - has more going on per kilometer than most countries, and more English-speaking natives. You’ll be  impressed  by its (25) _________ cities and charmed by its countryside and villages, full of contrasts. From the exciting variety on offer, you could choose a romantic canal boat tour in Amsterdam, a Royal Tour by coach in The Hague, or a hydrofoil tour around the biggest harbour in the world - Rotterdam. In season you could visit the dazzling bulb fields, enjoy a full day on a boat, or take a bike tour through the pancake-flat countryside spiced with windmills. The possibilities are countless and the nationwide tourist office is on hand to give you information and help you (26) _________ reservations. You’ll  have (27) _________ language problems here, as the Dutch are true linguists and English is spoken here almost universally.

Question 23. A. so	B. despite	C. in spite of	D. although
Question 24. A. regularly	B. occasionally	C. commonly	D. unusually
Question 25. A. historic	B. historical	C. historically	D. historian
Question 26. A. sit	B. catch	C. do	D. make
Question 27. A. few	B. a few	C. little	D. a little

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.

Cities develop as a result of functions that they can perform. Some functions result directly from the ingenuity of the citizenry, but most functions result from the needs of the local area and of the surrounding hinterland (the region that supplies goods to the city and to which the city furnishes services and other goods). Geographers often make a distinction between the situation and the site of a city. Situation refers to the general position in relation to the surrounding region, whereas site involves  physical characteristics of the specific location. Situation is normally much more important to the continuing prosperity of a city. If a city is well situated in regard to its hinterland, its development is  much more likely to continue. Chicago, for example, possesses an almost unparalleled situation: it is located at the southern end of a huge lake that forces east-west transportation lines to be compressed into its vicinity, and at a meeting of significant land and water transport routes. It also overlooks what is one  of the world’s finest large farming regions. These factors ensured that Chicago would become a great city regardless of the disadvantageous characteristics of the available site, such as being prone to flooding during thunderstorm activity.

Similarly, it can be argued that much of New York City’s importance stems from its early and continuing advantage of situation. Philadelphia and Boston both originated at about the same time as New York and shared New York’s location at the western end of one of the world’s most important oceanic trade routes, but only New York possesses an easy-access functional connection (the Hudson-Mohawk lowland) to the vast Midwestern hinterland. This account does not alone explain New York’s primacy,  but it does include several important factors. Among the many aspects of situation that help to explain why some cities grow and others do not, original location on a navigable waterway seems particularly applicable. Of course, such characteristic as slope drainage, power resources, river crossings, coastal shapes, and other physical characteristics help to dertermine city location, but such factors are normally more significant in early stages of city development than later.

Question 28. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. The development of trade routes through United States cities

B. Contrasts in settlement patterns in United States

C. Historical differences among three large United States cities

D. The importance of geographical situation in the growth of United States cities

Question 29. The word “ingenuity” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to .................

A. wealth                           B. resourcefulness             C. traditions                      D. organization

Question 30: According to the passage, a city’s situation is more important that its site in regard to the city’s                   .

A. long-term growth and prosperity

B. ability to protect its citizenry

C. possession of favorable weather conditions

D. need to import food supplies

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ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 3

1C	2C	3C	4D	5C	6C	7D	8C	9A	10C
11C	12D	13C	14C	15D	16D	17A	18B	19A	20B
21B	22D	23D	24C	25A	26D	27A	28D	29B	30A
31D	32D	33B	34A	35A	36A	37D	38C	39C	40A
41D	42B	43A	44C	45C	46A	47C	48D	49B	50D

ĐỀ THI THPT QG MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT AN PHÚ- ĐỀ 04

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. vegetable    B. student        C. celebrate        D. penalty

Question 2: A. although     B. laugh           C. paragraph      D. enough

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions

Question 3: A. pollution     B. disaster       C. volcano       D. cholera

Question 4: A. athletic        B. dramatic     C. scientific     D. heroic

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 5: In remote areas, it’s very important to replenish stocks before the winter comes.

A. remake                          B. refill                              C. repeat                            D. empty

Question 6: Tom may get into hot water when driving at full speed after drinking wine.

A. get into trouble             B. stay safe                        C. fall into disuse              D. keep calm

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 7: Talking about your feeling can help you get clear about what you feel.

A. control                          B. banish                           C. get rid of                      D. figure out

Question 8: Emissions from factories and exhaust fumes from vehicles can have detrimental effects on our health.

A. beneficial                      B. neutral                          C. needy                            D. harmful

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 9: - Hoa: “Would you mind closing the door?” - Hung: “                   .”

A. Yes, of course. Are you tired?

B. No, not at all. I’ll do it now

C. Yes, I do. You can close it.

D. Don’t worry. Go ahead!

Question 10: Sally and Linda are playing in the garden. Sally: “Look at this beautiful butterfly!”

Linda: “                   .”

A. Where? I don’t see it. 

B. Yes, please.

C. Don’t worry.

D. No, it’s your turn.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 11: I’ve broken her favorite vase. I’m __________ 

A. taken for                       B. made for                       C. called for                      D. done for

Question 12: After two years of __________ the country’s economy is finally looking a lot healthier.

A. let-down                       B. demise                          C. overdraft                      D. recession

Question 13: Your sister seldom cooks meals, __________?

A. did she                          B. didn’t she                     C. does she                        D. doesn’t she

Question 14: When my teacher was away on holiday, Mr Nam had to __________ her.

A. go in for                       B. stand in for                   C. get round to                  D. catch up with

Question 15: __________ had I left my house when they arrived.

A. Just                               B. As soon as                    C. Hardly                          D. After

Question  16:  The  cup  will be on __________ at the clubhouse for a month before being sent to the museum.

A. display                          B. parade                           C. exposition                     D. stage

Question 17: It is not easy for many civil servants to __________ on their salaries as the inflation  rate is very high.

A. get by                           B. turn up                          C. wear out                       D. run over

Question 18: All candidates will be treated equally, __________ of their age or background.

A. irrelevant                      B. discounting                   C. notwithstanding           D. irrespective

Question 19: Yesterday, I __________ a serious accident while I __________ on the beach.

A. see / am walking

B. saw / was walking

C. was seeing / walked

D. have seen / were walking

Question 20. On my birthday, my mother gave me a __________.

A. new blue German car

B. blue German new car

C. new German blue car

D. German new blue car

Question 21. That women died of a drug                   .

A. overweight                   B. overhear                        C. overdo                          D. overdose

Question 22. Tim told Daisy that he                    he film three times.

A. had seen                       B. saw                               C. have seen                      D. sees

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.

The story of gold is an adventure involving kings, queens, pirates, explorers, conquerors, and the native peoples they conquered. Throughout history, gold has woven a magic spell over those it touched. Gold is beautiful and rare; a soft shiny metal that can be moulded into  many (23) ______. It has been used for money, jewelry, and to decorate special buildings such as palaces and places of worship. (24)______ the precious metal was discovered, prospectors rushed to mine it, starting new cities and countries as they went. Gold and the people who love it have helped shape the world we live (25) ______ today.  Gold  is  one  of  many  elements,  or  substances  that  cannot  be  changed  by  normal chemical means, that are found in the Earth's crust. Gold has a warm, sunny colour and (26) ______ it does not react with air, water, and most chemicals, its shine never fades. In its natural (27) ______, gold is soft and easily shaped. When heated to 1,062 Celsius it melts and can be poured into moulds to form coins, gold bars, and other objects. Stories have been told, movies made and legends bom about the discovery of the world’s great gold deposits. It is a saga of dreams, greed, ambition and exploration.

Question 23. A. formats	B. outlines	C. shapes	D. lines
Question 24. A. Whoever	B. However	C. Forever	D. Wherever
Question 25. A. at	B. in	C. for	D. on
Question 26. A. yet	B. despite	C. because	D. so
Question 27. A. estate	B. stage	C. state	D. position

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.

During the second half of the nineteenth century, the production of food and feed crops in the United States rose at an extraordinarily rapid rate. Com production increased by four and a half times, hay by five times, oats and wheat by seven times. The most crucial factor behind this phenomenal upsurge in productivity was the widespread adoption of labor-saving machinery by northern farmers. By 1850 horse- drawn reaping machines that cut grain were being introduced into the major grain-growing regions of the country. Horse-powered threshing machines to separate the seeds from the plants were already in general use. However, it was the onset of the Civil War in 1861 that provided the great stimulus for the mechanization of northern agriculture. With much of the labor force inducted into the army and with  grain prices on the rise, northern farmers rushed to avail themselves of the new labor-saving equipment. In 1860 there were approximately 80,000 reapers in the country; five years later there were 350,000.

After the close of the war in 1865, machinery became ever more important in northern agriculture, and improved equipment was continually introduced. By 1880 a self-binding reaper had been perfected that not only cut the grain, but also gathered the stalks and bound them with twine. Threshing machines were also being improved and enlarged, and after 1870 they were increasingly powered by steam engines rather than by horses. Since steam-powered threshing machines were costly items-running from $ 1,000  to $4,000 - they were usually owned by custom thresher owners who then worked their way from farm to farm during the harvest season. “Combines” were also coming into use on the great wheat ranches in California and the Pacific Northwest. These ponderous machines - sometimes pulled by as many as 40 horses - reaped the grain, threshed it, and bagged it, all in one simultaneous operation.

The adoption of labor-saving machinery had a profound effect upon the sale of agricultural operations in the northern states-allowing farmers to increase vastly their crop acreage. By the end of century, a farmer employing the new machinery could plant and harvest two and half times as much com as a farmer had using hand methods 50 years before.

Question 28. What aspect of farming in the United States in the nineteenth century does the passage mainly discuss?

A. How labor-saving machinery increased crop production

B. Why southern farms were not as successful as northern farms

C. Farming practices before the Civil War

D. The increase in the number of people taking up farming

Question 29. The word “crucial” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to                   .

A. obvious                         B. unbelievable                 C. important                      D. desirable

Question 30. The phrase “avail themselves of” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to                   .

A. take care of                  B. make use of                  C. get rid of                      D. consist of

--(Để xem tiếp nội dung của đề thi số 4 các em vui lòng xem tại online hoặc đăng nhập vào HỌC247 để tải về máy)--- 

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 4

1B	2A	3D	4C	5D	6B	7D	8D	9B	10A
11D	12D	13C	14B	15C	16A	17A	18D	19B	20A
21D	22A	23C	24D	25B	26C	27C	28A	29C	30B
31D	32A	33D	34D	35A	36C	37C	38C	39C	40B
41A	42B	43A	44C	45C	46B	47D	48C	49C	50B

ĐỀ THI THPT QG MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT AN PHÚ- ĐỀ 05

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. wicked	B. watched	C. stopped	D. cooked
Question 2: A. substantial	B. initiate	C. participant	D. attention

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions

Question 3: A. disappear         B. arrangement     C. opponent         D. contractual

Question 4: A. comfortable     B. necessary          C. community      D. memorable

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 5: Inadequate supply of oxygen to the blood can cause death within minutes.

A. Sufficient                     B. Nonexistent                  C. Rich                              D. Useful

Question 6: If she passes the exam, her parents will be walking on air.

A. disgusted                      B. promising                      C. upset                             D. hopeful

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 7: Tom is the black sheen of the family, so he is never welcomed there.

A. a beloved member

B. a bad and embarrassing member

C. the only child 

D. the eldest child

Question 8: He was brought up in a well-off family. He can’t understand the problems we are facing.

A. poor                              B. broke                            C. wealthy                         D. kind

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 9: - Waitress: “Hi, may I take your order, madam?”

- Mrs. Brown: “                  .”

A. I don’t want to do anything. I’ve really had enough.

B. OK, here is my bill

C. Yes, I’d like some fish and chips

D. Sure, it’s delicious

Question 10: - Mai: “Oops! I’m sorry for stepping on your foot” - Hoa: “                   .”

A. Never mind

B. You don’t mind

C. You’re welcome

D. That’s fine

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of following questions.

Question 11: If you put your money in a bank now, you may get 8% ............. annually.

A. interest                          B. profit                            C. money                           D. income

Question 12: Many animal species are now on the ............... of extinction.

A. danger                          B. border                           C. verge                             D. margin

Question 13: ..............., he received a big applause.

A. Finishing his presentation

B. His presentation has been finished

C. After he finishes his presentation

D. When finished his speech

Question 14: I gave the waitress a $50 note and waited for my ..............

A. change                          B. supply                           C. cash                              D. cost

Question 15: They are always on good ............. with their next-door neighbors.

A. will                               B. friendship                     C. terms                             D. relations

Question 16: In the end, he lost his ............. and started gabbling incoherently.

A. head                              B. mind                             C. brain                             D. intelligence

Question 17: Governments should .............. some international laws against terrorism.

A. bring up                        B. bring about                   C. bring in                         D. bring back

Question 18: Students can............... lots of information by attending lectures regularly.

A. absorb                           B. provide                         C. read                              D. transmit

Question 19: The size and shape of a nail depend primarily on the function  ............. intended.

A. which it is

B. for which it is 

C. which it is for 

D. for which is

Question 20. ............. we have!

A. What awful weather

B. How awful is the weather

C. How awful the weather 

D. What an awful weather

Question 21. I think that married couples should be financially independent ................ their parents.

A. to          B. of              C. with                              D. on

Question 22. Many ambulances took .............. injured to a nearby hospital.

A. an           B. a                C. the                                D. Ø

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.

The use of computers has meant that students can study language  programmes (23) .......... their own speed when and for how long they want. What’s more, in the virtual classrooms of the future the student will put on their headset, and be transported into an imaginary school, choose their class, take the books they need off the shelf and hold conversations with other computerised students. They might instead choose to pay a visit to the supermarket or the train station, the bank or the restaurant. At the  (24) ........... of a button they would be transported   to (25) ........... realistic settings where they could practice their English, maybe getting a hand from a virtual English companion. All this perhaps, at the computer, from the comfort of their home: no (26) ........... to catch the bus to college, or a   plane to England. Exciting? Certainly, and it’s an interesting alternative to traditional classroom lessons. But would it ever (27) the classroom? Hopefully not. Surely the need to relate to real people talking about real issues and generally learning a little more about others will always lead language learners to uzcx be exc eg at least a little of their time with real people.

Question 23: A. on	B. in	C. at	D. of
Question 24: A. force	B. hit	C. depress	D. push
Question 25: A. so	B. such	C. like	D. alike
Question 26: A. role	B. duty	C. obligation	D. need
Question 27: A. replace	B. restore	C. succeed	D. recover.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.

The main difference between urban growth in Europe and in the American colonies was the slow evolution of cities in the former and their rapid growth in the latter. In Europe they grew over a period of centuries from town economies to their present urban structure. In North America, they started as wilderness communities and developed to mature urbanism’s in little more than a century.

In the early colonial day in North America, small cities sprang up along the Atlantic Coastline, mostly in what are now New America, small cities sprang up along the Atlantic United States and in the lower Saint Lawrence valley in Canada. This was natural because these areas were nearest England and France, particularly England, from which most capital goods (assets such as equipment) and many consumer goods were imported Merchandising establishments were, accordingly, advantageously located in port cities from which goods could be readily distributed to interior settlements. Here, too, were the favored locations for processing raw materials prior to export. Boston, Philadelphia, New York, Montreal, and other cities flourished, and, as the colonies grew, these cities increased in importance.

This was less true in the colonial South, where life centered around large farms, known as plantations, rather than around towns, as was the case in the areas further north along the Atlantic coastline. The local isolation and the economic self-sufficiency of the plantations were antagonistic to the development of the towns. The plantations maintained their independence because they were located on navigable streams and each had a wharf accessible to the small shipping of that day. In fact, one of the strongest factors in the selection of plantation land was the desire to have it front on a water highway.

When the United States became an independent nation in 1776, it did not have a single city as large as 50,000 inhabitants, but by 1820 it had a city of more than 10,000 people, and by 1880 it had recorded a city of over one million. It was not until after 1823, after the mechanization of the spinning and weaving industries, that cities started drawing young people away from farms. Such migration was particularly rapid following the Civil War (1861-1865).

Question 28. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. Factors that slowed the growth of cities in Europe.

B. The evolution of cities in America

C. Trade between North American and European cities

D. The effects of the United Sates’ independence on urban growth in New England.

Question 29. The word “they” in paragraph 1 refers to                    .

A. North American colonies

B. cities

C. centuries 

D. town economies

Question 30. According to the passage, early colonial cities were established along the Atlantic coastline of North America due to

A. an abundance of natural resources

B. financial support from colonial governments

C. proximity to parts of Europe

D. a favorable climate

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ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 5

1A	2C	3A	4C	5A	6C	7B	8C	9C	10A
11A	12C	13A	14A	15C	16A	17C	18A	19B	20A
21B	22C	23C	24D	25B	26D	27A	28B	29B	30C
31D	32C	33B	34A	35A	36B	37D	38C	39C	40D
41D	42C	43C	44D	45A	46B	47C	48B	49D	50C

...

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