Mời các em tham khảo nội dung tài liệu chi tiết sau đây: Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG môn Tiếng Anh năm 2021-2022 có đáp án Trường THPT Hà Đông. Tài liệu này bao gồm 5 đề thi do HOC247 sưu tầm và biên soạn kèm theo đáp án chi tiết. Hi vọng đây sẽ là một tài liệu tham khảo bổ ích giúp các em hoàn thành tốt kì thi THPT Quốc gia quan trọng sắp đến!
TRƯỜNG THPT HÀ ĐÔNG |
ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM HỌC 2021-2022 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH (Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút) |
1. Đề số 1
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. drumhead |
B. culture |
C. pollution |
D. adulthood |
Question 2: A. affordable |
B. forbidden |
C. metropolitan |
D. cosmopolitan |
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions
Question 3: A. disappear |
B. precision |
C. mechanic |
D. discover |
Question 4: A. desert |
B. harbor |
C. cartoon |
D. nation |
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 5: A solution needs to be found as soon as possible, because the epidemic has become more rampant.
A. flagrant B. gentle C. violent D. dramatic
Question 6: Lisa is on the horns of a dilemma: she just wonders whether to go camping with her friends or to stay at home with her family.
A. unwilling to make a decision
B. able to make a choice
C. eager to make a plan
D. unready to make up her mind
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 7: A person who suffers from stage fright is easily intimidated by a large audience.
A. improved B. encouraged C. applauded D. frightened
Question 8: The report advocated that all houses should be fitted with smoke detectors.
A. supported B. cheered C. forced D. warned
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.
Question 9: A man is talking to Mary when he is on holiday in New York. The man: “You haven’t lived here long, have you?”
Mary: "_________"
A. Yes, just a few days
B. No, I live here for a long time
C. No, only two months
D. Yes, I have just moved here
Question 10: Mom: “Good luck with the exam, my dear!” - Hoa: “_________, Mom.”
A. Never mind
B. Thank you
C. I wish so
D. By no means
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 11: Lan has spent two days .................... hundreds of photographs so that she can put them in separate albums.
A. playing at
B. sorting out
C. cutting off
D. filling up
Question 12: I truly respected my father and always _________ by his rule.
A. submitted B. obeyed C. complied D. abode
Question 13: Tuan’s _________and efficiency at the company led to his promotion to Sales Manager.
A. punctuality B. punctual C. punctuate D. punctually
Question 14: After my husband _________his work, he went straight home.
A. would finish B. has finished C. had finished D. was finishing
Question 15: Pandas are in _________of becoming extinct.
A. crisis B. threat C. danger D. warning
Question 16: Pesticide residues in fruit and vegetable can be _________to health.
A. crucial B. supportive C. receptive D. destructive
Question 17: On hearing that she failed the entrance exam, Hanh couldn’t help _________into tears.
A. bursting B. burst C. to bursting D. to burst
Question 18: My friend _________for 4 hours before he arrives.
A. will be driving
B. had driven
C. will have been driven
D. will have been driving
Question 19: My lawyer advised me _________anything further about the accident
A. not saying B. telling C. not to say D. not tell
Question 20. I have been to Da Nang city _________of time
A. a great deal B. much C. a lot D. little
Question 21. You won’t pass the exam _________you study hard
A. unless B. in case C. so D. as
Question 22. Not only _________well but she also dances perfectly.
A. does she sing B. she sings C. she can sing D. can sing
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.
A worrying question which requires global attention is severe overpopulation and its drastic effects in the countries of the Third World. In regions where the birth rate is extremely high, poverty and starvation are (23) _________. In India, there is an average of thirty five infants being bom every minute, yet the most shocking figures are those which (24) _________the enormous number of the victims of famine in certain African territories. Communities afflicted with acute destitution are additionally confronted with
illiteracy, life in appalling conditions and infectious diseases (25) _________the indigenous populations. There is an urgent need for these problems to be solved. Unless measures are taken to ease the suffering of the impoverished underdeveloped nations, desperate crowds of immigrants will (26) _________in flooding the richer states in search of a brighter future. It’s the most challenging task for the international giants nowadays to help the poor populations get out of the poverty (27) _________.
Question 23. A. profuse |
B. rife |
C. generous |
D. predominant |
Question 24. A. appear |
B. refer |
C. indicate |
D. comprise |
Question 25. A. decimating |
B. enumerating |
C. discounting |
D. outnumbering |
Question 26. A. linger |
B. maintain |
C. persist |
D. remain |
Question 27. A. lure |
B. pitfall |
C. snare |
D. trap |
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.
It is said that George Washington was one of the first to realize how important the building of canals would be to the nation’s development. In fact, before he became the President, he headed the first company in the United States to build a canal, which was to connect the Ohio and Potomac rivers. It was never completed, but it showed the nation the feasibility of canals. As the country expanded westward, settlers in western New York, Pennsylvania, and Ohio needed a means to ship goods. Canals linking natural waterways seemed to supply an effective method.
In 1791, engineers commissioned by the state of New York investigated the possibility of a canal between Albany on the Hudson River and Buffalo on Lake Eric to link the Great Lakes area with the Atlantic seacoast. It would avoid the mountains that served as a barrier to canals from the Delaware and Potomac rivers.
The first attempt to dig the canal, to be called the Eric Canal, was made by private companies but only a comparatively small portion was built before the project was halted for lack of funds. The cost of the prospect was estimated $5 million, an enormous amount for those days. There was some on-again-off- again federal funding, but this time the War of 1812 put an end to construction. In 1817, DeWitt Clinton was elected Governor of New York and persuaded the state to finance and build the canal. It was completed in 1825, costing $2 million more than expected.
The canal rapidly lived up to its sponsors’ faith, quickly paying for itself through tolls. It was far more economical than any other form of transportation at the time. It permitted trade between the Great Lake region and the East coast, robbing the Mississippi River of much of its traffic. It allowed New York to supplant Boston, Philadelphia, and other eastern cities as the chief center of both domestic and foreign commerce. Cities sprang up along the canal. It also contributed in a number of ways to the North’s victory over the South in the Civil War.
An expansion of the canal was planned in 1849. Increased traffic would undoubtedly have warranted its construction had it not been for the railroads.
Question 28: Why does the author most likely mention George Washington in the first paragraph?
A. He was President at the time the Eric Canal was built.
B. He commissioned engineers to study the possibility of building the Eric Canal.
C. He successfully opened the first canal in the United States.
D. He was involved in pioneering efforts to build canals.
Question 29: The word “feasibility” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ..................
A. possibility B. capability C. difficulty D. profitability
Question 30: According to the passage, the Eric Canal connected the ...........
A. Delaware and Potomac Rivers
B. Hudson River and Lake Eric
C. Atlantic Ocean and the Hudson River
D. Potomac and Ohio Rivers
Question 31. The completion of the Eric Canal was financed by ...............
A. provate company B. DeWitt Clinton C. the federal govermment D. New York
Question 32: The actual cost of building the Eric Canal was ............
A. $5 million
B. less than had been expected
C. $7 million
D. more than could be repaid
Question 33: The word “tolls” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to which of the following?
A. Grants B. Fees C. Links D. Jobs
Question 34: Which of the following is NOT given as an effect of the building of the Eric Canal in paragraph 4?
A. It took water traffic away from the Mississippi River.
B. It established Boston and Philadelphia as the most important centers of trade.
C. It helped determine the outcome of the Civil War.
D. It allowed the East coast to trade with the Great Lake Sea.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
Biological diversity has become widely recognized as a critical conservation issue only in the past two decades. The rapid destruction of the tropical rain forests, which are the ecosystems with the highest known species diversity on Earth, has awakened people to the importance and fragility of biological diversity. The high rate of species extinctions in these environments is jolting, but it is important to recognize the significance of biological diversity in all ecosystems. As the human population continues to expand, it will negatively affect one after another of Earth’s ecosystems. In terrestrial ecosystems and in fringe marine ecosystems (such as wetlands), the most common problem is habitat destruction. In most situations, the result is irreversible. Now humans are beginning to destroy marine ecosystems through other types of activities, such as disposal and runoff of poisonous waste; in less than two centuries, by significantly reducing the variety of species on Earth, they have irrevocably redirected the course of evolution.
Certainly, there have been periods in Earth’s history when mass extinctions have occurred. The extinction of the dinosaurs was caused by some physical event, either climatic or cosmic. There have also been less dramatic extinctions, as when natural competition between species reached an extreme conclusion. Only 0.01 percent of the species that have lived on Earth have survived to the present, and it was largely chance that determined which species survived and which died out.
However, nothing has ever equaled the magnitude and speed with which the human species is altering the physical and chemical world and demolishing the environment. In fact, there is wide agreement that it is the rate of change humans are inflicting, even more than the changes themselves, that will lead to biological devastation. Life on Earth has continually been in flux as slow physical and chemical changes have occurred on Earth, but life needs time to adapt-time for migration and genetic adaptation within existing species and time for the proliferation of new genetic material and new species that may be able to survive in new environments.
Question 35. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The variety of species found in tropical rain forests
B. The cause of the extinction of the dinosaurs
C. The time required for species to adapt to new environments
D. The impact of human activities on Earth’s ecosystems
Question 36. The word “jolting” is closest in meaning to .......................
A. illuminating B. unknown C. shocking D. predicted
Question 37: The author mentions the reduction of the variety of species on Earth in line 7-8 to suggest that
A. humans are often made ill by polluted water
B. new habitats can be created for species
C. some species have been made extinct by human activity
D. understanding evolution can prevent certain species from disappearing
Question 38: The author mentions all of the following as examples of the effect of humans on the world’s ecosystems EXCEPT .
A. damage to marine ecosystems
B. habitat destruction in wetlands
C. the introduction of new varieties of plant species
D. destruction of the tropical rain forests
Question 39: The author mentions the extinction of the dinosaurs in the 2nd paragraph to emphasize that
A. not all mass extinctions have been caused by human activity
B. actions by humans could not stop the irreversible process of a species’ extinction
C. Earth’s climate has changed significantly since the dinosaurs’ extinction
D. the cause of the dinosaurs’ extinction is unknown
Question 40: The word “magnitude” is closest in meaning to .
A. carelessness B. extent C. determination D. concern
Question 41: According to the passage, natural evolutionary change is different from changes caused by humans in that changes caused by humans .
A. affect fewer ecosystems
B. are occurring at a much faster rate
C. are reversible
D. are less devastating to most species
Question 42: With which of the following statements would the author be most likely to agree?
A. The extinction of a few species is an acceptable consequence of human progress.
B. Technology will provide solutions to problems caused by the destruction of ecosystems.
C. Human influence on ecosystems should not be a factor in determining public policy.
D. Humans should be more conscious of the influence they have on ecosystems.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 43: I should have finished my homework last night but I was exhausted.
A. I finished my homework last night although I was exhausted.
B. I was exhausted so I didn’t finish my homework last night as planned.
C. Last night I was exhausted but I tried to finish my homework.
D. My homework was finished last night but I was exhausted.
Question 44: She was still bad at English although she put much effort into it.
A. She was still bad at English despite the fact that she put much effort into it.
B. She was still bad at English, so she put much effort into it.
C. She was still bad at English but she put much effort into it.
D. She was still bad at English and she put much effort into it.
Question 45: Daisy poured her heart out to me.
A. Daisy told me her secret feelings.
B. Daisy was very angry with me.
C. Daisy and I did some exercises.
D. Daisy and I fell in love with each other
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 46: (A) As seeing (B) from the mountain top, the area looks (C) like a picturesque (D) harbour town.
Question 47: As far as I’m (A) concerned, it was (B) the year 2007 (C) which Vietnam joined (D) the World Trade Organization.
Question 48: The teacher was (A) considering (B) postponing the exam until (C) the following week (D) because the student’s confusion.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: The teacher explained the lesson clearly. However, the students found it hard to understand it.
A. Although the teaching lesson was clear, there was a real challenge to the students.
B. Despite the teacher's clear explanation of the lesson, students had difficulty understanding it.
C. In spite of explaining the lesson clearly, students themselves found it hard to understand it.
D. Though explained clearly, tfifc lesson of teaching was difficult to students.
Question 50: I did not see Tim off at the airport. I feel bad about it now.
A. I could have seen Tim off at the airport.
B. If only I had seen Tim off at the airport.
C. That I did not see Tim off at the airport escapes me now.
D. It suddenly dawns on me that I should have seen Tim off at the airport.
ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 1
Câu |
1 |
2 |
3 |
4 |
5 |
6 |
7 |
8 |
9 |
10 |
Đáp án |
C |
A |
A |
C |
B |
B |
D |
A |
C |
B |
Câu |
11 |
12 |
13 |
14 |
15 |
16 |
17 |
18 |
19 |
20 |
Đáp án |
B |
D |
A |
C |
C |
D |
A |
D |
C |
C |
Câu |
21 |
22 |
23 |
24 |
25 |
26 |
27 |
28 |
29 |
30 |
Đáp án |
A |
A |
B |
C |
A |
C |
D |
D |
A |
B |
Câu |
31 |
32 |
33 |
34 |
35 |
36 |
37 |
38 |
39 |
40 |
Đáp án |
D |
C |
B |
B |
D |
C |
D |
C |
A |
B |
Câu |
41 |
42 |
43 |
44 |
45 |
46 |
47 |
48 |
49 |
50 |
Đáp án |
B |
D |
B |
D |
A |
A |
C |
D |
B |
B |
2. Đề số 2
ĐỀ THI THPT QG MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT HÀ ĐÔNG- ĐỀ 02
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. smooth B. loop C. booth D. foot
Question 2: A. disliked B. listened C. reviewed D. travelled
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions
Question 3: A. competent B. implicate C. reconstruct D. advertise
Question 4: A. enter B. fashion C. diverse D. justice
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 5: It is impolite when you ask Alex about her age, marriage and income.
A. rude B. courteous C. friendly D. thoughtful
Question 6: My father, who is an accomplished guitarist, taught me how to play the guitar.
A. ill-educated B. unskilled C. qualified D. unimpaired
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 7: His wife’s behavior at the party was unacceptable, which made everyone there shocked.
A. out of practice B. out of line C. out of the habit D. out of sight
Question 8: Lack of water and nutrients has impeded the growth of these plants.
A. promoted B. assisted C. realized D. prevented
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.
Question 9: Hung: "How nice! You sang so beautifully!" - Giang:"....................."
A. Thank you. I am exhausted.
B. Thank you. But I am busy.
C. Thank you. But I am not so sure.
D. Thank you. It’s very encouraging.
Question 10: Hoa and Hung are talking about what to do after work.
- Hoa: “Do you fancy going to a movie this evening?” - Hung:“...............”
A. Not at all. Go ahead.
B. I’m sorry. I don't know about that movie.
C. That would be nice.
D. Not so bad. Do you like that movie?
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 11: The doctors hope to _________ the source of the infection which has been a mystery for the medical community since its discovery.
A. trend down
B. back down
C. push down
D. track down
Question 12: I’d have been able to say goodbye to Peter if only _________ to the airport in time.
A. I get B. I got C. I have got D. I had got
Question 13: Although he _________ to Mark Twain, I think his books are unique.
A. often has been compared
B. has often compared
C. has often been compared
D. has been often comparing
Question 14: He denied _________ part in the fighting at school.
A. to take B. take C. to taking D. taking
Question 15: Had you told me that she was going to drop out of college, I _________ it.
A. hadn’t believed
B. will never believe
C. would have never believed
D. can’t believe
Question 16: He’s not breathing. He _________
A. must die
B. must be dead
C. must have dead
D. must not dead
Question 17: My sister went _________ the competition and won the first prize.
A. on B. in for C. away D. through
Question 18: No one won the match; the final result was a(n) _________ .
A. draw B. equal C. score D. drawing
Question 19: Shining her torch, Linda could just _________ a shadowy figure crouched behind a tree.
A. draw out B. work out C. make out D. put out
Question 20. The trip to the UK was very expensive. .................., it was worth every penny.
A. Whatever B. However C. Despite D. Even though
Question 21. After four hours of walking in the hot summer sun, we were _________ for a drink.
A. sighing B. panting C. gulping D. gasping
Question 22. My grandfather has a bad lung cancer and his doctor has advised him to _________ smoking.
A. put up B. give up C. take up D. turn up
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, 0, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.
HERE ARE TIPS THAT HELP SUCCEED IN YOUR JOB INTERVIEW
Always arrive early. If you do not know (23) _________ the organization is located, call for exact directions (24) _________ advance. Leave some extra time for any traffic, parking, or unexpected events. If you are running late, call right away and let someone know. The best time to arrive is approximately 5-10 minutes early. Give yourself the time to read your resume one more time, to catch your breath, and to be ready for the interview. Once you are at the office, treat everyone you encounter with respect. Be (25) _________ to everyone as soon as you walk in the door.
Wear a professional business suit. This point should be emphasized enough. First (26) _________ are extremely important in the interview process. Women should (27) _________ wearing too much jewelry or make-up. Men should avoid flashy suits or wearing too much perfume. It is also important that you feel comfortable. While a suit is the standard interview attire in a business environment, if you think it is an informal environment, call before and ask. Regardless, you can never be overdressed if you are wearing a tailored suit.
Question 23: A. when |
B. why |
C. where |
D. that |
Question 24: A. with |
B. in |
C. on |
D. for |
Question 25: A. happy |
B. pleasant |
C. disappointed |
D. excited |
Question 26: A. attendances |
B. attentions |
C. impressions |
D. pressures |
Question 27: A. avoid |
B. suggest |
C. enjoy |
D. mind |
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, 8, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.
In 1826, a Frenchman named Niepce needed pictures for his business. He was not a good artist, so he invented a very simple camera. He put it in a window of his house and took a picture of his yard. That was the first photograph.
The next important date in the history of photography was 1837. That year, Daguerre, another Frenchman, took a picture of his studio. He used a new kind of camera and a different process. In his pictures, you could see everything clearly, even the smallest details. This kind of photograph was called a daguerreotype.
Soon, other people began to use Daguerre’s process. Travelers brought back daguerreotypes from all around the world. People photographed famous buildings, cities, and mountains.
In about 1840, the process was improved. Then photographers could take pictures of people and moving things. The process was not simple and photographers had to carry lots of film and processing equipment. However, this did not stop photographers, especially in the United States. After 1840, daguerreotype artists were popular in most cities.
Matthew Brady was one well-known American photographer. He took many portraits of famous people. The portraits were unusual because they were lifelike and full of personality. Brady was also the first person to take pictures of a war. His 1862 Civil War pictures showed dead soldiers and ruined cities. They made the war seem more real and more terrible.
In the 1880s, new inventions began to change photography. Photographers could buy film ready-made in rolls, instead of having to make the film themselves. Also, they did not have to process the film immediately. They could bring it back to their studios and develop it later. They did not have to carry lots of equipment. And finally, the invention of the small handheld camera made photography less expensive.
With a small camera, anyone could be a photographer. People began to use cameras just for fun. They took pictures of their families, friends, and favorite places. They called these pictures “snapshots”.
Documentary photographs became popular in newspapers in the 1890s. Soon magazines and books also used them. These pictures showed true events and people. They were much more real than drawings.
Some people began to think of photography as a form of art. They thought that photography could do more than show the real world. It could also show ideas and feelings, like other art forms.
(From "Reading Power” by Beatrice S. Mikulecky and Linda Jeffries)
Question 28: Which of the following could best serve as the title of the passage?
A. Photography and Painting
B. Story of Photography
C. Story of Famous Photographers
D. Different Steps in Film Processing
Question 29: The word “this” in the passage refers to the
A. taking of pictures of people and moving things
B. stopping of photographers from taking photos
C. carrying of lots of film and processing equipment
D. fact that daguerreotype artists were populer in most cities
Question 30: The latest invention mentioned in the passage is the invention of
A. handheld cameras
B. rolls of film
C. daguerreotypes
D. processing equipment
Question 31: The first photograph was taken with
A. new types of film
B. a small handheld camera
C. a daguerreotype
D. a very simple camera
Question 32: As mentioned in the passage, photography can
A. convey ideas and feelings
B. show the underworld
C. print old pictures
D. replace drawings
Question 33: Matthew Brady was well-known for
A. inventing daguerreotypes
B. the small handheld camera
C. taking pictures of French cities
D. portraits and war photographs
Question 34: The word “lifeliky” in the passage is closest in meaning to “ ”
A. moving B. realistic C. manlike D. touching
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
Long before they can actually speak, babies pay special attention to the speech they hear around them. Within the first month of their lives, babies’ responses to the sound of the human voice will be different from their responses to other sorts of auditory stimuli. They will stop crying when they hear a person talking, but not if they hear a bell or the sound of a rattle. At first, the sounds that an infant notices might be only those words that receive the heaviest emphasis and that often occur at the ends of utterances. By the time they are six or seven weeks old, babies can detect the difference between syllables pronounced with rising and falling inflections. Very soon, these differences in adult stress and intonation can influence babies’ emotional states and behavior. Long before they develop actual language comprehension, babies can sense when an adult is playful or angry, attempting to initiate or terminate new behavior, and so on, merely on the basis of cues such as the rate, volume, and melody of adult speech.
Adults make it as easy as they can for babies to pick up a language by exaggerating such cues. One researcher observed babies and their mothers in six diverse cultures and found that, in all six languages, the mothers used simplified syntax, short utterances and nonsense sounds, and transformed certain sounds into baby talk. Other investigators have noted that when mothers talk to babies who are only a few months old, they exaggerate the pitch, loudness, and intensity of their words. They also exaggerate their facial expressions, hold vowels longer, and emphasize certain words.
More significant for language development than their response to general intonation is observation that tiny babies can make relatively fine distinctions between speech sounds. Other words, babies enter the world with the ability to make precisely those perceptual discriminations that are necessary if they are to acquire aural language.
Babies obviously derive pleasure from sound input, too: even as young as nine months they will listen to songs or stories, although the words themselves are beyond their understanding. For babies, language is a sensory-motor delight rather than the route to prosaic meaning that it often is for adults.
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ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 2
Câu |
1 |
2 |
3 |
4 |
5 |
6 |
7 |
8 |
9 |
10 |
Đáp án |
D |
A |
C |
C |
B |
B |
B |
D |
D |
C |
Câu |
11 |
12 |
13 |
14 |
15 |
16 |
17 |
18 |
19 |
20 |
Đáp án |
D |
D |
C |
D |
C |
B |
B |
A |
C |
B |
Câu |
21 |
22 |
23 |
24 |
25 |
26 |
27 |
28 |
29 |
30 |
Đáp án |
D |
B |
C |
B |
B |
C |
A |
B |
C |
A |
Câu |
31 |
32 |
33 |
34 |
35 |
36 |
37 |
38 |
39 |
40 |
Đáp án |
D |
A |
D |
B |
C |
A |
C |
A |
A |
B |
Câu |
41 |
42 |
43 |
44 |
45 |
46 |
47 |
48 |
49 |
50 |
Đáp án |
D |
B |
C |
B |
B |
A |
A |
D |
C |
D |
3. Đề số 3
ĐỀ THI THPT QG MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT HÀ ĐÔNG- ĐỀ 03
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. bushes | B. wishes | C. headaches | D. researches |
Question 2: A. custom | B. cushion | C. mushroom | D. culture |
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. comfortable | B. employment | C. important | D. surprising |
Question 4: A. improvement | B. communicate | C. occasional | D. reservation |
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 5: The situation in that country has remained relatively stable for a few months now.
A. constant B. changeable C. objective D. ignorant
Question 6: The Vietnamese consider it rude to interrupt a person while he is talking.
A. bad mannered B. polite C. uneducated D. ignorant
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 7: In 2012, about 10% of the energy consumed in the USA came from the renewable sources. Out of this, hydro-power accounted for 16%.
A. produced B. utilized C. costumed D. recycled
Question 8: Although we argued with Tim for a long time, he stood his ground.
A. refused to change his decision
B. felt sorry for us
C. wanted to continue
D- changed his decision
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.
Question 9: - Kelly: “How lovely your dogs are!” - Tim: “___________”
A. Really? They are.
B. Thank you, it is nice of you to say so.
C. Can you say that again?
D. I love them very much.
Question 10: - Nam: "___________" - Hoa: “Just pop in and have a look at your new car.”
A. Welcome home! You look quite so brown and healthy.
B. What a surprise to see you here on Sunday!
C. Can I have a try at this dress, Madame?
D. Please come in and talk.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 11: Many people aren’t __________of the amount of waste produced by their own households.
A. known B. familiar C. aware D. recognised
Question 12: I don’t get on well with my sister but I’m extremely ___________ of my brothers.
A. interested B. close C. attached D. fond
Question 13: If I didn’t have a mobile phone, my life ___________complete.
A. would not have been
B. will be not
C. would not be
D. will not be
Question 14: I went to university with a very important person, ___________Bill Clinton.
A. namely B. however C. therefore D. for example
Question 15: ___________, I realized I should have applied to the university.
A. As I call
B. With hindsight
C. By and large
D. In remembrance
Question 16: It was with a ___________heart that she said goodbye to all her classmates.
A. solemn B. heavy C. dismal D. grim
Question 17: I can’t believe that Sarah is going to ___________on that parachute jump. Of course, she’s doing it for charity.
A. bear a charmed life
B. raise the alarm
C. risk life and limb
D. take sensible precautions
Question 18: Their trip to London didn’t ___________expectations.
A. climb up to
B. come up with
C. come up to
D. rise to
Question 19: She’d rather I ___________to the party with her yesterday.
A. had to go
B. to have gone
C. went
D. had gone
Question 20. Some people ___________to the party were late because of thick fog.
A. be invited B. invited C. were invited D. Who invited
Question 21. I can’t find my English book now. I hope it will ___________up soon.
A. clear B. look C. come D. turn
Question 22. Mr. Hung ___________in the army from 1970 to 1980.
A. has served
B. had been serving
C. had served
D. served
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.
School exams are, generally speaking, the first kind of tests we take. They find out (23) ___________ much knowledge we have gained. But do they really show how intelligent we are? After all, isn’t it a fact that some people who are very successful academically don’t have any common sense?
Intelligence is the speed at which we can understand and react to new situations and it is usually tested by logic puzzles. (24) ___________ scientists are now preparing advanced computer technology
that will be able to ‘“read” our brains, for the present, tests are still the most popular ways of measuring intelligence.
A person’s IQ is his intelligence (25) ___________ it is measured by a special test. The most common IQ tests are run by Mensa, an organization that was founded in England in 1946. By 1976 it had 1,300 members in Britain.
Today there are 44,000 in Britain and 100,000 worldwide, (26) ___________ in the US. People taking the tests are judged in relation to an average score of 100, and those (27) ___________ score over 148 are entitled to join Mensa. This works out at 2% of the population.
Question 23: A. what |
B. how |
C. which |
D. why |
Question 24: A. Although |
B. Until |
C. Because |
D. Despite |
Question 25: A. that |
B. as |
C. so |
D. how |
Question 26: A. enormously |
B. considerably |
C. mainly |
D. highly |
Question 27: A. why |
B. who |
C. which |
D. whom |
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.
Southern Thailand was hit Thursday by the most severe haze from forest fires in Indonesia, forcing all schools in a province to close and disrupting flights in a popular tourist area, officially said.
The haze that has shrouded parts of Malaysia and Singapore for nearly two months reached hazardous levels in the southern Thai city of Songkhla, with the pollution index hitting a record-high reading of 365. A reading of 101-200 is unhealthy, 201-300 is very unhealthy and above 300 is hazardous.
“This is a crisis,” said Halem Jemarican, head of the Southern Environment Office. He said the pollution index in southern Thailand has never exceeded 300 before. Halem said his office has worked with other authorities to have all schools in Songkhla province send students home and all outdoor sports stadiums to close temporarily. Warnings have been issued to vulnerable people such as children, the elderly and people with illnesses not to go out of their homes.
“The wind speed is very low this year in the south, causing haze to stay in our skies longer,” Halem said by telephone.
An airport official in Hat Yai, a popular tourist area, said three flights bound for Bangkok were delayed Thursday morning because of the haze. A flight from Bangkok to Hat Yai was diverted to Surat Thani on Wednesday evening. The official declined to be identified because of working rules.
Local media reported that cloud seeding has been discussed as a way to dispel the haze in southern Thailand, which is hundreds of kilometers (miles) from the forest fires in Indonesia’s Sumatra island.
Southern Thailand boasts tropical beaches popular among tourists in Surat Thani and Phuket, two of the seven provinces suffering from the haze.
Question 28: The word “dispel” in the passage is closest in meaning to .
A. solve B. eliminate C. discourage D. lessen
Question 29: Which statement is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. The pollution index in southern Thailand used to exceed 300
B. Seven provinces in Thailand suffered from the haze
C. The haze reached a hazardous level in the city of Songkhla
D. The local authorities warned the citizens against going out
Question 30: The following actions are taken by die authorities in response to the haze EXCEPT ___________
A. closing sports stadiums
B. sending students home
C. issuing warnings
D. disrupting flights
--(Để xem tiếp nội dung của đề thi số 3 các em vui lòng xem tại online hoặc đăng nhập vào HỌC247 để tải về máy)---
ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 3
Câu |
1 |
2 |
3 |
4 |
5 |
6 |
7 |
8 |
9 |
10 |
Đáp án |
C |
B |
A |
D |
B |
B |
B |
A |
B |
B |
Câu |
11 |
12 |
13 |
14 |
15 |
16 |
17 |
18 |
19 |
20 |
Đáp án |
C |
D |
C |
A |
B |
B |
C |
C |
D |
B |
Câu |
21 |
22 |
23 |
24 |
25 |
26 |
27 |
28 |
29 |
30 |
Đáp án |
D |
D |
B |
A |
B |
C |
B |
B |
A |
D |
Câu |
31 |
32 |
33 |
34 |
35 |
36 |
37 |
38 |
39 |
40 |
Đáp án |
A |
A |
D |
C |
C |
C |
C |
A |
C |
D |
Câu |
41 |
42 |
43 |
44 |
45 |
46 |
47 |
48 |
49 |
50 |
Đáp án |
C |
C |
A |
D |
D |
B |
D |
A |
B |
A |
4. Đề số 4
ĐỀ THI THPT QG MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT HÀ ĐÔNG- ĐỀ 04
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. apostrophe B. rhyme C. recipe D. psyche
Question 2: A. soldier B. leader C. adopt D. wonder
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. ecclesiastical B. unsatisfactory C. occupational D. octogenarian
Question 4: A. humorous B. lubricious C. strenuous D. prosperous
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 5: After three days on trial, the court found him innocent of the crime and he was released.
A. innovative B. benevolent C. guilty D. naive
Question 6: Many people perished in the earthquake because they were not prepared for it.
A. survived B. departed C. suffered D. declined
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 7: The way the care-taker treated those little children was deplorable. She must be punished for what she did.
A. respectable B. unacceptable C. mischievous D. satisfactory
Question 8: The Extension Program first established in 1873 at Cambridge University has successfully withstood changing popular trends.
A. sponsored B. endured C. stabilized in D. extended
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.
Question 9: Sally: “I will never travel by plane again.” - Linda: “Me _______ ”
A. so B. too C. neither D. either
Question 10: The waiter asks Mr. Mark to order his food in a restaurant.
The waiter: “May I take your order now, sir?” - Mr Mark: “Yes, _______ .”
A. let’s go to that restaurant
B. keep the change
C. a soup and a steak
D. the food tastes really good
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 11: There is no answer when I ring him. He _______ the office already.
A. needn’t have left
B. should have left
C. can’t have left
D. must have left
Question 12: An economic .................... is a time when there is very little economic activity, which causes a lot of unemployment and poverty.
A. improvement B. depression C. development D. mission
Question 13: _______ flowers are usually made of plastic or silk.
A. Unreal B. Natural C. Artificial D. Untrue
Question 14: The last of these reasons is _______ the most important.
A. so B. very C. far D. by far
Question 15: They have lived next door to us for years _______ we hardly ever see them.
A. yet B. although C. so D. and
Question 16: The more you study during semester, __________ the week before the exam.
A. you have to study the less
B. the less you have to study
C. the least you have to study
D. the study less you have
Question 17: I know you feel bad now, Jimmy, but try to put it out of your mind. By the time you’re an adult, you _______ all about it.
A. forget
B. will be forgetting
C. will have forgotten
D. are forgetting
Question 18: The bombardment from the sea and the air _______ large parts of the city.
A. drowned B. abolished C. liquidated D. demolished
Question 19: They live on a busy road. _______ a lot of noise from traffic.
A. It must be
B. There must be
C. There must have
D. It must have been
Question 20: Nobody says a word about that accident, _______ ?
A. do they B. don’t they C. does he D. doesn’t he
Question 21: The headmaster says that the laboratory in our school _______ next semester.
A. will be building
B. will build
C. are being built
D. will be built
Question 22: The teacher asked a difficult question, but finally Alex _______ a good answer.
keep pace with
B. put up with
C. came up with
D. made way for
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.
Dear Parents,
The exams of your children are to start soon. I know you are all really anxious for your children to do well.
But, please do remember, amongst the students who will be (23) _______ for the exams there is an artist, who doesn’t need to understand Math. There is an (24) _______ , who doesn’t care about History or English literature. There is a musician, whose Chemistry marks won’t matter. There’s an athlete, whose physical fitness is more important than Physics. If your child does get top marks, that’s great! (25) _______ , if he or she doesn’t, please don’t take away their self-confidence and dignity from them. Tell them it’s OK, it’s just an exam! They are cut (26) _______ for much bigger things in life. Tell them, no matter (27) _______ they score, you love them and will not judge them.
Please do this, and when you do, watch your children conquer the world. One exam or a low mark won’t take away their dreams and talent. And please, do not think that doctors and engineers are the only happy people in the world.
(Source: https://www. inspire more, com/principals-test-letter-to-parents/)
Question 23: A. sitting |
B. making |
C. doing |
D. taking |
Question 24: A. business |
B. entrepreneur |
C. venture |
D. enterprise |
Question 25: A. And |
B. Also |
C. So |
D. However |
Question 26: A. down |
B. off |
C. out |
D. away |
Question 27: A. what |
B. how |
C. which |
D. when |
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.
Humans are consuming hundreds of wild animals “to extinction” for meat, ornaments, medicines and pets, according to scientists. A global crisis sparked by unregulated or illegal hunting and trapping means 301 different species - from monkeys to bats - are now in danger, a new study claims. Experts at Oregon State University in the US, who conducted the research, have warned the decline is having a significant environmental impact and undermining the food security of millions of people in Asia, Africa and South America. “Our goal is to raise awareness of this global crisis. Many of these animals are at the brink of extinction. The illegal smuggling in wildlife and wildlife products is run by dangerous international networks and ranks among trafficking in arms, human beings and drugs in terms of profits,” said study leader Professor William Ripple.
Researchers concluded that bold changes and political will were needed to diminish the possibility of humans consuming many of the world’s wild mammals to the point of extinction. Of the species affected, 126 were primates, more than any other group, according to a team of researchers writing in the journal Royal Society Open Science. Animal rights activists said the study should serve as a wake-up call to protect endangered species from extinction. “This research should be heart-stopping news for anyone who cares about wild animal welfare and the health of our planet. Urgent action needs to be taken by governments across the globe to protect these hundreds of threatened species from extinction,” Dr Neil D’Cruze, Head of Wildlife Research and Policy at World Animal Protection told The Independent.
The authors found that wild meat made up a crucial part of global diets, with an estimated 89,000 tonnes harvested annually in the Brazilian Amazon alone. They also found overhunting to be mainly associated with poorer countries, where hunters might find it harder to feed their families. The research also showed much of the wild animal meat was sold in street markets and destined to become urban restaurant delicacies.
In 2010, another study found that about five tonnes of bushmeat was smuggled weekly in tourist luggage through Charles de Gaulle airport in Paris, France. Dr D’Cruze said: “There are also the too often forgotten welfare impacts and high levels of suffering that animals, like primates, endure when captured and slaughtered for bush meat or the illegal wildlife trade. We must prevent the extinction of these incredible species, but we must also eradicate the pain and suffering being inflicted on millions of animals as we speak.” Large carnivores and herbivores over 10 kg comprised a small percentage of the animals listed but were hit more severely by overhunting, it was claimed. Scientists also warned the loss of large mammals could result in population explosions of prey animals, greater risk of disease and economic impact on humans. The study found that 57 large species of even-toed ungulates, including hippopotamus, wild yak, camel and marsh deer, were threatened by hunting. Smaller mammals were said to play crucial roles in dispersing seeds, pollinating plants and controlling insects. Wild ox, camels, pigs, fruit bats, rhinoceroses, tapirs, deer, tree kangaroos, armadillos, pangolins, rodents and big cats, were all said to be affected.
(Soure: https://www.independent.co.uk)
Question 28: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Hundreds of animal species “being consumed to extinction”
B. The illegal smuggling in wildlife and wildlife products.
C. Wild meat - a crucial part of global diets.
D. Raising people’s awareness of the worldwide crisis.
Question 29: According to paragraph 1, which of the following is NOT true?
A. People are consuming a large number of wild animals for food, drugs and ornaments.
B. Unregulated or illegal hunting leads to global crisis.
C. Illegal smuggling in wildlife and wildlife products is managed on global networks.
D. The decline in the number of species has an impact on people all over the world.
Question 30: The word “diminish” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to .
A. raise B. fluctuate C. decline D. remain
--(Để xem tiếp nội dung của đề thi số 4 các em vui lòng xem tại online hoặc đăng nhập vào HỌC247 để tải về máy)---
ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 4
Câu |
1 |
2 |
3 |
4 |
5 |
6 |
7 |
8 |
9 |
10 |
Đáp án |
B |
A |
C |
B |
C |
A |
B |
B |
C |
C |
Câu |
11 |
12 |
13 |
14 |
15 |
16 |
17 |
18 |
19 |
20 |
Đáp án |
D |
B |
C |
D |
A |
B |
C |
D |
B |
A |
Câu |
21 |
22 |
23 |
24 |
25 |
26 |
27 |
28 |
29 |
30 |
Đáp án |
D |
C |
A |
B |
D |
C |
A |
A |
D |
C |
Câu |
31 |
32 |
33 |
34 |
35 |
36 |
37 |
38 |
39 |
40 |
Đáp án |
B |
D |
A |
C |
D |
A |
C |
A |
A |
C |
Câu |
41 |
42 |
43 |
44 |
45 |
46 |
47 |
48 |
49 |
50 |
Đáp án |
D |
B |
B |
B |
A |
D |
B |
C |
D |
D |
5. Đề số 5
ĐỀ THI THPT QG MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT HÀ ĐÔNG- ĐỀ 05
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. scuba B. hummock C. fund D. punishment
Question 2: A. repent B. extinct C. respect D. celebrate
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions
Question 3: A. quality B. solution C. compliment D. energy
Question 4: A. vocabulary B. politically C. documentary D. laboratory
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 5: Slang can be defined as a set of lexical, grammatical, and phonological regularities used in informal speech.
A. informative B. official C. situational D. casual
Question 6: The relationship between structure, process and outcome is very unclear.
A. disappear B. external C. apparent D. uncertain
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 7: Setting off on an expedition without thorough preparation and with inadequate equipment is tempting fate.
A. taking a risk
B. losing heart
C. having panic
D. going round in circles
Question 8: “It’s no use talking to me about philosophy. It’s a closed book to me.’’
A. a subject that I don’t understand
B. a theme that I like to discuss
C. a book that is never opened
D. an object that I really love
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.
Question 9: Tim and Tom are talking about the result of the English test.
Tim: “I was worried about the English result, but Mr. Smith gave me an A’’ - Tom: “...................’’
A. Good luck to you!
C. Mr Smith is so mean.
B. Congratulations! That’s great.
D. Don’t worry about it.
Question 10: Mary is talking to Julia over the phone.
Mary: “Thank you for helping me prepare for my birthday party, Julia.” - Julia:
A. It’s my pleasure
B. That’s out of this world
C. Never mention me
D. Of course not
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 11: People are encouraged to take bottles to bottle-banks, and only shops in supermarkets which use _____ packing.
A. environmentalist friendly
B. environmental friendly
C. environmentally friendly
D. friendly environment
Question 12: Mike won five medals at the competition. His parents _____ very proud of him.
A. could have been
B. can’t have
C. can’t be
D. must have been
Question 13: My English teacher, Mrs. Brown, was the person _____ I had great respect.
A. for who B. for whom C. that D. whom
Question 14: The kind-hearted woman _____ all her life to helping the disabled and the poor.
A. wasted B. spent C. dedicated D. lived
Question 15: _____ make a good impression on him.
A. Only by doing so can I
B. Only so doing can I
C. Only by doing so I can
D. Only by so doing I can
Question 16: The authorities recommend that the meeting _____ next Monday.
A. be held B. is held C. will be held D. held
Question 17: The Ministry of Finance has proposed an _____ special consumption tax of 1,000 VND for each pack of cigarettes.
A. additional B. exclusive C. limited D. auxiliary
Question 18: _____ the salesman promised to exchange the detective CD player for a new one, they insisted on getting a refund.
A. And B. But C. Although D. Despite
Question 19: The audience showed their _____ by giving the world-famous singer a big round of applause.
A. intention B. admiration C. consideration D. sympathy
Question 20: Many years ago, black children were _____ to discrimination in many schools.
A. subjective
B. subject
C. subjecting
D. to be subjected
Question 21: It’s about time Mrs. Brown apologized to me _____ me a gossip in front of everybody.
A. to have called
B. that she called
C. of calling
D. for having called
Question 22: He had spent _____ time writing an essay on his childhood.
A. a few
B. a large number of
C. a great deal of
D. many
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.
One of the greatest concerns parents have when facing an international move is “What schooling will be available to my child? Will my child be disadvantaged academically as a result of this move?” (23)
_____ this fear is certainly strongest in families moving overseas for the first time, even those who may be more experienced often have concerns about their children’s education.
Dr. Ernest Mannino, Director of the State Department’s Office of Overseas Schools, and Dr. Keith Miller, Deputy Director of the office, spoke candidly (24) _____ some of the common concerns parents have regarding the education of their children. Dr. Mannino and Dr. Miller (25) _____ parents against making assumptions about their children’s education. To make an educated choice, parents need to (26) _____ through schooling issues and to research post schools as far in advance of a move as possible.
Children (27) _____ are internationally mobile have many choices of schools to attend. In most major cities, there are schools based on the U.S., French, German, and British systems. Some parents also choose to become their children’s teachers through home education. Which school is appropriate for your child is an individual decision based on many factors.
Question 23: A. When |
B. Because |
C. Therefore |
D. Although |
Question 24: A. on |
B. to |
C. from |
D.about |
Question 25: A. discourage |
B. caution |
C.oppose |
D. approve |
Question 26: A. think |
B. put |
C. fall |
D. take |
Question 27: A. who |
B. which |
C. whose |
D. whom |
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or 0 on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.
Telecommuting is some form of computer communication between employees’ homes and offices. For employees whose job involve sitting at a terminal or word processor entering data or typing reports, the location of the computer is of no consequence. If the machine can communicate over telephone lines, when the work is completed, employees can dial the office computer and transmit the material to their employers. A recent survey in USA Today estimates that there are approximately 8,7 million telecommuters. But although the numbers are rising annually, the trend does not appear to be as significant as predicted when Business Week published “The Portable Executive” as its cover story a few years ago. Why hasn’t telecommuting become more popular?
Clearly, change simply takes time. But in addition, there has been active resistance on the part of many managers. These executives claim that supervising the telecommuters in a large work force scattered across the country would be too difficult, or, at least, systems for managing them are not yet developed, thereby complicating the manager’s responsibilities.
It is also true that employees who are given the option of telecommuting are reluctant to accept the opportunity. Most people feel that they need regular interaction with a group, and many are concerned that they will not have the same consideration for advancement if they are not more visible in the office setting. Some people feel that even when a space in their homes is set aside as a work area, they never really get away from the office.
Question 28: With which of the following topics is the passage primarily concerned?
A. An overview of telecommuting.
B. The failure of telecommuting.
C. The advantages of telecommuting.
D. A definition of telecommuting.
Question 29: How many Americans are involved in telecommuting?
A. More than predicted in Business Week.
B. More than 8 million.
C. than last year.
D. Fewer than estimated in USA Today.
Question 30: The phrase “of no consequence” means .
A. of no use B. irrelevant C. of no good D. unimportant
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ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 5
Câu |
1 |
2 |
3 |
4 |
5 |
6 |
7 |
8 |
9 |
10 |
Đáp án |
A |
D |
B |
C |
B |
C |
A |
A |
B |
A |
Câu |
11 |
12 |
13 |
14 |
15 |
16 |
17 |
18 |
19 |
20 |
Đáp án |
C |
D |
B |
C |
A |
A |
A |
C |
B |
B |
Câu |
21 |
22 |
23 |
24 |
25 |
26 |
27 |
28 |
29 |
30 |
Đáp án |
D |
C |
D |
D |
B |
A |
A |
A |
B |
D |
Câu |
31 |
32 |
33 |
34 |
35 |
36 |
37 |
38 |
39 |
40 |
Đáp án |
B |
A |
B |
C |
D |
A |
B |
C |
B |
C |
Câu |
41 |
42 |
43 |
44 |
45 |
46 |
47 |
48 |
49 |
50 |
Đáp án |
A |
B |
D |
A |
C |
C |
B |
C |
C |
A |
...
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Mời các em tham khảo tài liệu có liên quan:
- Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG môn Tiếng Anh năm 2021-2022 có đáp án Trường THPT Quyết Thắng
- Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG môn Tiếng Anh năm 2021-2022 có đáp án Trường THPT Nguyễn Văn Thoại
Hy vọng bộ đề thi này sẽ giúp các em học sinh ôn tập tốt và đạt thành tích cao trong kì thi sắp tới.