Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG năm 2021 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THPT Thái Hòa Lần 2

BỘ 5 ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QG NĂM 2021 MÔN TIẾNG ANH

TRƯỜNG THPT THÁI HÒA LẦN 2

Read the following passage and mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the blanks.

Higher education also provides a competitive edge in the career market. We all know that in the economic times we are living in today, finding jobs is not guaranteed. The number of people unemployed is still relatively high, and the number of new career (1).............. isn’t nearly enough to put people in jobs they are seeking.

As a job seeker, you’re competing with a high number of experienced workers (2)...........have been out of the workforce for a while and are also seeking work. (3) .......... , when you have a higher education, it generally equips you for better job security. Generally speaking, employers tend to value those who have completed college than those who have only completed high school and are more likely to replace that person who hasn’t (4).............a higher education. Furthermore, some companies even go so far as to pay your tuition because they consider an educated (5).............to be valuable to their organization. A college education is an investment that doesn’t just provide you with substantial rewards. It benefits the hiring company as well.

Question 1:

A. responsibilities        B. activities

C. opportunities           D. possibilities

Question 2:

A. who                      B. where

C. whose                   D. which

Question 3:

A. Otherwise              B. Moreover

C. Therefore               D. However

Question 4:

A. permitted              B. refused

C. applied                 D. received

Question 5:

A. employment           B. employer

C. employee               D. unemployed

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 6:

A. campus                      B. plane 

C. game                         D. base

Question 7:

A. enjoyed                    B. loved 

C. joined                       D. helped

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 8:

A. parent                     B. attempt

C. women                   D. dinner

Question 9:

A. assistance               B. appearance

C. position                  D. confidence

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following question.

Question 10: In 1959, the political philosopher Hannah Arendt became the first woman    a full professor at Princeton University.

A. to appoint 

B. who be appointed as 

C. to be appointed

D. was appointed

Question 11:                       you like what I want to do or not, you won’t make me change my mind.

A. Because                  B. Whatever

C. If                            D. When

Question 12: Do you think doing the household chores is the                       of the women city?

A. responsible             B. responsive 

C. responsibility          D. responsibly

Question 13: Peter has been studying for almost three years and he will have this degree and return to his country in                  six months.

A. others                     B. the other 

C. other                       D. another

Question 14: You will have to                       your holiday if you are too ill to travel.

A. put aside                 B. call off 

C. back out                 D. cut down

Question 15: Never before                       such a severe flood in this mountainous area.

A. do I see                  B. I have seen

C. I had seen               D. have I seen

Question 16: With what my parents prepare for me in terms of education, I am                        about my future.

A. confide                   B. confident

C. confidence             D. confidential

Question 17: The goal is to make higher education available to everyone who is will and capable his finacial situation.

A. regardless of           B. owing to

C. in terms of              D. with reference to

Question 18:                       number of boys were swimming in the lake, but I didn’t know              exact number of them.

A. A/the                      B. A/an 

C. The/the                   D. The/an

Question 19: The course was so difficult that I didn’t                       any progress at all.

A. do                           B. make

C. produce                  D. create

Question 20: Oxfam tries to send food to countries where people are suffering                       malnutrition.

A. by                           B. of

C. for                          D. from

Question 21:                       the table, Mr.Robert called the family for support.

A. Being laid               B. Having laid

C. Have laid                D. Having lying

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: This boy is poorly-educated and doesn’t know how to behave properly.

A. ignorant                B. uneducated

C. knowledgeable       D. rude

Question 23: Urbanization is the shift of people moving from rural to urban areas, and the result is the growth of cities.

A. transposition           B. maintenance 

C. variation                 D. movement

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 24: Hoa is asking Hai, who is sitting at a corner of the room, seeming too shy.

- Hoa: “Why aren’t you taking part in our activites?                                         ”

- Hai: “ Yes, I can. Certainly”

A. Can you help me with this decorations?

B. Can I help you?

C. Shall I take your hat off?

D. Could you please show me how to get the nearest post office?

Question 25: Mary is talking to a porter in the hotel lobby.

- Poter: “Shall I help you with your suitcase?”

- Mary: “                                       ”

A. That’s very kind of you.

B. What a pity!

C. I can’t agree more. 

D. Not a chance.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 26: Face-to-face socializing is not as preferred as virtual socializing among the youth.

A. instant                    B. available

C. direct                      D. facial

Question 27: With so many daily design resources, how do you stay-up-date with technology without spending too much time on it?

A. connect to the Internet all day

B. update new status

C. use social network daily 

D. get latest information

Mark the letter A, B, C or D in your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 28: Our teacher encourages us using a dictionary whenever we are unsure of the meaning of a word.

A. of   

B. using

C. meaning of the word         

D. whenever

Question 29: The number of students attending universities to study economics have increased steadily in the last few years.

A. economics              B. of students 

C. have                      D. attending

Question 30: I am not fond of reading fiction books as they are imaginable ones which are not real.

A. imaginable              B. as

C. fond of                    D. are

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 31: Mr. George is a famous author. Mr. George is also an influential speaker.

A. Mr. George is neither a famous author nor an influential speaker.

B. Mr. George likes writing famous books and making speechers.

C. Mr. George is a famous author, and he is also an influential speaker.

D. Mr. George wrires famous books, but he doesn’t know much about speeches.

Question 32: I have tried hard but I can’t earn enough money.

A. Although I have tried hard, I can’t earn enough money.

B. Inspite of I have tried hard, I can’t earn enough money.

C. Despite I have tried hard, I can’t earn enough money.

D. Although I have tried hard, but I can’t earn enough money.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 33: “ I’m sorry I gave you the wrong number”, said Paul to Susan.

A. Paul denied giving Susan the wrong number.

B. Paul apologized to Susan for giving the wrong number.

C. Paul thanked to Susan for giving the wrong number.

D. Paul accused Susan of giving him the wrong number.

Question 34: She has known how to play the piano for 5 years.

A. She didn’t play the piano 5 years ago.

B. She started play the piano 5 years ago.

C. She played the piano 5 years ago.

D. The last time she played the piano was 5 years ago.

Question 35: Without my teacher’s advice, I wouldn’t have participated in the competition.

A. If it hadn’t been for my teacher’s advice, I wouldn’t have participated in the competition.

B. If my tutor hadn’t advised me, I would have participated in the competition.

C. Had my teacher not advised me, I wouldn’t have participated in the competition.

D. If my teacher didn’t advised me, I wouldn’t have participated in the competition.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Have you ever entered a tropical rainforest? It’s a special, dark place completely different from anywhere else. A rainforest is a place where the trees grow very tall. Millions of kinds of animals, insects, and plants live in the rainforest. It is hot and humid in a rainforest. It rains a lot in the rainforest, but sometimes you don't know it's raining. The trees grow so closely together that rain doesn't always reach the ground.

Rainforests make up only a small part of the Earth's surface, about six percent. They are found in tropical parts of the world. The largest rainforest in the world is the Amazon in South America. The Amazon covers 1.2 billion acres, or almost five million square kilometers. The second largest rainforest is in Western Africa. There are also rainforests in Central America, Southeast Asia, Northeastern Australia, and the Pacific Islands

Rainforests provide us with many things. In fact, the Amazon Rainforest is called the "lungs of our planet" because it produces twenty percent of the world's oxygen. One fifth of the world's fresh water is also found in the Amazon Rainforest. Furthermore, one half of the world's species of animals, plants, and insects live in the Earth's rainforests. Eighty percent of the food we eat first grew in the rainforest. For example, pineapples, bananas, tomatoes, corn, potatoes, chocolate, coffee, and sugar all came from rainforests.

Twenty-five percent of the drugs we take when we are sick are made of plants that grow only in rainforests. Some of these drugs are even used to fight and cure cancer. With all the good things we get from rainforests, it's surprising to find that we are destroying our rainforests. In fact, 1.5 acres, or 6,000 square meters, of rainforest disappear every second. The forests are being cut down to make fields for cows, to harvest the plants, and to clear land for farms. Along with losing countless valuable species, the destruction of rainforests creates many problems worldwide. Destruction of rainforests results in more pollution, less rain, and less oxygen for the world.

Question 36: What is the passage mainly about?

A. Where rainforest are located 

B. Kinds of forests

C. Facts about rainforests 

D. How much oxygen rainforests make

Question 37: According to the passage, rainforests provide human all of the following EXCEPT               .

A. oxygen   

B. drugs used to fight and cure cancer

C. fresh water 

D. lung problems

Question 38: Why is Amazon Rainforest called “Lungs of the planet”?

A. It provides much of our air. 

B. It uses much of the world’s oxygen.

C. It helps us breathe.

D. It helps circulation.

Question 39: Where would you find the largest rainforest in the world?

A. Western Africa 

B. Southeast Asia 

C. in South America  

D. Northeastern Australia

Question 40: The word “humid” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to                      .

A. cool                        B. moist

C. dehydrated              D. dry

Question 41: The word “harvest” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to                     .

A. destroy                   B. reduce 

C. create                     D. gather

Question 42: What is the most likely reason why the author is suprised that we are destroying rainforest?.

A. It will be too difficult to grow food without them.

B. They are necessary for the fight against cancer.

C. It will be too expensive to replant them.

D. They are necessary for the health of our planet.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Not so long ago almost any student who successfully completed a university degree or diploma course could find a good career quite easily. Companies toured the academic institutions, competing with each other to recruit graduates. However, those days are gone, even in Hong Kong, and nowadays graduates often face strong competition in the search for jobs.

Most careers organizations highlight three stages for graduates to follow in the process of securing a suitable career: recognizing abilities, matching these to available vacancies and presenting them well to prospective employers.

Job seekers have to make a careful assessment of their own abilities. One area of assessment should be of their academic qualifications, which would include special skills within their subject area. Graduates should also consider their own personal values and attitudes, or the relative importance to themselves of such matters as money, security, leadership and caring for others. An honest assessment of personal interests and abilities such as creative or scientific skills, or skills acquired from work experience, should also be given careful thought.

The second stage is to study the opportunities available for employment and to think about how the general employment situation is likely to develop in the future. To do this, graduates can study job vacancies and information in newspapers or they can visit a careers office, write to possible employers for information or contact friends or relatives who may already be involved in a particular profession. After studying all the various options, they should be in a position to make informed comparisons between various careers.

Good personal presentation is essential in the search for a good career. Job application forms and letters should, of course, be filled in carefully and correctly, without grammar or spelling errors. Where additional information is asked for, job seekers should describe their abilities and work experience in more depth, with examples if possible. They should try to balance their own abilities with the employer's needs, explain why they are interested in a career with the particular company and try to show that they already know something about the company and its activities.

When graduates are asked to attend for interview, they should prepare properly by finding out all they can about the prospective employer. Dressing suitably and arriving for the interview on time are also obviously important. Interviewees should try to give positive and helpful answers and should not be afraid to ask questions about anything they are unsure about. This is much better than pretending to understand a question and giving an unsuitable answer.

There will always be good career opportunities for people with ability, skills and determination; the secret to securing a good job is to be one of them.

Question 43: In paragraph 1, 'those days are gone, even in Hong Kong', suggests that                                  .

A. in the past, finding a good career was easier in Hong Kong than elsewhere.

B. it used to be harder to find a good job in Hong Kong than in other countries.

C. nowadays, everyone in Hong Kong has an equal chance of finding a good career.

D. even in Hong Kong companies tour the universities trying to recruit graduates.

Question 44: In the paragraph 2, “them” refers to                      .

A. abilities

B. three stages

C. careers organizations 

D. available vacancies

Question 45: According to paragraph 4, graduates should                     .

A. ask friends or relatives to secure them a good job

B. find out as much as possible and inform employers of the comparisons they want

C. get information about a number of careers before making comparisons

D. find a good position and then compare it with other careers

Question 46: In paragraph 5, 'in more depth' could best be replaced by      .

A. more honestly         B. more carefully

C. using more word      D. in greater detail

Question 47: The word “prospective” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to          .

A. future                     B. generous

C. reasonable              D. ambitious

Question 48: In paragraph 6, the writer seems to suggest that          .

A. it is better for interviewees to be honest than to pretend to understand

B. interviewees should ask a question if they can't think of an answer

C. it is not a good idea for interviewees to be completely honest in their answers

D. pretending to understand a question is better than giving an unsuitable answer

Question 49: Which of the following sentences is closest in meaning to the paragraph 7?

A. Determined, skilled and able people can easily find a good career.

B. The secret of a sucessful interview is that interviewers have to possess skills, determination or ability.

C. Graduates should develop at least one of these areas to find a suitable career.

D. People with the right qualities should always be able to find a good career.

Question 50: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?

A. Businesses used to visit the universities in Hong Kong to recruit graduates.

B. Until recently it was quite easy for graduates to get good jobs in Hong Kong.

C. Job seekers should consider as many as possible of the factors involved.

D. Graduates sometimes have to take part in competitions to secure a good career.

ĐÁP ÁN

1	2	3	4	5
C	A	D	D	C
6	7	8	9	10
A	D	B	D	C
11	12	13	14	15
B	C	D	B	D
16	17	18	19	20
B	A	A	B	D
21	22	23	24	25
B	C	B	A	A
26	27	28	29	30
C	D	B	C	A
31	32	33	34	35
C	A	B	B	A
36	37	38	39	40
C	D	A	C	B
41	42	43	44	45
D	D	A	B	C
46	47	48	49	50
D	A	A	A	D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 1:    

A. aware                               B. survive

C. commit                             D. social

Question 2:    

A. advocate                           B. diversity

C. employment                      D. decision

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 3:    

A. digests                            B. defends

C. threatens                        D. swallows

Question 4:    

A. doubt                              B. found

C. touch                              D. foul

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5: There are programmes to raise people's ________ of their responsibility for natural conservation.

A. concentration             B. qualification

C. attention                     D. awareness

Question 6: Lan and Huong have never come to class late, ______ ?

A. have they                  B. haven't they  

C. has she                     D. hasn't she

Question 7: The shop assistant is ready to ________ me a helping hand. She was very nice.

A. take                          B. lend

C. offer                          D. get

Question 8: After they _________ all the food, they picked up their bags and left.

A. were eating                       B. have eaten

C. had been eating                D. had eaten

Question 9: His brother refuses to listen to anyone else's point of view. He is very _________.

A. open-minded              B. narrow-minded

C. bad-tempered             D. kind-hearted

Question 10: This is the house _________ by his father five years ago.

A. bought                          B. was bought

C. be bought                     D. which bought

Question 11: I applied for a part-time job at the supermarket. They are going to _________.

A. hold me on                    B. carry me on

C. put me on                      D. take me on

Question 12: Most of us would maintain that physical __________ does not play a major part in how we react to the people we meet.

A. attractively                     B. attract

C. attractiveness                D. attractive

Question 13: Thomas received a warning for speeding yesterday. He _________ so fast.

A. would have driven

B. mightn't have driven

C. need have driven 

D. shouldn't have driven

Question 14: It was late, so we decided __________ a taxi home.

A. to taking                       B. taking

C. take                              D. to take

Question 15: You __________ so many accidents if you drove more slowly.

A. had not had                

B. would not have     

C. would not have had 

D. will not have

Question 16: One condition of this job is that you must be _________ to work at weekends.

A. capable                         B. accessible

C. available                       D. acceptable

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 17: Since the death of Laura's father, her mother has become a breadwinner to support the family.

A. a person who bakes bread every morning

B. a person who goes out to work to earn money

C. a bakery-owner

D. a person who delivers bread to make money

Question 18: When you see your teacher approaching you, a slight wave to attract his attention is appropriate.

A. coming nearer to

B. catching sight of

C. pointing at

D. looking up to

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 19: The year-end party was out of this world. We had never tasted such delicious food.

A. enormous                B. terrific

C. strange                    D. awful

Question 20: My uncle, who is an accomplished guitarist, taught me how to play.

A. unqualified                B. unimpaired

C. unskilled                    D. ill-educated

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 21: Mary and Peter are talking about Mary's plan.

Mary: “___________”

Peter: "Congratulations!"

A. We're going to get married next month

B. I believe I'll pass the exam

C. I didn't do the test well

D. I've got in stuck in the traffic jam for 3 hours

Question 22: Clara and Phil are discussing women and men in society.

Clara: "As I see it, women often drive more carefully than men."

Phil: "_________”

A. Yes, please          

B. Absolutely

C. What nonsense      

D. Never mind

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 23:

No one in our office want  (A) to drive to work because (B) there are (C) always traffic jams at rush hour. (D)

Question 24:

The objective of (A) the ASEAN Vision 2020 is (B) to create economical integration (C) among (D) the member countries.

Question 25:

After analyzing (A) the steep rise in profits according to (B) your report, it was (C) convinced that your analyses were correct (D).

ĐÁP ÁN

1	2	3	4	5
D	A	A	C	D
6	7	8	9	10
A	B	D	B	A
11	12	13	14	15
D	C	D	D	B
16	17	18	19	20
C	B	A	D	C
21	22	23	24	25
A	B	A	C	C
26	27	28	29	30
B	A	C	B	A
31	32	33	34	35
C	D	C	D	A
36	37	38	39	40
A	C	C	B	A
41	42	43	44	45
B	D	B	D	B
46	47	48	49	50
D	C	C	D	B

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Câu 1: Tung: “Your shoes are terrific, Tuan. The colour quite suits you.”    

Tuan: “______”

A. Really? 

B. Do you like them?

C. You must be kidding. My shirt is nice, isn’t it?

D. I’m glad you like them.

Câu 2: Lan: “Would you say the Great Wall is among the seven man-made wonders of the world?”

Trang: “_______”

A. That’s the least I could do.

B. Do you think so, too?

C. There’s no doubt about that.

D. It was created by ancient Chinese people, wasn’t it?

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 3 to 7.

Back in the 1960s and 1970s, the world was becoming more aware of the destructive effects of industry (3)______ the environment and people were starting to think seriously about ways of protecting the environment. One man who was particularly affected by this subject was Gerard Morgan-Grenville. As Morgan-Grenville travelled round earning his living as a gardener, he noticed signs of the damage that was being done to the countryside around him. It wasn't long before Morgan-Grenville decided that he had to do something about this situation. He felt that if people could be shown a better way of living then maybe they would be interested enough to try to protect their (4)_____ environment.

Mr. Morgan-Grenville decided to set up a project (5) ______ would prove what was happening to our surroundings and what could be done about it. So, in 1975, Morgan-Grenville created the Centre for Alternative Technology (CAT) in a village in Wales.

The main aim of CAT is to search for an ecologically better way of living by using technology which (6) _____ no harm to the environment. One of the most important things CAT did initially was to explore and demonstrate a wide range of techniques and to point out which ones had the least destructive results on the world around us. (7)____, CAT provides information and advice to people all over Britain and all over the world. If more and more individuals are informed about how much damage our modern lifestyle is causing to the planet, maybe more of them would be prepared to look for practical solutions to environmental problems.

Câu 3:      

A. for                          B. to

C. with                        D. on

Câu 4:      

A. worthless                B. valueless

C. precious                 D. priceless

Câu 5:      

A. that                         B. he 

C. it                             D. this

Câu 6:      

A. gets                         B. makes

C. plays                       D. does

Câu 7:      

A. Therefore                B. However

C. Moreover                D. Although

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Câu 8:      

A. volunteer                B. trust

C. fuss                        D. judge

Câu 9:      

A. houses                    B. services

C. passages                 D. techniques

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Câu 10: Since the death of Laura's father, her mother has become a breadwinner to support the family.

A. a person who bakes bread every morning

B. a bakery-owner

C. a person who delivers bread to make money

D. a person who goes out to work to earn money

Câu 11: Peter is the black sheep of the family, so he is never welcomed there.

A. a beloved member

B. a bad and embarrassing member

C. the only child

D. the eldest child

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Câu 12: Children are expected to make the right thing both at school and at home.

A. to make                       B. the

C. are expected                D. both

Câu 13: We will have a fund-raising dinner at Rex Hotel tonight.

A. at                                 B. will have

C. a                                  D. fund-raising

Câu 14: It was on 12^th April, 1961 when the first human, a Soviet cosmonaut, flew into space.

A. a Soviet cosmonaut    B. when

C. flew                           D. into space

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Câu 15: His physical condition was not an impediment to his career as a violinist. He has won a lot of prizes.

A. difficulty                    B. barrier

C. advantage                 D. disadvantage

Câu 16: Both universities speak highly of the programme of student exchange and hope to cooperate more in the future.

A. express disapproval of

B. voice opinions on

C. find favor with

D. resolve a conflict over

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 17 to 24.

The difference between the nuclear family and the extended family is that a nuclear family refers to a single basic family unit of parents and their children, whereas the extended family refers to their relatives such as grandparents, in-laws, aunts and uncles, etc. In many cultures, and particularly indigenous societies, the latter is the most common basic form of social organization.

   A nuclear family is limited, according to Kristy Jackson of Colorado State University, to one or two parents (e.g. a father and mother) and their own child, or children, living together in a single house or other dwellings. In anthropology, they only must be related in this fashion; there is no upper or lower limit on the number of children in a nuclear family.

   The extended family is a much more nebulous term, but in essence refers to kin or relations not covered by the above definition. In historical Europe and Asia as well as in Middle Eastern, African, and South American Aboriginal cultures, extended family groups were typically the most basic unit of social organization. The term can differ in specific cultural settings, but generally includes people related in age or by lineage. Anthropologically, the term “extended family” refers to such a group living together in a household, often with three generations living together (grandparents, parents, and children) and headed in patriarchal societies by the eldest man or by some other chosen leadership figure. However, in common parlance, the term “extended family” is often used by people simply to refer to their cousins, aunts, uncles, and so on, even though they are not living together in a single group.

Historically, most people in the world have lived in extended family groupings rather than in nuclear families. This was even true in Europe and in the early United States, where multiple generations often lived together for economic reasons. During the 20^th century, average income rose high enough that living apart as nuclear families became a viable option for the vast majority of the American population. In contrast, many indigenous societies and residents of developing countries continue to have multiple generations living in the same household. The rise of the nuclear family in the modern West does not necessarily mean that family arrangements have stabilized, either. The rapid growth in single-parent households, for instance, also represents a substantial change in the traditional nuclear family. More couples are also choosing not to have children at all.

Câu 17:  What is the passage mainly about?

A. The dominance of nuclear families over extended ones

B. The dominance of extended families over nuclear ones

C. A distinction between nuclear families and extended ones

D. The changes of family types over times

Câu 18:  The word “the latter” in paragraph 1 refers to ______.

A. family unit

B. relatives

C. the nuclear family

D. the extended family

Câu 19:  Historically, extended families were the most basic unit of social organization in all of the following places EXCEPT ______.

A. The Middle East         B. Asia

C. North America           D. Europe

Câu 20:  The word “patriarchal” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. ruled or controlled by men

B. equal for both men and women

C. simple with no rules and laws

D. modern with advanced facilities

Câu 21: According to the passage, single-parent households ______.

A. are not defined by anthropologists

B. are the existing trend of family arrangement

C. are included in the term “nuclear family”

D. are on the decrease

Câu 22:  The word “viable” in paragraph 4 could be best replaced by _______.

A. impossible                   B. possible

C. explainable                  D. fashionable

Câu 23:  Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?

A. Since the 20^th century, more and more American couples have lived in extended families because of the financial burdens.

B. Nuclear families are the most basic form of social organization all over the world.

C. The popularity of nuclear families in western countries helps to stabilize family arrangement.

D. Traditional nuclear families have changed a lot over times.

Câu 24:  What can be inferred from the reading passage?

A. Indigenous communities have been completely eradicated all over the world.

B. In the future, all extended families will be replaced by nuclear ones.

C. Anthropology is a science concerning human race and its development.

D. Couples with no children can’t be defined as families.

ĐÁP ÁN

1	2	3	4	5
D	C	D	D	A
6	7	8	9	10
D	C	A	D	B
11	12	13	14	15
D	A	C	A	C
16	17	18	19	20
A	C	D	C	A
21	22	23	24	25
C	B	D	C	C
26	27	28	29	30
B	A	B	C	D
31	32	33	34	35
C	D	B	B	C
36	37	38	39	40
B	B	A	A	A
41	42	43	44	45
D	A	A	B	D
46	47	48	49	50
C	A	D	B	A

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 1: He has sold his house and has no job and so now he has next to nothing.

A. he has nothing at all

B. he is unemployed

C. he has almost no money 

D. he has a few things

Question 2: Don't play down John’s contribution to the research.

A. pretend                    B. go along with

C. undervalue              D. cooperate

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 3: It’s no use trying to persuade Tom to change his mind.

A. It’s a waste of time trying to persuade Tom to change his mind.

B. There’s no point to try to persuade Tom to change his mind.

C. It’s worth trying to persuade Tom to change his mind.

D. It's useful trying to persuade Tom change his mind.

Question 4: After what he did, he deserves to be put away for life.

A. He should be pensioned forever because of his good life.

B. He deserves to be praised for his whole life.

C. He should be imprisoned for what he has done.

D. His wrong doings deserve to be forgiven.

Question 5: His story was so funny that it made us all laugh.

A. His story couldn't make us laugh.

B. His story was very funny and we couldn’t help laughing.

C. We all laughed at him for his story.

D. His story was too funny to laugh.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 6:

A. crashed                  B. killed

C. cured                     D. waved

Question 7:

A. laugh                       B. high

C. thought                   D. eight

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 8: I met my long-lost brother. I was at a loss for words.

A. When the speaker met his brother, he refused to say anything.

B. When the speaker met his brother, he was puzzled about what to say.

C. When the speaker met his brother, he had nothing pleasant to say.

D. When the speaker met his brother, he had much to say.

Question 9: I strongly disapproved of your behavior. However, I will help you this time.

A. Despite of my strong disapproval of your behavior, I will help you this time.

B. Because of your behavior, I will help you this time.

C. Although I strongly disapproved of your behavior, but I will help you this time.

D. Despite my strong disapproval of your behavior, I will help you this time.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions

The ocean bottom - a region nearly 2.5 times greater than the total land area of the Earth - is a vast frontier that even today is largely unexplored and uncharted. Until about a century ago, the deep-ocean floor was completely inaccessible, hidden beneath waters averaging over 3,600 meters deep. Totally without light and subjected to intense pressures hundreds of times greater than at the Earth's surface, the deep-ocean bottom is a hostile environment to humans, in some ways as forbidding and remote as the void of outer space.

 Although researchers have taken samples of deep-ocean rocks and sediments for over a century, the first detailed global investigation of the ocean bottom did not actually start until 1968, with the beginning of the National Science Foundation's Deep Sea Drilling Project (DSDP).Using techniques first developed for the offshore oil and gas industry, the DSDP's drill ship, the Glomar Challenger, was able to maintain a steady position on the ocean's surface and drill in very deep waters, extracting samples of sediments and rock from the ocean floor.

 The Glomar Challenger completed 96 voyages in a 15-year research program that ended in November 1983. During this time, the vessel logged 600,000 kilometers and took almost 20,000 core samples of seabed sediments and rocks at 624 drilling sites around the world. The Glomar Challenger's core samples have allowed geologists to reconstruct what the planet looked like hundred of millions of years ago and to calculate what it will probably look like millions of years in the future. Today, largely on the strength of evidence gathered during the Glomar Challenger's voyages, nearly all earth scientists agree on the theories of plate tectonics and continental drift that explain many of the geological processes that shape the Earth.

 The cores of sediment drilled by the Glomar Challenger have also yielded information critical to understanding the world's past climates. Deep-ocean sediments provide a climatic record stretching back hundreds of millions of years, because they are largely isolated from the mechanical erosion and the intense chemical and biological activity that rapidly destroy much land-based evidence of past climates. This record has already provided insights into the patterns and causes of past climatic change - information that may be used to predict future climates.

Question 10: The word "they" in paragraph 4 refers to

A. climates                  B. sediments

C. cores                       D. years

Question 11: The word "strength" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to   

A. endurance               B. purpose

C. basis                       D. discovery

Question 12: The word "extracting" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to

A. removing                B. breaking

C. locating                  D. analyzing

Question 13: The word "inaccessible" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to

A. unreachable            B. unsafe

C. unusable                 D. unrecognizable

Question 14: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as being a result of the Deep Sea Drilling Project?

A. Geologists were able to determine the Earth's appearance hundreds of millions of years ago.

B. Two geological theories became more widely accepted by scientists.

C. Geologists observed forms of marine life never before seen.

D. Information was revealed about the Earth's past climatic changes.

Question 15: Which of the following is TRUE of the Glomar Challenger?

A. It is a type of submarine.

B. It is an ongoing project.

C. It has gone on over 100 voyages

D. It made its first DSDP voyage in 1968.

Question 16: What is the main topic of the passage?

A. The Earth's climate millions of years ago

B. The first detailed study of the bottom of the ocean

C. Geologists' predictions for the future environment of the Earth

D. Marine life deep in the ocean

Question 17: The Deep Sea Drilling Project was significant because it was

A. an attempt to find new sources of oil and gas

B. the first extensive exploration of the ocean bottom

C. composed of geologists from all over the world

D. funded entirely by the gas and oil industry

ĐÁP ÁN

1	2	3	4	5
C	C	A	C	B
6	7	8	9	10
A	A	B	D	B
11	12	13	14	15
C	A	A	C	D
16	17	18	19	20
B	B	D	A	D
21	22	23	24	25
C	C	B	C	A
26	27	28	29	30
A	D	D	B	D
31	32	33	34	35
D	B	A	B	D
36	37	38	39	40
B	B	A	B	D
41	42	43	44	45
C	A	A	B	B
46	47	48	49	50
B	D	D	C	C

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 1: The aircraft carrier is indispensable in naval operations against sea or shore based enemies.  

A. novel                      B. unnecessary

C. exotic                     D. vital

Question 2: People are now far more materialistic than their predecessors years ago.

A. monetary                B. greedy

C. object-oriented       D. spiritual

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

You will make the interview process easier for the employer if you volunteer relevant information about yourself. Think about how you want to present your (3)_______, experiences, education, work style, skills, and goals. Be prepared to supplement all your answers with examples that support the statements you make. It is also a good idea to review your résumé with a critical eye and identify areas that an employer might see as limitations or want further information. Think about how you can answer difficult questions (4)_______ and positively, while keeping each answer brief.

An interview gives the employer a (5)_______ to get to know you. While you do want to market yourself to the employer, answer each question with an honest response.

Never say anything negative about past experiences, employers, or courses and professors. Always think of something positive about an experience and talk about that. You should also be (6)_______. If you are genuinely interested in the job, let the interviewer know that.

One of the best ways to show you are interested in a job is to demonstrate that you have researched the organization prior to the interview. You can also (7)_______ interest by asking questions about the job, the organization, and its services and products.

Question 3:

A. pressures               B. practices

C. promotions             D. strengths

Question 4:

A. accurately               B. hardly

C. rightly                    D. sharply

Question 5:

A. change                    B. way

C. chance                    D. practice

 Question 6:

A. enthusiasm              B. enthusiastic

C. enthusiast               D. enthusiastically

Question 7:

A. show                       B. appear

C. conceal                   D. cover

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 8. He was successful because he was determined to pursue personal goals. He was not talented

A. In addition to his determination, his talent ensured his success in pursuing his goals.

B. His determination to pursue personal goals made him successful and talented.

C. It was his determination to pursue personal goals, not talent, that contributed to his success.

D. His success lay in his natural ability, not in his determination to pursue personal goals.

Question 9. There was a serious flood. All local pupils couldn’t go to school on that day.

A. The serious flood prevented all local pupils not go to school on that day.

B. The serious flood hindered all local pupils from going to school on that day.

C. The serious flood made all pupils from not going to school on that day.

D. The serious flood  caused all local pupils not go to school on that day.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 10: I would willingly have lent you the money myself if only I’d known you needed it.

A. I would lend you the money willingly if I were convinced that you really required it.

B. As I realized just how necessary the loan was to you, I naturally lent you what you needed.

C. Had I realized that you were in need of such a loan, I would gladly have lent it to you myself.

D. I was under no obligation to offer you a loan, but nevertheless did so gladly.

Question 11: The scene is set in Normandy, but most of the characters in this novel are Londoners.

A. In the novel, the action moves backwards and forwards between Normandy and London.

B. The story is about Normandy, but the leading characters are all Londoners.

C. The main characters in the novel are Londoners on a sightseeing holiday in Normandy.

D. In this novel, the story takes place in Normandy but the majority of the characters are from London.

Question 12. We got caught in a traffic jam so we were among the last to arrive.

A. Most people got there before us as we were held up by the traffic.

B. The late arrivers all put the blame on the heavy traffic.

C. The traffic was so heavy that nearly everyone arrived late.

D. There was such a congestion on the roads that I thought we never would get there.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 13: When Susan invited us to dinner, she really showed off her culinary talents. She prepared a feast - a huge selection of dishes that were simply mouth-watering.

A. having to do with food and cooking

B. relating to medical knowledge

C. involving hygienic conditions and diseases

D. concerning nutrition and health

Question 14: The works of the English theoretical physicist and cosmologist Stephen Hawking helped pave the way for the framework of general relativity and theoretical prediction of black holes dynamics and mechanics.

A. terminate                B. lighten 

C. initiate                    D. prevent

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part needs correction.

Question 15: A professor of (A) economy and history at our university (B) developed a new theory of the relationship (C) between historical events and (D) financial crises.

Question 16: The Mediterranean, a large sea (A) surrounded by land, is a mile (B) depth (C) on the average and more than (D) 2000 miles long.

Question 17: If you record people (A) spoke a (B) disappearing language, you can (C) keep important information (D) about both the language and its speaker.

ĐÁP ÁN

1	2	3	4	5
B	D	D	A	C
6	7	8	9	10
B	A	C	B	C
11	12	13	14	15
D	A	A	C	A
16	17	18	19	20
B	A	D	B	C
21	22	23	24	25
B	B	C	B	C
26	27	28	29	30
B	C	D	C	A
31	32	33	34	35
B	D	C	C	C
36	37	38	39	40
B	D	D	C	D
41	42	43	44	45
D	C	A	D	A
46	47	48	49	50
C	D	D	A	B

---

Trên đây là một phần trích đoạn nội dung Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG năm 2021 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THPT Thái Hòa Lần 2. Để xem thêm nhiều tài liệu tham khảo hữu ích khác các em chọn chức năng xem online hoặc đăng nhập vào trang hoc247.net để tải tài liệu về máy tính.

Hy vọng tài liệu này sẽ giúp các em học sinh ôn tập tốt và đạt thành tích cao trong học tập.

Mời các em tham khảo tài liệu liên quan khác:

• Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG năm 2021 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THPT Chánh Nghĩa Lần 2
• Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG năm 2021 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THPT Bình An Lần 2

Chúc các em học tập tốt!