Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG năm 2021 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THPT Kim Bảng

BỘ 5 ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA MÔN TIẾNG ANH NĂM 2021

TRƯỜNG THPT KIM BẢNG

Read the following passage anh mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 1 to 7.

Under certain circumstances, the human body must cope with gases at greater-than-normal atmospheric pressure. For example, gas pressures increase rapidly during a drive made with scuba gear because the breathing equipment allows divers to stay underwater longer and dive deeper. The pressure exerted on the human body increases by 1 atmosphere for every 10 meters of depth on seater, so thay at 39 meters in seawater a diver is exposed to pressure of about 4 atmosphere. The pressure of the gases being breathed must equal the external pressure applied to the body, otherwise breathing is very difficult. Therefore all of the gases in the air breathed by a scuba diver at 40 meter are present at five times their usual pressure. Nitrogen, which composes 80 percent of the air we breathe, usually causes a balmy feeling of well-being at this pressure. At a depth of 5 atmosphere, nitrogen causes symptoms resembling alcohol intoxication, known as nitrogen narcosis. Nitrogen narcosis apparently results from a direct effect on the brain of the large amounts of nitrogen dissolved in the blood. Deep dives are less dangerous if helium is substituted for nitrogen, because under these pressures helium does not exert a similar narcotic effect.

As a scuba diver descends, the pressure of nitrogen on the lungs increases. Nitrogen then diffuses from the lungs to the blood, and from the blood to body tissues. The reverse occurs when the diver surfaces, the nitrogen pressure in the lungs falls and the nitrogen diffuses from the tissues into the blood, and from the blood into the lungs. If the return to the surface is too rapid, nitrogen in the tissues and blood cannot diffuse out rapidly enough and nitrogen bubbles are formed. They can cause severe pains, particularly around the joints.

Another complication may result if the breath is held during ascent. During ascent from a depth of 10 meters, the volume of air in the lungs will double because the air pressure at the surface is only half of what it was at 10 meters. This change in volume may cause the lungs to distend ang even rupture. This the rise of the exhaled air bubbles, and must exhale during ascent.

Question 1: The word “exert” in bold on paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ________.

            A. permit         B. cause           C. need           D. change

Question 2: What does the passage mainly discuss?

            A. The equipment divers use

            B. How to prepare for a deep dive

            C. The symptoms of nitrogen bubbles in the bloodstream

            D. The effect of pressure on gases in the human body.

Question 3: The word “they” in bold on paragraph 2 refers to ________.

            A. joints          B. pains           C. tissues         D. bubbles

Question 4: What happens to nitrogen in body tissues if a diver ascends too quickly?

            A. It is reabsorbed by the lungs          B. It goes directly to the brain

            C. It forms bubbles     D. It has a narcotic effect

Question 5: It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following presents the greatest danger to a diver?

            A. Nitrogen diffusion B. An air embolism     C. Nitrogen bubbles    D. Pressurized helium

Question 6: The word “rupture” in bold in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ________.

            A. shrink         B. burst           C. hurt D. stop

Question 7: What should a diver do when ascending?

            A. Breathe helium       B. Relax completely    C. Breathe faster         D. Rise slowly

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 8: A. government    B. interview    C. reference    D. understand

Question 9: A. equipment      B. scholarship  C. develop      D. discourage

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 10: An employer must be very careful in dealing with subordinates and documenting their files in order to avoid complaints.

            A. bosses         B. coordinators           C. outside help            D. employees

Question 11: It’s incomprehensible to a non-addict that an illicit drug can control the life of a young abuser.

            A. readable      B. favorable    C. imperative  D. understandable

Mark letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 12: I should have finished my work last night but I was exhausted.

            A. Last night I was exhausted but I tried to finish my work.

            B. My work was finished last night but I was exhausted.

            C. I did finished my work last night thought I was exhausted.

            D. I was exhausted so I didn’t finish my work yesterday as planned.

Question 13: The boss was annoyed that his secretary came to work late.

            A. The secretary came to work late, which annoyed the boss.

            B. The secretary came to work late causing annoyed.

            C. That the secretary came to work late annoys the boss.

            D. The boss disapproved of his secretary’s coming to work late.

Question 14: “Why don’t you choose German as your optional subject?” said Jane.

            A. Jane admitted that I chose German as my optional subject.

            B. Jane suggested that I choose German as my optional subject.

            C. Jane reminded me of choosing German as my optional subject.

            D. Jane suggested choosing German as my optional subject.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered from 15 to 19.

Fashions go round and round

Fashions have always changed with time. No (15) ________ Roman girls worried about having the latest hairstyle and boys in Ancient Egypt wanted to have sandals that were cool and not the sensible ones their mothers preferred.

Look (16) ________over recent times, there seem to be two main differences in the way fashions have changed compared to earlier time. Firstly, (17) ________ more people have a choice of clothes available to them. There are few places in the world where the trainers, the caps or the T-shirts of teenagers do not change from one year to the next. Secondly, styles are (18) ________within a much shorter time than they used to be. For instance, in the 1960s, (19) ________ had the same low waists and narrow skirts as forty years before.

In the early years of the 21^st century, the shops are full of long skirts and colored scarves like the ones in fashion only thirty years before. Soon, we will find that the really fashionable people look no different from the rest of us, because it is only ten years since their clothes were in fashion before!

Question 15. A. way  B. doubt          C. chance        D. matter

Question 16. A. about            B. round          C. behind        D. back

Question 17. A. far    B. some           C. even            D. much

Question 18. A. exchanged    B. returned      C. repeated     D. accepted

Question 19. A. jackets          B. blouses        C. trousers       D. dresses

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 20. A smile can be observed, described, and reliably identify, it can also be elicited and manipulated under experimental conditions.

            A. identify      B. experimental           C. can also      D. A smile

Question 21. A food additive is any chemical that food manufacturers intentional add to their products.

            A. products     B. intentional  C. any chemical          D. additive

Question 22. A number of the American Indian languages spoken at the time of the European arrival in the New World in the late fifteen century have become extinct.

            A. spoken        B. fifteen         C. at the time  D. A number of

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet ti indicate the correct answer to each of the question from 23 to 30

There are a number of natural disasters that can strike across the globe. Two that are frequently linked to one another are earthquakes and tsunamis. Both of them can cause a great amount of devastation when they hit. However, tsunamis are the direct result of earthquakes and cannot happen without them.

The Earth has three main parts. They are the crust, the mantle, and the core. The crust is the outer layer of the Earth. It is not a single piece of land. Instead, it is comprised of a number of plates. There are a few enormous plates and many smaller ones. These plates essentially rest upon the mantle, which is fluid. As a result, the plates are in constant - yet slow - motion. The plates may move away from or toward other plates. In some cases, they collide violently with the plates adjoining them. The movement of the plates causes tension in the rock. Over a long time, this tension may build up. When it is released, an earthquake happens.

Tens of thousands of earthquakes happen every year. The vast majority are so small that only scientific instruments can perceive them. Others are powerful enough that people can feel them, yet they cause little harm or damage. More powerful earthquakes, however, can cause buildings, bridges, and other structures to collapse. They may additionally injure and kill thousands of people and might even cause the land to change its appearance.

Since most of the Earth’s surface is water, numerous earthquakes happen beneath the planet’s oceans. Underwater earthquakes can cause the seafloor to move. This results in the displacement of water in the ocean . When this occurs , a tsunami may form. This is a wave that forms on the surface and moves in all directions from the place where the earthquake happened. A tsunami moves extremely quickly and can travel thousands of kilometres. As it approaches land, the water near the coast gets sucked out to sea. This causes the tsunami to increase in height. Minutes later, the tsunami arrives. A large tsunami - one more than ten meters in height- can travel far inland. As it does that, it can flood the land, destroy human settlements, and kill large numbers of people.

Question 23: Which of the following statements does paragraph 1 support?

            A. A tsunami happens in tandem with an earthquake.

            B. The most severe type of nature disaster is an earthquake.

            C. Earthquakes cause more destruction than tsunamis.

            D. Earthquakes frequently take place after tsunamis.

Question 24. The word “it” in bold in paragraph 2 refers to ________.

            A. The core     B. The crust    C. The earth    D. The mantle

Question 25: What is the passage mainly about?

            A. When earthquakes are the most likely to happen

            B. What kind of damage natural disasters can cause

            C. How earthquakes and tsunami occur

            D. Why tsunamis are deadlier than earthquakes

Question 26: The word “adjoining” in bold in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ________.

            A. Residing     B. Approaching           C. Bordering   D. Appearing

Question 27: The word “perceive” in bold in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ________.

            A. Detect        B. Prevent       C. Comprehend          D. Locate

Question 28: Which of the following is true regarding the ?

            A. It is the smallest of the Earth’s three layers

            B. It is thicker on land than it is under the water crust

            C. There are many separate pieces that make it up

            D. The mantle beneath it keeps it from moving too much

Question 29: Based on the passage, what is probably true about tsunamis?

            A. They kill more people each year than earthquakes

            B. They are able to move as fast as the speed of the sound

            C. They can damage ships sailing on the ocean

            D. They can be deadly to people standing near the shore

Question 30: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 3 about earthquakes?

            A. How severe the majority of them are         B. What kind of damage they can cause

            C. How often powerful ones take place          D. How many people they typically kill.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 31. A. nowadays     B. dykes          C. ruins           D. pesticides

Question 32: A. opposite       B. economic    C. appropriate D. technology

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 33: Is it all right if I use your bike?

            A. Please accept it with my best wishes.        B. Go straight ahead

            C. Sure, go ahead       D. Oh, sorry

Question 34: What do you think about the election?

            A. I must be off. Thank you   B. The Democratic Party had to win

            C. Really? The Republican Party won           D. The Democratic should have won

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 35: The leader went so fast that no one could keep up with him.

            A. If only the leader had gone faster.

            B. What a fast leader!

            C. If the leader hadn’t gone so fast, we could have kept up with him.

            D. I wish the leader could not have kept up with us.

Question 36. Mary lost the ticket. She didn’t go to the concert.

            A. If Mary had lost the ticket, she would have gone to the concert.

            B. Had Mary not lost the ticket, she would have gone to the concert.

            C. Hadn’t Mary lost the ticket, she would have gone to the concert.

            D. If Mary hadn’t lost the ticket, she would go to the concert.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 37: A magician is an entertainer who performs a series of deceptive tricks based on the principles of physics, optics, and psychology.

            A. skillful        B. incomprehensible    C. misleading  D. obvious

Question 38: The adhesive qualities of this new substance far surpass those of all other of its type.

            A. disintegrating         B. dissolving   C. damaging   D. sticky

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 39: Andrea has a ________ rug on the floor in her bedroom.

            A. sheepskin lovely long white          B. long lovely white sheepskin

            C. lovely long sheepskin white          D. lovely long white sheepskin

Question 40: I haven’t ________ decided where to go on holiday

            A. already       B. yet  C. still D. just

Question 41: Computers that once took up entire rooms are now ________ to put on desktops and into wristwatches.

            A. small enough          B. smaller than            C. so small      D. as small as

Question 42: The average, ________watches television for about 15 hours a week.

            A. spectator     B. observer      C. audience     D. viewer

Question 43. Although Brenda came last, everyone agreed she had ________ her best.

            A. had B. got  C. done           D. made

Question 44. We didn’t ________ to the station in time to catch the train

            A. reach           B. get  C. make           D. arrive

Question 45. Bill took not only a French class, ________ a Japanese class

            A. but too        B. too  C. but also       D. and

Question 46: Sharon did not attend the meeting because she was ________ the weather

            A. under          B. in    C. due to         D. on

Question 47: One prefers to shop at Harrods, ________?

            A. isn’t it         B. doesn’t one C. don’t you    D. isn’t one

Question 48: How many, ________ the game is still unknown.

            A. fans attended         B. fans attending         C. did fan attend         D. has attended

Question 49: The second bus ________ didn’t stop either.

            A. that was full            B. what was full          C. which was full        D. that was full

Question 50: ________ here for hours and I feel tired.

            A. I have stood           B. I’m standing           C. been standing         D. I had been standing

ĐÁP ÁN

1. B	2. D	3. B	4. B	5. A	6. D	7. D	8. B	9. C	10. D
11. D	12. A	13. A	14. C	15. C	16. C	17. B	18. B	19. D	20. B
21. B	22. B	23. C	24. C	25. C	26. B	27. B	28. C	29. B	30. A
31. D	32. C	33. A	34. C	35. B	36. D	37. C	38. C	39. D	40. A
41. B	42. D	43. D	44. D	45. C	46. A	47. A	48. C	49. B	50. C

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 1: George and Frankie are talking about their hobbies.

George: “In my opinion films are exciting”. Frankie: “______”

            A. Your opinion is exactly      B. Yes, you can do it

            C. What are opinion!              D. There’s no doubt about it

Question 2: Thomas and Peter are meeting after a long time

Thomas:”How have you been recently?” Peter:”______”

            A. I am going on holiday next week. B. By car, usually

            C. I am working here.             D. Pretty busy, I think

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

The elements other than hydrogen and helium exist in such small quantities that it is accurate to say that the universe is somewhat more than 25 percent helium by weight and somewhat less than 75 percent hydrogen.

Astronomers have measured the abundance of helium throughout our galaxy and in other galaxies as well. Helium has been found in old stars, in relatively young ones, in interstellar gas, and in the distant objects known as quasars. Helium nuclei have also been found to be constituents of cosmic rays that fall on the earth (cosmic rays are not really a form of radiation; they consist of rapidly moving particles of numerous different kinds). It doesn’t seem to make very much difference where the helium is found. Its relative abundance never seems to vary much. In some places, there may be slightly more of it; in others, slightly less, but the ratio of helium to hydrogen nuclei always remains about the same.
Helium is created in stars. In fact, nuclear reactions that convert hydrogen to helium are responsible for most of the energy that stars produce. However, the amount of helium that could have been produced in this manner can be calculated, and it turns out to be no more than a few percent. The universe has not existed long enough for this figure to be significant greater. Consequently, if the universe is somewhat more than 25 percent helium now, then it must have been about 25 percent helium at a time near the beginning.

However, when the universe was less than one minute old, no helium could have existed. Calculations indicate that before this time temperature were too high and particles of matter were moving around much too rapidly. It was only after the one-minute point that helium could exist. By this time, the universe had cooled so sufficiently that neutrons and protons could stick together. But the nuclear reactions that led to the formations of helium went on for only relatively short time. By the time the universe was a few minutes old, helium production had effectively ceased.

Question 3: What does the passage mainly explain?

            A. How stars produce energy

            B. Why hydrogen is abundant

            C. When most of the helium in the universe was formed

            D. The difference between helium and hydrogen

Question 4: According to the passage, helium is ________

            A. difficult to detect  

            B. the second-most abundant element in the universe

            C. the most prevalent element in quasars

            D. the oldest element in the universe

Question 5: The word "constituents" is closest in meaning to _____

            A. components            B. causes         C. targets        D. relatives

Question 6: Why does the author mention "cosmic rays"?

            A. To explain the abundance of hydrogen in the universe

            B. As an example of an unsolved astronomical puzzle

            C. As part of a list of things containing helium

            D. To explain how the universe began

Question 7: The word "they" refers to _____

            A. radiation     B. cosmic rays C. particles      D. constituents

Question 8: The word "vary" is closest in meaning to

            A. stretch        B. include        C. mean           D. change

Question 9: The creation of helium within stars ______

            A. produces energy

            B. cannot be measured

            C. causes helium to be much more abundant in old stars than in young stars

            D. produces hydrogen as a by-product

Question 10: Most of the helium in the universe was formed ______

            A. during the first minute of the universe's existence

            B. in interstellar space

            C. in a very short time

            D. before most of the hydrogen

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions.

Question 11:	A. accurate	B. date	C. tale	D. shape
Question 12:	A. sounds	B. obstacles	C. situations	D. secrets

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on you answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main strees in each of the following questions.

Question 13:	A. succeed	B. anxious	C. well-done	D. reduce
Question 14:	A. studious	B. century	C. similar	D. semester

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on you answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

A little more than a hundred years ago, a number of European scholars began to record stories being told in peasant cottages and compile them into the first great collection of European folk tales. Written evidence exists to prove that the folk tales they recorded existed long before then thought. Collections of sermons from the 12^th to the 15^th century show that medieval preachers knew of some of the same stories as those recorded by the 19^th century folklorists.
            The collections of folk tales made in the late 19^th and early 20^th centuries provide a rare opportunity to make contact with the illiterate masses who have disappeared into the pass without leaving a trace. To reject folk tales as historical evidence because they cannot be dated and situation with precision centuries. But to attempt to penetrate that world is to face a daunting set of obstacles, the greatest of which is the impossibility of listening in on the story tellers. No matter how accurate they may be the versions of the tales recorded in writing cannot convey the effects that the storytellers must have used to bring the stories to life: the dramatic pauses, the sly glances, the use of gestures to set scenes, and the use of sounds punctuate action. All of those devices shaped the meaning of the tales, and all of them elude the historian. He cannot be sure that the limp and lifeless text he holds between the covers of a book provides an accurate account of the performance that took place in earlier times.

Question 15: The author believes that written versions of folk tales_________

            A. should be rejected as historical evidence.

            B. show how illiterate the masses were before the 19^th century.

            C. changed dramatically from the 19^th to the 20^th century.

            D. are valid historical documents

Question 16: What problems of folk tale collections does the author discuss?

            A. They are used as historical evidence

            B. There is no way to tell which version of s story is the original system.

            C. They don’t preserve the original performance style of the storytellers.

            D. They contain historical inaccuracies.

Question 17: The author’s main purpose in the passage is to ________.

            A. explain why historians must study the illiterate masses of the past.

            B. criticize historians who use folk tales as historical documents.

            C. argue that folk tales are authentic historical documents.

            D. convince readers that modern versions of folk tales are probably not the same as the originals.

Question 18: According to the passage, peasant folklore was recorded by ________.

            A. historians in the 12^th to 15^th centuries        B. 19^th century peasants.

            C. 19^th century preachers.       D. 19^th century folklorists.

ĐÁP ÁN

1-D	2-D	3-C	4-B	5-A	6-C	7-B	8-D	9-A	10-C
11-A	12-D	13-B	14-D	15-A	16-C	17-B	18-D	19-B	20-C
21-D	22-C	23-D	24-A	25-A	26-B	27-D	28-B	29-C	30-C
31-B	32-C	33-B	34-C	35-D	36-B	37-D	38-D	39-C	40-A
41-B	42-A	43-C	44-B	45-A	46-D	47-A	48-B	49-A	50-B

Mark a letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 1: James :” It was very kind of you to give me a lift home”. Pete: “___”

            A. As a matter of fact, you’re pretty nice

            B. Oh, don’t do that. I was coming past your house any way.

            C. I’m not pleased.

            D. Oh, don’t mention it. I was coming past your house any way.

Question 2: Billy and Bobby are in a coffee shop. Billy is asking Bobby for his opinion about the coffee there. Billy: “How’s the coffee here?” Bobby. “____________”

            A. No, I don’t think so                        B. It’s a little bitter, to tell the truth

            C. It’s a little better now that I’ve got a car    D. As a matter of fact, I’m not interested

Question 3: Today many serious childhood diseases ____ by early immunization.

            A. prevent       B. can prevent             C. can be prevented    D. are preventing

Question 4: _____ I’ve cleaned it and polish it, it still doesn’t look now.

            A. Because      B. In spite of   C. While         D. Although

Question 5: They Beauty Contest is ____ start at 8:30 am our time tomorrow.

            A. due to         B. bound to     C. about to      D. on the point

Question 6: The picture, ____ was beautiful.

            A. she was looking                  B. at it she was looking

            C. at which she was looking  D. at that she was looking

Question 7: In this job, experience accounts for more than paper_____

            A. background B. certificates  C. quality        D. qualifications

Question 8: Nadine “ I’ve been offered $550 for my stereo. Should I take it or wait a better one?”Kitty: “Take the $550____”.

            A. Actions speak louder than words   B. Kill two birds with one stone 

            C. The early bird catches the worm    D. bird in the hand is worth two in the bush

Question 9: Jenny: “What did your grammar book ____ I could go over all the things we have studied this year.Peter: “I did badly on the last test. She ____ studied for it”.

            A. said why I hadn’t   B. said why hadn’t I    C. asked why I hadn’t D. asked why hadn’t I

Question 10: ____ summer I spent in _____ UK was one of ___ best in my life.

            A. At/a/the      B. The/the/a     C. The/-/the     D. The/the/the

Question 11: Whenever a problem ___, we try to discuss frankly and find the solutions as soon as possible.

            A. comes by    B. come off     C. comes up    D. comes in

Question 12: I bought this grammar book ____ I could go over all the things we have studied this year.

            A. that B. with a view to         C. so that        D. in order to

Question 13: If people paid a little more attention to the environment, the Earth ___ greener.

            A. would be    B. will be        C. would have been    D. had been

Question 14: Lessons from the ___ developed countries are worth learning to save our time.

            A. economically          B. economic    C. economize  D. economical

Mark a letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence the is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 15: We had no sooner got to know our neighbors than they moved away.

            A. Soon after we got to know our neighbors, we stopped having contact with them.

            B. If our new neighbors had stayed longer, we would have got to know them better.

            C. Once we had got used to our new neighbors, they moved somewhere else.

            D. Hardly had we become acquainted with our new neighbors when they went somewhere else to live.

Question 16: There were so many people on the train that Mary couldn’t get a seat.

            A. The train was too crowded for Mary no to get a seat

            B. The train was so crowded that there was nowhere for Mary to sit 

            C. So crowded the train was that Mary couldn’t get a seat 

            D. The crowded train did not prevent Mary from getting a seat

Question 17: “I’ll speak calmly. I really will!”, he said.

            A. He promised to speak calmly         B. He remind me to speak calmly 

            C. He refused to speak calmly            D. He offered to speak calmly

Mark a letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair sentences in the following questions.

Question 18: Jack was overconfident. Therefore, he ruined our plan completely.

            A. That was Jack’s overconfidence ruined our plan completely

            B. Jack was overconfident, which ruined our plan completely

            C. It was because Jack’s overconfidence that ruined our plan completely

            D. It was Jack’s overconfidence ruined our plan completely

Question 19: Marie Curie was a famous mathematician and physicist. She also won the Nobel Prize for chemistry.

            A. Winning the Nobel Prize for chemistry, Marie Curie became a famous mathematician and physicist.

            B. Marie Curie was a famous mathematician rather than physicist although she won the Nobel Prize for chemistry

            C. Marie Curie, a famous mathematician and physicist, also won the Nobel Prize for chemistry

            D. Marie Curie won the Nobel Prize for chemistry so she was a famous mathematician and physicist.

ĐÁP ÁN

1-D	2-D	3-C	4-D	5-B	6-C	7-A	8-D	9-C	10-D
11-D	12-D	13-B	14-A	15-D	16-B	17-A	18-B	19-C	20-C
21-B	22-C	23-B	24-B	25-B	26-A	27-D	28-B	29-B	30-A
31-D	32-C	33-C	34-B	35-A	36-C	37-A	38-D	39-A	40-C
41-C	42-B	43-A	44-B	45-A	46-A	47-A	48-A	49-D	50-D

Mark the letter A, B, C. or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to each of the following sentences

Question 1: Mary: “Would you mind if I use your computer for an hour?” Tony:"_____”

            A. Not at all. I've finished my job      B. Yes, you can use it

            C. Of course not. I still need it now   D. Yes. It’s all right.

Question 2: Tom: "Do you think it's going to rain?“ ~ Trump: “_______”

            A. I don't hope so        B. I don't hope so        C. I hope not   D. I think not

Mark the letter A, B. C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following

Question 3: An international medical conference initiated by Davison resulted in the birth of the League of Red Cross Societies in 1991.

            A. treated        B. dedicated   C. helped        D. started

Question 4: He drove so fast that I really felt my life was in danger.

            A. at the target B. in accident  C. at stake       D. in comfort 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following sentences

Question 5: My father is in_______ of 30 engineers and 80 workers.

            A. pressure      B. leadership   C. impression  D. charge

Question 6: ________taken my parents’ advice, I wouldn't be a teacher now.

            A. Had I          B. If I hadn’t   C. If I would have       D. Could I have

Question 7: He is decorating his house ___________selling it.

            A. in order to  B. with a view to         C. in order that           D. so that

Question 8: On_________ he had won the first prize in the competition, he cried out with joy.

            A. being told   B. having cold C. telling         D. saying

Question 9: By the end of this March he ______here for 20 years. 

            A. has been living                   B. will live 

            C. will have been living          D. will be living

Question 10: The government is aiming___________ 50% reduction______ unemployment

            A. at /of           B. in/ to           C. on/ at          D. at /in

Question 11: I am not going to study French and__________

            A. so is he       B. neither is he            C.        he isn’t too      D. either isn’t he

Question 12: Many young people in rural areas don`t want to spend their lives on the farm like______ parents.

            A. weather-beaten       B. up-to-date   C. long-term    D. wide-range

Question 13: I believe nobody survived the plane crash_________

            A. did I           B. didn’t they  C. did they      D. did he

Question 14: ________they arrived __________they were told to go back.

            A. No sooner/when     B. Scarcely had/when C. Scarcely/when        D. Hardly/when

Question 15: Yuri Gagarin was the first person __________into space

            A. has traveled            B. traveling     C. traveled      D. to travel

Question 16: To preserve that _________, it was necessary to preserve the people that had created it.

            A. civilize        B. civilization  C. civility        D. civil

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions

Question 17:	A. kite	B. bite	C. favorite	D. quite
Question 18:	A. coached	B. needed	C. wanted	D. beloved

ĐÁP ÁN

1-A	2-B	3-D	4-B	5-D	6-A	7-B	8-A	9-C	10-D
11-B	12-A	13-C	14-B	15-D	16-B	17-C	18-A	19-C	20-D
21-A	22-B	23-D	24-A	25-D	26-D	27-C	28-A	29-C	30-D
31-A	32-A	33-C	34-D	35-B	36-B	37-D	38-D	39-C	40-C
41-B	42-C	43-C	44-A	45-C	46-B	47-C	48-B	49-B	50-D

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best first each of the numbered blank from 1 to 5

 American folk music originated with (1) _____ people at a time when the rural population was isolated and music was not (2)______spread by radio, records, or music video. It was (3)_____by oral traditional and is noted for its energy ,humor, and emotional impact. The major source of aerly American folk songs was music from the Bristish Isles , but songs from Africa as songs of the American Indians have significant part in its heritage. Later settler from other countries also contributed songs. In the nineteenth century, composer Steven Foster wrote some of the most enduringly popular of all American songs ,(4)______soon became part of the folk tradition. Beginning in the 1930s , Woody Guthrie gained great popularity by adapting melodies and lyrics and supplying new ones as well. In the 1950s and 1960s , singer – composers such as Peter Seeger , Bob Dylan , Joan Baez continued this tradition by „urban’ folk music. Many of these songs deal (5)_____important social issue, such as racial intergration and the war in Vietnam.

Question 1:	A. typical	B. ordinary	C. common	D. popular
Question 2:	A. yet	B. still	C. until	D. even
Question 3:	A. transferred	B. transited	C. transmitted	D. transformed
Question 4:	A. who	B. which	C. that	D. this
Question 5:	A. with	B. in	C. by	D. at

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSET in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following question.

Question 6: In order to better understand English, the students incorporated gramar, vocabulary, and speaking in their stidies.

            A. Combined  B. granted       C. scrutinized  D. skipped

Question 7: Some of the rude drivers, on the road today are the ones who will not allow other cars to merge into traffic.

            A. blend          B. concentrate C. secede        D. desensitize

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE  in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following question.

Question 8: Slavery was abolished  in the US in the 19^th century.

            A. eradicated  B. instituded   C. eliminate     D. required

Question 9: The distinction between schooling and education implied by this remark is important.

            A. odd B. implicit       C. obscure       D. explicit

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closet in meaning to each of the following question.

Question 10: “I would like you not to play computer games any more, Amber” said her mother.

            A. Amber’s mother would rather she doesn’t play computer games any more.

            B. Amber’s mother would rather her not to play computer games any more

            C. Amber’s mother would rather she didn’t play computer games any more.

            D. Amber’s mother would rather she wouldn’t play computer games any more.

Question 11: It is a pity that I can’t speak English as native speaker.

            A. I wish I could speak English as a native speaker

            B. I wish I couldn’t  speak English as a native speaker

            C. I wish I can speak English as a native speaker

            D. I wish I have spoken  English as a native speaker

Question 12: The music was so loud that we had to shout to each other.

            A. We didn’t say loud enough for us to hear each other

            B. The music was too  loud that we had to shout to each other.

            C. We didn’t say loud enough to hear each other

            D. Because of  loud music,we had to shout to each other.

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in the pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 13:	A. appreciate	B. efficient	C. suspicious	D. apprentice
Question 14:	A. assure	B. press	C. blessing	D. classic

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 15:	A. punishment	B. behavior	C. influence	D. regional
Question 16:	A. acquaintance	B. symbolize	C. etiquette	D. socialize

ĐÁP ÁN

1-B	2-A	3-C	4-B	5-A	6-A	7-A	8-B	9-D	10-C
11-A	12-D	13-D	14-A	15-B	16-A	17-A	18-D	19-C	20-C
21-C	22-D	23-D	24-D	25-A	26-D	27-B	28-A	29-B	30-A
31-A	32-C	33-B	34-B	35-A	36-B	37-D	38-B	39-A	40-B
41-B	42-D	43-A	44-B	45-C	46-C	47-B	48A-	49-C	50-A

Trên đây là một phần trích đoạn nội dung Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG năm 2021 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THPT Kim Bảng. Để xem thêm nhiều tài liệu tham khảo hữu ích khác các em chọn chức năng xem online hoặc đăng nhập vào trang hoc247.net để tải tài liệu về máy tính.

Hy vọng tài liệu này sẽ giúp các em học sinh ôn tập tốt và đạt thành tích cao trong học tập.

Mời các em tham khảo tài liệu liên quan khác:

• Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG năm 2021 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THPT Bình Lục
• Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG năm 2021 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THPT Phủ Lý

Chúc các em học tập tốt!