Mời các em tham khảo nội dung tài liệu chi tiết sau đây: Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG năm 2021-2022 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THPT Phan Đình Phùng. Tài liệu này bao gồm 5 đề thi do HOC247 sưu tầm và biên soạn kèm theo đáp án chi tiết. Hi vọng đây sẽ là một tài liệu tham khảo bổ ích giúp các em hoàn thành tốt kì thi THPT Quốc gia quan trọng sắp đến!
TRƯỜNG THPT PHAN ĐÌNH PHÙNG |
ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM HỌC 2021-2022 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH (Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút) |
1. Đề số 1
Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part
Question 1: He was sacked from his job after the manager discovered that he had stolen some money from his colleagues
A. dismissed B. dropped C. ejected D. evicted
Question 2: Your failure is the consequence of not studying hard enough for the test
A. cause B. motive C. result D. status
Question 3: The detective was asked to probe into the mysterious disappearance of the painting
A. investigate B. procure C. recover D. relinquish
Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions
Question 4: Anne was not ___ to think that the test was too difficult
A. who B. the one who C. the only one D. among the people
Question 5: Over 20 years ___ but I never forgot the time we first met each other
A. have gone down B. have gone up
C. has gone by D. has gone out
Question 6: “Would you like a Coke?” “_____”
A. Yes, I’d like B. Yes, please C. Yes, I do D. Yes, I like
Question 7: The surgeon tried to save the man but unluckily the ___ was not successful
A. salvation B. operation C. generation D. solution
Question 8: The teacher at this school ____ with flu one after the other
A. went down B. went off C. went out D. went under
Question 9: ___ are unpleasant, but it will be nice when we get in to the new house
A. Movements B. Removals C. Removements D. Moves
Question 10: “Would you like to meet Mrs. Bruce?” “Yes, ____”
A. I can make an appointment with her
B. I’d love to
C. I find it very interesting
D. I don’t know where she living
Question 11: Please accept this cheque as a ____ of the service
A. recognisement B. recognizing
C. recognition D. reorganization
Question 12: A: ”Do you mind if I schedule the meeting for 11 o’clock”?
B: “Well, actually, I ____ earlier”
A. will prefer it
B. would prefer it to be
C. am preferring it to be
D. should prefer it will be
Question 13: I have English classes ___ day --- Mondays, Wednesdays and Fridays
A. each other B. this and the other C. all other D. every other
Question 14: Please cut my hair ____ the style in this magazine
A. the same long as B. the same long like
C. the same length like D. the same length as
Question 15: The child kept the present that she ___
A. has been given B. had been given C. had given D. has given
Question 16: The house is too dark. You’d better need ___ a bright color
A. to be painted B. painting it
C. to have it painted D. to have it paint
Question 17: The boss would rather Ann ____ listen to music at work
A. doesn’t B. didn’t C. hadn’t D. mustn’t
Question 18: It’s time the authorities ___ people ____ safety helmets
A. have/ wear B. had/ wear C. had/ to wear D. have/ worn
Question 19: When I enquired about the time of trains, I was given a _____
A. schedule B. timetable C. itinerary D. programme
Question 20: My music teacher suggested ___ for an hour before breakfast
A. practising B. to practise C. having practised D. to practising
Question 21: The new manager explained to the staff that she hoped to ___ new procedures to save time and money
A. manufacture B. establish C. control D. restore
Question 22: It’s an awful ___ your wife couldn’t come. I was looking forward to meeting her
A. harm B. sorrow C. shame D. shock
Question 23: Nobody says a word about the incident, ___?
A. does he B. doesn’t he C. do they D. don’t they
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 24-33
Not so long ago almost any students who successfully completed a university degree or diploma course could find a good career quite easily. Companies toured the academic institutions, competing with each other to recruit graduates. However, those days are gone, even in Hong Kong, and nowadays graduates often face strong competition in the search for jobs.
Most careers organization highlight three stages for graduates to follow in the process of securing a suitable career: recognizing abilities, matching these to available vacancies and presenting them well to prospective employers
Job seekers have to make a careful assessment of their own abilities. One area of assessment should be of their academic qualifications, which would include special skills within their subject area. Graduates should also consider their own personal values and attitudes, or the relative importance to themselves of such matters as money, security, leadership and caring or others. An honest assessment of personal interests and abilities such as creative or scientific skills acquired from work experience should also be give careful thought
The second stage is to study the opportunities available for employment and to think about how the general employment situation is likely to develop in the future. To do this, graduates can study job vacancies and information in newspapers or the can visit a career office, write to possible employers for information or contact friends or relatives who may already be involved in a particular profession. After studying all various options, they should be in a position to make informed comparisons between various careers
Good personal presentation is essential in the search for a good career. Job application forms and letters should, of course, be filled in carefully and correctly, without grammar or spelling errors. Where additional information is asked for, job seekers should describe their abilities and work experience in more depth, with example if possible. They should try to balance their own abilities with the employer’s needs, explain why they are interested in a career with the particular company and try to show that they already know something about the company and its activities
When graduates are asked to attend for the interview, they should prepare properly by finding out all they can about the prospective employer. Dressing suitably and arriving for the interview on time are also obviously important. Interviewees should try to give positive and helpful answers and should not be afraid to ask questions about anything they are unsure about. This is much better than pretending to understand a question and giving an unsuitable answer
There will always be good career opportunities for people with ability, skills, and determination; the secret to securing a good job is to be one of them
Question 24: In paragraph 1, “those days are gone, even in Hong Kong”. Suggests that ____
A. in the past, finding a good career was easier in Hong Kong than elsewhere
B. nowadays, everyone in Hong Kong has an equal chance of finding a good job
C. it used to be harder to find a good job in Hong Kong than in other countries
D. even in Hong Kong companies tour the universities trying to recruit graduates
Question 25: The word “prospective” in paragraph 2 is closed in meaning to ____
A. generous B. reasonable C. future D. ambitious
Question 26: According to paragraph 3, job seekers should:
A. aim to give a balanced account of what the employer needs
B. divide the time equally between listening to the interviewer and speaking
C. discuss their own abilities in relation to what the employer is looking for
D. attempt to show the employer is looking for
Question 27: According to paragraph 3, graduates should ____
A. only consider careers which are suited to them as people
B. include information about personal attitudes and values in their job application
C. consider how lucky they are to be able to find careers that provide such things
D. consider the values of their parents and families as well their own wishes
Question 28: The advice given in the first sentences of paragraph 4 is to___
A. find out what jobs are available and the opportunities for future promotion
B. examine the careers available and how these will be affected in the future
C. look at the information on, and probably future location of, various careers
D. study the opportunities and the kinds of training that will be available
Question 29: According to paragraph 4, graduates should ____
A. find a good position and then compare it with other careers
B. ask friends or relatives to secure them a good job
C. get information about a number of careers before making comparisons
D. find out as much as possible and inform employers of the complaints they want
Question 30: Which of the following does “this” in paragraph 6 refers to?
A. Not being afraid to be unsure
B. Giving positive and helpful answers to the questions
C. Being prepared to ask questions about things they don’t understand
D. Being unsure about the questions
Question 31: In paragraph 6, the writer seems to suggest that ____
A. interviewees should ask question if they can’t think of an answer
B. pretending to understand a question is better than giving a suitable answer
C. it is better for interviewees to be honest than to pretend to understand
D. it is not a good idea for interviewees to be completely honest in their answers
Question 32: Which of the following sentences is closest in meaning to the final paragraph?
A. Graduates should develop at least one of these areas to find a suitable career
B. Determined, skilled and able people can easily find a good career
C. The secret to a good career is to possess skills, determination or ability
D. People with the right qualities should always be able to find a good career
Question 33: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?
A. Until recently it was quite ways for graduates to get a good job in Hong Kong
B. Job seekers should consider as many possible of the factors involved
C. Businesses used to visit the universities in Hong Kong to recruit graduates
D. Graduates sometimes have to take part in competitions to secure a good career
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 34 to 43
Social parasitism involves one species relying on another to raise its young. Among vertebrates, the best known social parasites are such birds as cuckoos and cowbirds; the female lays egg in a nest belonging to another species and leaves it for the host to rear
The dulotic species of ants, however, are the supreme social parasites. Consider, for example, the unusual behavior of ants belonging to the genus Polyergus. All species of this ant have lost the ability to care for themselves. The workers do not forage for food, feed their brood or queen, or even clean their own nest. To compensate for these deficits, Polyergus has become specialized at obtaining workers from the related genus Formica to do these chores
In a raid, several thousand Polyergus workers will travel up to 500 feet in search of a Formica nest, penetrate it, drive off the queen and her workers, capture the pupal brood, and transport it back to their nest. The captured brood is then reared by the resident Formica workers until the developing pupae emerge to add to the Formica population, which maintains the mixed-species nest. The Formica workers forage for food and give it to colony members of both species. They also remove wastes and excavate new chambers as the population increases
The true extent of the Polyergus and dependence on the Formica becomes apparent when the worker population grows too large for existing nest. Formica scouts locate a new nesting site, return to the mixed-species colony, and recruit additional Formica nest mates. During a period that may last seven days, the Formica workers carry to the new nest all the Polyergus eggs, larvae, and pupae, every Polyergus adult, and even the Polyergus queen
Of the approximately 8000 species of ants in the world, all 5 species of Polyergus and some 200 species in other genera have evolved some degree of parasitic relationship with other ants
Question 34: Which of the following statements best represents the main idea of the passage?
A. Ants belonging to the genus Formica are incapable of performing certain tasks
B. The genus Polyergus is quite similar to the genus Formica
C. Ants belonging to the genus Polyergus have an unusual relationship with ants belonging to the genus Formica
D. Polyergus ants frequently leave their nests to build new colonies
Question 35: The word “raise” is closest in meaning to _____
A. rear B. lift C. collect D. increase
Question 36: The author mentions cuckoos and cowbirds because they _____
A. share their nests with each other
B. are closely related species
C. raise the young of their birds
D. are social parasites
Question 37: The word “it” refers to ______
A. species B. nest C. egg D. female
Question 38: What does the author mean by stating that “The dulotic species of ants, however, are the supreme social parasites”
A. The Polyergus are more highly developed than the Formica
B. The Formica have developed specialized roles
C. The Polyergus are heavily dependent on the Formica
D. The Formica do not reproduce rapidly enough to care for themselves
Question 39: Which of the following is a task that an ant of the genus Polyergus might do?
A. Look for food
B. Raid another nest
C. Care for the young
D. Clean its own nest
Question 40: The word “excavate” is closest in meaning to _____
A. find B. clean C. repair D. dig
Question 41: The word “recruit” is closest in meaning to _____
A. create B. enlist C. endure D. capture
Question 42: What happened when a mixed colony of Polyergus and Formica ants becomes too large?
A. The Polyergus workers enlarge the existing nest
B. The captured Formica workers return to their original test
C. The Polyergus and the Formica build separate nests
D. The Polyergus and the Formica move to a new nest
Question 43: According to the information in the passage, all of the following terms refer to ants beginning to the genus Formica EXCEPT ______
A. dulotic
B. captured brood
C. developing pupae
D. worker population
Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions
Question 44: A. deception B. recipient C. receding D. recipe
Question 45: A. arrival B. technical C. proposal D. approval
Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the pronunciation in each of the following questions
Question 46: A. failure B. pleasure C. leisure D. measure
Question 47: A. increase B. meant C. flea D. lease
Mark the letter A, B, C, D on our answer sheet to show the underlined part that need correction
Question 48: Psychological experiment indicate that people remember more math problems that they can’t solve than those they are able to solve
A. those B. solve C. to solve D. experiment
Question 49: Salmon lay their eggs, and die in freshwater although they live in salt water when most of their adults lives
A. although B. lay C. adult lives D. when
Question 50: Neither the mathematics department nor the biology department at State University requires that the students must write a thesis in order to graduate with a master’s degree
A. requires B. must write C. to graduate D. master’s degree
Question 51: In order to survive, trees rely to the amount of annual rainfall they receive as well as the seasonal distribution of the rain
A. of B. rely to C. as well D. seasonal
Question 52: The oldest and most widespread celebrations are that connected with he harvesting of the first fruit
A. that B. most widespread C. first fruit D. harvesting
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, D on our answer sheet to indicate the correct word (s) for each of the blanks from 53-62
One of the most beautiful parts of Britain is the Lake District. The Lake District is situated in the north-west of England and consists of high hills, mountains and, of course, lakes. (53)_____ there are 16 lakes, of (54)_____ the largest is Lake Windermere. Over the years many writers have been (55)_____ with this region but there can be no (56)_____ that the most famous of all was William Wordsworth (1770-1850), who was born and lived almost the whole of his life there. He had (57)______ connections with the village of Grasmere, where he lived for (58)_____ thirteen years. He loved this particular part of England and many of his poems of the joy he felt when surrounded by beautiful countryside
Every year more than 14 million people from Britain and abroad visit the Lake District to enjoy the fresh air and the (59)____. Some go to walk in the mountains (60)_____ others sail boats on the lakes or simply sit admiring the (61)_____ views. Unfortunately, the region is becoming a victim of its own success in attracting visitors. (62)____ come to the Lake District that they threaten to destroy the peace and quite which many are searching for there
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2. Đề số 2
ĐỀ THI THPT QG MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT PHAN ĐÌNH PHÙNG- ĐỀ 02
Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part
Question 1: He was not a good father. He neglected his children
A. blamed B. took care of C. disregarded D. punished
Question 2: Mr. Armstrong is said to be a fairly well-to-do man
A. big B. important C. wealthy D. poor
Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is CLOSET in meaning to the underlined part
Question 3: This is a difficult topic. Please explain it in plain language
A. easy B. new C. different D. detailed
Question 4: He claimed that the car belonged to him
A. knew B. thought C. suspected D. declared
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 5 to 14
Because geologists have long indicated that fossil fuels will not last indefinitely, the U.S government finally acknowledged that sooner or later other energy sources would be needed and, as a result, turned its attention to nuclear power. It was anticipated that nuclear power plants could supply electricity in such large amounts and so inexpensively that they would be integrated into an economy in which electricity would take over virtually all fuel-generating functions at nominal cost. Thus, the government subsidized the promotion of commercial nuclear power plants and authorized their construction by utility companies. In the 1960s and early 1970s, the public accepted the notion of electricity being generated by nuclear power plants in or near residential areas. By 1975, 54 plants were fully operational, supplying 11 percent of the nation’s electricity, and another 167 plants were at various stages of planning and construction. Officials estimated that by 1990 hundreds of plants would be on line, and by the turn of the century as many as 1000 plants would be in working order.
Since 1975, this outlook and this estimation have changed drastically, and many utilizes have cancelled existing orders. In some cases, construction was terminated even after billions of dollars had already been invested. After being completed and licensed at a cost of almost $6 billion, the Shoreham Power Plant on Long Island was turned over to the state of New York to be dismantled without ever having generated electric power. The reason was that residents and state authorities deemed that there was no possibility of evacuating residents from the area should an accident occur.
Just 68 of those plants under way in 1975 have been completed, and another 3 are still under construction. Therefore, it appears that in the mid 1990s 124 nuclear power plants in the nation will be in operation, generating about 18 percent of the nation’s electricity, a figure that will undoubtedly decline as relatively outdated plants are shut down
Question 5: What was initially planned for the nation’s fuel supply in the 1950s and in the early 1960s?
A. Expansion and renovation of existing fuel-generating plants
B. Creation of additional storage capacities for fossil fuels
C. Conversion of the industry and the economy to nuclear power
D. Development of an array of alternative fuel and power sources
Question 6: How does the author describe the attitude of the population in regard to nuclear power as fuel in the early to mid 1970s?
A. Apprehensive
B. Ambivalent
C. Receptive
D. Resentful
Question 7: In line 5, the word “nominal” is closet in meaning to _____
A. so-called B. minimal C. exorbitant D. inflated
Question 8: In line 7, the word “notion” is closet in meaning to _____
A. nonsense B. notice C. idea D. consequence
Question 9: In line 13, the phrase “this outlook” refers to _____
A. the number of operating nuclear plants
B. the expectation for increase in the number of nuclear plants
C. the possibility of generating electricity at nuclear installations
D. the forecast for the capacity of the nuclear plants
Question 10: It can be inferred from the passage that government officials made a critical error in judgment by ____
A. disregarding the low utility of nuclear power plants
B. relying on inferior materials and faulty plant design
C. overlooking the possibility of a meltdown, however remote
D. locating installation in densely wooded areas
Question 11: In line 14, the word “terminated” is closet in meaning to ______
A. delayed B. stopped C. kept going D. conserved
Question 12: The author of the passage implies that the construction of new nuclear power plants____
A. is continuing on a smaller scale
B. is being geared for greater safety
C. has been completely halted for fear of disaster
D. has been decelerated but not terminated
Question 13: Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage?
A. The exposition of the public opinion polls on nuclear power
B. A narration of power source deliberation in nuclear power plants
C. Causal connections in the government’s position on nuclear power
D. Point and counterpoint in the nuclear power debate
Question 14: The author of the passage implies that the issue of finding adequate sources of fuel and power for the future ______
A. has long been ignored by shortsighted government authorities
B. may be condoned by vacillating officials
C. has lost its pertinence in light of new discoveries
D. has not yet been satisfactorily resolved
Mark the letter A, B, C, D on our answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions
Question 15: An eccentric is by definition someone whose behavior is ____, someone who refuses to conform to the accepted norms of his society
A. abnormally
B. abnormality
C. abnormalities
D. abnormal
Question 16: The cook made ____ that some people were not served
A. too little
B. so little
C. so few food
D. so much food
Question 17: Can I ___ our brain for a moment? I can’t do this crossword by myself
A. use B. have C. mind D. pick
Question 18: It’s recommended that he _____ this course
A. take B. taking C. took D. takes
Question 19: The sign said that unauthorized persons were prohibited _____
A. entering B. to enter C. from entering D. not to enter
Question 20: I have been saving money because I _____ buy a computer
A. shall B. will C. am going to D. would
Question 21: We are in good time; there’s _____ to hurry
A. no purpose B. no need C. unnecessary D. impossible
Question 22: Customer :”Can I have a look at the pullover, please?” Salesgirl:” ______”
A. It’s much cheaper
B. Which one? This one?
C. Sorry, it’s out of stock
D. Can I help you?
Question 23: Mr. Smith is a ___ person. If he says he will do something, you know that he will do
A. dependent
B. independent
C. depending
D. dependable
Question 24: All his plans for starting his own business fell ___
A. in B. through C. down D. away
Question 25: The ___ of the family home following the divorce was a great shock to the children
A. break-down B. break-in C. break-up D. break-out
Question 26: I can’t quite _____ out what the sign says
A. make B. get C. read D. carry
Question 27: Because of the Aleuts’ constant exposure to cold weather, they have long recognized ______
A. and body needs to be fat
B. body needs the fat
C. how fat the body needs
D. the body’s needs for fat
Question 28: Essentially, a theory is an abstract, symbolic representation of ____ reality
A. what it is conceived
B. that is conceived
C. what is conceived
D. that is being conceived of
Question 29: “Congratulations! You performed so well in the contest” “_____”
A. Thanks. But it’s just a matter of luck
B. Oh, it was nothing great
C. It’s my pleasure
D. Thanks. I’m glad you could make of it
Question 30: Children are now coming under the influence of emotions ___ than their parents did
A. far earlier B. farther early
C. more far early D. further early
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3. Đề số 3
ĐỀ THI THPT QG MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT PHAN ĐÌNH PHÙNG- ĐỀ 03
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. days |
B. speaks |
C. dates |
D. kits |
Question 2: A. involved |
B. organized |
C. impressed |
D. carried |
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. category |
B. accompany |
C. experience |
D. compulsory |
Question 4: A. attract |
B. verbal |
C. signal |
D. social |
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5: He warned ........ too far.
A. her not to go B. her do not go
C. her did not go D. she did not go
Question 6: How long ago .................. as a shop assistant? - Five years ago.
A. were you working B. do you work
C. have you worked D. did you work
Question 7: Everyone should travel. As they say, it really ................ the mind.
A. widens B. opens
C. broadens D. develops
Question 8: He will take the dog out for a walk as soon as he ………dinner.
A. finishes
B. finish
C. will finish
D. shall have finished
Question 9: Why don’t you make it bigger and more careful to .......... people’s attention ?
A. raise B. attract
C. make D. keep
Question 10: Yesterday when I ................ at the station, the train .............. for 15 minutes.
A. arrived/ left B. had arrived/ left
C. arrives/ has left D. arrived/ had left
Question 11: I remember ............... to that place once
A. being taken B. taking
C. to take D. to be taken
Question 12: Small children are often told that it is rude ……………at other people.
A. to point B. points
C. pointed D. point
Question 13: My husband wants me .............. this letter before afternoon.
A. post B. to post
C. posting D. posts
Question 14: My Dad is always willing to give a hand ............. cleaning the house.
A. in B. with
C. of D. about
Question 15: Body language is a potent form of ............. communication.
A. verbal B. non - verbal
C. tongue D. oral
Question 16: These children often share their .................. secrets with their mother
A. personally B. person
C. personal D. personable
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 17: - “What an attractive hair style you have got, Mary!”
_ “.................”
A. Thank you very much. I am afraid
B. I don't like your sayings
C. You are telling a lie
D. Thank you for your compliment
Question 18: John: “Can you tell me the way to the nearest post office?”
- Nam: “...............”.
A. It opens at nine o'clock.
B. Turn left and then right.
C. You can walk or go there by taxi
D. It's about two kilometers.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 19: We do not whistle or clap our hands to get the person’s attention. That is considered impolite and even rule.
A. offensive B. polite
C. informal D. terrific
Question 20: Could you take care of our children while I go away?
A. look like B. look after
C. look for D. look at
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 21: When being interviewed, You should focus on what the interviewer is saying or asking you.
A. to pay no attention to
B. be interested in
C. be related
D. express interested in
Question 22: They've always encouraged me in everything I've wanted to do.
A. unpardoned B. misconstrue
C. discouraged D. impaired
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions .
A recent study shows that an unequal share of household chores is still the norm in many households, despite the fact that many more women now have jobs. In a survey of 1,256 people ages between 18 and 65, men said they contributed an average of 37% of the total housework, while the women estimated their share to be nearly double that, at 70%. This ratio was not affected by whether the woman was working or not.
When they were asked what they thought was a fair division of labour, women with jobs felt that housework should be shared equally between male and female partners. Women who did not work outside the home were satisfied to perform 80% - the majority of the household work - if their husbands did remainder. Research has shown that, if levels increase beyond these percentages, women become unhappy and anxious, and feel they are unimportant.
After marriage, a woman is reported to increase her household workload by 14 hours per week, but for men the amount is just 90 minutes. So the division of labour becomes unbalanced, as a man's share increases much less than the woman's. It is the inequality and loss of respect, not the actual number of hours, which leads to anxiety and depression. The research describes housework as thankless and unfulfilling. Activities included in the study were cooking, cleaning, shopping, doing laundry, washing up and childcare. Women who have jobs report that they feel overworked by these chores in addition to their professional duties. In contrast, full-time homemakers frequently anticipate going back to work when the children grow up. Distress for this group is caused by losing the teamwork in the marriage.
Question 23: According to the passage, a fair division of labour is that
A. women do 14 hours of housework
B. men do more housework than women
C. women do more than 80 percent of the housework
D. women and men share the housework equally
Question 24: All activities mentioned in the passage are household chores EXCEPT
A. childcaring
B. washing-up
C. shopping
D. taking care of old-aged parents
Question 25: The word "remainder" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to
A. what is share B. what is fulfilled
C. what is done D. what is left
Question 26: The word "norm" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to_
A. strange thing B. unequal thing
C. changing thing D. usual thing
Question 27: Although women think men should share the housework, those who don't have paid job agree to share......of the chores.
A. 14 percent B. 37 percent
C. 80 percent D. 70 percent
Question 28: It can be inferred from the passage that after getting married,
A. women do twice as much housework as men
B. women do less and less housework
C. men spend much less time doing housework than women.
D. men do more housework than women
Question 29: The word "they" in paragraph 2 refers to
A. men B. labour
C. jobs D. women
Read the following passage, and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
In the United States, it is important to be on time, or punctual, for an appointment, a class, a meeting, ect... This may not be true in some other countries, however. An American professor discovered this difference while teaching a class in a Brazilian university. The two-hour class was scheduled to begin at 10 a.m., and end at 12 a.m. On the first day, when the professor arrived on time, no one was in the classroom. Many students came after 11 a.m. Although all of the students greeted the professor as they arrived, few apologised for their lateness. Were these students being rude? He decided to study the students’ behavior.
In American university, students are expected to arrive at the appointed hour. On the other hand, in Brazil, neither the teacher nor the students always arrive at the appointed hour. Classes not only begin at the scheduled time in the United States, but they also end at the scheduled time. In the Brazilian class, only a few students left the class at noon, many remained past 12:30 to discuss the class and ask more questions. While arriving late may not be important in Brazil, neither is staying late.
The explanation for these differences is complicated. People from Brazilian and North American cultures have different feelings about lateness. In Brazil, the students believe that a person who usually arrives late is probably more successful than a person who is always on time. In fact, Brazilians expect a person with status or prestige to arrive late, while in the United States, lateness is usually considered to be disrespectful and unacceptable. Consequently, if a Brazilian is late for an appointment with a North America, the American may misinterpret the reason for the lateness and become angry.
As a result for his study, the professor learned that the Brazilian students were not being disrespectful to him. Instead, they were simply behaving the appropriate way for a Brazilian student in Brazil. Eventually, the professor was able to adapt his own behavior to feel comfortable in the new culture.
Question 30: What is the main idea of this passage?
A. It is not important to be on time in Brazil.
B. People learn the importance of time when they are children.
C. It is important to be on time for class in the United States.
D. The importance of being on time differs among different countries.
---(Để xem tiếp nội dung của đề thi số 3 các em vui lòng xem tại online hoặc đăng nhập vào HỌC247 để tải về máy)---
ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 3
1 |
2 |
3 |
4 |
5 |
A |
C |
A |
A |
A |
6 |
7 |
8 |
9 |
10 |
D |
C |
A |
B |
D |
11 |
12 |
13 |
14 |
15 |
A |
A |
B |
B |
B |
16 |
17 |
18 |
19 |
20 |
C |
D |
B |
A |
B |
21 |
22 |
23 |
24 |
25 |
A |
C |
D |
D |
D |
26 |
27 |
28 |
29 |
30 |
D |
C |
C |
D |
D |
31 |
32 |
33 |
34 |
35 |
B |
B |
D |
C |
D |
36 |
37 |
38 |
39 |
40 |
A |
C |
B |
B |
C |
41 |
42 |
43 |
44 |
45 |
C |
B |
A |
C |
A |
46 |
47 |
48 |
49 |
50 |
C |
A |
D |
B |
A |
4. Đề số 4
ĐỀ THI THPT QG MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT PHAN ĐÌNH PHÙNG- ĐỀ 04
Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part
Question 1: The sailor is suffering from a deficiency of Vitamin C
A. lack B. short C. shortage D. lacking
Question 2: The nurse told her that she would have to wait for a few days for the outcome of the medical check-up
A. putting B. payment C. result D. coming
Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part
Question 3: The policemen broke up the fight between the two teenagers
A. started B. stopped off C. called off D. canceled
Question 4: He has a good memory to retain facts easily
A. remember B. forget C. understand D. know
Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from 5-35
Question 5: Coffee is the second most valuable _____ after oil
A. ware B. production C. producing D. commodity
Question 6: We _____ on the beach now if we hadn’t missed the plane
A. might have lain B. would lie
C. could be lying D. would have lain
Question 7: “Your dress is lovely. I like it” “______”
A. Oh, it’s just an old dress
B. Thanks anyway. I think it makes me look older
C. You must be kidding. I think it’s terrible
D. Thank you. That’s a nice compliment
Question 8: The noise from the nearby factory kept me _____
A. awake B. awakened C. waking D. woken
Question 9: Make sure you ____ us a visit when you are in town again
A. pay B. have C. give D. do
Question 10: I used to run a mile before breakfast but now I am ____
A. not used to it B. no longer practice it
C. out of practice D. out of the habit
Question 11: The government is determined to ____ terrorism
A. put the stop to B. put stop to
C. put stops to D. put a stop to
Question 12: Americans rarely shake hands to say goodbye except ___ business occasions
A. on B. during C. at D. for
Question 13: We will talk about those ___ problems are related to psychology
A. of which B. of that C. whose D. who
Question 14: Out ___ for a walk after she finished doing her homework
A. did Mary go B. Mary went C. Mary did go D. went Mary
Question 15: The room ___ cool in summer and warm in winter
A. feels B. is felt C. finds D. is found
Question 16: By 8 o’clock yesterday, the spaceship ____ 20 hours around the earth
A. will travel B. has been traveling
C. had been traveling D. will have been traveling
Question 17: The manager, as well as his assistants, ______ yet
A. haven’t arrive B. hadn’t arrived
C. hasn’t arrived D. isn’t arriving
Question 18: “Happy Christmas” “______”
A. The same to you! B. Happy Christmas!
C. You are the same! D. Same for you!
Question 19: Lucia was surprised when her guests ____ late for the party
A. came up B. turned up C. looked up D. put up
Question 20: Show me how to ___ the phone line to my computer so I can use the Internet
A. connect B. fasten C. apply D. join
Question 21: You ____ so fast or you might have an accident
A. don’t have to drive B. shouldn’t have driven
C. had better not drive D. mustn’t have driven
Question 22: Liquid milk is usually pasteurized in order to kill bacteria for a longer ____
A. expectancy B. production C. living D. shelf life
Question 23: The majority of people accept that modern drugs are the most effective way to cure a(n) ______
A. sicken B. illness C. symptom D. treatment
Question 24: ____ the price is high, we can’t afford to buy a new car
A. Now that B. Although C. Whereas D. As long as
Question 25: You have gone to the doctor’s to have a check-u. You ____. You just had your check-up last week
A. didn’t need to go B. needn’t have gone
C. needn’t go D. don’t need to go
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, D on our answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 26 to 35
In the explosion of the linguistic life cycle, it is apparent that it is much more difficult to learn a second language in adulthood than a first language in childhood. Most adults never completely master a foreign language, especially in Phonology – hence the ubiquitous foreign accent. Their development often “fossilizes” into permanent error patterns that no teaching or correction can undo. Of course, there are great individual differences, which depend on effort, attitudes, amount of exposure, quality of teaching and plain talent, but there seems to be a cap for the best adults in the best circumstances
Many explanations have been advanced for children’s superiority; they exploit Motherese (the simplified, repetitive conversation between parents and children), make errors unself-consciously, are more motivated to communicate, like to conform, are not set in their ways, and have not first language to interfere. But some of these accounts are unlikely, based on what is known about how language acquisition works. Recent evidence is calling these social and motivation explanations into doubt. Holding every other factor constant, a key factor stands out: sheer age
Systematic evidence comes from the psychologist Elissa Newport and her colleagues. They tested Korean and Chinese – born students at the University of Illinois who had spent a least ten years in the United States. The immigrants were give a list of 276 simple English sentences, half of them containing some grammatical error. The immigrants who came to the United States between the age of 3 and 7 performed identically to American – born students. Those who arrived between ages 8 and 15 did worse the latter they arrived, and those who arrived between 17 and 39 did the worst of all, and showed huge variability unrelated to their age of arrival
Question 26: The passage mainly discussed
A. adult differences in learning a foreign language
B. children’s ability to learn a language
C. the age factor in learning languages fast
D. research into language acquisition
Question 27: From the passage, it can be inferred that “Phonology” is the study of ____
A. he grammar of language
B. the rules of a language
C the vocabulary of a language
D. the sound system of a language
Question 28: The word “cap” in paragraph 1 is closet in meaning to _____
A. prize B. limit C. covering D. level
Question 29: According to the passage, young children learn languages quickly for all of the following reasons EXCEPT
A. they make many mistakes B. they want to talk
C. their approach is flexible D. they frequently repeat words
Question 30: The word “set” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by ____
A. fixed B. changed C. stable D. formed
---(Để xem tiếp nội dung của đề thi số 4 các em vui lòng xem tại online hoặc đăng nhập vào HỌC247 để tải về máy)---
5. Đề số 5
ĐỀ THI THPT QG MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT PHAN ĐÌNH PHÙNG- ĐỀ 05
Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress.
Question 1. A. measurement |
B. information |
C. economic |
D. engineer |
Question 2. A. facilities |
B. particular |
C. inhabitant |
D. governmental |
Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underline is pronounced differently from the rest.
Question 3. A. advanced |
B. surprised |
C. orphaned |
D. weighed |
Question 4. A. thereupon |
B. thrill |
C. through |
D. throne |
Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction.
Question 5. Several (A) people have apparent (B) tried to change the man’s mind (C) , but he refuses to listen (D) .
Question 6. Students suppose (A) to read all the questions (B) carefully and find out (C) the answer to them (D) .
Question 7. Public health (A) experts say that the money one spends avoiding illness (B) is less than the cost (C) of to treat (D) sickness.
Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following question.
Question 8. Lack of sleep over the last few months is finally ........... Jane.
A. catching up with
B. getting on with
C. coming over
D. putting on
Question 9. In China’s largest psychiatric facility, there is a serious lack of resources but the staff try hard to ........... this in their treatment of the patients.
A. make up for B. go in for
C. put up with D. set in for
Question 10. Of all the factors affecting agricultural yields, the weather is the one .............. the most.
A. that influences farmers
B. farmers that is influences
C. why farmers influence it
D. it influences farmers
Question 11. The passport she carried was ................
A. artificial B. imitation
C. untrue D. false
Question 12. Jane’s eyes burned and her shoulders ached. She .............. at the computer for five straight hours. Finally, she took a break.
A. has sat
B. has been sitting
C. had been sitting
D. had sat
Question 13. He showed his ............. for the TV program by switching it off.
A. distaste B. discontent
C. annoyance D. boredom
Question 14. It is necessary that he .............. of his old parents.
A. takes care B. to take care
C. take care D. took care
Question 15. The two countries have reached an agreement through dialogues described as ..............
A. productive B. unproductive
C. productivity D. counterproductive
Question 16. People usually can get sufficient ............... of the calcium their bodies need from the food they consume.
A. variety B. source
C. amount D. number
Question 17. The weather is going to change soon; I feel it in my ..................
A. body B. legs
C. skin D. bones
Question 18. Kelly wanted to have a live band ................ at her wedding.
A. to be played B. played
C. play D. been playing
Question 19. It is a top secret. You ....................... tell anyone about it.
A. won’t B. needn’t
C. mustn’t D. mightn’t
Mark the letter A, B, C or D n your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 20. – John: ―How about giving me a hand?‖
- Tom: - ____________
A. I promise.
B. No, not yet
C. Sure, I’d be glad to help.
D. You’re welcome!
Question 21. – Liz: ―Thanks for the nice gift you brought to us!‖
- Jennifer: - ____________
A. Alright. Do you know how much it costs?
B. Not at all. Don’t mention it.
C. Actually speaking, I myself don’t like it.
D. Welcome! It’s very nice of you.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word of phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following question.
Question 22. Few businesses are flourishing in the present economic climate.
A. taking off B. setting up
C. growing well D. closing down
Question 23. The dog saw his reflection in the pool of water.
A. imagination B. bone
C. leash D. image
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word of phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following question.
Question 24. We ought to keep these proposals secret from the chairman for the time being.
A. revealed B. frequented
C. accessible D. lively
Question 25. They protested about the inhumane treatment of the prisoners.
A. vicious B. warmhearted
C. callous D. cold blooded
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 26. It is English pronunciation that puzzles me most.
A. Pronouncing English is not complicated.
B. I was not quick at English pronunciation at school.
C. Puzzling me most is how to pronounce English.
D. English pronunciation is difficult for me.
Question 27. The woman was too weak to lift the suitcase.
A. The woman wasn’t able to lift the suitcase, so she was very weak.
B. The woman, though weak, could lift the suitcase.
C. So weak was the woman that she couldn’t lift the suitcase.
D. The woman shouldn’t have lifted the suitcase as she was weak.
Question 28. “Would you like some more beer?” he asked.
A. He asked me if I liked some more beer.
B. He wanted to invite me for a glass of beer.
C. He offered me some more beer.
D. He asked me would I like some more beer.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 29. My Tam is a pop star. She has many famous songs.
A. My Tam, who has many famous songs, is a pop star.
B. My Tam, that has many famous songs, is a pop star.
C. My Tam, whose has many famous songs, is a pop star.
D. My Tam, which has many famous songs, is a pop star.
Question 30. I’m not rich. I can’t help other people.
A. If I am rich, I can help other people.
B. If I were rich, I can help other people.
C. If I am rich, I could help other people.
D. If I were rich, I could help other people.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
A pioneering study by Donald Appleyard made the astounding discovery that a sudden increase in the volume of traffic through an area affects people in the way that a sudden increase in crime does. Appleyard observed this by finding three blocks of houses in San Francisco that looked much alike and had the same kind of middle-class and working-class residents, with approximately the same ethnic mix. The difference was that only 2,000 cars a day ran down Octavia Street (LIGHT street, in Appleyard’s terminology) while Gough Street (MEDIUM street) was used by 8,000 cars daily, and Franklin Street (HEAVY street) had around 16,000 cars a day. Franklin Street often had as many cars in an hour as Octavia had in a day.
Heavy traffic brought with it danger, noise, fumes and soot, directly, and trash secondarily. That is, the cars didn’t bring in much trash, but when trash accumulated, residents seldom picked it up. The cars, Appleyard determined, reduced the amount of territory residents felt responsible for. Noise was a constant intrusion into their homes. Many Franklin Street residents covered their doors and windows and spent most of their time in the rear of their houses. Most families with children had already left.
Conditions on Octavia Street were much different. Residents picked up trash. They sat on their front steps and chatted with neighbors. They had three times as many friends and twice as many acquaintances as the people on Franklin.
On Gough Street, residents said that the old feeling of community was disappearing as traffic increased. People were becoming more and more preoccupied with their own lives. A number of families had recently moved and more were considering. Those who were staying expressed deep regret at the destruction of their community.
---(Để xem tiếp nội dung của đề thi số 5 các em vui lòng xem tại online hoặc đăng nhập vào HỌC247 để tải về máy)---
ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 5
1 |
2 |
3 |
4 |
5 |
A |
D |
A |
A |
B |
6 |
7 |
8 |
9 |
10 |
A |
D |
A |
A |
A |
11 |
12 |
13 |
14 |
15 |
D |
C |
A |
C |
A |
16 |
17 |
18 |
19 |
20 |
C |
D |
C |
C |
C |
21 |
22 |
23 |
24 |
25 |
B |
C |
D |
A |
B |
26 |
27 |
28 |
29 |
30 |
D |
C |
C |
A |
D |
31 |
32 |
33 |
34 |
35 |
A |
C |
C |
D |
B |
36 |
37 |
38 |
39 |
40 |
C |
C |
C |
A |
C |
41 |
42 |
43 |
44 |
45 |
B |
B |
A |
B |
A |
46 |
47 |
48 |
49 |
50 |
B |
C |
B |
A |
C |
...
Trên đây là một phần trích đoạn nội dung Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG năm 2021-2022 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THPT Phan Đình Phùng. Để xem toàn bộ nội dung các em chọn chức năng xem online hoặc đăng nhập vào trang hoc247.net để tải tài liệu về máy tính.
Mời các em tham khảo tài liệu có liên quan:
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- Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG năm 2021-2022 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THPT Hoàng Diệu
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