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Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG môn Tiếng Anh năm 2021-2022 có đáp án Trường THPT Nguyễn Trung Thiên Lần 1

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Nhằm đánh giá năng lực và khả năng ôn tập, ghi nhớ kiến thức; Ban Biên tập HOC247 xin gửi đến quý thầy, cô giáo và các sĩ tử lớp 12 nội dung tài liệu Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG môn Tiếng Anh năm 2021-2022 có đáp án Trường THPT Nguyễn Trung Thiên Lần 1. Hi vọng tài liệu sẽ có ích với các em.

Chúc các em có kết quả học tập tốt!

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TRƯỜNG THPT NGUYỄN TRUNG THIÊN

ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM HỌC 2021-2022

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH

(Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút)

1. Đề số 1

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. engaged

B. decided

C. appeared

D. threatened

Question 2. A. funny

B. student

C. rubbish

D. upper

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. become

B. pollute

C. answer

D. appear

Question 4. A. biology

B. scientific

C. geography

D. activity

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5. She didn’t go for a walk yesterday, _________?

A. does she                     B. doesn't she                       C. did she                 D. didn’t she

Question 6. Most of the e-mail accounts at our company ________ by a virus last week.

A. have been affected

B. were affected

C. affected

D. was affected

Question 7. People are worried ______ losing their jobs during the Covid-19 pandemic.

A. over                            B. at                                     C. about                               D. of

Question 8. The more I concentrate  , _______ my answers are.

A. the more accurate

B. the most accurate

C. more accurate

D. the accurater

Question 9. On his 15th birthday, Nick’s mother gave him a ______ bike.

A. nice blue Japanese 

B. nice Japanese blue

C. blue nice Japanese

D. Japanese blue nice

Question 10. Linda took great photos of butterflies while she _______ in the forest.

A. was hiking                  B. is hiking                           C. hiked               D. had hiked

Question 11. _____ the sky was grey and cloudy, we went to the beach.

A. Because                      B. Although                         C. Despite           D. Because of

Question 12. I will have finished making dinner ______.

A. by the time mom comes home

B. after mom had come home

C. as soon as mom came home

D. once mom came home

Question 13. ________ hard all day, I was exhausted.

A. To work                     B. Work                C. Having worked               D. worked

Question 14. Children living in remote and mountainous areas may not receive a good ______.

A. education                   B. educate           C. educated                         D. educative

Question 15. Governments around the world have ______ many national parks to save endangered species from extinction.

A. set up                          B. carried out                       C. went on                           D. took off

Question 16. The biggest fear is that humans might _________ control over robots.

A. lose                             B. take               C. keep                                D. gain

Question 17. She made the ________           mistake of forgetting to put the “ s” on the verb in the third person singular.

A. classic                         B. important           C. classical                           D. famous

Question 18. Bob was going to propose to Alexandra last night, but in the end he  _______ and decided to wait a bit longer.

A. was given the green light

B. was all ears

C. broke a leg

D. got cold feet

Question 19. A _______ of dancers from Beijing is one of the leading attractions in the festival.

A. packet                        B. troop                                C. herd                                D. troupe

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the un­derlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20. The factory is fined for discharging dangerous chemicals into the river.

A. releasing                     B. increasing                        C. decreasing                       D. keeping

Question 21. The new college is intended to improve the life chances of children in the inner city.

A. productions                B. communities                    C. opportunities                   D. questions

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22. Children brought up in a caring environment tend to grow more sympathetic towards others.

A. loving                         B. dishonest                         C. healthy                            D. hateful

Question 23. It’s quite disappointing that some people still turn a blind eye to acts of injustice they witness in the street.

A. take no notice of

B. have no feeling for

C. show respect for 

D. pay attention to

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes the following exchanges. 

Question 24. Tom is talking to Jane.

Tom: “I’m sorry . I forgot your birthday.”

Jane: “__________ ”

A. Thanks a lot.

B. Good idea.

C. Same to you. 

D. Never mind.

Question 25. Minh and Nam are talking about Nam’s cat.

- Minh: “What a lovely cat you have! Nam.”                  

Nam: “_______”

A. Me too. 

B. Congratulations!

C. No problem. 

D. Thank you.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the  numbered blanks. 

Why do people like to chew gum? Some people say they like the taste. (26)________say they can think better if they chew gum. Some people chew it when they have some boring work to do.  Others chew gum when they are nervous. Gum is a mixture of things. For many years gum companies made gum from chicle. Chicle is a natural gum from a tree in Mexico and Central America. Now companies use plastic and rubber made from petroleum (27)________of chicle. Gum must be soft so that you can chew it. A softener keeps it soft. The gum company makes the softener from vegetable oil. A sweetener makes the gum sweet. The sweetener is usually sugar. Then the company (28)________   the flavor. Thomas Adams made the first gum from chicle in 1836. (29)___________, chewing gum was not new. The Greeks chewed gum from a tree (30)________ 2,000 years ago. Mayan Indians in Mexico chewed chicle. Indians in the Northeastern United States taught Europeans to chew gum from a tree there. People first made bubble gum in 1928. Children like to blow bubble with bubble gum. Some university students do, too.

(Adapted from https://www.nationalgeographic.com/)

Question 26. A. The other

B. Others

C. The others

D. Other

Question 27. A. aside

B. apart

C. inside

D. instead

Question 28. A. puts

B. places

C. adds

D. fits

Question 29. A. However

B. Moreover

C. But

D. Though

Question 30. A. more

B. over

C. above

D. than

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Some doctors think that you should drink a glass of water each morning. You should drink this water first thing, before doing anything else. The temperature of the water should be similar to body temperature; neither too hot nor too cold.

Why should you drink this water? Water helps your body in many ways. It helps clean out your kidneys. It prepares your stomach for digestion. Water can also help your intestines work better. After drinking water, the intestines can more easily take out nutrients from our food. Water also helps us go to the bathroom more easily.

Scientists suggest that people take in 1,600 milliliters of water each day. But don’t drink all of that water in one sitting. If you do, your kidneys will have to work much harder to eliminate it. It’s better to drink some in the morning and some in the afternoon. Some people think it’s better to drink between meals and not during meals. They think water dilutes the juices produced in our stomachs. This can interfere with normal digestion.

Are you drinking enough water every day? Check the color of your urine. If it is light yellow, you are probably drinking enough. If your urine is very dark yellow, you probably need to drink more water. A little more water each day could make you much healthier.

(Adapted from Reading Challenge 1 by Casey Malarcher and Andrea Janzen)

Question 31. What is the main idea of the passage?

A. The importance of water

B. The advice of the doctors

C. How to drink water correctly?

D. The best amount of water to drink

Question 32. According to the passage, water is good for the following organs of the body, EXCEPT ___________.

A. kidneys                      B. stomach                           C. intestines          D. livers

Question 33. The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to ___________.

A. your body                  B. your kidney                     C. water            D. your stomach

Question 34. The word “eliminate” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______________.

A. preserve                      B. remove                            C. absorb                      D. process

Question 35. Which of the following is NOT true?

A. The first thing you should do every morning is to drink water.

B. You shouldn’t drink too much water at the same time.

C. Drinking water while having meals may interfere with normal digestion.

D. You need to drink more water if your urine is light yellow.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Educating children at home as an alternative to formal education is an option chosen by families in many parts of the world. The homeschooling movement is popular in the United States, where close to one million Children are educated at home. In Canada, 1 percent of school-age children are homeschooled, and the idea also enjoys growing popularity in Australia, where 20,000 families homeschool their children. The movement is not limited to these countries. Homeschooling families can be found all over the world, from Japan to Taiwan to Argentina to South Africa.

Homeschooling is not a novel idea. In fact, the idea of sending children to spend most of their day away from home at a formal school is a relatively new custom. In the United States, for example, it was not until the latter part of the nineteenth century that state governments began making school attendance compulsory. Before that, the concept of a formal education was not so widespread. Children learned the skills they would need for adult life at home from tutors or their parents, through formal instruction or by working side by side with the adults of the family.

In the modern developed world, where the vast majority of children attend school, families choose homeschooling for a variety of reasons. For people who live in remote areas, such as the Australian outback or the Alaskan Wilderness, homeschooling may be their only option. Children who have exceptional talents in the arts or other areas may be homeschooled so that they have more time to devote to their special interests. Much of the homeschooling movement is made up of families who, for various reasons, are dissatisfied with the schools available to them. They may have a differing educational philosophy, they may be concerned about the safety of the school environment, or they may feel that the local schools cannot adequately address their children's educational needs. Although most families continue to choose a traditional classroom education for their children, homeschooling as an alternative educational option is becoming more popular.

(source: https://www.beyondteaching.com/)

Question 36. Which of the following could be the main idea of the passage?

A. A new form of school: Homeschooling

B. Homeschool option: a common form of education all over the world.

C. The reasons why children should be educated at home.

D. The origin of Homeschooling.

Question 37. What does the word “that” in paragraph 2 refer to?

A. the second half of the 19th century

B. the beginning of the 19th century

C. the former part of the 19th century

D. the end of the 19th century

Question 38. The word "widespread" in paragraph 2 mostly means                    .

A. uncommon                 B. customary                        C. exceptional                     D. prevalent

Question 39. According to the passage, the followings are true about the Homeschooling, EXCEPT

A. Many families in both developed and developing countries choose to educate their children at home.

B. Parents or tutors were the ones who taught the children necessary skills in society.

C. People got familiar with school attendance before choosing to learn at home.

D. Before modern times, most students did not attend the school.

Question 40. As mentioned in the last paragraph, children in rural areas                    .

A. have no choice but stay at home to learn.

B. prefer to improve their extraordinary interests.

C. are not contented with the philosophy of the schools available.

D. believe that their needs to study is more than what a normal school can provide.

Question 41. It can be inferred from the last passage that                   .

A. parents’ satisfaction plays an important role in the number of students attending class.

B. teachers’ qualifications may be one of the reasons why students come to school.

C. not many children in modern society are allowed to be educated at home.

D. some schools are unable to provide a safe environment for their students.

Question 42. The word “adequately” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to                   .

A. correctly

B. applicably

C. sufficiently

D. inappropriately

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43. My younger sister starts learning English when she was at primary school.

A. My                             B. starts                                C. when               D. primary school

Question 44. They are having his house painted by a construction company.

A. having                        B. his                                    C. painted              D. construction

Question 45. People may also become celebrations due to media attention on their lifestyle, wealth, or controversial actions, or for their connection to a famous person.

A. may                            B. celebrations                     C. controversial         D. connection

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions

Question 46. It is a long time since we last met each other.

A. We haven't met each other for a long time.

B. The last time we met each other is a long time ago.

C. We last met each other for a long time.

D. We started meeting each other a long time ago.

Question 47. "If I were you, I would take a break," Tom said to Daisy.

A. Tom wanted to take a break with Daisy.

B. Tom advised Daisy to take a break.

C. Tom suggested not taking a break.

D. Tom wanted to take a break, and so did Daisy.

Question 48. It isn’t necessary for us to get a visa for Singapore.

A. We mustn’t get a visa for Singapore.

B. We needn’t get a visa for Singapore.

C. We mayn’t get a visa for Singapore.

D. We shouldn’t get a visa for Singapore.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions

Question 49. She fell over in the last minutes. She didn’t win the race.

A. If she didn’t fall over in the last minutes, she would win the race.

B. She didn’t win the race even though she fell over in the last minutes

C. Not having won the race, she fell over in the last minutes

D. She could have won the race if she hadn’t fallen over in the last minutes.

Question 50. The people in my neighborhood enjoy the peace of the life in the countryside. They don’t want to move to another place.

A. Only when the people in my neighborhood enjoyed the peace of the life in the countryside did they want to move to another place.

B. Provided the life in the countryside were peaceful, the people in my neighborhood wouldn’t want to move to another place.

C. Without the peace of the life in the countryside, the people in my neighborhood wouldn’t want to move to another place.

D. So peaceful is the life in the countryside that the people in my neighborhood don’t want to move to another place.

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 1

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A

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B

D

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2. Đề số 2

ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QG MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT NGUYỄN TRUNG THIÊN- ĐỀ 02

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges from 1 to 2.

Câu 1:  Thiago: “Have you checked your email today?” ~ Ranick: “___________”

A. No, it costs a lot.

B. Yes, it's getting extremely slow.

C. No, I'll check it later.

D. All right. I'll do it for you.

Câu 2:  Kevin: “Mai, what do you think are green activities at home?” ~ Mai: “___________”

A. I’m not sure. It’s important that some people stay in rural areas and work in agriculture.

B. I'm not sure about that. It causes air pollution.

C. I’m no expert, but I think we should save electricity, water and other energy resources.

D. Well, I totally agree with you. I think everybody should be better aware of green lifestyles.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 3 to 7.

History books recorded that the first film with sound was The Jazz Singer in 1927. But sound films, or talkies, did not suddenly appear after years of silent screenings. From the earliest public performances in 1896, films were accompanied by music and sound effects. These were produced by a single pianist, a small band, or a full-scale orchestra; large movie theatres could buy sound-effect machines. Research into sound that was reproduced at exactly at the same time as the pictures - called "synchronized sound" – began soon after the very first films were shown. With synchronized sound, characters on the movie screen could sing and speak. As early as 1896, the newly invented gramophone, which played a large disc carrying music and dialogue, was used as a sound system. The biggest disadvantage was that the sound and pictures could become unsynchronized if, for example, the gramophone needle jumped or if the speed of the projector changed. This system was only effective for a single song or dialogue sequence.

In the "sound-on-film" system, sound was recorded as a series of marks on celluloid which could be read by an optical sensor. These signals would be placed on the film alongside the image, guaranteeing synchronization. Short feature films were produced in this way as early as 1922. This system eventually brought us "talking pictures".

Câu 3:  The passage is mainly about the ______________.

A. research into sound reproduction.

B. disadvantages of synchronized sound.

C. development of sound with movies.

D. history of silent movies.

Câu 4:  The word "screenings" is closest in meaning to "________________".

A. demonstrations           B. revelations                   C. projectors                    D. diversions

Câu 5:  Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a producer of sound to accompany movies?

A. a single pianist 

B. a Jazz Singer

C. a small band

D. a gramophone

Câu 6:  The phrase "these signals" refers to ______________.

A. sounds                        B. marks                          C. sensors                        D. series

Câu 7:  According to the passage, sound-on-film guaranteed synchronization because the recording was ________.

A. read by an optical sensor 

B. inserted beside the image on the film

C. marked on the gramophone

D. made during the film of the picture

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions from 8 to 9.

Câu 8:  I was busy yesterday. I couldn’t complete my homework.

A. Had I had more time yesterday, I could have completed my homework.

B. Only if I had more time yesterday, I could complete my homework.

C. Much time though I had yesterday, I could have completed my homework.

D. As soon as I didn’t have more time yesterday, my homework couldn’t be completed.

Câu 9:  My brother was too weak. He couldn't take part in the marathon last week.

A. So weak was my brother that he couldn’t compete in the marathon last week.

B. But for my brother’s weakness, he couldn't have played a part in the marathon last week.

C. Such weak was my brother that he couldn’t fight other competitors of the marathon last week.

D. Had my brother been too weak, he could have joined the marathon last week.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions from 10 to 11.

Câu 10:  The country's continued prosperity is dependent on the opportunities and achievements of all its residents.

A. insecurity                    B. wealth                         C. poverty                       D. inflation

Câu 11:  I know she’s upset but it’s time for her to pull herself together and stop crying.

A. calm herself down

B. control her emotions and behave calmly

C. make herself motivated

D. become very angry

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions from 12 to 13

Câu 12: A. dead B. heat C. seat D. preach
Câu 13: A. developed B. visited C. remarked D. matched

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions from 14 to 15

Câu 14: A. master B. struggle C. commit D. random
Câu 15: A. environmental B. agricultural C. international D. multicultural

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions from 16 to 18.

Câu 16:  The disabled man used to go swimming with his friends in the afternoons.

A. The disabled man didn’t go swimming with his friends in the afternoons.

B. The disabled man usually goes swimming with his friends in the afternoons.

C. The disabled man got used to go swimming with his friends in the afternoons.

D. The disabled man usually went swimming with his friends in the afternoons.

Câu 17:  “I will let you know the answer by the end of this week,” Webber said to Juana.

A. Webber promised to give Juana the answer by the end of the week.

B. Webber suggested giving Juana the answer by the end of the week.

C. Webber insisted on letting Juana know the answer by the end of the week.

D. Webber offered to give Juana the answer by the end of this week.

Câu 18:  My classmate paid for her travel in advance, but it wasn’t necessary.

A. My classmate might not have paid for her travel in advance.

B. My classmate may not have paid for her travel in advance.

C. My classmate couldn’t have paid for her travel in advance.

D. My classmate needn't have paid for her travel in advance.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction from 19 to 21.

Câu 19:  We spent tens of millions of dong on rent every month, and on top of that is the staff payroll.

A. staff                            B. spent                           C. and                              D. of

Câu 20:  I scanned some photos I'd taken, so that I could send it to a friend in Australia.

A. that                             B. some                            C. in                                 D. it

Câu 21:  Electric devices such as computers contain circuits that send currents between internal components and develop voltages.

A. components                B. that                              C. Electric                       D. as

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from 22  to 36.

Câu 22:  Counter-urbanisation has caused many negative effects, ___________?

A. has it                           B. hasn’t it                       C. does it                         D. doesn’t it

Câu 23:  My parents ___________a lot of their time writing letters before they started using social media 2 months ago.

A. had wasted                 B. have wasted                C. has wasted                  D. were wasted

Câu 24:  She was very fascinated by a pair of _____________ shoes in West Lake shopping Mall.

A. French new purple

B. purple new French

C. new French purple

D. new purple French

Câu 25:  She walked home by herself, _____________ she knew that it was dangerous.

A. despite                        B. in the event that          C. however                      D. although

Câu 26:  Migrants may lose their cultural identity ____________.

A. before they will become assimilated into the new community

B. while they had become assimilated into the new community

C. as soon as they became assimilated into the new community

D. when they become assimilated into the new community

Câu 27:  Money ___________to the homeless shelter by a large number of local citizens so far.

A. will have been donated

B. was donated

C. had been donated

D. has been donated

Câu 28:  _____________ for the first time in 1833, the launch coincides with the Mercury's 180th anniversary.

A. Being publishing

B. Having been published

C. Publishing 

D. Having published

Câu 29:  The practice of using more chemicals to improve crop yields is harmful ___________people’s health.

A. at                                 B. to                                 C. of                                D. with

Câu 30:  We are no longer prepared to ___________reckless behaviour, which too often has resulted in irreparable damage to the environment.

A. put up with                 B. take up with                C. catch up with              D. go down with

Câu 31:  Living in their own country, people can easily acquire and maintain their cultural identity because they are fully ___________ to different aspects of their native culture.

A. used                            B. objected                      C. exposed                      D. refused

Câu 32:  Chaplin was not just a genius, he was among the most ___________ figures in film history.

A. influent                       B. influence                     C. influential                   D. influentially

Câu 33:  They cannot stand the sight of each other, but they will just have to ___________.

A. have their wits about it.

B. grin and bear it

C. keep a straight face

D. keep them posted

Câu 34:  Most of the people surveyed __________ a high opinion of the organization.

A. give                             B. make               C. think              D. have

Câu 35:  Another ______ characteristic of water is that water has a heat capacity which is the highest of all liquids and solids except ammonia.

A. outstanding                 B. excellent            C. exceptionally good     D. talented

Câu 36:  The prospect of the writer under surveillance has long held a ___________ for readers.

A. desire                          B. love           C. preference                   D. fascination

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions from 37 to 38.

Câu 37:  The biological agents now in use are environmentally benign and are harmless to humans.

A. friendly                       B. unfavorable                 C. unfriendly                   D. hostile

Câu 38:  The sun is a powerful energy source, and this energy source can be harnessed by installing solar panels.

A. exploited                     B. dug                 C. transmitted                 D. devastated

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 39 to 45.

A common phenomenon in arid regions of the world is the whirling vortex called the “dust devil.” Although they resemble tornadoes, dust devils are generally much smaller and less intense than their more destructive cousins. Most dust devils are only a few meters in diameter and reach heights no greater than about 100 meters. Further, these whirlwinds are usually short-lived microscale phenomena: most form and die out within minutes. Unlike tornadoes, which are associated with clouds, dust devils form on days when clear skies prevail. Further, these whirlwinds form from the ground upward, exactly the opposite of tornadoes. Because surface heating is critical to their formation, dust devils occur most frequently in the afternoon, when surface temperatures are highest.

Dust devils form when the hot surface of the earth warms the air above it. When the air near the surface is considerably warmer than the air a few tens of meters overhead, the layer of air near Earth’s surface becomes unstable. In this situation, warm surface air begins to rise, causing air near the ground to be drawn into the developing whirlwind.  A light wind will start this rising air to rotate, and once the rotation has begun, it becomes faster due to the same physical principle that causes ice-skaters to spin faster as they pull their arms closer to their body. As the inwardly spiraling air rises, it carries sand, dust, and other loose debris tens of meters into the air. It is this material that makes a dust devil visible. Occasionally, dust devils form above ground covered with vegetation. Under these conditions, the vortices may go undetected unless they interact with objects at the surface.

Most dust devils are small and short-lived; consequently, they are not generally destructive. Occasionally, however, these whirlwinds grow to be 100 meters or more in diameter and over a kilometer high. Larger and more vigorous dust devils have a longer lifetime than smaller ones. One large dust devil, with a height of about 750 meters, lasted for seven hours as it traveled 64 kilometers in western Utah. With winds that whirl at speeds that may reach 100 kilometers per hour, such large dust devils can do considerable damage.

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ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 2

1

C

6

B

11

D

16

D

21

C

26

D

31

C

36

D

41

D

46

B

2

C

7

B

12

A

17

A

22

B

27

D

32

C

37

A

42

C

47

D

3

C

8

A

13

B

18

D

23

A

28

B

33

B

38

A

43

C

48

A

4

C

9

A

14

C

19

B

24

D

29

B

34

D

39

B

44

A

49

D

5

B

10

C

15

A

20

D

25

D

30

A

35

A

40

B

45

C

50

D

3. Đề số 3

ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QG MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT NGUYỄN TRUNG THIÊN- ĐỀ 03

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from

Question 1: A. permitted B. wanted C. stopped D. needed
Question 2:  A. effect B. enter C. restore D. engage

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3A. effort B. actor C. perform D. area
Question 4A. disappear B. recommend C. entertain D. fortunate

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5: Lady Gaga is an American singer, songwriter and actress, _____ ?

A. doesn’t                    B. is she                       C. isn’t Lady Gaga                   D. isn’t she

Question 6. Many graffiti __________ without the permission of the owner of the wall.

A. are writing              B. are written               C. is writing             D. is written

Question 7. She likes reading books __________ the library.

A. on                            B. at                             C. in                     D. from

Question 8. The more cigarettes you smoke, __________ you will die.

A. the easier                 B. more sooner             C. the sooner         D. faster

Question 9. It's silly of him to spend a lot of money buying __________ 

A. a thick wooden old table

B. a thick old wooden table

C. an old wooden thick table

D. a wooden thick old table

Question 10. When he came, I __________ in the kitchen.

A. cooked                    B. am cooking              C. has cooked           D. was cooking

Question 11. __________ he was the most prominent candidate, he was not chosen.

A. Though                   B. Because                   C. As                  D. Since

Question 12. __________ the destination, he will have been walking for about three hours.

A. When John will get

B. By the time John gets

C. After John has got

D. Until John is getting

Question 13. On __________ he had won, he jumped for joy.

A. he was told              B. having told               C. being told          D.get fined

Question 14: His __________ of the generator is very famous.

A. invent                      B. inventive                  C. invention            D. inventor

Question 15: The government hopes to __________ its plans for introducing cable TV.

A. turn out                   B. carry out                  C. carry on             D. keep on

Question 16: The jury __________ her compliments on her excellent knowledge of the subject.

A. paid                         B. gave             C. made                    D. said

Question 17: Nobody took any __________ of the warning and they went swimming in the contaminated water.

A. information             B. attention                   C. sight                        D. notice

Question 18: I had a __________ chat with my manager and gave him an update on the project.

A. brief            B. short            C. quick                                   D. lull

Question 19:There has been a hot debate among the scientists relating to the __________ of using robotic probes to study distant objects in space.

A. problems and solutions

B. pros and cons

C. solutions and limitations

D. causes and effects

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20: The new air conditioner was installed yesterday.

A. inspected thoroughly

B. put in position

C. well repaired

D. delivered to the customer

Question 21: We were pretty disappointed with the quality of the food.

A. highly                      B. rather                       C. extremely                            D. very

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: Many women prefer to use cosmetics to enhance their beauty and make them look younger.

A. improve                  B. maximize                 C. worsen                                D. enrich

Question 23: I think we cannot purchase this device this time as it costs an arm and a leg.

A. is cheap                   B. is painful                  C. is confusing             D. is expensive

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 24: Nam and Mai are having a party at Nam’s house.

  • Nam: “Would you like to have some more dessert, Mai?” - Mai: “__________. I’m full.”

A. That would be great

B. Yes, I like your party

C. Yes, please

D. No, thanks

Question 25: Tim and Peter had a quarrel last week and now Tom is giving Tim advice.

  • Tom: “I think the best way to solve that problem is to keep silent.”
  • Tim: “__________ . Silence may kill our friendship.”

A. That’s a great idea

B. That’s not a good idea

C. I’m not wrong

D. Yes, I think much

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.

Have you ever had the feeling that people older than you are hard to understand? Or, have you felt like people from younger generations just don't get it? Maybe you find it easier to connect with people (26)  __________ are closer to your age than those who are older or younger than you. You can probably thank the generation gap for these feelings.

There are currently six generations living in the United States: the Greatest Generation, Silent Generation, Baby Boomers, Generation X, Millennials, and Generation Z. (27) __________ generation has its own unique set of characteristics and norms. For (28) __________, the Greatest Generation (born 1901-1924) is known for its patriotism, hard workers, and loyalty to institutions. The Millennials (born 1980-2000) are characterized by their dependence on technology, detachment from traditional institutions, optimism, and open-mindedness. It is no (29) __________ that many people from different generations have a hard time understanding each other.

Generation gap refers to differences in actions, beliefs, interests, and opinions that (30) __________ between individuals from different generations. So, what causes these differences?

(Adapted from https://study.com/)

Question 26: A. who B. which C. when D. what
Question 27: A. Another B. Very C. All D. Each
Question 28: A. answer B. process C. example D. study
Question 29: A. wonder B. picture C. business D. training
Question 30: A. trade B. exist C. credit D. target

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.

Stars have been significant features in the design of many United States coins and their number has varied from one to forty-eight stars. Most of the coins issued from about 1799 to the early years of the twentieth century bore thirteen stars representing the thirteen original colonies.

Curiously enough, the first American silver coins, issued in 1794, had fifteen stars because by that time Vermont and Kentucky have joined the Union. At that time it was apparently the intention of mint officials to add a star for each new state. Following the admission of Tennessee in 1796, for example, some varieties of half dimes, dimes, and half dollars were produced with sixteen stars.

As more states were admitted to the Union, however, it quickly became apparent that this scheme would not prove practical and the coins from 1798 were issued with only thirteen Stars - one for each of the original colonies. Due to an error at the mint, one variety of the 1828 half-cent was issued with only twelve stars. There is also a variety of the large cent with only 12 stars, but this is the result of a die break and is not a true error.

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ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 3

1-C

2-B

3-C

4-D

5-D

6-B

7-C

8-C

9-B

10-D

11-A

12-B

13-C

14-C

15-B

16-A

17-D

18-A

19-B

20-B

21-B

22-C

23-A

24-D

25-B

26-A

27-D

28-C

29-A

30-B

31-B

32-D

33-B

34-A

35-B

36-D

37-C

38-B

39-A

40-B

41-D

42-D

43-B

44-B

45-D

46-A

47-C

48-A

49-D

50-B

4. Đề số 4

ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QG MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT NGUYỄN TRUNG THIÊN- ĐỀ 04

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from that of the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1.

A. laughed

B. sacrificed

C. cooked

D. explained

Question 2.

A. meat

B. bean

C. sweat

D. meaning

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3.

A. support

B. slogan

C. icon

D. motto

Question 4.

A. dominate

B. disagree

C. disrespect

D. interfere

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5. Nobody called me yesterday, ......................... ?

A. didn't it                   B. do they                               C. didn't they                          D. did they

Question 6.This house ......................... in 1970 by my grandfather.

A. built                        B. was built                             C. was build                            D. has built

Question 7. What do you know ........... him?

A. on                           B. about                                 C. with            D. for

Question 8.  The more I tried my best to help her, ............. she became.

A. less lazy                  B. the lazier                             C. the more lazy                      D. lazier

Question 9. She has just bought ......................... .

A. an interesting French old painting

B. an old interesting French painting

C. a French interesting old painting

D. an interesting old French painting

Question 10. When the boss walked into the office, his secretary ......................... .

A.has been typing       B.was typing                           C. is typing           D. had typed

Question 11. She got the job ......................... the fact that she had very little experience.

A. although                 B. because of                          C. despite           D. because

Question 12. ......................... to help, we will have finished the work.

A. By the time John comes

B. Since John comes

C. When John comes

D. Until John comes

Question 13: ......................... the distance was too far and the time was short, we decided to fly there instead of going there by train.

A. To discover

B. Discovered

C. To have discovered

D. Discovering

Question 14: She was pleased that things were going on ......................... .

A. satisfied                  B. satisfactorily                       C. satisfying          D. satisfaction

Question 15. I was late for work because my alarm clock did not ......................... .

A. turn off                   B. put off                C. send off             D. go off

Question 16: Peter ......................... a better understanding of Algebra than we do.

A. makes                     B. has                  C. takes               D. gives

Question 17: The sight of his pale face brought  ......................... to me how ill he really was.

A. place                       B. house              C. life                 D. home

Question 18. Ihe children had to ......................... in the principal’s office after they took part in a fight.

A. hit the right notes

B. beat around the bush

C. play second fiddle

D. face the music

Question 19: In the formal interview, it is essential to maintain good eye ......................... with the interviewers.

A. contact        B. touch              C. link                  D. connection

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the un- derlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20: The factory is fined for discharging dangerous chemicals into the river.

A. releasing                 B. increasing           C. decreasing                           D. keeping

Question 21: The new college is intended to improve the life chances of children in the inner city.

A. productions            B. communities         C. opportunities                       D. questions

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: Children brought up in a caring environment tend to grow more sympathetic towards others.

A. loving                     B. dishonest             C. healthy                                D. hateful

Question 23: It’s quite disappointing that some people still turn a blind eye to acts of injustice they witness in the street.

A. take no notice of

B. have no feeling for

C. show respect for

D. pay attention to

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the fol- lowing exchanges.

Question 24: Janet wants to invite Susan to go to the cinema.

  • Janet: “Do you feel like going to the cinema this evening?” - Susan: “......................... .”

A. I don’t agree, I’m afraid

B. You’re welcome

C. That would be great 

D. I feel very bored

Question 25: - Baker: “In my opinion, women often drive more carefully than men.”

  • Barbara: “..................”

A. Never mind

B. What nonsense

C. Absolutely

D. Yes, please

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.

Urban development is having a direct impact on the weather in (26) ......................... cities worldwide. It has been noticed that the difference in temperature is usually greater at night and the phenomenon occurs in both winter and summer. Experts agree that this is due to urban development, when open green spaces are replaced with asphalt roads and tall brick or concrete buildings. These materials retain heat generated by the Sun and release it through the night. In Atlanta, in the US, this has even led to thunderstorms (27) ......................... occur in the morning rather than, as is more common, in the afternoon.

Large cities around the world are adopting strategies to combat this issue, (28) ......................... it is not uncommon to find plants growing on top of roofs or down the walls of large buildings. In Singapore, the government has (29) ......................... to transform it into a "city within a garden" and, in 2006, they held an international competition calling for entries to develop a master plan to help bring this about. One outcome was the creation of 18 "Supertrees" – metal constructions resembling very tall trees. Each one is a vertical freestanding garden and is (30) ......................... to exotic plants and ferns. They also contain solar panels used to light the trees at night and also containers to collect rainwater, making them truly self-sufficient.

Question 26:

A. one

B. many

C. each

D. much

Question 27:

A. which

B. where

C. what

D. when

Question 28:

A. however

B. for

C. otherwise

D. and

Question 29:

A. committed

B. pledged

C. confessed

D. required

Question 30:

A. land

B. house

C. place

D. home

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.

Edward Patrick Eagan was born on April 26th 1897 in Denver, Colorado, and his father died in a railroad accident when Eagan was only one year old. He and his four brothers were raised by his mother, who earned a small income from teaching foreign languages.

Inspired by Frank Marriwell, the hero of a series of popular novels for boys, Eagan pursued an education for himself and an interest in boxing. He attended the University of Denver for a year before serving in the U.S. army as an artillery lieutenant during World War I. After the war, he entered Yale University and while studying there, won the US national amateur heavyweight boxing title. He graduated from Yale in 1921, attended Harvard Law School, and received a Rhodes scholarship to the University of Oxford where he received his A.M. in 1928.

While studying at Oxford, Eagan became the first American to win the British amateur boxing championship. Eagan won his first gold medal as a light heavyweight boxer at the 1920 Olympic Games in Antwerp, Belgium. Eagan also fought at the 1924 Olympics in Paris as a heavyweight but failed to get a medal. Though he had taken up the sport just three weeks before the competition, he managed to win a second gold medal as a member of four-man bobsled team at the 1932 Olympics in Lake Placid, New York. Thus, he became the only athlete to win gold medals at both the Summer and Winter Olympics.

(Adapted from "Peteson's Master TOEFL Reading Skills)

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ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 4

1-D

2-C

3-A

4-A

5-D

6-B

7-B

8-B

9-D

10-B

11-C

12-A

13-D

14-B

15-D

16-B

17-D

18-D

19-A

20-A

21-C

22-D

23-D

24-C

25-C

26-B

27-A

28-D

29-B

30-D

31-A

32-C

33-D

34-C

35-B

36-D

37-D

38-B

39-B

40-A

41-A

42-B

43-C

44-A

45-C

46-B

47-A

48-B

49-B

50-A

5. Đề số 5

ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QG MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT NGUYỄN TRUNG THIÊN- ĐỀ 05

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. mended B. faced C. objected D. waited
Question 2. A. breakfast B. feature C. peasant D. pleasure

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. confide B. gather C. divide D. maintain
Question 4. A. compulsory B. certificate C. category D. accompany

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5. She didn’t go yesterday, _________?

A. does she           B. doesn't she              C. did she         D. didn’t she

Question 6. .Laura................ in Boston.

A. are born            B. were born               C. was born                 D. born

Question 7.These facts may be familiar............ you.

A. with                          B. about                                  C. to                D. into

Question 8.............. I get to know Jim, the more I like him.

A. For more                B. More                 C. The more                D. The most

Question 9.We like _________ policies.

A. American recent economic

B. economic recent American

C. recent American economic

D. recent economic American

Question 10. He fell down when he _________ towards the church.

A. run                          B. runs                         C. was running                        D. had run

Question 11. He managed to win the race _________ hurting his foot before the race.

A. in spite of               B. despite of                C. although                             D. because of

Question 12. _________ the letter, Tom will have left for Paris.

A. By the time we receive

B. before we receive

C. when we receive

D. after we receive

Question 13: _________ UNESCO criteria for outstanding universal value to humanity, Trang An Scenic Landscape Complex was added to the World Heritage List in 2014.

A. Meeting                              B. Met                         C. To meet            D. Having met

Question 14: The teacher likes her essay because it’s very _________ 

A. imagination            B. imaginable              C.imaginative             D. imaginary

Question 15: When being interviewed, you should _________ what the interviewer is saying or asking you.

A. be related to 

B. be interested in

C. express interest to D. concentrate on

Question 16: We have been working hard. Let’s _________ a break.

A. make                                   B. find                        C. do                                       D. take

Question 17: The _________ prices of property in big cities may deter people on low incomes from owning a house there.

A. competitive                         B. forbidding              C. prohibitive              D. inflatable

Question 18. We were so looking forward to stretching out on the beach in the sunshine, but it _________ the whole time we were there.

A. poured with rain

B. rained dogs and cats

C. dropped in the bucket

D. made hay while the sun shined

Question 19. Environmental groups try to stop farmers from using harmful _________ on their crops.

A. economy                B. Agriculture             C. investments                        D. chemicals

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the un- derlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20: My uncle, who is an accomplished guitarist, taught me how to play.

A. skillful                 B. famous             C. perfect             D. modest

Question 21: Dozens of valuable works of art disappeared during shipment to the US.

A. authority                   B. security           C. activity                                D. delivery

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: Some vegetables are grown without soil and artificial light.

A. real            B. natural           C. genuine                               D. true

Question 23: It is very difficult to tell him to give in because he is so big-headed.

A. wise        B. generous                 C. modest                               D. arrogant

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 24: Jane had difficulty carrying her suitcase upstairs, and Mike, her friend, offered to help.

– Mike: “Need a hand with your suitcase, Jane?” – Jane: “_________ ”

A. Not a chance. 

B. That’s very kind of you.

C. Well done!

D. I don’t believe it.

Question 25: Julia and Phoebe is talking about Peter.

  • Julia: “Peter was born and brought up in Hastings and he must know it very well.”
  • Phoebe: “_________ . He even couldn’t tell me where to have some street food there.”

A. I can’t agree with you more.

B. You must be right.

C. I'm of the opposite opinion.

D. I don't think that's a good idea

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.

In the year 1900, the world was in the midst of a machine revolution. (26) _____ electrical power became more ubiquitous, tasks once done by hand were now completed quickly and efficiently by machine. Sewing machines replaced needle and thread. Tractors replaced hoes. Typewriters replaced pens. Automobiles replaced horse-drawn carriages.

A hundred years later, in the year 2000, machines were again pushing the boundaries of (27) _____ was possible. Humans could now work in space, thanks to the International Space Station. We were finding out the composition of life thanks to the DNA sequencer. Computers and the world wide web changed the way we learn, read, communicate, or start political revolutions.

So what will be the game-changing machines in the year 2100? How will they (28) _____ our lives better, cleaner, safer, more efficient, and (29) _____ exciting?

We asked over three dozen experts, scientists, engineers, futurists, and organizations in five different disciplines, including climate change, military, infrastructure, transportation, and space exploration, about how the machines of 2100 will change humanity. The (30) _____ we got back were thought-provoking, hopeful and, at times, apocalyptic.

(Adapted from https://www.popularmechanics.com/)

Question 26:

A. Despite

B. However

C. Although

D. As

Question 27:

A. what

B. that

C. who

D. which

Question 28:

A. notice

B. taste

C. make

D. hope

Question 29:

A. much

B. more

C. little

D. less

Question 30:

A. answers

B. programs

C. contacts

D. services

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Right now, the biggest source of energy in the world is fossil fuel. Fossil fuels are oil, gas, and coal. More than 80 percent of the world's energy comes from fossil fuel. There are many problems with fossil fuel. One problem is that when fossil fuel is burned, it pollutes the air. Also, when we take fossil fuel from the Earth, we often cause a lot of damage. Another problem is that we are running out of it. That is why we need new sources of energy. A big source of energy for many countries is nuclear power. Thirty-one countries use nuclear power. Many ships also use it.

Nuclear power has some advantages. First of all, we can't run out of nuclear power. Nuclear power does not make the air dirty. Also, if a country has nuclear power, it doesn't need to buy as much as oil from other countries.

However, there are also a lot of problems that come with nuclear power. For example, nuclear accidents are very serious. In 1986, there was a nuclear accident in Ukraine. In the next 20 years, about 4,000 people got sick and died. In 2011, there was another very serious nuclear accident in Japan. Japan is still trying to clean up the nuclear waste from the accident.

Many people don't want nuclear power in their countries. They say that it is not safe. A lot of people want their countries to use safer and cleaner ways to get electricity. There have been protests against nuclear energy in the United States, Russia, France, Taiwan, Japan, India, and many other countries.

Although many people hate nuclear energy, more and more countries are using it. One reason for this is that the world is using more and more energy. We just don't have enough fossil fuel. However, if we use nuclear power, then we may have more serious problems in the future.

---(Để xem tiếp nội dung của đề thi số 5 các em vui lòng xem tại online hoặc đăng nhập vào HỌC247 để tải về máy)---

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 5

1-B

2-B

3-B

4-C

5-C

6-C

7-C

8-C

9-C

10-C

11-A

12-A

13-D

14-C

15-D

16-D

17-C

18-A

19-D

20-A

21-D

22-B

23-C

24-B

25-C

26-D

27-A

28-C

29-B

30-A

31-B

32-A

33-D

34-B

35-B

36-B

37-A

38-A

39-C

40-D

41-A

42-B

43-C

44-C

45-C

46-D

47-B

48-B

49-C

50-C

...

Trên đây là một phần trích đoạn nội dung Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG môn Tiếng Anh năm 2021-2022 có đáp án Trường THPT Nguyễn Trung Thiên Lần 1. Để xem toàn bộ nội dung các em chọn chức năng xem online hoặc đăng nhập vào trang hoc247.net để tải tài liệu về máy tính.

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