Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG môn Tiếng Anh năm 2021-2022 có đáp án Trường THPT Nguyễn Hữu Huân

TRƯỜNG THPT NGUYỄN HỮU HUÂN

ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM HỌC 2021-2022 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH (Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút)

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. amuse	B. purse	C. blouse	D. please
Question 2. A. change	B. champagne	C. channel	D. childhood

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. struggle	B. anxious	C. confide	D. comfort
Question 4. A. approach	B. leftover	C. supportive	D. biologist

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5. The girl proposed that their group leader __________ a camping trip.

A. organized                     B. organize                        C. organizes                      D. organizing

Question 6. The police have just found the man and his car __________ were swept away during the heavy storm last week.

A. that                               B. which                            C. whose                           D. when

Question 7. The next meeting __________ in May.

A. will hold                       B. will be held                   C. will be holding             D. will have held

Question 8. My grandfather is getting old and forgetful. __________, he is experienced.

A. Be that as it may

B. Regardless

C. Inasmuch as it is

D. Consequently

Question 9. He was the last man __________ the meeting room.

A. who leave                     B. to leave                         C. leaving                          D. left

Question 10. My responsibility is to wash dishes and __________ the garbage.

 A. take care of                  B. take out                        C. take off                         D. take over

Question 11. The judge __________ the pedestrian for the accident.

   A. accused                        B. charged                         C. sued                D. blamed

Question 12. The book says that the revolution was __________ off by the assassination of the president.

   A. launched                       B. cropped                C. triggered        D. prompted

Question 13. Our flight was delayed, but the plane finally __________ shortly after midnight.

   A. took on                         B. put off            C. took up            D. took off

Question 14. _________ my personal qualities, I have experience of working in a multi-national company for three years.

   A. Beside                          B. In addition         C. Instead of                     D. Apart from

Question 15. The film _________ in 1997 is about the wild animals.

   A. made             B. which made                  C. making                          D. to make

Question 16. My car isn’t _________ . It’s always letting me down.

   A. believable         B. reliable          C. colorable       D. conceivable

Question 17. That women died of a drug _________ .

   A. overweight                   B. overhear        C. overdo          D. overdose

Question 18. He denied _________ the window of the classroom.

   A. to break                        B. break             C. to breaking       D. breaking

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 19. Some operations many have to be halted unless more blood donors come forward to help.

   A. offer                             B. claim                C. attempt                         D. refuse

Question 20. The augmentation in the population has created a fuel shortage.

   A. increase                        B. necessity           C. demand                        D. decrease

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 21. They conducted a campaign to promote people’s awareness of environmental problems.

A. encourage                     B. publicize           C. hinder          D. strengthen

Question 22. “ Please speak up a bit more, Jack. You’re hardly loud enough to be heard from the back”, the teacher said.

A. visible                           B. edible             C. eligible         D. inaudible

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 23. Two students are talking about the school curriculum.

- Hoa: “Swimming should be taught in the school.”

- Nam: “___________. It is an essential life skill.”

A. Oh, that’s a problem

B. I can’t agree with you more

C. Not at all

D. You can make it

Question 24. - Mark: “You stepped on my toes!”

- Mike: “________________”

A. Are you sure? It’s understandable.

B. Really? I’m glad.

C. I’m sorry but I meant it.

D. I’m terribly sorry. I didn’t mean it.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 25 to 29.

In spring 2008, the polar bear was placed on the endangered species list. According to the USA’s Endangered Species Act, an endangered species is an animal, plant or any other kind of wildlife that is likely to face extinction in its natural (25)_________. Polar bears had already been categorized (26)_________ a “threatened” species which the ESA defines as one that is likely to become “endangered” in the foreseeable future.

The polar bear’s habitat is more (27)_________ to global warming than many other species. Polar bears live mainly on the sea ice in the Arctic. This is where they hunt for fish and build up fat reserves. When the ice melts many polar bears move to land and live off their stored fat. In the Arctic, global warming is causing the ice to melt slightly earlier and form slightly later. This (28)_________ a shorter feeding season for the polar bear. Some risk their lives to find ice. If they have to swim too far they will drown from exhaustion and hunger. The World Wildlife Fund (29)_________ that over 25% of Arctic sea ice has disappeared in the past 30 years.

Question 25.	A. habitat	B. forest	C. home	D. life
Question 26.	A. like	B. with	C. as	D. by
Question 27.	A. adaptable	B. vulnerable	C. dangerous	D. convenient
Question 28.	A. results from	B. leads in	C. come from	D. results in
Question 29.	A. establishes	B. estimates	C. ensures	D. encourages

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 30 to 34.

Over the past 600 years, English has grown from a language of few speakers to become the dominant language of international communication. English as we know it today emerged around 1350, after having incorporated many elements of French that were introduced following the Norman invasion of 1066. Until the 1600s, English was, for the most part, spoken only in England and had not expanded even as far as Wales, Scotland, or Ireland. However, during the course of the next two century, English began to spread around the globe as a result of exploration, trade (including slave trade), colonization, and missionary work. Thus, small enclaves of English, speakers became established and grew in various parts of the world. As these communities proliferated, English gradually became the primary language of international business, banking, and diplomacy.

Currently, about 80 percent of the information stored on computer systems worldwide is in English. Two thirds of the world’s science writing is in English, and English is the main language of technology, advertising, media, international airport, and air traffic controllers. Today there are more than 700 million English users in the world, and over half of these are non-native speakers, constituting the largest number of non-native users than any other language in the world.

Question 30. What is the main topic of the passage?

A. The number of non-native users of English.

B. The French influence on the English language.

C. The expansion of English as an international language.

D. The use of English for science and technology.

Question 31. In the first paragraph, the word “emerged” is closest in meaning to __________

A. appeared                       B. hailed                            C. frequented                    D. engaged

Question 32. Approximately when did English begin to be used beyond England?

A. In 1066                         B. around 1350                 C. before 1600                  D. after 1600

Question 33. According to the passage, all of the following contributed to the spread of English around the world EXCEPT__________.

A. the slave trade                                                        B. the Norman invasion

C. missionaries                                                            D. colonization

Question 34. According to the passage, approximately how many non-native users of English are there in the world today ?

A. a quarter million

B. half a million

C. 350 million

D. 700 million

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.

Newspaper publishers in the United States have long been enthusiastic users and distributors of weather maps. Although some newspapers that had carried the United States Weather Bureau’s national weather map in 1912 dropped it once the novelty had passed, many continued to print the daily weather chart provided by their local forecasting office. In the 1930’s, when interest in aviation and progress in air-mass analysis made weather patterns more newsworthy, additional newspapers started or resumed the daily weather map. In 1935, The Associated Press (AP) news service inaugurated its WirePhoto network and offered subscribing newspapers morning and afternoon weather maps redrafted by the AP’s Washington, B.C., office from charts provided by the government agency. Another news service, United Press International (UPI), developed a competing photowire network and also provided timely weather maps for both morning and afternoon newspapers. After the United States government launched a series of weather satellites in 1966, both the AP and UPI offered cloud-cover photos obtained from the Weather Bureau.

In the late 1970’s and early 1980’s, the weather map became an essential ingredient in the redesign of the American newspaper. News publishers, threatened by increased competition from television for readers’ attention, sought to package the news more conveniently and attractively. In 1982, many publishers felt threatened by the new USA Today, a national daily newspaper that used a page-wide full-color weather map as its key design element. That the weather map in USA today did not include information about weather fronts and pressures attests to the largely symbolic role it played. Nonetheless, competing local and metropolitan newspapers responded in a variety of ways. Most substituted foil-color temperature maps for the standard weather maps, while others dropped the comparatively drab satellite photos or added regional forecast maps with pictorial symbols to indicate rainy, snowy, cloudy, or clear conditions. A few newspapers, notably The New York Times, adopted a highly informative yet less visually prominent weather map that was specially designed to explain an important recent or imminent weather event. Ironically, a newspaper’s richest, most instructive weather maps often are comparatively small and inconspicuous.

Question 35. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. The differences between government and newspaper weather forecasting in the United States

B. The history of publishing weather maps in United States newspapers

C. A comparison of regional and national weather reporting in the United States

D. Information that forms the basis for weather forecasting in the United States

Question 36. The word “resumed” in the passage is closest in meaning to ____________.

A. began again                  B. held back        C. thought over     D. referred to

Question 37. According to the passage, one important reason why newspapers printed daily weather maps during the first half of the twentieth century was ____________.

A. the progress in printing technology

B. a growing interest in air transportation

C. a change in atmospheric conditions

D. the improvement of weather forecasting techniques

Question 38. The phrase “attests to” in the passage is closest in meaning to ____________.

A. makes up for                B. combines with

 C. interferes with             D. gives evidence of

Question 39. The word “others” in the passage refers to ____________.

A. newspapers                   B. ways             C. temperature maps         D. weather maps

Question 40. The word “drab” in the passage is closest in meaning to ____________.

A. precise                          B. poor                              C. simple                           D. dull

Question 41. In contrast to the weather maps of USA Today, weather maps in The New York Times tended to be ____________.

A. printed in foil color 

B. included for symbolic reasons

C. easily understood by the readers

D. filled with detailed information

Question 42. The author uses the term “Ironically” in the passage to indicate that a weather map’s appearance ____________.

A. is not important to newspaper publishers

B. does not always indicate how much information it provides

C. reflects how informative a newspaper can be

D. often can improve newspaper sales

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 43. (A) No other quality is more important (B) for a scientist to acquire (C) as to observe (D) carefully.

Question 44. He not only (A) composed popular songs (B) for musicals, (C) and wrote (D) more serious concerts.

Question 45. The proposal (A) has repealed after a (B) twenty-minutes discussion (C) a number of objections to its failure (D) to include our district.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 46. You needn’t hurry because there is a delay of about two hours.

A. There is a delay of about two hours and therefore you mustn’t hurry.

B. It is not possible for you to hurry because there is a delay of about two hours.

C. It is not necessary for you to hurry because there is a delay of about two hours.

D. You mustn’t hurry because there is a delay of about two hours.

Question 47. It is not until the sun is shining brightly that the little girl woke up.

A. No sooner is the sun shining brightly than the little girl woke up.

B. Not until the little girl woke up is the sun shining brightly.

C. Not until the sun is shining brightly did the little girl wake up.

D. As soon as the little girl woke up, the sun hasn’t shone brightly yet.

Question 48. We couldn’t have managed our business successfully without my father’s money.

A. Had it not been for my father’s money, we couldn’t have managed our business successfully.

B. We couldn’t have managed our business successfully with my father’s money.

C. If we could manage our business successfully, my father would give us his money.

D. If we couldn’t have managed our business successfully, we would have had my father’s money.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49. He didn’t take his father’s advice. That’s why he is out of work.

A. If he had taken his father’s advice, he would not have been out of work.

B. If he took his father’s advice, he would not be out of work.

C. If he had taken his father’s advice, he would not be out of work.

D. If he takes his father’s advice, he will not be out of work.

Question 50. He has been studying for many years. He should have realized sooner that his grammar was incorrect.

A. He has been studying for many years to have soon realized that his grammar was incorrect.

B. He has been studying for many years that he should have realized sooner that his grammar was incorrect.

C. No sooner has he been studying for many years than he should have realized that his grammar was incorrect.

D. Though he has been studying for many years, he did not realize sooner that his grammar was incorrect.

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 1

1-B	2-B	3-C	4-B	5-B	6-A	7-B	8-A	9-B	10-B
11-D	12-C	13-D	14-D	15-A	16-B	17-D	18-D	19-A	20-A
21-D	22-C	23-A	24-B	25-D	26-C	27-B	28-D	29-B	30-C
31-A	32-D	33-B	34-C	35-B	36-A	37-B	38-D	39-A	40-D
41-D	42-B	43-C	44-C	45-B	46-B	47-A	48-D	49-D	50-C

ĐỀ THI THPT QG MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT NGUYỄN HỮU HUÂN- ĐỀ 02

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. expand	B. vacancy	C. applicant	D. category
Question 2. A. paradise	B. reliable	C. helpline	D. illiterate

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. require	B. consist	C. achieve	D. system
Question 4. A. medicine	B. graduate	C. interesting	D. encourage

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5. No one enjoys __________ in public.

   A. being made fun of                  B. to be made fun of

   C. making fun of                        D. to make fun of

Question 6. The box of disks for the computer __________ misplaced.

   A. have            B. have been                     C. has been                        D. has

Question 7. __________, he received a big applause.

   A. Finishing his presentation                    B. His presentation has been finished

   C. After he finishes his presentation        D. When finished his speech

Question 8. My younger brother had his hair __________ yesterday.

   A. be cut                           B. to be cut                       C. cut            D. being cut

Question 9. Is there __________ for everyone?

   A. food and drink enough

   B. enough food and drink

   C. enough of food and drink

   D. enough food and drink enough

Question 10. The cup will be on __________ at the clubhouse for a month before being sent to the museum.

   A. display                          B. parade                           C. exposition                     D. stage

Question 11. __________ he arrived at the bus stop when the bus came.

   A. Hardly had

   B. No sooner had

   C. No longer has

   D. Not until had

Question 12. They are always on good __________ with their next-door neighbors.

   A. will             B. friendship                     C. terms                 D. relations

Question 13. With this type of insurance, you’re buying __________ of mind.

   A. peace           B. satisfaction                   C. calmness          D. contentment

Question 14. Many applicants find a job interview __________ if they are not well-prepared for it.

   A. impressive      B. stressful        C. threatening        D. time-consuming

Question 15. __________ 90% of Asia’s people live in the eastern and southern parts of the continent, which contain some of the most __________ regions in the world.

   A. Most/dense-populated

   B. Most/densely-populated

   C. Almost/dense-populated

   D. Almost/densely-populated

Question 16. Everybody thinks that the play last night was very successful, __________ ?

   A. don’t they                    B. doesn’t he                     C. was it                            D. wasn’t it

Question 17. Many ambulances took __________ injured to a nearby hospital.

   A. an                                 B. a                                    C. the                                D. Ø

Question 18. Don’t touch the cat. It may __________ you.

   A. kick                              B. tear                               C. scream                          D. scratch

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 19. These boys are advised to concentrate on their studying.

   A. remember

   B. pay attention to

   C. be interested in

   D. resemble

Question 20. My two children were full of beans today, looking forward to their trip.

   A. disappointed

   B. hyperactive

   C. melancholy

   D. lively and in high spirits

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 21. She was so insubordinate that she lost her job within a week.

   A. fresh             B. disobedient                   C. obedient          D. understanding

Question 22. Although I persuaded my father to solve this very serious problem, he just made light of it.

   A. completely ignored

   B. treated as important

   C. disagreed with

   D. discovered by chance

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 23. Tim and Mark are university students. They are going on a field trip.

Tim: “What do we have to bring for the trip?”

Mark: “_______________”

A. What an interesting book you have!

B. We’ll set off very early, you know.

C. All the course books, of course.

D. Well, don’t make a fuss.

Question 24. Wife: “The TV in our living room is broken.”

Husband: “________________”

A. But it’s big.

B. We have to pay extra money.

C. But it’s small.

D. We’ll get it fixed.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 25 to 29.

Always arrive early. If you do not know (25) _____________ the organization is located, call for exact directions (26) _____________ advance. Leave some extra time for any traffic, parking, or unexpected events. If you are running late, call right away and let someone know. The best time to arrive is approximately 5-10 minutes early. Give yourself the time to read your resume one more time, to catch your breath, and to be ready for the interview. Once you are at the office, treat everyone you encounter with respect. Be (27) _____________ to everyone as soon as you walk in the door.

Wear a professional business suit. This point should be emphasized enough. First (28) _____________ are extremely important in the interview process. Women should (29) _____________ wearing too much jewelry or make up. Men should avoid flashy suits or wearing too much perfume. It is also important that you feel comfortable. While a suit is the standard interview attire in a business environment, if you think it is an informal environment, call before and ask. Regardless, you can never be overdressed if you are wearing a tailored suit.

Question 25. A. when	B. why	C. where	D. that
Question 26. A. with	B. in	C. on	D. for
Question 27. A. happy	B. pleasant	C. disappointed	D. excited
Question 28. A. attendances	B. attentions	C. impressions	D. pressures
Question 29. A. avoid	B. suggest	C. enjoy	D. mind

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 30 to 34.

Accidents do not occur at random. People eighty-five years of age and older are twenty-two times likely to die accidentally than are children five to nine years old. The risk for native Americans is four times that for Asian-Americans and twice that for white Americans or African-Americans. Males suffer accidents at more than twice the rate of females, in part because they are more prone to risky behavior. Alaskans are more than three times as likely as Rhode Islanders to die in an accident. Texans are twenty-one times more likely than New Jerseyites to die in a natural disaster. Among the one hundred most populous counties, kern County, California (Bakersfield), has an accident fatality rate three times greater than Summit County, Ohio (Akron).

Accidents happens more often to poor people. Those living in poverty receive inferior medical care, are more apt to reside in houses with faulty heating and electrical systems, drive older cars with fewer safety features, and are less likely to use safety belts. People in rural areas have more accidents than city or suburban dwellers because farming is much riskier than working in a factory or office and because emergency medical services are less readily available. These two factors - low income and rural residence - may explain why the south has a higher accident rate than the north.

Question 30. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?

   A. Children aged five to nine face the greatest accident risk.

   B. All people face an equal risk of having an accident.

   C. One in every 22 people aged 85 and over will die in an accident.

   D. The risk of having an accident is greater among certain groups of people.

Question 31. The word “inferior” in the passage is closest in meaning to ____________.

   A. modem                         B. low-quality                   C. well-equipped               D. unsafe

Question 32. According to the passage, which of the following groups of people in America face the highest risk of having an accident?

   A. Native Americans

   B. Asian-Americans

   C. White Americans

   D. African-Americans

Question 33. What does the word “that” in the passage refer to?

   A. males        B. native Americans          C. the risk          D. African-Americans

Question 34. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a reason for a higher accident rate among the poor?

   A. Little knowledge about safety

   B. Inadequate medical services

   C. Poor housing and working conditions

   D. Use of cars which incorporate fewer safety features

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.

In the early 1800s, to reach the jump-off point for the West, a family from the East of the United States could either buy a steamboat passage to Missouri for themselves, their wagons and their livestock or, as happened more often, simply pile everything into a wagon, hitch up a team, and begin their overland trek right in their front yard.

Along the macadamized roads and turnpikes east of the Missouri River, travel was comparatively fast, camping easy, and supplies plentiful. Then, in one river town or another, the neophyte emigrants would pause to lay in provisions. For outfitting purposes, the town of Independence had been preeminent ever since 1827, but the rising momentum of pioneer emigration had produced some rival jump-off points. Westport and Fort Leavenworth flourished a few miles upriver. St. Joseph had sprung up 55 miles to the northwest; in fact, emigrants who went to Missouri by riverboat could save four days on the trail by staying on the paddle wheelers to St. Joe before striking overland.

At whatever jump-off point they chose, the emigrants studied guide books and directions, asked questions of others as green as themselves, and made their final decision about outfitting. They had various, sometimes conflicting, options. For example, either pack animals or two -wheel carts or wagons could be used for the overland crossing. A family man usually chose the wagon. It was the costliest and slowest of the three, but it provided space and shelter for children and for a wife who likely as not was pregnant. Everybody knew that a top-heavy covered wagon might blow over in a prairie wind or be overturned by mountain rocks, that it might mire in river mud or sink to its hubs in desert sand, but maybe if those things happened on this trip, they would happen to someone else. Anyway, most pioneers, with their farm background, were used to wagons.

Question 35. The word “preeminent” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ___________.

   A. superior          B. most easily reached      C. oldest                            D. closest

Question 36. Which of the cities that served as a jump-off point can be inferred from the passage to be farthest west?

   A. Independence    B. Fort Leavenworth        C. St. Joseph                     D. Westport

Question 37. The expression “green” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _____________.

   A. optimistic         B. weary                            C. inexperienced               D. frightened

Question 38. All of the following were mentioned in the passage as options for modes of transportation from the Missouri River to the West EXCEPT _______________.

   A. a wagon     B. a two-wheel cart           C. a riverboat                    D. a pack animal

Question 39. All of the following features of the covered wagon made it unattractive to the emigrants EXCEPT _______________.

   A. its bulk                          B. the speed at which it could travel

   C. its familiarity and size   D. its cost

Question 40. In paragraph 3, the phrase “those things” refers to ______________.

   A. the belongings of the pioneers      B. the problems of wagon travel

   C. the types of transportation             D. the overland routes

Question 41. The author implies in the passage that the early emigrants ____________.

   A. preferred wagon travel to other types of travel

   B. left from the same place in Missouri

   C. knew a lot about travel

   D. were well stocked with provisions when they left their homes

Question 42. What is the topic of this passage?

   A. Important towns                             B. Getting started on the trip west

   C. Choosing a point of departure       D. The advantages of travelling by wagon

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

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ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 2

1-B	2-D	3-D	4-D	5-A	6-C	7-A	8-C	9-B	10-A
11-A	12-C	13-A	14-B	15-D	16-A	17-C	18-D	19-B	20-D
21-C	22-B	23-C	24-D	25-C	26-B	27-B	28-C	29-A	30-D
31-B	32-A	33-C	34-A	35-A	36-C	37-C	38-C	39-C	40-B
41-A	42-B	43-A	44-A	45-B	46-D	47-B	48-D	49-A	50-B

ĐỀ THI THPT QG MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT NGUYỄN HỮU HUÂN- ĐỀ 03

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. educate	B. eliminate	C. certificate	D. dedicate
Question 2. A. wicked	B. watched	C. stopped	D. cooked

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. pollution	B. disaster	C. volcano	D. cholera
Question 4. A. dangerous	B. computer	C. courageous	D. industrial

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5. When the weather was very hot in summer, sales of bottles of water went __________ the roof.

   A. through                         B. to               C. above              D. over

Question 6. The sky was grey and cloudy. __________ , we went to the beach.

   A. However          B. In spite of    C. Even though                 D. Consequently

Question 7. He left the country __________ arrest if he returned.

   A. in fear of

   B. under threat of

   C. with fear of

   D. with threat of

Question 8. We put his success __________ his efforts.

   A. up to                             B. down to                        C. off at         D. up with

Question 9. It is not easy for many civil servants to __________ on their salaries as the inflation

rate is very high.

   A. get by                           B. turn up                          C. wear out          D. run over

Question 10. The teacher __________ her to improve her listening skills.

   A. persisted                       B. insisted                         C. encouraged                   D. made

Question 11. I would rather you __________ your phone in the meeting.

   A. shouldn’t have used             B. shouldn’t use

   C. not to use                              D. didn’t use

Question 12. If you __________ less last night, you __________ so bad today.

   A. had drunk - would not have felt

   B. drank - would not feel

   C. had drunk - would not feel 

   D. would have drunk - would not feel

Question 13. It was difficult to guess what her __________ to the news would be.

   A. feelings                         B. reaction                         C. capital           D. opinion

Question 14. The total cost to renovate the building was $20 million, _________ double the original estimate.

   A. mostly                          B. most all                         C. the most           D. almost

Question 15. The _________ of new technology transformed our lives.

   A. interaction                    B. advent                          C. emergency       D. identity

Question 16. She is a(n) _________ . She finds it difficult to socialize with other students in the class.

   A. industrious                   B. dynamic                        C. reserved        D. sociable

Question 17. Our project was successful _________ its practicality.

   A. in terms of                    B. with a view to              C. regardless      D. on behalf of

Question 18. Last Sunday was _________ that we took a drive in the country.

   A. so beautiful day

   B. such a beautiful day

   C. so a beautiful day

   D. such beautiful day

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 19. The conference was held with a view to laying down rules for the treatment and protection of the wounded and the disaster-stricken.

A. establishing                  B. putting down                C. cancelling      D. putting aside

Question 20. Help and supports are rapidly sent to wherever there are victims of catastrophe.

A. sudden great disaster                                             B. warfare

C. poverty and famine                                                D. diseases and illnesses

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 21. During the five-decade history the Asian Games have been advancing in all aspects.

A. holding at         B. holding back     C. holding to                     D. holding by

Question 22. When you consider all the advantages you’ve gained, I think you’ll admit you had a good run for your money.

A. a lot of loss from your money

B. a lot of benefits from your money

C. a lot of advantages from your money

D. a lot of failures from your money

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 23. - “Excuse me! Where’s the parking lot?”

- “_________________”

A. You missed the turn. It’s back that way.

B. Do you get lost? I do too.

C. You mustn’t park your car here.

D. Why do you ask me? I don’t know.

Question 24. - John: “I’ve passed my final exam.”

- Tom: “_______________”

A. That’s a good idea.

B. Good luck.

C. It’s nice of you to say so.

D. Congratulations!

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 25 to 29.

Different kinds of animals have appeared and disappeared throughout Earth’s history. Some animals go extinct because the climate (25)__________ they live changes. The climate may become wetter or drier. It may become warmer or cooler. If the animals cannot change, or adapt, to the new climate, they die.

Some animals go extinct because they cannot (26)__________ with other animals for food. Some animals go extinct because they are killed by enemies. New kinds of animals are always evolving. Evolving means that the animals are changing (27)__________ from generation to generation. Small differences between parents, children, and grandchildren slowly add up over many, many generations. Eventually, a different kind of animal evolves.

Sometimes many of the animals on Earth go extinct at the (28)__________ time. Scientists call this a mass extinction. Scientists think there (29)__________ at least five mass extinctions in Earth’s history. The last mass extinction happened about 65 million years ago. This mass extinction killed off the dinosaurs.

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Question 25. A. which	B. where	C. what	D. when
Question 26. A. compete	B. find	C. complete	D. exist
Question 27. A. suddenly	B. quickly	C. slowly	D. accidentally
Question 28. A. different	B. various	C. similar	D. same
Question 29. A. will be	B. are	C. have been	D. has been

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 30 to 34.

Books which give instructions on how to do things are very popular in the United States today. Thousands of these How-to books are useful. In fact, there are about four thousand books with titles that begin with the words “How to”. One book may tell you how to earn more money. Another may tell you how to save or spend it and another may explain how to give your money away.

Many How-to books give advice on careers. They tell you how to choose a career and how to succeed in it. If you fail, however, you can buy the book “ How to Turn Failure into Success”. If you would like to become very rich, you can buy the book “How to Make a Millionaire”. If you never make any money at all, you may need a book called “How to Live on Nothing”.

One of the most popular types of books is one that helps you with personal problems. If you want to have a better love of life, you can read “How to Succeed in Love every Minute of Your Life”. If you are tired of books on happiness, you may prefer books which give step-by-step instructions on how to redecorate or enlarge a house.

Why have How-to books become so popular? Probably because life has become so complex. Today people have far more free time to use, more choices to make, and more problems to solve. How-to books help people deal with modem life.

Question 30. What is the passage mainly about?

A. How to succeed in love every minute of your life.

B. How to turn failure into success.

C. How to make a millionaire.

D. How-to books.

Question 31. The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to _____________

A. advice                           B. instruction                    C. How-to books              D. career

Question 32. Which of the following is NOT the type of books giving information on careers?

A. “How to Succeed in Love every Minute of Your Life”.

B. “How to Live on Nothing”

C. “How to Make a Millionaire”

D. “How to Turn Failure into Success”

Question 33. The word “step-by-step” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _________

A. little by little                 B. gradually                      C. slower and slower        D. A and B

Question 34. It can be inferred from the passage that _________

A. Today people are more bored with the modem life.

B. Modem life is more difficult to deal with.

C. Today people have fewer choices to make.

D. Today people are more interested in modem life.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.

Belgium is a very old country, with a fascinating mixture of old customs and modem laws. Belgium weddings may be performed as a civil ceremony or as a religious ceremony.

Traditionally, when a couple in Belgium wishes to announce their marriage, the wedding invitations are printed on two sheets of paper, one from the bride’s family and one sheet from the groom’s family. These wedding invitations symbolize the union of the two families and the partnership of the new union.

An ancient Belgium custom that is designed to unite the two families calls for the bride to stop as she walks up the isle and to hand her mother a single flower. The two then embrace. Then, during the recessional, the bride and groom walk to the groom’s mother and the new bride hands her new mother-in-law a single flower and the two of them embrace, symbolizing the bride’s acceptance of her new mother.

One of the most important and enduring traditions of the Belgium wedding is for the bride to carry a specially embroidered handkerchief that has her name embroidered on it. After the wedding this handkerchief is framed and hung on the wall in a place of honor. When the next female member of the bride’s family is to be wed, the handkerchief is removed from its frame, the new bride’s name is embroidered onto it, and it is passed down. The wedding handkerchief is passed from generation to generation, and is considered an important family heirloom.

During the wedding mass, the bride and the groom are enthroned in two large chairs placed near the altar, symbolizing that on this day and in this place they are the king and the queen. At the conclusion of the ceremony, the groom slips the wedding ring onto the third finger of his bride’s left hand. The ring, being an endless circle, symbolizes never-ending love, and the third finger of the left hand is believed to hold the vein that travels to the heart, symbolizing love. At the conclusion of the ceremony, the bride and groom share their first kiss as husband and wife. The kiss is considered a symbolic act of sharing each other’s spirit as the couple each breathes in a portion of their new mate’s soul.

The bridesmaids traditionally take up a collection of coins and as the bride and groom exit the church, the bridesmaids toss the coins to the poor outside the church. Giving gifts of money to the poor helps to insure prosperity for the new bride and groom.

Following the wedding the bride and groom are off on their honeymoon. In ancient times the honeymoon, which was celebrated by the drinking of mead, or honey wine, would last 28 days, one complete cycle of the moon. This was to make sure that the bride’s family did not try to steal their daughter back from her new husband.

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ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 3

1-C	2-A	3-D	4-A	5-A	6-A	7-B	8-B	9-A	10-C
11-D	12-C	13-B	14-D	15-B	16-C	17-A	18-B	19-A	20-A
21-B	22-A	23-A	24-D	25-B	26-A	27-C	28-D	29-C	30-D
31-D	32-A	33-D	34-B	35-B	36-C	37-D	38-B	39-B	40-C
41-B	42-C	43-C	44-D	45-A	46-A	47-B	48-D	49-C	50-B

ĐỀ THI THPT QG MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT NGUYỄN HỮU HUÂN- ĐỀ 04

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. mother	B. thunder	C. within	D. wither
Question 2. A. mineral	B. mitigate	C. minimize	D. minor

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. pollution	B. computer	C. currency	D. allowance
Question 4. A. punctuality	B. technological	C. characteristic	D. representative

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5. The house _________ the earthquake but then _________ by a fire.

A. survived - was destroyed                                       B. was survived - destroyed

C. survived - destroyed                                              D. was survived - was destroyed

Question 6. _________ is the existence of a large number of different kinds of animals and plants which make a balanced environment.

A. extinction                     B. biodiversity                  C. habitat                          D. conservation

Question 7. He joined the English club, _________ were over 50 years old.

A. most of its members                                               B. most of which

C. most of whom                                                        D. most of whose members

Question 8. Nobody phoned while I was out, _________ ?

A. wasn’t I                        B. was I                             C. did they             D. didn’t they

Question 9. This book provides students _________ useful tips that help them to pass the coming exam.

A. at                                  B. about                            C. for                D. with

Question 10. Action movies may have a negative _________ on children.

A. opinion                         B. influence                       C. dependence                  D. decision

Question 11. It’s a secret. You _________ let anyone know about it.

A. mustn’t                         B. needn’t                         C. mightn’t         D. may not

Question 12. The new manager laid down very strict rules as soon as he had _________ the position.

A. taken over              B. come over                     C. taken up                       D. taken off

Question 13. There were many politicians at the meeting, several of _________ were very young.

A. that            B. whom                           C. who                              D. which

Question 14. Thanks to the laser beams, at last, he could get rid of the _________ birthmark on his face.

A. normal                          B. abnormal       C. abnormality          D. abnormally

Question 15. Only when you grow up, _________ the truth.

A. you will know

B. you know

C. do you know

D. will you know

Question 16. _________ over long distances is a fact that everyone knows.

A. That electricity transmitting

B. That electricity can be transmitted

C. That electricity 

D. That can be transmitted

Question 17. David is a rich man because he _________ a lot of money last year.

A. went through                B. checked in                    C. fell behind                    D. came into

Question 18. Widespread forest destruction _________ in this particular area.

A. must have seen

B. ought to see

C. could have seen

D. can be seen

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 19. Talking about your feeling can help you get clear about what you feel.

A. control                          B. banish        C. get rid of                      D. figure out

Question 20. The swimmer dived into the pool at one end and swam under water to the other end, where she emerged from the water.

A. came out 

B. dried off

C. sank to the bottom

D. injured herself

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 21. We should husband our resources to make sure we can make it through these hard times.

A. spend                            B. manage                         C. use up                           D. marry

Question 22. Sorry, I can’t come to your birthday party. I am snowed under with work now.

A. relaxed about               B. busy with                      C. interested in                 D. free from

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 23. Mr David is having dinner with his friend in a restaurant.

- Mr David: “Could you bring me some water?”

- Waiter: “____________”

A. No, thanks.

B. Of course you can. 

C. I’m afraid not.

D. Certainly, sir.

Question 24. Huy was asking Mai, his classmate, for her opinion about the book he had lent her.

- Huy: “What do you think about the book?”

- Mai: “_________________”

A. Yes, let’s read it together.

B. The best I’ve ever read!

C. I can’t agree with you more.

D. I wish I could buy one.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 25 to 29.

The UK Government ensures that all schools in the UK (25)_________ certain standards, and this includes independent schools as well as those that are (26)_________ by the Government. All qualifications are awarded by national agencies accredited by the Qualification and Curriculum Authority (QCA), (27)_________ the quality of the qualifications you will gain is guaranteed.

At many independent schools in England, you will be encouraged to take part (28)_________ extracurricular activities to develop your hobbies and learn new skills, and you may be encouraged to take graded music exams (29)_________ by the Associated Board of the Royal Schools of Music. The exam grades gained from these are widely accepted toward university entry requirements.

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ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 4

1-B	2-D	3-C	4-C	5-A	6-B	7-D	8-C	9-D	10-B
11-A	12-A	13-B	14-B	15-D	16-B	17-D	18-D	19-D	20-A
21-C	22-D	23-D	24-B	25-A	26-C	27-B	28-B	29-A	30-B
31-C	32-D	33-A	34-A	35-B	36-A	37-A	38-D	39-C	40-A
41-B	42-D	43-A	44-C	45-C	46-A	47-B	48-B	49-A	50-B

ĐỀ THI THPT QG MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT NGUYỄN HỮU HUÂN- ĐỀ 05

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1. A. tomorrow      B. slowly        C. below       D. allow

Question 2. A. heavy            B. head          C. weather    D. easy

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3. A. obedient       B. decision      C. mischievous    D. biologist

Question 4. A. desert           B. common     C. hotel                D. temple

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5. No matter __________, he was an accomplished composer while still a child.

A. how it seems remarkable

B. how remarkable it seems

C. it seems remarkable how 

D. how seems it remarkable

Question 6. If he had known her address, he __________ her to his birthday party last week.

A. would have invited                                                B. would have invite

C. will invite                                                               D. would invite

Question 7. Many animal species are now on the __________ of extinction.

A. danger                          B. border                           C. verge                            D. margin

Question 8. I try to be friendly but it is hard to __________ some of my colleagues.

A. get on with                   B. watch out for                C. come up with               D. stand in for

Question 9. This job requires some important __________. You have to be good at operating machines and dealing with people.

A. degrees                         B. knowledge                    C. techniques                    D. skills

Question 10. Over the years, he gradually became impervious __________ his wife’s comments about his chosen profession and in the end she stopped complaining.

A. about                            B. for                                 C. of                                  D. to

Question 11. __________ you study harder, you won’t pass the examination.

A. Although                      B. Despite                         C. Unless                          D. If

Question 12. The more you practise your English, __________.

A. you will learn faster 

B. the faster you will learn

C. faster you will learn

D. the faster will you learn

Question 13. The city has __________ of young consumers who are sensitive to trends, and can, therefore, help industries predict the potential risks and success of products.

A. a high proportion                                                    B. a great level

C. a high rate                                                              D. a high

Question 14. Are you the boy __________ bicycle was stolen?

A. his                                 B. of which                       C. whose                           D. who

Question 15. A bridge must be strong enough to support its own weight __________ the weight of the people and vehicles that use it.

A. as far as                        B. as long as                      C. so well as                      D. as well as

Question 16. Whenever I visited her, my grandmother __________ my favorite cake for me.

A. would make

B. use to make

C. would have made

D. have made

Question 17. My mother usually buys her clothes __________. It’s cheaper than going to the dress maker.

A. on the house                 B. off the peg                    C. in public                       D. on the shelf

Question 18. I __________ there once a long time ago and __________ back since then.

A. have gone/ was

B. went/ have not been

C. go/ am not 

D. was going/ has not been

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 19. Childbearing is the women’s most wonderful role.

A. bringing up a child

B. giving birth to a baby

C. having no child

D. educating a child

Question 20. The most irritating people are those who always disturb others by asking really stupid questions.

A. annoying                      B. exciting                         C. cheerful                        D. humorous

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 21. You have got a high score in the final exam. You should put yourself on the back.

A. criticize yourself

B. wear a backpack

C. praise yourself 

D. check up your back

Question 22. She lived with a rich family in London during her childhood.

A. selfish                           B. well-off                        C. famous                         D. penniless

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 23. - Lan: “Can I get you something to drink?”

- Hoa: “_________________”

A. I’d like some Coke, thanks.

B. Thank you. You’re welcome.

C. Yes, why not? 

D. Yes, you can, of course.

Question 24. - Mr John: “What do you do for a living?”

- Mr Mike: “_________________”

A. I work in a bank.

B. I want to be a doctor, I guess.

C. It’s hard work, you know.

D. I get a high salary, you know.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 25 to 29.

Nearly 200 of the 1500 native plant species in Hawaii are at risk of going extinct in the near future because they have been (25) __________ to such low numbers. Approximately 90 percent of Hawaii’s plants are found nowhere else in the world but they are threatened by alien invasive species such as feral goats, pigs, rodents and (26) __________ plants.

The Hawaii Rare Plant Restoration Group is striving to (27) __________ the extinction of the 182 rare Hawaiian plants with fewer than 50 individuals remaining in the wild. Since 1990, (28) __________ a result of their “Plant Extinction Prevention Program”, sixteen species have been brought into cultivation and three species have been reintroduced. Invasive weeds have been removed in key areas and fencing put up in order to (29) __________ plants in the wild.

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ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 5

1-D	2-D	3-C	4-C	5-B	6-A	7-C	8-A	9-D	10-D
11-C	12-B	13-A	14-C	15-D	16-A	17-B	18-B	19-B	20-A
21-A	22-D	23-A	24-A	25-B	26-D	27-A	28-C	29-D	30-C
31-A	32-D	33-A	34-C	35-A	36-C	37-C	38-C	39-D	40-D
41-A	42-A	43-C	44-A	45-A	46-D	47-B	48-A	49-C	50-B