Bộ 5 đề thi chọn HSG môn Tiếng Anh 10 có đáp án năm 2021 Trường THPT Đoàn Thị Điểm

TRƯỜNG THPT ĐOÀN THỊ ĐIỂM

ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI NĂM HỌC 2020-2021 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 10 (Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề)

PART A: PHONETICS (3 points)

I.  Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from  the others.

Write your answers A, B, C or D in the numbered box (1 point)

1.       A. interest             B. finish                C. climate                      D. panic

2.       A. heavy               B. headache          C. weather                     D. each

3.       A. met                   B. effort                 C. chemistry                   D. explain

4.       A. disabled           B. retarded                C. arrived                      D. learned

5:       A. classes              B. families              C. arms                         D. fingers

II.  Choose the word which has  the different stress pattern from those of other three words.  

Write your answers A, B, C or D in the numbered box (1 point)

6.  A. morning                 B. evening              C. weather                 D. cartoon

7.   A. development          B. population        C. photography           D. activity

8.   A. easy                       B. every                 C. effort                      D. enjoy

9.   A. canteen                 B. physics               C. teacher                   D. danger

10. A. education             B. occupation          C. geography              D. information.

III. Choose the word or phrase that could best to complete the sentence  (1 point)

11. She has the habit of drinking …………     after every meal.

A. cup of tea .            B. a cup of tea                 C. a tea cup           D. a cup for tea

12. The ……….… are those who do not have a job.

A. injured                  B. sick                  .        C. unemployed      D. rich

13. A person who is more beautiful in photographs is said to be ………..

A. photography         B. photograph                 C. photographic     D. photogenic

14. A …………. is a film or a radio or television program giving facts about something.

A. documentary        B. comedy                     C. cartoon            D. news

15. You can change the TV chanels with this ………..… control.

A. far    .                  B. remote                       C. standby            D. special

PART B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR(6 point)

IV. Read the sentences carefully and choose the best answers to make complete ones.  (3 point)

16.  Some whales migrate into warm waters to bear their....................

A. young                B. diets                  C. calves              D. young whales

17. Paul didn't ............... in Canada.

A. lived             B. use to live       C. used to live              D. used to living

18. The port is capable................ handing 10 million tons of coal a year.

A. in                   B. on                    C. of                          D. for

19. Being ………….., the boy is unable to speak.

A. deaf               B. dumb               C. illiterate                   D. disabled

20. The work was really ……………. It took him nearly 13 hours!

A. time-consuming          B. long             C. length              D. extensive

21. No worries, I will…………..you up at six.

A. pick                  B. drive                C. give a lift                  D. collect.

22. I tried to solve the problem ………….. the noise and interruptions.

A. according to      B. in spite of       C. in case of                   D. because of.

23. Farming ………….. have been more and more improved.

A. ways                B. methodologies           C. methods         D. means.

24.   ……………. economic and technological development, our life has been improved.

A. Because           B. Thanks to                  C. Despite           D. Although.

25. . ……… is one of the most interesting subjects at school.

A. Physic              B. The Physic              C. The Physics    D. Physics

26. The ……… are those who do not have a job.

A. injured              B. sick              .        C. unemployed        D. rich

27.  I have to get my picture ......................... for my Website.

A. take                 B. taken                  C. taking                    D. took

28. You haven’t got ………… luggage, have you?

A. many                B. few                     C. a few                     D. much

29.   We should protect plants and animals of the sea to keep its ………………...

A. resource          B. energy                C. existence               D. biodiversity

30. What should we do to reduce the level of ………….....?

A. pollutes             B. pollution           C. pollute                       D. polluting                      

V. Write the correct FORM of the word in the parenthesis to complete the sentences.  (2 point)

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ĐÁP ÁN

 

   PART A: PHONETICS (3 points)

I: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from  the others. (1 point – 0,2 points/ sentence)

 Answer keys:

1	2	3	4	5
C	D	D	B	A

II:Choose the word which has  the different stress pattern from those of other three  words. (1 point – 0,2 points/ sentence)

.Answer keys:

6	7	8	9	10
D	B	D	A	C

III. Choose the word or phrase that could best to complete the sentence. (1 point – 0,2 points/ sentence)

 Answer keys:

11	12	13	14	15
B	C	D	A	B

PART B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR(6 point)

IV. Read the sentences carefully and choose the best answers to make complete ones.     ( 3 points – 0,2 points/ sentence)                                                                                              

Answer keys:

16	17	18	19	20	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
C	B	C	B	A	A	B	C	B	D	C	B	D	D	B

V. Write the correct FORM of the word in the parenthesis to complete the sentences.  (2 points - 0,2 points/ sentence)

Answer keys:

31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
C	C	A	A	B	C	A	C	C	D

 

VI. Give the correct form of the verbs.( 1 point – 0,2 points/ sentence).

Answer keys:

41	42	43	44	45
did not smoke	traveling	have met	living	would take

PART C : READING  (5 points)

VII. Read the following passage and then choose the best option for each numbered space.( 2points – 0,2 points/ sentence)

Write your answers A, B, C or D in the numbered box. (2points)

Answer keys:

46	47	48	49	50	51	52	53	54	55
A	A	C	A	D	C	D	C	A	D

VIII. Read the following passage and choose the best answer.

Write your answers in the numbered blanks box. (1 points– 0,2 points/ sentence)

Answer keys:

56	57	58	59	60
C	B	D	D	A

IX. Read the following passage and choose the best answer. Write your answers in the numbered blanks provided below the passage. (2 points)

61.     D	62.    C	63.    B	64.       A	65.     A
66.     B	67.    D	68.    D	69.       B	70.     A

PART D: WRITING (6 points)

X. Find a mistake in the four underlined parts of each sentence and then correct it.        ( 1point – 0,2 points/ sentence)

Answer keys:

	Mistake	Correction
1.	A- starting	to start
2.	A- taught	has taught
3.	B- in the	by the
4.	B- see	seeing
5	B- is	are

1.  It takes Tan 2 hours to ride to Vinh Long.

2.  The man asked  what Frank did for a living.

3.  He suggested singing a few songs.

4.  I have used this bicycle for three years.

5. The man whom Julia is talking to,is blind.

6.  If they had enough money, they would buy a bigger house.

7.  After he had left school, he joined the army.

8.  He is believed to speak six languages fluently.

9.  Philip promised to bring the book back at 7a.m.

10. Unless the bus had been late, I would have gone to school on time this morning.

11. was robbed of her hand bag.

12. your test completed/ finished and you can go home.

XI. Write a short paragraph (about 150  words) about advantages and disadvantages of playing computer games.(2,6 points)

- Grammar : 0,65 points.

- Vocabulary : 0,65 points.

- Coherence  : 0,65 points.

- content / idea : 0,65 points                   

**** The end ***

PART I. LISTENING

PART II. PHONETICS

Choose the word whose stress pattern is differently from those of the other words. (5 points)

11. A. address       B. confusion      C. device       D. article 

12. A. photogenic      B. disabled       C. exhibition      D. volunteer

13. A. announce       B. typical        C. gradually      D. attitude

14. A. understand     B. concentrate     C. chemical      D. access

15. A. nation        B. women         C. allow             D. college

PART III. LEXICO-GRAMMAR

I. Read the sentences carefully and choose the best answers to make complete ones. (10 points)

16. When I was a child, I used to___________ in that house.

A. live                          B. to live                      C. living                       D. to living

17. I am having some days___________ tomorrow. I will visit you.

A. off                            B. of                             C. out                           D. in

18. It___________ better if they would tell everybody in advance.

A. is                             B. will be                    C. would be                D. were

19. Washing machines, dishwashers and vacuum cleaners are___________.

A. working machines B. useless machines   C. sewing machines    D. labour-saving machine

20. Do you know the man_________ next to our teacher?

A. standing                 B. stood                      C. stand                       D. to stand

21. Hoa and Quan quarreled_________ each other sometime.

A. in                              B. at                               C. with                          D. by

22. “Where do you live now?”                                  – “I live in Hanoi; my__________.

A. parents too do        B. parents do               C. parents do, too      D. parents also do.

23. A number of students___________ volunteered to the job. 

A .having                     B. has                             C.to have                      D. have

24. My classmate told me to watch movies in English___________ learn spoken English better.

A. so as                       B. so that                    C. in order that          D. in order to

25. Amy, ___________ car had broken down, was in a very bad mood.

A. who                        B. whom                     C. whose                     D. that

II. Fill in each blank with a suitable PREPOSITION or PARTICLE. (10 points)

26. I’m glad to know that you are going___________ a picnic.

27. At the moment, most of the town is being covered___________ snow.

28. In this company, everybody is responsible___________ turning off the lights before leaving.

29. The boy fell___________ the water and was drowned.

30. He suffered___________ constant sleepiness.

31. They have been absent___________ school very often lately.

32. Is she capable___________ using computers?

33. They have made use___________ the house after remodeling it.

34. They stayed___________ home because Andy wasn’t keen___________ going out in the rain.

35. I wrote the letter to complain___________ the good I bought in the shop.

III. Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word. (10 points)

36. He is engrossed in doing (SCIENCE)___________ research.

37. They entered the areas without (PERMIT)___________.

38. He wants (WIDTH)___________ his knowledge of the subject.

39. The giant panda is a(n) (DANGER)___________ species.

40. What makes the computer a (MIRACLE)___________ device?

41. You may be surprised at the large (VARIED)___________ of animals in national parks.

42. The architecture in the downtown area is a successful (COMBINE)___________ of old and new.

43. He came first in the poetry (COMPETED)___________.

44. Street noise is one of the (ADVANTAGE)___________ of living in a big city.

45. The Vietnamese government has done a lot to eliminate hunger and (POOR)___________.

PART IV. READING

I. Read the following text carefully and choose the answer which best fits each space. (10 points)

SPRING

When is the Spring season?

Spring is the season succeeding Winter and preceding Summer. Spring (46)________ to the season as well as to ideas of rebirth, rejuvenation, renewal, resurrection, and regrowth. During Spring an important celebration (47)________: Easter Day. It varies between March 22 and April 25 in Western (48)________, and between April 4 and May 8 in Eastern Christianity.

What happens in spring?

Spring is a time when flowers bloom and trees begin to grow and (49)________. The days grow longer and the temperature in most areas become more (50)________. You can also contemplate the melting of ice and thawing of the ground. The weather during this period becomes much sunnier while hibernating animals begin to (51)___________ of hibernation.

What to do during the Spring Season?

There are so many things to do to enjoy Spring:

Plan a holiday and (52)_________ a trip. Vacations aren't just for summer anymore!

Take a walk in a (53)_________ of flowers.

Meditate: Contemplate and (54)_________ on the beauty of nature. Forget the worries of everyday life and empty the mind. Concentrate on the sounds and the scent of nature.

Spot the things you want to change in your life. Spring is a time for (55)__________.

46. A. takes                             B. has                          C. means                     D. refers

47. A. takes part in                 B. takes note              C. takes into               D. takes place

48. A. hope                             B. interest                   C. tradition                 D. belief

49. A. recall                            B. reproduce              C. repeat                     D. remove

50. A. hot                                B. scorching               C. temperate              D. cold

51. A. come into                     B. come after              C. come before           D. come out

52. A. make                             B. take                         C. have                        D. get

53. A. plot                               B. bunch                     C. field                         D. pack

54. A. reflect                           B. describe                 C. show                       D. draw

55. A. rebuilding                    B. rebirth                    C. reconstruction       D. reminder

II. Read the following passage and choose the best answer. (10 points)

These stories of killer bees in the news in recent years have attracted a lot of attention as the bees have made their way from South America. Killer bees are reputed to be extremely aggressive in nature, although experts that their aggression may have been somewhat inflated.

The killer bee is a combination of the very mild European strain of honeybee and the considerably more aggressive African bee, which was created when the African strain was imported into Brazil in 1955. The African bees were brought into Brazil because their aggression was considered an advantage: they were far more productive than their European counterparts in that they spent a higher percentage of their time working and continued working longer in inclement weather than did the European bees.

These killer bees have been known to attack humans and animals, and some fatalities have occurred. Experts point out, however, that the mixed breed known as the killer bee is actually not at all as aggressive as the pure African bee. They also point out that the attacks have a chemical cause. A killer bee stings only when it has been disturbed; it is not aggressive by nature. However, after a disturbed bee stings and flies away; it leaves its stinger embedded in the victim. In the vicera attached to the embedded stinger is the chemical isoamyl acetate, which has an odor that attracts other bees. As other bees approach the victim of the original sting, the victim tends to panic, thus disturbing other bees and causing them to sting. The new stings create more of the chemical isoamyl acetate which attracts more bees and increases the panic level of the victim. Killer bees tend to travel in large clusters or swarms and thus respond in large numbers to the production of isoamyl acetate.

56. The subject of the paragraph before paragraph 1 was mostly likely_________.

A. the creation of the killer bee                    B. the chemical nature of killer bees attacks

C. stories in the media about killer bees     D. ways of producing honey

57. The word "inflated" in paragraph 1 means_________.

A. aired                       B. exaggerated                       C. blown                     D. burst

58. Why were African bees considered beneficial?

A. They spent their time traveling.

B. They were productive, even in inclement weather.

C. They produced an unusual type of honey.

D. They didn't work hard in inclement weather.

59. The word 'their' in paragraph 2 refers to_________.

A. the European bees'                                               B. the African bees'

C. the killer bees'                                                       D. the honey bees'

60. It is stated in the passage that killer bees_________.

A. are less aggressive than African bees                 B. never attacks animals

C. are more deadly than African bees                      D. always attack African bees

61. The pronoun 'They' in paragraph 3 refers to_________.

A. humans and animals         B. fatalities                 C. experts                   D. killer bees

62. Which is NOT mentioned in the passage as a contributing factor in an attack by killer bees?

A. Panic by the victims                                              B. The odor of isoamyl acetate

C. Disturbance of the bees                                        D. Inclement weather

63. In which paragraph does the author describe the size of the groups in which killer bees move?

A. Paragraph 3           B. Paragraph 2           C. Paragraph 2 and 3             D. Paragraph 1

64. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of killer bees?

A. attack humans and animals         

B. are aggressive by nature

C. travel in large clusters

D. are a combination of European honeybee and African bee

65. The main idea of this passage is that killer bee_________.

A. are not purebred

B. have been moving unexpectedly

C. have been in the news a lot recently

D. are not as aggressive as their reputation suggests

PART V. WRITING

I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it. (15 points)

66. Tom hasn’t watched a football match for 2 months.

→ The last_____________________________________________________________.

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ĐÁP ÁN

PART I: LISTENING

Section 1. (10pts)       01. A               02. B               03. A               04. B               05.C

Section 2. (10pts)       06. Business plan                  07. 3 days                   08. book keeping

09. 18th April                         10. lila.park@rainbow.com

PART II. PHONETICS

Choose the word whose stress pattern is differently from those of the other words. (5pts)

11. D               12. B               13. A               14. A               15. C

PART III. LEXICO-GRAMMAR

I. Read the sentences carefully and choose the best answers to make complete ones. (10pts)

16. A   17. A   18. B   19. D   20. A   21. C    22. C    23. D   24. D   25. C

II. Fill in each blank with a suitable PREPOSITION. (10pts)

26. on             27. with                      28. for             29. into           30. from

31. from         32. of                          33. of              34. at – on      35. about

III. Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word. (10pts)

36. scientific               37. permission                       38. widen                    39. endangered

40. miraculous           41. variety                              42. combination        43. competition

44. disadvantages     45. poverty

PART IV. READING

I. Read the following text carefully and choose the answer which best fits each space. (10pts) 

46. D   47. D   48. C    49. B   50. C    51. D   52. B   53. C    54. A   55. D

II. Read the following passage and choose the best answer. (10pts) 

56. C    57. B   58. B   59. B   60. A   61. C    62. D   63. A   64. B   65. D

PART V. WRITING

I. (10pts)

66. The last time Tom watched a football match was 2 months ago.

67. Kevin advised me to apply for that job.

68. If I had had time, I wouldn’t have been late.

69. It is necessary for the employee to be given a full bonus.

     (It is necessary that the employee should be given a full bonus.)

70. I was surprised at what I saw in the football match.

71. He broke the world record in his second attempt.

72. Had it not been for his incompetence, they wouldn’t have been arrested.

73. I’d rather you didn’t smoke in the kitchen.

74. Jean’s mother complimented on her new dress.

75. Much as I don’t really like her, I admire her achievements.

II. (15 points)

Marking scheme: The impression mark given is based on the following scheme:

Content: 50% of total mark: a provision of all main ideas and details as appropriate.

Language: 30% of total mark: a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students.

Presentation: 20% of total mark: coherence, cohesion, and style appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students.

____________THE END____________

A. LISTENING

PART I. Listen to the dialogue on the phone between and a man and a girl named Juliet and fill in the form. You are allowed to listen TWICE. Give your answers in the numbered spaces.

Name: Juliet A. Eastman

Age: (01)______________            Hair color: (02)______________             Eye color: (03)______________ Height: (04)______________        Occupation: (05)______________

Likes: going out and having fun, sports, (06)______________ and (07)______________

Wants to meet someone who : (08)______________ likes same (09)______________ and (10)______________

Part II. You are going to hear an expert talk about sleeping and dreaming. Listen and write True (T) or False (F) for each sentence. You are allowed to listen TWICE.

11. Women sleep more than men.

12. A sound sleeper moves less than a light sleeper.

13. Most people need 9 hours of sleep a night.

14. Reading in bed helps you sleep.

15. Some people don’t dream at all.

16. The average person has about four dreams a night.

17. Not everyone can remember his or her dreams.

18. Eating before bed can give you nightmares.

PART III. You are going to listen to a talk about Margaret Mead. Listen and choose the best answer A, B, C or D for each question. You are allowed to listen TWICE.

19. What was Margaret Mead’s job?

A. a photographer     B. a biologist              C. an anthropologist              D. a journalist

20. What was Margaret Mead’s main interest?

A. taking photographs                                  B. exploring new places

C. how children were looked after.              D. living in pour areas.

21. When did Margaret Mead go to Samoa?

A. in 1901.                  B. in the 1920s.          C. in 1938.                              D. in 1978.

22. Who did she interview in her first trip to Samoa?

A. girls between 9 and 20 years old.            B. boys and girls between 9 and 20 years old.

C. women over 20 years old.                         D. men and women over 20 years old.

23. What was the title of Margaret Mead’s book?

A. The pacific Islands.                                    B. Teenagers around the World.

C. Growing Up in New Guinea.                     D. Coming of Age in Samoa.

24. What was the main reason why Margaret Mead took photos?

A. She liked photography.                            B. Cameras were not very common at that time.

C. Her husband liked photos.                       D. It was the best way to share what she learned.

25. What is the main topic of the listening passage?

A. Margaret Mead went to college in New York.

B. Margaret Mead did research on the role of culture.

C. Margaret Mead took photographs and wrote books.

D. Margaret Mead was born in Philadelphia

B. LEXICO – GRAMMAR

PART IV. Choose the answer A, B, C or D which best fits the space in each of the following sentences.

26. ___________ saying was so important that I asked everyone to stop talking and listen.

A. What the woman was                               B. That the woman was

C. The woman was                                        D. When was the woman

27. -“Do you mind if I take a seat?”  - “___________.”

A. Yes, I don’t mind                                                    B. No, do as you please

C. No I mind                                                                D. Yes, do as you please

28. As the two teams left the football ground, the 100,000___________ gave them a standing ovation.

A. bystanders             B. spectators                          C. viewers                   D. audiences

29. My parents lent me the money.  ___________, I couldn’t have afforded the trip.

A. However                B. Therefore                          C. Only if                     D. Otherwise

30. It is interesting to take___________ a new hobby such as collecting stamps or going fishing.

A. over                         B. on                                       C. in                             D. up

31. Jack made me___________ him next week.

A. promise calling      B. to promise calling              C. to promise to call   D. promise to call

32. “I passed the TOEFL test, Mom.”            - “___________.”

A. All right                  B. Thank you                          C. Well done               D. Good luck

33. The bad weather caused serious damage to the crop. If only it___________ warmer.

A. was                         B. were                                   C. has been                 D. had been

34. - “Eric is really upset about losing his job.”       - “Well, ___________ once myself, I can understand.”

A. Having been fired  B. Fired                                   C. Having fired           D. Being fired

35. ___________ you, I’d think twice about that decision. I could be a bad move.

A. Were I                    B. Should I be                         C. If I am                     D. If I had been

36. The teacher asked a difficult question, but finally Ted___________ good answer.

A. put up with                        B. keep pace with                   C. made way for         D. came up with

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ĐÁP ÁN

LISTENING – 2,5 ĐIỂM

PART I: 1,0 điểm = 0,1/ 1 câu đúng

01. twenty-three/23   02. blonde / blond   03. blue          04. average    05. computer programmer

06. music        07. (watching ) TV                08. outgoing   09. music/ sports 10. sports/ music

PART II: 0,8 điểm = 0,1/ 1 câu đúng

11. F    12. F    13. F    14. T   15. F    16. T   17. T   18. F

PART III: 0,7 điểm = 0,1/ 1 câu đúng

19. C    20. C    21. B   22. A   23. C    24. D   25. B

LEXICO – GRAMMAR – 3 ĐIỂM

PART IV: 1 điểm = 0,05/ 1 câu đúng

26. A   27. B   28. B   29. D   30. D   31. D   32. C    33. D   34. A   35.A   36. D   37. B   38. D   39. B   40. D   41. C    42. B   43. C    44. D   45. A

PART V: 1 điểm = 0,1 / 1 câu đúng

46. is used → used                                                    47. their path → its path

48. great impact → greater impact                          49. has been → had been

50. make → makes/made                                        51. composes not only → not only composes

52. rarely we stop → rarely do we stop                   53. have difficulty →  have had difficulty

54. do yearly →          make yearly                           55. such difficult → so difficult

PART VI: 0,5 điểm = 0,05 / 1 câu đúng

56. at   57. at   58. for 59. in   60. in   61. at   62. in   63. in   64. on 65. into

PART VII: 0,5 điểm = 0,05 / 1 câu đúng

66. saying       67. outspoken            68. declaration          69. meaningless         70. writings

71. editor       72. rephrase              73. statement             74. implication           75. hearsay

READING – 2 ĐIỂM

PART VIII: 1 điểm = 0,1 / 1 câu đúng

76. B   77. B   78. C    79. C    80. A   81. A   82. A   83. D   84. B   85. D

PART IX: 1 điểm = 0,1 / 1 câu đúng

86. D   87. B   88. C    89. C    90. B   91. B   92. D   93. B   94. D   95. A

WRITING – 2,5 ĐIỂM

PART X. Complete the second sentence so that it has similar meaning to the first one. (1 điểm = 0,1 / 1 câu đúng)

96. This will be the first time my students have performed in Canada. (my student has given the performance in Canada.)

97. In six- month-time we will have completed this course.

98. More people understand him than he expected./ has expected/ expects.

99. The moment he finishes she'll have to make her presentation.

100. Once Sharon finishes her exams, she will have more free time.

101. Neither Mary nor Peter prefers classical music to jazz.

102. I had my car repaired at the garage in town.

103. I will not/never speak to you (again).

104. I'd rather stay in than go out.

105. If -the questions hadn’t been easy, /- the questions had been (more) difficult,/- If it hadn’t been for the easy questions, they wouldn’t have passed the driving test/ they would have failed the driving test.

PART XI. ESSAY WRITING (1,5 điểm)

_________THE END__________

Part I: Choose the best answer among A, B, C or D.

1. Our holiday was_________ by the weather.

A. spoilt                      B. damaged                C. overcome                           D. wasted

2. The_________ charged by the architect for the plans of the new building were unusually high.

A. hire                         B. price                       C. fees                                     D. sum

3. He_________ his son of the dangers of driving too fast in his new car

A. warned                   B. remembered         C. threatened                         D. concerned

4. The child was_________ by a lorry on the safety crossing in the main street.

A. knocked out           B. run across              C. run out                               D. knocked down

5. When Ali arrived in London he spent all his time_________ and visited all the important museums and buildings.

A. sight-seeing           B. traveling                 C. looking                               D. touring

6. If you want a cheap air ticket you must_________ well in advance.

A. book                       B. engage                    C. reserve                               D. buy

7. His sister was full of_________ for the way in which he had so quickly learned to drive a car.

A. pride                       B. admiration             C. surprise                              D. jealousy

8. He asked if we would_________ to share the room.

A. accept                     B. consider                 C. agree                                  D. approve

9. I wondered whether you would like to_________ to the theater tomorrow.

A. visit                         B. go away                  C. go out                                 D. walk out

10. _________ I would like to say how pleased I am to be here.

A. Primarily                B. Foremost               C. Earliest                               D. First

11. The independent arbitrator managed to_________ the confrontation between the union and the employers.

A. refuse                     B. confuse                  C. refute                                  D. defuse

12. When I heard the footsteps behind me I was_________ that I would be attacked.

A. horrified                B. terror-struck                     C. terrorized                          D. terrified

13. His illness made him_________ of concentration.

A. incompetent          B. unable                    C. incapable                            D. powerless

14. Has the committee_________ a decision yet?

A. done                       B. made                      C. arrived                               D. voted

15. I am a bit hungry. I think_____________ something to eat.

A. I’ll have                  B. I’ll be having          C. I’m going to have               D. I’m having

16. What do you plan to do when you_____________ your course at college?

A. finish                      B. will finish               C. have finished                     D. is going to finish

17. Where_____________? Which hairdresser did you go to?

A. did you cut your hair                                B. have you cut your hair

C. did you have cut your hair                       D. did you have your hair cut

18. ‘Shall I stay here?’ ~ ‘I’d rather_____________ with us’.

A. you come               B. you to come           C. you would come                D. you came

19. I_____________ saying what I think.

A. believe                    B. believe in                C. believe for                          D. believe when

20. Somebody ran in front of the car as I was driving. Fortunately I_____________ just in time.

A. could stop                                                  B. could have stopped          

C. managed to stop                                        D. must be able to stop

Part II: The passage below contains 10 mistakes. Underline the mistakes and write their correct forms in the space provided in the column on the right. (0) has been done as an example.

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ĐÁP ÁN

Section A: Grammar & Vocabulary (40điểm)
Part I (1x 20= 20 điểm)

Câu	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
	A	C	A	D	A	A	B	A	C	D
Câu	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
	D	D	C	B	A	A	D	D	B	C

Part II (1 x 10 = 10 điểm)

1. acquiring → acquired              6. vocation → vocational

2. explicitness → explicitly          7. like  → as

3. few → a few                              8. assumption → assume

4. and → to                                   9. certainly → certain

5. but → to                                    10. intention → intended

Part III (1 x 10 = 10 điểm)

1. thunderstorm        2. raincoat                  3. shopping                4. pleasure                 5. deserted

6. beating                   7. disturbance            8. entrance                 9. led                           10. slightest

Section B: Reading (35 điểm)
Part I ( 1x 10 = 10 điểm)

1. A        2. C     3. D     4. A      5. B       6. B      7. A        8. A        9. B        10. D

Part II (1x 10 = 10 điểm)

1.discovered	2. lead	3. suffer	4. contain	5. health
6. diseases	7. disorders	8. knowledge	9. necessary	10. available

Part III (1x 5= 5 điểm)

1. C             2. D              3. B             4. C             `5. C

Part IV (1x 10= 10 điểm)

1.K      2.E        3.C        4.J      5.D     6.A      7.B        8.F        9.I          10H

Section C: Writing (25 điểm)

Part I (1x 10 = 10 điểm)

1. She reminded him to phone the police.

2. The man is believed to have escaped in a stolen car

3. At the foot of the hill lies a small church

4. Were you to change you mind, you’ll be welcome to join our club.

5. It is unnecessary to do so many things to please him.

6. He can’t have done it by himself.

7. He doesn’t have enough money to go to America this summer.

8. Timmy’s success has turned him into a confident person.

9. It’s a long time since I last saw my uncle/ I saw my uncle for the last time.

10. Not only does she dance beautifully but she also sings sweetly.

Part II (1x 5= 5 điểm)

1. You should take the price into consi…..

2. there is no(longer any)/ there isn’t much call for cars……..

3 .coal production/ the coal produced in this region has been halved in the 20 years.

4. there is little likelihood. The likelihood………is small of the PM calling an…/that the PM will call a…….

5. The policeman’s prompt action averted/ the prompt action of the policeman averted……..

Part III (10  điểm) – Giám khảo tự cho điểm, yêu cầu:

• Thí sinh phải xác định được ảnh hưởng của phim và truyền hình đối với cách ứng xử của con người, cả về mặt tích cực lẫn tiêu cực
• Nêu được 2- 3 ý nhỏ cho mỗi ý lớn
• Văn viết trôi chảy, diễn đạt gãy gọn (dùng cấu trúc đơn giản nhưng diễn đạt rõ ý)
• Sai không quá 5 lỗi nhỏ (về từ vựng, ngữ pháp, dùng từ…..) thì không trừ điểm

Part A: LISTENING. (2 points)

Listen to the talk and write in the missing words. Write  NO MORE THREE WORDS for each answer.

Women hold up half the sky. This is an old (1)………………….. However, research shows that perhaps women do more their share of “holding up the sky”.

Fifty percent of the (2)………………  are women, but in nearly two-thirds of all working hours are done by women. They do most of the domestic work like cooking, and washing clothes. Millions also work outside the home. Women hold (3)……………. of the world^’s job. For this work, they earn only 40 to 60 percent as much as men, and of course they earn nothing for their (4)……………….

In developing countries, where (5)………………… of the world^’s population live, women produce more than half of the food. In Africa, 80 percent of all (6)……………..  work is done by women.

In parts of Africa, this  is a typical day for a village woman. At 4.45 am she gets up, washes, and eats. It takes her half an hour to walk to (7)………………….., and she works there until 3.00 o^’clock pm. She collects (8)………………. until 4.00 pm then comes back home. She spends the next hour and half (9)………….. to cook. Then she (10)………….. for another hour. From 6.30 to 8.30 she cooks. After dinner, she spends an hour washing the dishes. She goes to bed at 9.30 pm.

I. Fill in each blank with the most suitable word.(1p)

Football is one of the world’s most (1)……………… sports. People have played the game for hundred of years ago and almost every country has a national football (2)…………….. A football match consists of two teams with eleven players on each side. Each team is on one half of the pitch at the start of the game. When the refree blows his (3)……………, the game begins.

The team that scored the most goals by the end of the match is the (4)……………. . If no team has scored a goal, the match is called a draw. The goalkeeper is the person who stands between the goalposts and tries to stop people (5)……………… goals. He is only the player who can touch the ball with his hands. The ball is not allowed to go outside the lines of the pitch. If it does, the game stops for a short time.

II. Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence.(1p)

1. National teams must compete in ……..games in their regions before being able to play in the finals.

A. elimination

B. tournament

C. champion

D. continent

2. Many fruit trees, like the banana, the mango, the coconut grow very well in ……… climate

A. polar

B. snowy

C. icy

D. sub-tropical

3. A television ……………..show is a program in which competition try to answers questions to test their knowledge.

A. cartoon

B. culture

C. quiz

D. drama

4. The ………..of the jealous husband was played by Paul Newsman

A. part

B. paper

C. acting

D. interpretation

5. The football team won because they had been so well trained by their ……………

A. teacher

B. coach

C. director      

D. instructor.

Part D: GRAMMAR

I. Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence. (1,6ps)

1. “Why did you buy so much paint?”

“I……………….the doors and windows again.”

A. will paint

B. am being painted

C. am going to paint

D. will be painting

2. The explorer …………….his lunch when the cannibals suddenly came.

A. was eaten

B. was eating

C. has eaten

D. has eaten

--(Nội dung đầy đủ, chi tiết vui lòng xem tại online hoặc đăng nhập để tải về máy)---

ĐÁP ÁN

Part A: LISTENING. (2 points)

Listen to the talk and write in the missing words. Write  NO MORE THREE WORDS for each answer.

1. Chinese saying	6. agricultural
2. world’s population	7. the fields
3. forty percent	8. firewood
4. domestic work	9. preparing food
5. three-fourths	10. collects water

Part B: PHONETICS (1p)

I: Choose and write in your answer sheet the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest of the group.

1.	D. chemical
2.	B. extremely
3.	C. convinced

II: Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three words in each question.

4.	A. campfire
5.	D. abandon

Part C. Vocabulary

I. Fill in each blank with the most suitable word.(1p)

1. popular

2. team

3. whistle

4. winner

5. scoring

II. Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence.(1p)

1. B. tournament

2. D. sub-tropical

3. C. quiz

4. A. part

5. B. coach

Part D: GRAMMAR

I. Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence. (1,6ps)

1. C. am going to paint

2. B. was eating

3. D. a/the

4. C. would have helped

5. D. to save

6. A. had earned

7. D. will telephone

8. B. used to

II. Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence. (1p)

1. B. contamination

2. C. accuracy

3. C. pollution

4. A. I’m sorry to hear that.

5. A. than that of a school teacher

III. Which sentence expresses the same idea as the given one.(1,4ps)

1. D	The doctor advised me not to get up until I felt better.

 

2. B	Although we rang the doorbell,  nobody answered

 

3. B	If the weather had been fine, we could have gone out.
4. A	It is thought that an apple a day is good for you.
5. D	All are correct
6. C	It took him three months to get over his illness
7. C	We could not get to work because of the train driver’s strike

IV. Complete each sentence with the correct form of the word given in brackets.(1p)

1.	permission
2.	attractively
3.	endangered
4.	elimination
5.	passionate

Part E: READING

I. Fill in each gap with one suitable word from the box.(2 ps)

1.	warming	6.	covering
2.	screen	7.	loss
3.	from	8	suffer
4.	it	9.	which
5.	rise	10.	unless

II. Read the passage and answer the questions

1.	They are acid rain, car exhaust fumes and oil spills
2.	(It is harmful to our environment) because the smoke contains sulphur oxide and nitrogen oxide. These gases combine with the moisture in the atmosphere to form sulphuric acid with nitric acid.
3.	“This” means to pump limestone into the acidic lakes.
4.	They contain carbon monoxide and lead.
5.	They are oil from ships which clean their fuel tanks while at sea, offshore oil wells, and oil spills.

III. Read the passage and choose the best answers to questions below.(2 ps)

1.	C. Hunter-gatherers	6.	C. movable
2.	D. Hunting and gathering	7.	B. 2,000,000 years ago
3.	B. preliminary	8	D. A large variety of plant life
4.	D. to cut a long story short	9.	A. By studying the remains of their camp sites
5.	A. plenty	10.	A. More and more people in the modern time live on the food they gather in the  natural environment around their homes.

Part F:  WRITING

I. There is one mistake in each sentence. Find the mistake and write your correction in the space provided.(1p)

1.	B  -> which
2.	B ->  had driven
3.	C -> his
4.	D -> refuses
5.	C ->  cost most

II. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it. (1p)

1.	The new was so bad that  Helen burst into tears.
2.	Never have there been more people out of work in this city.
3.	Despite her severe disability/being severely disabled , Judy participated in many sports
4.	If you had not reminded me about the meeting, I would have missed it.
5.	Jenny makes two thousand dollars a month.

III. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word given.(1p)

1.	Do you mind taking care of the children?
2.	A train is reported to have crashed in Berlin
3.	Laura’s father prevented him from seeing Jake
4.	Daily running quickly improves your breathing
5.	Tina’s car broke down on the way to Scotland

IV. Write a short paragraph (about 100 words) about a film you have seen.(2s)

Outline of a film report

- Title of the film

- General introduction: + Where did you see the film? Where? Who with? Why did you choose that film particular film? What type of film is it?

                                       + Where the film was set? What is it about? Who are the main characters and what happens to them?....................

- Conclusion: Does the film have a happy or sad ending? Your feeling or impression about the film.

Marking scheme

The impression mark given is based on the following scheme:

1. Content:  1p of total mark: a provision of all main ideas and details as appropriate

2. Language:  0,6p of total mark: a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students

3. Presentation: 0,4p of total mark: coherence, cohesion, and style appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students.

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