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Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG năm 2021 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THPT Hoàng Văn Thụ

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Mời các em cùng tham khảo tài liệu Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG năm 2021 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THPT Hoàng Văn Thụ do Hoc247 tổng hợp và biên soạn. Tài liệu bao gồm các dạng bài tập khác nhau, tổng hợp các kiến thức đã học. Hi vọng tài liệu này sẽ giúp các em ôn tập thật tốt cho kì thi THPT Quốc gia sắp tới. Chúc các em học tập tốt!

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BỘ 5 ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA MÔN TIẾNG ANH NĂM 2021

TRƯỜNG THPT HOÀNG VĂN THỤ

1. Đề số 1

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1:     A. kites            B. hopes          C. balls            D. kicks

Question 2:     A. hire             B. hour            C. hair             D. hi

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3:     A. answer        B. destroy       C. allow          D. complain

Question 4:     A. twenty        B. reporter       C. notebook    D. poverty

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 5. I am gripped with a fever whenever a new year is coming.

A. I feel disappointed B. I am excited

C. I get upset   D. I have got a temperature

Question 6. It was relatively easy for him to learn baseball because he had been a cricket player.

A. nearly         B. essentially   C. comparatively         D. approximately

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 7. The presentation by Dr. Dineen was self-explanatory.

A. bright          B. discouraging           C. confusing   D. enlightening Question 8. She gave an impeccable reading of the sonata and had the audience on their feet.

A. unqualified B. imperfect    C. suspicious   D. negative

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet  to  indicate  the  most  suitable  response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 9. Hoa is asking Hai, who is sitting at a corner of the room, seeming too shy.

  • Hoa: “Why aren’t you taking part in our activities?       
  • Hai: “Yes, I can. Certainly.”
  1. Could you please show me how to get the nearest post office?
  2. Shall I take your hat off?
  3. Can you help me with this decoration?
  4. Can I help you?

Question 10. Mary is talking to a porter in the hotel lobby.

  • Porter: “Shall I help you with your suitcase?”   - Mary: “          

A. What nonsense!      B. That’s very kind of you.

C. What a pity!           D. I can’t agree more.

Mark the letter A, B, C or  D  in  your  answer  sheet  to  indicate  the  underlined  part  that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 11. Dams are used to control flooding, provide water for irrigation, and generating electricity for the surrounding area.

A. to control flooding  B. irrigation    C. generating  D. surrounding area Question 12. Weather and geography conditions may determine the type of transportation used in a region.

A. Weather      B. geography   C. type D. used

Question 13. Geothermal energy is energy to obtain by using heat from the Earth’s interior.

A. energy        B. to obtain     C. using           D. the Earth’s

Question 14. The more tired you are, the least hard you concentrate.

A. more tired   B. you are        C. least hard    D. concentrate

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet  to  indicate  the  sentence  that  is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 15. If I hadn’t had so much work to do, I would have gone to the movies.

  1. I never go to the movies if I had work to do.
  2. Because I had to do so much work, I couldn’t go to the movies.
  3. I would go to the movies when I had done so much work.
  4. A lot of work couldn’t prevent me from going to the movies.

Question 16. It is an undeniable fact that children watch too much TV.

  1. It’s undeniable that too many children watch TV.
  2. It’s undeniable that children don’t watch too many TV programmes.
  3. It can’t be denied that children watch too many TV programmes.
  4. It’s obviously true that children spend too much time watching TV.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 17. You usually drive fast. You use more petrol than usual.

  1. The faster you drive, the more you use petrol.
  2. The more you drive fast, the more you use petrol.

 C. The faster you drive, the more petrol you use.

D. The more fast you drive, the more petrol you use.

Question 18. The agreement ended six-month negotiation. It was signed yesterday.

  1. The agreement which was signed yesterday lasted six-month.
  2. The agreement which was signed yesterday ended six-month negotiation.
  3. The agreement which ends six-month negotiation was signed yesterday.
  4. The agreement which lasted six-month was signed yesterday.

Mark the letter  A,  B,  C  or  D  on  your  answer  sheet  to  indicate  the  correct  answer  to each of the following question.

Question 19.   , we stay inside the house.

A. The  storm day it was         B. It is a stormy day

C. It was a stormy day            D. It being a stormy day

Question 20. Unless you        well-trained, you         to the company.

A. aren’t/ will never be admitted       B. aren’t/ will never admit

C. are/ will never be admitted D. are/ will never admit

Question 21. Fax transmission has now become a  cheap and          way to transmit texts and graphics over distance.

A. convenient  B. inconvenient           C. uncomfortable        D. comfortable

Question 22.   , we tried our best to complete it.

A. Difficult as the homework was      B. As though the homework was difficult

C. Thanks to the difficult homework D. Despite the homework was difficult

Question 23. That  carcinogenic substances              in many common household items is well-known.

A. are contained          B. containing   C. are containing         D. contained

Question 24. The second-hand car Patrick bought was almost new             it was made in the 1990s.

A. or    B. because       C. although     D. however

Question 25. I like doing       such as cooking, washing and cleaning the house.

A. house-keeper          B. household chores    C. lord of house          D. white house

Question 26. Unfortunately, some really ill animals have to be       by our center.

A. pass away   B. turned over C. taken out    D. put down

Question 27. I            Lan since she went abroad.

A. wasn’t met  B. hadn’t met  C. didn’t meet D. haven’t met

Question 28. “Did the minister approve the building plans?”

“Not really. He turned them down     that the costs were too high.”

A. in case        B. supposing   C. provided     D. on the grounds

Question 29. Failing to submit the proposal on time was for Tom.

A. a real kick in the pants       B. an open and shut case

C. a shot in the dark    D. a nail in the coffin

Question  30.  They always  kept on good     with their next-door neighbors for the children’s sake.

A. relations      B. terms           C. will D. relationship

Read the  following  passage  and mark  A,  B,  C,  or  D  to  indicate  the  correct  answer  to each of the blanks.

American  folk  music  originated  with  (31)            people at a time when the rural population  was isolated  and  music  was  not  (32)                   spread by radio, records, or music  video.   It was  (33)         by oral traditional and is noted for its energy, humor, and emotional impact. The major source of early American folk songs was music from the British Isles, but songs from Africa as songs of the American Indians have significant part in its heritage. Later settler from other countries also contributed songs. In the nineteenth century, composer Steven Foster wrote some of the most enduringly popular of all American songs, (34)             soon became part of the folk tradition. Beginning in the 1930s, Woody Guthrie gained great popularity by adapting melodies and lyrics and supplying new ones as well. In the 1950s and 1960s, singer – composers such as Peter Seeger, Bob Dylan, Joan Baez continued this tradition by urban’ folk music. Many of these songs deal (35)            important social issue, such as racial integration and the war in Vietnam.

Question 31:

A. ordinary

B. popular

C. common

D. typical

Question 32:

A. even

B. still

C. until

D. yet

Question 33:

A. transferred

B. transformed

C. transmitted

D. transited

Question 34:

A. which

B. this

C. who

D. that

Question 35:

A. in

B. by

C. with

D. at

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

One of the seven wonders of the ancient world, the Great Pyramid of Giza was a monument  of wisdom and prophecy built as a tomb for Pharaoh Cheops in 2720 B.C. Despite its antiquity, certain aspects of its construction makes it one of the truly wonders of the world. The thirteen- acre structure near the Nile river is a solid mass of stone blocks covered with limestone. Inside are the number of hidden passageways and the burial chamber of the Pharaoh. It is the largest single structure in the world. The four sides of the pyramid are aligned almost exactly on true north, south, east and west-an incredible engineering feat. The ancient Egyptians were sun worshippers and great astronomers, so computations for the Great Pyramid were based on astronomical observations.

Explorations and detailed examinations of the base of the structure reveal many intersecting lines. Further scientific study indicates that these represent a type of timeline of events – past, present and future. Many of the events have been interpreted and found to coincide with known facts of the past. Others are prophesied for future generations and are currently under investigation. Many believe that pyramids have supernatural powers and this one is no exception. Some researchers even associate it with extraterrestrial beings of ancient past.

Was this superstructure made by ordinary beings, or one built by a race far superior to any known today?

Question 36. In the second passage, the word ‘prophesied’ is closest in meaning to .

A. foretold      B. terminated  C. precipitated D. affiliated

Question 37. On what did the ancient Egyptians base their calculations?

A. Advanced tools of measurement    B. Knowledge of the earth’s surface

C. Advanced technology        D. Observation of the celestial bodies

Question 38. What was the most probable reason for providing so many hidden passages?

  1. To allow the weight of the pyramid to settle evenly.
  2. To permit the high priests to pray at night.
  3. To keep grave robbers from finding the tomb and the treasure buried with the Pharaoh.
  4. To enable the Pharaoh’s family to bring food for his journey to the afterlife

Question 39. The word ‘feat’ in the first paragraph is closet in meaning to .

A. accomplishment     B. festivity      C. appendage  D. structure

Question 40. What is the best title for the passage?

  1. Problems with the Construction of the Great Pyramid
  2. Exploration of the Burial Chamber of Cheops
  3. Symbolism of the Great Pyramid
  4. Wonders of the Great Pyramid of Giza

Question 41. Why is the Great Pyramid of Giza considered one of the seven wonders of the world?

  1. It was built by a super race.
  2. It is perfectly aligned with the four cardinal points of the compass and contains many prophecies.
  3. It was selected of the tomb of Pharaoh Cheops.
  4. It was very old.

Question 42. What has research of the base revealed?

  1. There are cracks in the foundation
  2. Tomb robbers have stolen the Pharaoh’s body
  3. A superior race of people built in
  4. The lines represent important events

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Overpopulation, the situation of having large numbers of people with too few resources and too little space, is closely associated with poverty. It can result from high population density, or from low amounts of resources, or from both. Excessively high population densities put stress on available resources. Only a certain number of people can be supported on a given area of land, and that number depends on how much food and other resources the land can provide. In countries where people live primarily by means of simple farming, gardening, herding, hunting, and gathering, even large areas of land can support only small numbers of people because these labor-intensive subsistence activities produce only small amounts of food.

In developed countries such as the United States, Japan, and the countries of Western Europe, overpopulation generally is not considered a major cause of poverty. These countries produce large quantities of food through mechanized farming, which depends on commercial fertilizers, large-scale irrigation, and agricultural machinery. This form of production provides enough food to support the high densities of people in metropolitan areas.

A country’s level of poverty can depend greatly on its mix of population density and agricultural productivity. Bangladesh, for example, has one of the world’s highest population densities, with 1,147 persons per sq km. A large majority of the people of Bangladesh engage in low-productivity manual farming, which contributes to the country’s extremely high level of poverty. Some of the smaller countries in Western Europe, such as the Netherlands and Belgium, have high population densities as well. These countries practice mechanized farming and are involved in high-tech industries, however, and therefore have high standards of living.

At the other end of the spectrum, many countries in sub-Saharan Africa have  population densities of less than 30 persons per sq km. Many people in these countries practice manual subsistence farming; these countries also have infertile land, and lack the economic resources and technology to boost productivity. As a consequence, these nations are very poor. The United States has both relatively low population density and high agricultural productivity; it is one of the world’s wealthiest nations.

High birth rates contribute to overpopulation in many developing countries. Children are assets to many poor families because they provide labor, usually for farming. Cultural norms in traditionally rural societies commonly sanction the value of large families. Also, the governments of developing countries often provide little or no support, financial or political, for family planning; even people who wish to keep their families small have difficulty doing so. For all these reasons, developing countries tend to have high rates of population growth.

Question 43. Which of the following is a contributor to overpopulation in many developing countries?

A. Sufficient financial support           B. High-tech facilities

C. High birth rates      D. Economic resources

Question 44. The word “infertile” in paragraph 4 probably means .

A. inaccessible            B. unproductive          C. impossible  D. disused

Question 45. The phrase “engage in” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to         .

A. participate in          B. escape from            C. look into     D. give up

Question 46. Which of the following could be the best title for the passage?

  1. High Birth Rate and its Consequences
  2. Overpopulation: A Cause of Poverty
  3. Overpopulation: A Worldwide Problem
  4. Poverty in Developing Countries

Question 47. The phrase “that number” in paragraph 1 refers to the number of     .

A. countries                 B. resources     C. people         D. densities Question 48. In certain countries, large areas of land can only yield small amounts of food because           .

  1. there are small numbers of laborers
  2. there is a lack of mechanization
  3. there is an abundance of resources
  4. there is no shortage of skilled labor

Question 49. Which of the following is TRUE, according to the passage?

  1. There is no connection between a country’s culture and overpopulation.
  2. In certain developed countries, mechanized farming is applied.
  3. All small countries in Western Europe have high population densities.
  4. In sub-Saharan African countries, productivity is boosted by technology.

Question 50. Bangladesh is a country where the level of poverty depends greatly on         .

  1. its population density only
  2. both population density and agricultural productivity
  3. population density in metropolitan areas
  4. its high agricultural productivity

ĐÁP ÁN

1-C

2-B

3-A

4-B

5-D

6-C

7-C

8-B

9-C

10-B

11-C

12-B

13-B

14-C

15-B

16-D

17-C

18-B

19-B

20-C

21-A

22-A

23-A

24-C

25-B

26-D

27-D

28-D

29-D

30-D

31-A

32-D

33-C

34-A

35-C

36-A

37-D

38-C

39-A

40-D

41-B

42-D

43-C

44-B

45-A

46-B

47-C

48-B

49-B

50-B

2. Đề số 2

Part 1: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1:

A. finished

B. promised

C. escaped

D. followed

Question 2:

A. gossip

B. gentle

C. gamble

D. garage

Part 2: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3:     A. solidarity    B. effectively  C. documentary          D. dedication

Question 4:     A. emerge        B. organic        C. belief                      D. medium

Part 3: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5: The world work is developing very quickly. If you don’t self-learn continuously, we will not             social movements.

A. put up with             B. keep up with           C. get on with D. deal with Question 6: She             on her computer for more than two hours when she decided to stop for a rest.

A. has worked B. has been working

C. was working           D. had been working

Question 7: The teacher recommended that Tom     his composition as soon as possible.

A. finish writing          B. finished writing

C. should finish to write         D. finishes writing

Question 8: He has been waiting for this letter for days, and at       it has come.

A. the end       B. last  C. the moment D. present

Question 9: I’m sorry I haven’t got any money. I’ve            my wallet at home.

A. missed        B. let   C. left  D. forgotten

Question 10: There’s a list of repairs as long as       .

A. your arm     B. a pole          C. your arms   D. a mile

Question 11: I tried to talk to her, but she was as high as a .

A. kite B. house          C. sky  D. wall

Question 12: Not only_         to determine the depth of the ocean floor, but it is also used to locate oil.

A. seismology is used B. using seismology

C. is seismology used D. to use seismology

Question 13:              advised on what and how to prepare for the interview, he might have got the job.

A. Had he been           B. If he had

C. Unless he had been D. Were he to be

Question   14: The  jury         her  compliments        her excellent knowledge of the subject.

A. returned/ to B. paid/ to       C. returned/ on            D. paid / on

Question 15: Determining the mineral content of soil samples is an exacting process;

            ,experts must perform detail tests to analyze soil specimens.

A. therefore     B. afterward    C. so that        D. however

Question  16: John lost the    bicycle he bought last week and his parents were very angry with him because

A. new beautiful blue Japanses           B. beautiful blue Japanese new

C. beautiful new blue Japanese          D. Japanese beautiful new blue

Part 4: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 17: Miranda still has trauma from the tragic accident, that took away her closest friend.

A. has  B. tragic          C. that D. closest

Question 18: The office furniture that was ordered last month have just arrived, but we’re not sure whether the manager likes it.

A. that B. have just arrived     C. whether      D. likes

Question 19: Don’t go up to your hotel room because the maid is making the beds, cleaning the bathroom, and vacuum the carpet.

A. Don’t go     B. because       C. cleaning      D. vacuum

Part 5: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20: After many years of unsuccessfully endeavoring to form his own orchestra, Glenn Miller finally achieved world fame in 1939 as a big band leader.

A. offering      B. deciding     C. requesting   D. trying

Question 21: My uncle, who is an accomplished guitarist, taught me how to play.

A. skillful        B. perfect        C. modest       D. famous

ĐÁP ÁN

1-D

2-B

3-B

4-D

5-B

6-D

7-A

8-B

9-C

10-A

11-A

12-C

13-A

14-D

15-A

16-C

17-C

18-B

19-D

20-D

21-A

22-A

23-C

24-B

25-C

26-C

27-B

28-A

29-D

30-B

31-C

32-A

33-D

34-B

35-B

36-C

37-C

38-B

39-A

40-D

41-B

42-B

43-A

44-A

45-D

46-D

47-C

48-A

49-B

50-B

3. Đề số 3

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 1: It is such a prestigious university that only excellent students are entitled to a full scholarship each year.

A. have the right to refuse      B. are given the right to

C. are refused the right to       D. have the obligation to

Question 2: The repeated commercials on TV distract many viewers from watching their favorite films.

A. economics  B. businesses   C. contests      D. advertisements

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 3: In some societies, language is associated with social class and  education. People judge one’s level in society by the kind of language used.

A. connected with       B. not allowed by        C. separated from       D. dissimilar to Question 4: There was a long period without rain in the countryside last year so the harvest was poor.

A. epidemic     B. drought       C. famine        D. flood

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 5:     A. matched     B. worked       C. cleaned       D. stepped

Question 6:     A. digestion    B. suggestion  C. question      D. perfection

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined word or phrase that must be changed in order for the sentence to be correct.

Question 7: He was so intelligent a student that he could pass the final exam easy.

A. was B. so intelligent           C. could          D. easy

Question 8: Hadn’t you informed of the change in the timetable, I would have rushed to the office yesterday.

A. Hadn’t you B. of    C. have            D. the

Question 9: I’d prefer to do it on myself because other people make me nervous.

A. I’d prefer    B. on myself    C. other           D. make

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions

Since water is the basis of life, composing the greater part of the tissues of all living things, the crucial problem of desert animals is to survive in a world where sources of flowing water are rare. And since man’s inexorable necessity is to absorb large quantities of water at frequent intervals, he can scarcely comprehend that many creatures of the desert pass their entire lives without a single drop.

Uncompromising as it is, the desert has not eliminated life but only those forms unable to withstand its desiccating effects. No moist- skinned, water-loving animals can exist there. Few large animals are found. The giants of the North American desert are the deer, the coyote, and the bobcat. Since desert country is open, it holds more swift-footed running and leaping creatures than the tangled forest. Its population is largely

nocturnal, silent, filled with reticence, and ruled by stealth. Yet they are not emaciated. Having adapted to their austere environment, they are as healthy as animals anywhere else in the word. The secret of their adjustment lies in the combination of behavior and physiology. None could survive if, like mad dogs and Englishmen, they went out in the midday sun; many would die in a matter of minutes. So most of them pass the burning hours asleep in cool, humid burrows underneath the ground, emerging to hunt only by night. The surface of the sun-baked desert averages around 150 degrees, but 18 inches down the temperature is only 60 degrees.

Question 10: The author mentions all the following as examples of the behavior of desert animals EXCEPT

A. they are watchful and quiet            B. they sleep during the day

C. they dig home underground           D. they are noisy and aggressive

Question 11: We can infer from the passage that

A. healthy animals live longer lives   B. living things adjust to their environment

C. desert life is colorful and diverse   D. water is the basis of desert life

Question 12: According to the passage, creatures in the desert

  1. are smaller and fleeter than forest animals
  2. are more active during the day than those in the tangled forest
  3. live in an accommodating environment
  4. are not as healthy as those anywhere else in the world

Question 13: The phrase “those forms” in the passage refers to all of the following EXCEPT

A. moist-skinned animals        B. many large animals

C. water-loving animals          D. the coyote and the bobcat

Question 14: The word “them” means

A. animals       B. minutes       C. people         D. water

Question 15: The word “emaciated” in the passage mostly means

A. wild            B. unmanageable         C. cunning      D. unhealthy Question 16: Man can hardly understand why many animals live their whole life in the desert, as

  1. water is an essential part of his existence
  2. very few large animals are found in the desert
  3. sources of flowing water are rare in a desert
  4. water composes the greater part of the tissues of living things

Question 17: The title for this passage could be

A. “Man’s Life in a Desert Environment”      B. “Desert Plants”

C. “Animal Life in a Desert Environment”    D. “Life Underground”

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 18:   A. ability         B. sympathetic            C. political      D. significant

Question 19:   A. postpone     B. specialize    C. purpose       D. summarize

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 20: He is coming    a cold after a night out in the rain.

A. down with  B. across with C. up with       D. away from

Question 21: New machinery has enhanced the company’s productivity and          .

A. competition            B. competitiveness      C. competitive D. competitor

ĐÁP ÁN

1-B

2-D

3-C

4-D

5-C

6-D

7-D

8-A

9-B

10-D

11-B

12-A

13-A

14-A

15-D

16-A

17-C

18-B

19-A

20-A

21-B

22-A

23-A

24-B

25-C

26-B

27-D

28-B

29-B

30-C

31-A

32-D

33-D

34-C

35-D

36-C

37-C

38-A

39-B

40-C

41-A

42-C

43-D

44-A

45-D

46-C

47-D

48-A

49-A

50-B

4. Đề số 4

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best first each of the numbered blanks from 1 to 5.

Nowadays people are more aware that wildlife all over the world is in (1)   . Many species of animals are threatened, and could easily become (2)        . if we do not make an effort to protect them. In some cases, animals are hunted for their fur or for other valuable parts of their bodies. Some birds, such as parrots, are

caught (3)        . and sold as pets. For many animals and birds the problem is that their habitat - the place

where they live - is disappearing. More land is used for farms, for houses or industry, and there are fewer open spaces than there once were. Farmers use powerful chemicals to help them to  grow better  crops,  but  these  chemicals  pollute the environment and (4)     . wildlife. The most successful animals on earth - human beings - will soon be the only ones (5)           ., unless we can solve this problem.

Question 1:

A. threat

B. problem

C. danger

D. vanishing

Question 2:

A. disappeared

B. vanished

C. extinct

D. empty

Question 3:

A. for life

B. alive

C. lively

D. for living

Question 4:

A. spoil

B. wound

C. wrong

D. harm

Question 5:

A. left

B. over

C. staying

D. survive

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 6: Important features of dehydrated foods are their lightness in weight and their compactness.

A. organic       B. dried           C. frozen         D. healthy

Question 7. Many people criticized the ostentatious lifestyle of some high-ranked officials.

A. debauched  B. immoral      C. showy         D. extravagant

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 8. ‘What I’ve got to say to you now is strictly off the record and most certainly not for publication,’ said the government official to the reporter.

A. already official       B. beside the point      C. not popular D. not recorded

Question 9. These were the people who advocated using force to stop school violence.

A. publicly said           B. openly criticized     C. publicly supported D. strongly condemned

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 10. Minh: “My first English test was not as good as  I expected.”  - Thomas:         “       .”

A. Good Heavens!      B. Never mind. Better job next time!

C. That‟s brilliant enough.     D. It‟s okay. Don‟t worry.

Question 11. Susan: “            .” - Peter: “No, thanks. I‟m not hungry.”

A. Do you like eating cookies?           B. Would you like some cookies?

C. Do you have any cookies? D. Are cookies your favorite snacks?

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 12:   A. household   B. concern       C. garbage       D. conflict

Question 13:   A. confidence B. maximum    C. applicant     D. computer

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in the pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 14:   A. area             B. arrange        C. arrive          D. arise

Question 15:   A. reduced      B. caused        C. damaged    D. preserved

Read the following pasage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions

As heart disease continues to be the number-one killer in the United States, researchers have become increasingly interested in identifying the potential risk factors that trigger heart attacks. High-fat diets and "life in the fast lane" have long been known to contribute to the high incidence of heart failure. But according to new studies, the list of risk factors may be significantly longer and quite surprising.

Heart failure, for example, appears to have seasonal and temporal patterns. A higher percentage of heart attacks occur in cold weather, and more people experience heart failure on Monday than on any other day of the week. In addition, people are more susceptible to heart attacks in the first few hours after waking. Cardiologists first observed this morning phenomenon in the mid-1980, and have since discovered a number of possible causes. An early-morning rise in blood pressure, heart rate, and concentration of heart stimulating hormones, plus a reduction of blood flow to the heart, may all contribute to the higher incidence of heart attacks between the hours of 8:00 A.M. and 10:00 A.M.

In other studies, both birthdays and bachelorhood have been implicated as risk factors. Statistics reveal that heart attack rates increase significantly for both females and males in the few days immediately preceding and following their birthdays. And unmarried men are more at risk for heart attacks than their married counterparts. Though stress is thought to be linked in some way to all of the aforementioned risk factors, intense research continues in the hope of further comprehending why and how heart failure is triggered .

Question 16. What does the passage mainly discuss?

  1. Risk factors in heart attacks
  2. Seasonal and temporal pattern of heart attacks
  3. Cardiology in the 1980s
  4. Diet and stress as factors in heart attacks

Question 17. The word “trigger” as used in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to which of the following?

A. involve       B. affect          C. cause          D. encounter

Question 18. What do the second and the third paragraphs of the passage mainly discuss?

A. The link between heart attacks and marriage         B. Unusual risk factors in heart attacks

C. Age and gender factors in heart attacks     D. Myths about lifestyles and heart attacks

Question 19. The phrase “susceptible to” in the second paragraph could best be replaced by

A. aware of     B. affected by C. accustomed to        D. prone to

Question 20. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT a possible cause of any heart attacks?

A. Decreased blood flow to the heart B. Increased blood pressure

C. Lower heart rate     D. Increase in hormones

ĐÁP ÁN

1-C

2-C

3-B

4-D

5-A

6-B

7-C

8-A

9-B

10-B

11-B

12-B

13-D

14-A

15-A

16-A

17-C

18-B

19-D

20-C

21-B

22-D

23-A

24-B

25-C

26-C

27-B

28-D

29-B

30-A

31-C

32-C

33-A

34-D

35-B

36-C

37-B

38-D

39-C

40-A

41-A

42-D

43-D

44-B

45-C

46-A

47-C

48-A

49-D

50-B

5. Đề số 5

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Câu 1: Tung: “Your shoes are terrific, Tuan. The colour quite suits you.”

Tuan:          

A. Really?                                                                               B. Do you like them?

C. You must be kidding. My shirt is nice, isn’t it?                D. I’m glad you like them.

Câu 2: Lan: “Would you say the Great Wall is among the seven man-made wonders of the world?”

Trang:        

A. That’s the least I could do.             B. Do you think so, too?

C. There’s no doubt about that.          D. It was created by ancient Chinese people, wasn’t it?

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 3 to 7.

Back in the 1960s and 1970s, the world was becoming more aware of the destructive effects of industry      (3)            the  environment  and  people  were  starting  to  think  seriously  about  ways  of       protecting  the environment. One man who was particularly affected by this subject was Gerard Morgan-Grenville. As Morgan-Grenville travelled round earning his living as a gardener, he noticed signs of the damage that was being done to the countryside around him. It wasn't long before Morgan-Grenville decided that he had to do something about this situation. He felt that if people could be shown a better way of living then maybe they would be interested enough to try to protect their (4)          environment.

Mr. Morgan-Grenville decided to set up a project (5)            would  prove  what  was  happening to our surroundings and what could be done about it. So, in 1975, Morgan-Grenville created the Centre for Alternative Technology (CAT) in a village in Wales.

The main aim of CAT is to search for an ecologically better way of living by using technology which (6)

            no harm to the environment. One of the most important things CAT did initially was to explore and demonstrate a wide range of techniques and to point out which ones had the least destructive results on the world around us. (7)              _, CAT provides information  and advice to people all over Britain and all over t world. If more and more individuals are informed about how much damage our modern lifestyle is causing to the planet, maybe more of them would be prepared to look for practical solutions to environmental problems.

Câu 3: A. for              B. to                C. with            D. on

Câu 4: A. worthless    B. valueless     C. precious      D. priceless

Câu 5: A. that             B. he                C. it                 D. this

Câu 6: A. gets             B. makes         C. plays           D. does

Câu 7: A. Therefore    B. However     C. Moreover    D. Although

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Câu 8: A. volunteer    B. trust             C. fuss             D. judge

Câu 9: A. houses        B. services       C. passages     D. techniques

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Câu 10: Since the death of Laura's father, her mother has become a breadwinner to support the family.

A. a person who bakes bread every morning              B. a bakery-owner

C. a person who delivers bread to make money         D. a person who goes out to work to earn money

Câu 11: Peter is the black sheep of the family, so he is never welcomed there.

A. a beloved member  B. a bad and embarrassing member

C. the only child         D. the eldest child

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Câu 12: Children are expected to make the right thing both at school and at home.

A. to make       B. the  C. are expected           D. both

Câu 13: We will have a fund-raising dinner at Rex Hotel tonight.

A. at    B. will have     C. a     D. fund-raising

Câu 14: It was on 12th  April, 1961 when the first human, a Soviet cosmonaut, flew into space.

A. a Soviet cosmonaut            B. when           C. flew            D. into space

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Câu 15: His physical condition was not an impediment to his career as a violinist. He has won a lot of prizes.

A. difficulty    B. barrier         C. advantage   D. disadvantage

Câu 16: Both universities speak highly of the programme of student exchange and hope to cooperate more in the future.

A. express disapproval of       B. voice opinions on

C. find favor with       D. resolve a conflict over

ĐÁP ÁN

Question 1

D

Question 11

D

Question 21

C

Question 31

C

Question 41

D

Question 2

C

Question 12

A

Question 22

B

Question 32

D

Question 42

A

Question 3

D

Question 13

C

Question 23

D

Question 33

B

Question 43

A

Question 4

D

Question 14

A

Question 24

C

Question 34

B

Question 44

B

Question 5

A

Question 15

C

Question 25

C

Question 35

C

Question 45

D

Question 6

D

Question 16

A

Question 26

B

Question 36

B

Question 46

C

Question 7

C

Question 17

C

Question 27

A

Question 37

B

Question 47

A

Question 8

A

Question 18

D

Question 28

B

Question 38

A

Question 48

D

Question 9

D

Question 19

C

Question 29

C

Question 39

A

Question 49

B

Question 10

B

Question 20

A

Question 30

D

Question 40

A

Question 50

A

 ---

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