Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG năm 2021 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THPT An Khánh Lần 2

BỘ 5 ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QG NĂM 2021 MÔN TIẾNG ANH

TRƯỜNG THPT AN KHÁNH LẦN 2

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 1: Despite their normal cylindrical form, some of the documents  ______ on silk that were found at Mawangdui, an archaeological site in southeastern China, were folded into rectangles.

A. wrote                      B. written

C. were written           D.  be written

Question 2: John's ______ and efficiency at the company led to his promotion to Sales Manager.

A. punctuality             B. punctual

C. punctuate               D. punctually

Question 3: I am sure your sister will lend you a sympathetic_____when you explain the situation to her.

A. eye                          B. ear

C. arm                         D. finger

Question 4: Mr. Pike is certainly a______writer; he has written quite a few books this year.

A. prolific                    B. fruitful

C. fertile                      D. successful

Question 5: We were quite impressed by the ______ students who came up with the answer to our question almost instantly.

A. absent-minded       B. big-headed

C. quick-witted           D. bad-tempered

Question 6: My cousin was nervous about being interviewed on television, but he ______ to the occasion wonderfully.

A. raised                      B. rose

C. fell                          D. faced

Question 7: Daisy has spent the last two weekends _____ hundreds of photographs so that she can put them in separate albums.

A. playing at               B. sorting out

C. cutting off              D. filling up

Question 8: I didn’t see the red light at the crossroads. Otherwise, I _____ my car.

A. stopped

B. had stopped

C. would have stopped

D. would stop

Question 9: I much preferred it when we _____ to Wales every summer on holiday.

A. used to go

B. were used to going

C. had gone

D. have been going

Question 10: The incident happening last week left her ______ confused and hurt.

A. feel                         B. felt

C. feeling                    D. to feel

Question 11: “We gave them the money yesterday, but we haven't received a receipt yet, ______?’’ she asked her husband.

A. didn't we                B. have we

C. did we                    D. haven’t we

Question 12: You and your big mouth! It was supposed to be a secret. You _____ her!

A. shouldn't have told

B. mightn’t have told

C. mustn't have told

D. couldn't have told

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 13.

A. notify           B. advocate

C. influence       D. interfere

Question 14:

A. royal             B. unique

C. remote          D. extreme

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) or phrase(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the bold and underlined word(s) or phrase(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 15: Many organizations have been involved in drawing up the report on environmental campaigns.

A. concerned about               B. confined in

C. enquired about                  D. engaged in

Question 16. His girlfriend’s behavior at the party was unacceptable, which made everyone there shocked.

A. out of practice                   B. out of line

C. out of the habit                  D. out of sight

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) or phrase(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the bold and underlined word(s) or phrase(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 17: If any employee knowingly breaks the terms of this contract, he will be dismissed immediately.

A. coincidentally                    B. deliberately

C. instinctively                       D. accidentally

Question 18: Wendy is on the horns of a dilemma: she just wonders whether to go for a picnic with her friends or to stay at home with her family.

A. unwilling to make a decision

B. able to make a choice

C. eager to make a plan

D. unready to make up her mind

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose bold and underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 19:

A. custom                   B. cushion

C. mushroom              D. culture

Question 20:

A. presses                  B. precedes 

C. judges                    D. catches

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer that best fits the blank space in the following passage.

21^st CENTURY TEACHERS: INEVITABLE CHANGES

21^st century teachers need to serve as a guide or mentor for their students, not as the all- knowing sage providing them with everything they need. Nowadays, with so much access (21) ______ resources of all kinds, children invariably know more than teachers on different topics, step ahead of the technology. Teachers need to be empowered as facilitators for learning, so that they can empower their students in (22) ______.

This shift is great news for teachers. Instead of struggling to give kids all the information in areas (23) ______ they know little about, teachers can support students as they make their own steps into different fields. It’s about preparing them to go beyond their seniors, ensuring they have the skills to do it, and assisting them along the way.

(24) ______, teachers need to be forward-thinking, curious and flexible. They must be learners: learning new teaching methods, and learning alongside their students. Simply asking questions like “What will my students need dozens of years from now?” or “How can I help give them those skills?” can change teachers' (25) ______, make them a leader, and bring about changes in the classroom, school and community.

Question 21.

A. to                           B. with

C. for                          D. in

Question 22:

A. sight                       B. use

C. line                         D. turn

Question 23:

A. what                        B. that

C. where                     D. whom

Question 24:

A. For instance            B. Therefore

C. In practice              D. Otherwise

Question 25:

A. knowledge               B. prejudice

C. mindset                  D. judgement 

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions

For centuries, time was measured by the position of the sun with the use of sundials. Noon was recognized when the sun was the highest in the sky, and cities would set their clock by this apparent solar time, even though some cities would often be on a slightly different time. Daylight Saving Time (DST), sometimes called summer time, was instituted to make better use of daylight. Thus, clocks are set forward one hour in the spring to move an hour of daylight from the morning to the evening and then set back one hour in the fall to return to normal daylight.

Benjamin Franklin first conceived the idea of daylight saving during his tenure as an American delegate in Paris in 1984 and wrote about it extensively in his essay, "An Economical Project." It is said that Franklin awoke early one morning and was surprised to see the sunlight at such an hour. Always the economist, Franklin believed the practice of moving the time could save on the use of candlelight, as candles were expensive at the time.

In England, builder William Willett (1857–1915) became a strong supporter for Daylight Saving Time upon noticing blinds of many houses were closed on an early sunny morning. Willet believed everyone, including himself, would appreciate longer hours of light in the evenings. In 1909, Sir Robert Pearce introduced a bill in the House of Commons to make it obligatory to adjust the clocks. A bill was drafted and introduced into Parliament several times but met with great opposition, mostly from farmers. Eventually, in 1925, it was decided that summer time should begin on the day following the third Saturday in April and close after the first Saturday in October.

The U.S. Congress passed the Standard Time Act of 1918 to establish standard time and preserve and set Daylight Saving Time across the continent. This act also devised five time zones throughout the United States: Eastern, Central, Mountain, Pacific, and Alaska. The first time zone was set on "the mean astronomical time of the seventy-fifth degree of longitude west from Greenwich" (England). In 1919, this act was repealed.

President Roosevelt established year-round Daylight Saving Time (also called War Time) from 1942–1945. However, after this period, each state adopted its own DST, which proved to be disconcerting to television and radio broadcasting and transportation. In 1966, President Lyndon Johnson created the Department of Transportation and signed the Uniform Time Act. As a result, the Department of Transportation was given the responsibility for the time laws. During the oil embargo and energy crisis of the 1970s, President Richard Nixon extended DST through the Daylight Saving Time Energy Act of 1973 to conserve energy further. This law was modified in 1986, and Daylight Saving Time was reset to begin on the first Sunday in April (to spring ahead) and end on the last Sunday in October (to fall back).

Question 26: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to 

A. Franklin’s idea of daylight saving

B. Franklin's first conception

C.  Franklin’s first official tenure

D. Franklin’s delegation

Question 27: The word “obligatory” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to           

A. imperative              B. approved

C. deficient                 D. peculiar

Question 28: Who opposed the bill that was introduced in the House of Commons in the early 1900s?

A. Sir Robert Pearce

B. television and radio broadcasting companies

C. farmers

D. the U.S. Congress

Question 29: The word “devised” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to   

A. divided                   B. invented

C. ordered                   D. adapted

Question 30: Which of the following statements is true of the U.S. Department of Transportation?

A. It was created by President Richard Nixon.

B. It set standards for DST throughout the world.

C. It constructed the Uniform Time Act.

D. It oversees all time laws in the United States.

Question 31: The Daylight Saving Time Energy Act of 1973 was responsible for

A. extending Daylight Saving Time in the interest of energy conservation

B. preserving and setting Daylight Saving Time across the continent

C. instituting five time zones in the United States

D. conserving energy by giving the Department of Transportation authority over time laws

Question 32: Which of the following would be the best title for this passage?

A. Lyndon Johnson and the Uniform Time Act

B. The History and Rationale of Daylight Saving Time

C. The U.S. Department of Transportation and Daylight Saving Time

D. Daylight Saving Time in the United States

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 33: Harry is talking to Judy over the phone.

Harry: “Thank you for helping me prepare for my birthday party, Judy.”

Judy: “_______.”

A. It’s my pleasure

B. That’s out of this world

C. Never mention me

D. Of course not

Question 34: Tom and Josh are discussing their summer vacation plan.

Tom: “ _______.”

Josh: “I don’t think that’s a good idea because it will be costly and strenuous.”

A. Is it wise to climb Mount Everest when we are in India this summer?

B. What if weclimb Mount Everest when we are in India this summer?

C. How come will we climb Mount Everest when we are in India this summer?

D. Why don’t we climb Mount Everest when we are in India this summer?

(248391) Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions

Question 35: Neither (A) the Minister nor his colleagues has given (B) an explanation for (C) the chaos in the financial market (D) last week.

Question 36: To (A) everyone's surprise, (B) it wasn't in Bristol which (C) he made (D) his fortune, although that’s where he was born.

Question 37: This might not (A) matter with (B) you, but some people are (C) going to be negatively (D) affected by this decision.

Read the following passage, and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

SHAYNE’S DREAMS COME TRUE - BUT WILL THEY BE SHATTERED?

It is a week before The X Factor live tour when I meet the winner of the series, Shayne Ward. “It has been mental,” he says, referring to the past six months of his life. “I've just been talking to Louis Walsh on the phone. Louis Walsh!” Walsh, a top record producer and The X Factor judge, now manages Shayne’s career. “I was talking to Simon Cowell (a celebrity record producer) yesterday!” He shakes his head in amazement. And these people are telling me they're excited about working with me. “I can't get my head round it.”

Shayne is about as natural as any pop star arriving in the public arena can be. “I just can’t accept where I am now” he says sincerely. “It doesn't feel real. To me, this is just a job.” “What do you think being famous feels like?” I ask him. “I'm not sure, to be honest. Different from this?” he laughs, with only a hint of nerves. Since winning The X Factor, Shayne's success has been phenomenal. His debut single took just three days to reach the number one spot. On tour, he's going to play to audiences of 10,000 on average. He has already brought the house down at a gig in his home city. “I walked out after that performance and just thought, “I’m dreaming!””

Shayne is one of a family of seven children. Times were hard, but he has never wished or a different childhood. Although he thought about going to college, he ended up leaving school at sixteen, just to help his mother pay the rent. He set out on his reality show journey shortly afterwards. When he told he friends he had an audition for The X Factor, none of them really believed him. “I thought I’d go fot it because my family wanted me to, but I never really believed that I would win.”

Naturally, Ward is a fan of reality TV talent shows. “They're brilliant, because people who want recording contracts try for years and get nowhere. Then these competitions come along the people at home decide whether they like the singers or not. So its not just a few people at a record company deciding who gets a chance.” But the previous winner of The X Factor only had one hit. He hasn't been heard of since then. Is Shayne Ward going to be another talent show flop?

A lot of people feel cynical about reality TV show winners and their chances of continuing success. Audiences usually lose interest in them as soon as the show has finished. In fact, contestants on shows like Big Brother are given severe warnings from the show’s producers beforehand, basically telling them “you will not be liked”. Talent shows like The X Factor have to offer contestants a kind of stardom though, and something they can think of as a career, months afterwards at least.

Question 38: The word “mental” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to

A. psychiatric             B. physical

C. crazy                     D. mind-bending

Question 39: The word “it” in the first paragraph refers to

A. the tour                  B. the experience

C. the phone call         D. the show

Question 40: Which of the following statement is TRUE about Shayne Ward?

A. He is certain how well known he is.

B. He finds his present situation unacceptable.

C. He is confused about the nature of fame.

D. He thinks his job isn’t particularly glamorous.

Question 41: After performing in his home city, Shayne felt

A. overwhelmed         B. embarrassed

C. disappointed          D. relieved

Question 42: After leaving school at the age of sixteen, Shayne

A. set off on a trip

B. gave up performing

C. got himself a job

D. applied to a college

Question 43: The word “flop” in the passage is closest in meaning to

A. someone who is unpopular

B. someone who is unsuccessful

C. someone who isn’t ambitious

D. someone who lacks character

Question 44: According to the passage, who decide the winner of a reality TV talent show?

A. audiences              

B. contestants

C. previous winners

D. record companies

Question 45: What does the writer suggest about reality talent show winners?

A. They are treated badly by producers.

B. Their fame is short-lived.

C. Audiences never really like them.

D. They don’t expect to be popular.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 46: Steve said to Mike, “Don’t touch the electric wires. It might be deadly.”

A. Steve advised Mike not to touch the electric wires as it might be deadly.

B. Steve warned Mike not to touch the wires as it might be deadly.

C. Steve suggested that Mike not touch the electric wires as it might be deadly.

D. Steve did not allow Mike to touch the electric wires as it might be deadly.

Question 47: I did not see Susan off at the airport. I feel bad about it now.

A. I could have seen Susan off at the airport.

B. If only I had seen Susan off at the airport.

C. That I did not see Susan off at the airport escapes me now.

D. It suddenly dawns on me that I should have seen Susan off at the airport.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 48: Sam doesn’t find it difficult to get up early in the morning.

A. Sam is in two minds about getting up early in the morning.

B. Sam is not hesitant to get up early in the morning.

C. Sam is accustomed to getting up early in the morning.

D. Sam is pleased with getting up early in the morning.

Question 49: People rumour that the Prince secretly got married to an ordinary girl.

A. The Prince is rumoured to have secretly got married to an ordinary girl.

B. It was rumoured that the Prince secretly got married to an ordinary girl.

C. The Prince was rumoured to secretly get married to an ordinary girl.

D. The Prince had secretly got married to an ordinary girl, as it was rumoured.

Question 50: There is no doubt that Martin is the best candidate for the job.

A. Martin is by all means the best candidate for the job.

B. Without question, Martin is the best candidate for the job.

C. In all likelihood, Martin is the best candidate for the job.

D. Quite by chance, Martin is the best candidate for the job.

ĐÁP ÁN

1	2	3	4	5
B	A	B	A	C
6	7	8	9	10
B	B	C	B	C
11	12	13	14	15
B	A	D	A	D
16	17	18	19	20
B	D	B	B	B
21	22	23	24	25
A	D	B	B	C
26	27	28	29	30
A	A	C	B	D
31	32	33	34	35
A	D	A	D	B
36	37	38	39	40
C	A	C	C	D
41	42	43	44	45
A	C	B	A	B
46	47	48	49	50
B	B	C	A	B

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 1.

A. diverse            B. current

C. justice             D. series

Question 2.

A. interview        B. compliment

C. sacrifice          D. represent

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 3.

A. supportive      B. substantial 

C. compulsory     D. curriculum

Question 4.

A. listens             B. reviews 

C. protects           D. enjoys

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following question.

Question 5. If an alarm _____, the thieves wouldn’t have broken into his house.

A. installed

B. had installed

C. have installed

D. had been installed

Question 6. I know you didn’t want to upset me but I’d sooner you _____ the whole truth yesterday.

A. have told                           B. told

C. could have told                 D. had told

Question 7. A fire in the _____ building could be a problem for fightfires.

A. ninety-storeys-tall

B. ninety-storey-tall

C. ninety-tall-storey

D. ninety-storeyed

Question 8. There has been little rain in this area for months, _____?

A. has it                             B. has there

C. hasn’t it                         D. hasn’t there

Question 9. She could _____ in the garden when we came around, which would explain why she didn’t hear the bell.

A. work

B. be working

C. have worked

D. have been working

Question 10. The party leader traveled the length and _____ of the country in an attempt to spread his message.

A. width                      B. distance

C. diameter                 D. breadth

Question 11. Many young people have objected to _____ marriage, which is decided by the parents of the bride and groom.

A. sacrificed                  B. contractual

C. agreed                      D. shared

Question 12. The doctor _____ the cut on my knee and said it had completely healed up.

A. looked into                 B. researched

C. examined                   D. investigated

Question 13. Karen is so _____ that she thinks she is more important than anyone else.

A. meticulous                B. pretentious

C. ironic                        D. susceptible

Question 14. “This room is filled with smoke”. “Yes, this is a ____ room.”

A. smoke-filled                B. smoke-filling

C. filling-smoke               D. smoking-filled

Question 15. As an ASEAN member, Vietnam has actively participated in the groups programs and has also created new_____ and cooperation mechanics.

A. initiatives                    B. initiators 

C. initiations                    D. initiates

Question 16. Vietnam U23 made not only Asia but also Europe keep a close eye on them. They _____ internationally.

A. have made headlines

B. had made headlines

C. have done headlines

D. did headlines

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 17. The first few days at university can be very daunting, but with determination and positive attitude, freshman will soon fit in with the new environment.

A. interesting                    B. memorable

C. serious                         D. depressing

Question 18. The guards were ordered to get to the king’s room on the double.

A. in a large number

B. very quickly

C. on the second floor 

D. every two hours

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 19. Strongly advocating healthy foods, Jane doesn’t eat any chocolate.

A. denying                   B. supporting

C. advising                   D. impugning

Question 20. The nominating committee always meet behind closed doors, lest its deliberations become known prematurely.

A. privately                    B. safely

C. publicly                      D. dangerously

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 21. “What’s the matter? You don’t look very well.” – “I feel a little _____.”

A. out of the blue

B. out of order

C. under the weather

D. under a cloud

Question 22. Jane: “Would you mind if I use your computer for an hour?” – Tony: “______.”

A. Not at all. I’ve finished my job

B. Yes, you can use it

C. Of course not. I still need it now

D. Yes, it’s all right

ĐÁP ÁN

1	2	3	4	5
A	D	C	C	C
6	7	8	9	10
D	B	B	D	D
11	12	13	14	15
B	C	B	A	A
16	17	18	19	20
A	D	B	D	C
21	22	23	24	25
C	B	C	B	D
26	27	28	29	30
D	D	A	B	B
31	32	33	34	35
C	C	A	A	C
36	37	38	39	40
A	A	C	B	D
41	42	43	44	45
A	A	B	B	D
46	47	48	49	50
B	D	B	D	B

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

              Plants are subject to attack and infection by a remarkable variety of symbiotic species and have evolved a diverse array of mechanisms designed to frustrate the  potential colonists. These can be divided into preformed or passive defense mechanisms  and inducible or active systems. Passive plant defense comprises physical and chemical  barriers that prevent entry of pathogens, such as bacteria, or render tissues unpalatable or toxic to the invader. The external surfaces of plants, in addition to being covered by an epidermis and a waxy cuticle, often carry spiky hairs known as trichomes, which either prevent feeding by insects or may even puncture and kill insect larvae. Other trichomes are sticky and glandular and effectively trap and immobilize insects. If the physical barriers of the plant are breached, then preformed chemicals may inhibit or kill the intruder, and plant tissues contain a diverse array of toxic or potentially toxic substances, such as resins, tannins, glycosides, and alkaloids, many of which are highly effective deterrents to insects that feed on plants. The success of the Colorado beetle in infesting potatoes, for example, seems to be correlated with its high tolerance to alkaloids that normally repel potential pests. Other possible chemical  defenses, while not directly toxic to the parasite, may inhibit some essential step in the establishment of a parasitic relationship. For example, glycoproteins in plant cell walls may inactivate enzymes that degrade cell walls. These enzymes are often produced by bacteria and fungi.

            Active plant defense mechanisms are comparable to the immune system of  vertebrate animals, although the cellular and molecular bases are fundamentally different. Both, however, are triggered in reaction to intrusion, implying that the host has some means of recognizing the presence of a foreign organism. The most dramatic example of an inducible plant defense reaction is the hypersensitive response. In the hypersensitive response, cells undergo rapid necrosis ― that is, they become diseased 

and die ― after being penetrated by a parasite ; the parasite itself subsequently ceases to grow and is therefore restricted to one or a few cells around the entry site. Several theories have been put forward to explain the bases of hypersensitive resistance.

Question 1. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. How the immune system of animals and the defense mechanisms of plants differ

B. How plant defense mechanisms function

C. Theories on active plant defense mechanisms

D. The success of parasites in resisting plant defense mechanisms

Question 2. The phrase "subject to" in line 1 is closest in meaning to

A. attractive to

B. strengthened by

C. classified by

D. susceptible to

Question 3. The word "puncture" in line 8 is closest in meaning to

A. surround                  B. pinch

C. pierce                      D. cover

Question 4. The word "which" in line 13 refers to

A. barriers                   B. tissues

C. substances             D. insects

Question 5. Which of the following substances does the author mention as NOT necessarily being toxic to the Colorado beetle?

A. Alkaloids                B. Glycosides

C. Resins                    D. Tannins

Question 6. Why does the author mention "glycoproteins" in line 17?

A. To illustrate how chemicals function in plant defense

B. To emphasize the importance of physical barriers in plant defense

C. To compare plant defense mechanisms to the immune system of animals

D. To introduce the discussion of active defense mechanisms in plants

Question 7. Where in the passage dose the author describe an active plant-defense reaction?

A. Lines 1-3                 B. Lines 13-15

C. Lines 19-23             D. Lines 4-6

Question 8. The passage most probable continues with a discussion of theories on

A. the basis of passage plant defense

B. the principles of the hypersensitive response.

C. how chemicals inhibit a parasitic relationship.

D. how plants produce toxic chemical.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the top of the first page to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 9.

A. music                      B. refusal

C. studying                  D. human

Question 10.

A. vehicle                     B. hospital 

C. honest                      D. heir

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the top of the first page to indicate the word that  differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the  following questions.

Question 11.

A. necessarily               B. originally

C. elaborately               D. mysteriously

Question 12.

A. favorable                  B. democracy 

C. relationship               D. evaluate

Write the letter A, B, C or D on the top of the first page to indicate the most suitable  response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 13. John is talking to a cashier at the checkout counter of the supermarket.

Cashier: “All right. Keep your receipt. If something comes up, you can show it to us and you can get a refund.”

John: “________”

A. Thanks. I’ll put it in a safe place

B. Thank you. I’ll keep it for you.

C. OK, I won’t use it,

D. You’re welcome. See you.

Question 14. Joe and Matt met at a friend’s farewell party.

Joe: “ I thought you were too tired”

Matt: “ ______ I’ve decided to go. I feel I owe it to him.”

A. More of the same

B. All the more

C. One and the same

D. All the same

Mark  the letter A, B, C or D on the top of the first page to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 15. No one but the experts was able to realize that the painting was an imitation. It greatly resembled the original.

A. It was obvious that only a person with great talent could fake a painting so successfully.

B. It was hard for ordinary people to judge between the fake painting and the real one, but not the experts.

C. The painting looked so much like the authentic that  only the experts could tell it wasn’t genuine.

D. It was almost impossible for amateurs to realize that the painting was not authentic, though the experts could judge it quite easily.

Question 16. The police issued a warning on the radio. A dangerous man had escaped from hospital.

A. The police issued a warning on the radio, namely, a dangerous man had escaped from hospital.

B. A dangerous man had escaped from hospital where the police issued  a warning on the radio.

C. The police issued a warning on the radio about a dangerous man had escaped from hospital.

D. A dangerous an had escaped from hospital, so the police issued a warning on the radio.

Mark  the letter A, B, C or D on the top of the first page to indicate the sentence that the word(s) that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 17. S. Mayo Hospital in New Orleans was so named in recognition of Dr. Mayo’s outstanding humanitarianism.

A. remarkable                  B. charitable

C. widespread                  D. popular

Question 18. It was inevitable that the smaller company should merge with the larger.

A. urgent                         B. unavoidable

C. necessary                   D. important

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on the top of the first page to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 19. That man was an easy recognized figure with his long, white beard and a wide – brimmed hat.

A. easy                         B. wide – brimmed

C. was                          D. figure

Question 20. In China, Japan and other Oriental countries, where tea is the national drink, people almost never use sugar for their tea.

A. where                      B. Oriental

C. for                            D. almost never

Question 21. Drying food by means of solar energy is an ancient process applying wherever climatic conditions make it possible.

A. make it possible                  B. Drying

C. applying                              D. means

ĐÁP ÁN

1	2	3	4	5
B	D	C	C	A
6	7	8	9	10
A	C	B	C	B
11	12	13	14	15
A	A	A	D	C
16	17	18	19	20
D	A	B	A	C
21	22	23	24	25
C	D	D	D	D
26	27	28	29	30
A	D	A	B	D
31	32	33	34	35
C	D	C	A	B
36	37	38	39	40
B	B	B	C	B
41	42	43	44	45
B	D	D	A	A
46	47	48	49	50
D	C	A	A	C

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Câu 1:

A. campaign               B. sculpture

C. hostess                   D. floppy

Câu 2:

A. apologize               B. sacrifice

C. accompany             D. determine

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from  the other three in  pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Câu 3:

A. refreshment            B. effective

C. residential               D. enthusiastic

Câu 4:

A. blamed                   B. approached

C. secured                  D. installed

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Câu 5: When she died, she gave _____ all her money to a charity for cats.

A. off                          B. out

C. away                       D. up

Câu 6: The telephone _____ by Alexander Graham Bell.

A. invented                 B. be invented 

C. was invented          D. is inventing

Câu 7: After a short holiday, he  _____ himself once more to his studies.

A. exerted                   B. converted

C. applied                   D. engaged

Câu 8: Do you remember Mr.Brown _____ taught us how to write an English essay?

A. that                         B. whom

C. who                         D. those

Câu 9: If my candidate had won the election, I _____ happy now.

A. would be                B. would have been

C. will be                    D. am

Câu 10: This is just a(n) _____ meeting; you can dress casually like jeans and T-shirt.

A. formal                     B. formally

C. informally                D. informal

Câu 11: The computer has had an enormous _____ on the way we work.

A. impression              B. change

C. influence                D. success

Câu 12: Our project was successful _____ its practicality.

A. in terms of              B. with a view to

C. on behalf of            D. regardless

Câu 13: Why don’t you have your brother _____ the roof?

A. repairs                     B. to repair

C. repair                      D. repaired

Câu 14: Martina _____ all of the questions correctly since she began this grammar program course.

A. answers                  B. has answered

C. answered                D. is answering

Câu 15: In the first _____ year of the English Literature program, the core subjects were The Development of the Novel and Contemporary Poetry.

A. study                      B. optional

C. compulsory             D. academic

Câu 16: I don’t know how many _____, but it sounds like that they have a dozen.

A. do they have children

B. children do they have

C. children they have

D. they have children

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Câu 17: Peter: “Don’t fail to send your parents my regards.”

         Susan: “_____.”

A. You’re welcome.

B. Thanks, I will.

C. Good ideas, thanks

D. It’s my pleasure.

Câu 18: Tom: “I’m sorry, I left my guitar home.”

         Helen: “_____, I’ve got another one here.”

A. No way

B. Never mind

C. Well, you do? I’m sorry

D. Oh. What’s a pity for that.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word (s) in each of the following questions.

Câu 19: Local charity organization benefited the fire victims.

A. donated                  B. claimed 

C. prevented               D. protested

Câu 20: Please stop making that noise! It really gets on my nerves.

A. cheers me up          B. wakes me up

C. amuses me              D. annoys me

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet  to  indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Câu 21: After the marriage, Ruth decided to settle permanently inNew York.

A. sustainably             B. constantly

C. temporarily             D. regularly

Câu 22: She was happy that she could get in touch with a lot of her old friends when she went abroad to study.

A. lose contact with

B. lose control of

C. put in charge of

D. make room for

ĐÁP ÁN

1	2	3	4	5
A	B	C	B	C
6	7	8	9	10
C	C	C	A	D
11	12	13	14	15
C	A	C	B	D
16	17	18	19	20
C	B	B	A	D
21	22	23	24	25
C	A	C	B	D
26	27	28	29	30
D	C	B	A	A
31	32	33	34	35
A	D	D	A	D
36	37	38	39	40
D	A	A	B	A
41	42	43	44	45
B	D	A	C	C
46	47	48	49	50
C	D	B	C	C

Mark the letter A,B,C,D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. invited            B. played         C. existed        D. extended

Question 2: A. light    B. knife           C. kite             D. ship

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three  in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3: A. occur  B. listen           C. apply          D. prefer

Question 4: A. character        B. adventure   C. convention D. condition

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5: Susan usually stays up late,        ?

            A. is she          B. isn’t she      C. does she     D. doesn’t she

Question 6: The story I’ve just read................... by Agatha Christie.

            A. were written                       B. was written             C. was written from                D. wrote by

 Question 7:Due to severe weather condition, we had to wait long hours    _____the airport.

            A. in               B. at                            C. from                       D. on

Question 8: The sooner you take the medicine, ________ you will feel.

            A. the best       B. the better    C. better          D. best

Question 9: She has just bought a       watch.

            A. Swiss beautiful brand-new            B. Swiss brand-new beautiful

            C. brand-new beautiful Swiss            D. beautiful brand-new Swiss

Question 10: When I last saw him, he________in London.

            A. is living       B. has been living        C. was living   D. lived

Question 11:  Spider monkeys are the best climbers in the jungle, ________ they do not have thumbs.

            A. because of                          B. because       C. despite                   D. although

Question 12: Mrs Jenny will have lived here for 30 years ________.

            A. by the time she retires                    B. when she retired

            C. as soon as she had retired  D. after she had retired

Question 13: ________classical dance for five years, Akiko finally felt ready to perform in public.

            A. Being studied         B. Studying     C. Having studied      D. To study

Question 14:The local authority asked for a __________contribution from the community to repair roads and bridges.

            A. volunteer    B. voluntary    C. voluntarily  D. voluntariness

Question 15:  Such approaches should be supported and mainstreamed in health interventions in order  to________ positive behavior change.

            A. put off                                B. set off                                 C. bring about                         D. hold up

Question 16:The principal will ____________a speech at the meeting.

            A. make           B. think           C. speak          D. take

Question 17:It's wise to think about choosing a ____________ before leaving school.

            A. business      B. career          C. living          D. profession

Question 18: After congratulating his team, the coach left, allowing the players to let their ____________ down for a while.

            A. hearts          B. hair C. souls           D. heads

Question 19: Your store needs a bold sign that will catch the________ of anyone walking down the street. That may help to sell more products.

            A. eye              B. peek                        C. flash                                   D. glimpse

ĐÁP ÁN

Question 1 (NB) Đáp án B

Kiến thức: Phát âm đuôi “ed”

Giải thích:

A. invited /in'vaitɪd/

B. play /pleid/

C. existed /ɪɡˈzɪstɪd/

D. extended /ɪkˈsten.dɪd/

Cách phát âm đuôi “ed”:

+ Đuôi “ed” được phát âm là /t/ khi động từ có phát âm kết thúc là /tʃ/, /θ/, /ʃ/, /s/, /k/, /p/, /f/

+ Đuôi “ed” được phát âm là /ɪd/ khi động từ có phát âm kết thúc là /t/, /d/

+ Đuôi “ed” được phát âm là /d/ với các trường hợp còn lại

Phương án B phần gạch chân phát âm là /ɪd/, còn lại phát âm là /d/

Question 2 (NB) Đáp án D

Kiến thức: Phát âm  

Giải thích:

A. light /laɪt/

B. knife /naɪf/

C. kite  /kaɪt/

D. ship  /ʃɪp/

Phương án D phần gạch chân phát âm là /ɪ/, còn lại phát âm là /aɪ/

Question 3 (NB) Đáp án B

Kiến thức: Trọng âm từ có 2 âm tiết

Giải thích:

A. occur  /əˈkɝː/

B. listen  /ˈlɪsən/

C. apply /əˈplaɪ/

D. prefer /prɪˈfɝː/

Phương án B trọng âm rơi vào âm thứ 1, còn lại âm thứ 2.

Question 4 (NB) Đáp án A

Kiến thức: Trọng âm từ có 3 âm tiết

Giải thích:

A. character /ˈkær.ək.tər/

B. adventure /ədˈven.tʃər/

C. convention /kənˈven.ʃən/

D. condition /kənˈdɪʃ.ən/

Phương án A trọng âm rơi vào âm thứ 1, còn lại âm thứ 2.

Question 5 (NB) Đáp án D

Kiến thức: Câu hỏi đuôi

Giải thích: 

Động từ trong mệnh đề chính là “stay”, thì hiện tại đơn ở dạng khẳng định, chủ ngữ là “Susan” => đổi thành “she” 

=> Câu hỏi đuôi dạng phủ định “doesn’t she”.

Tạm dịch: Susan thường ngủ dậy muộn, phải vậy không?

Question 6 (TH) Đáp án B

Kiến thức: Bị động thì quá khứ đơn

Giải thích:

Chủ ngữ là “The story” – “Câu chuyện”, động từ “write” – “viết”, “by Agatha Christie” – bởi Agatha Christie => câu mang nghĩa bị động

Cấu trúc câu bị động thì quá khứ đơn: S + was/ were + Vp2 (by + O).

Tạm dịch: Câu chuyện mà tôi vừa đọc được viết bởi Agatha Christie

Question 7 (NB) Đáp án B

Kiến thức: Giới từ

Giải thích: Giới từ chỉ địa điểm quanh đâu đó “at the airport: tại sân bay’

Tạm dịch: Do điều kiện thời tiết khắc nghiệt, chúng tôi đã phải chờ đợi nhiều giờ tại sân bay.

Question 8 (TH)

Kiến thức: So sánh lũy tiến

Giải thích: Cấu trúc câu so sánh lũy tiến: The + tính từ so sánh hơn + S + V, the + tính từ so sánh hơn + S + Dạng so sánh hơn của tính từ “good” là “better”

Tạm dịch: Bạn càng uống thuốc sớm, bạn càng cảm thấy khỏe hơn.

Question 9 (TH) Đáp án D

Kiến thức: Trật tự tính từ

Giải thích:

Khi có nhiều tính từ cùng đứng trước 1 danh từ, sắp xếp chúng theo thứ tự: OSASCOMP + N. Trong đó: 

O- opinion: quan điểm

S – size: kích thước

A – age: độ tuổi (mới, cũ, trẻ, già,...)

S – shape: hình dạng

C – color: màu sắc

O – origin: nguồn gốc

M – material: chất liệu

P - purpose: mục đích

N – noun: danh từ

Nếu có số thứ tự => đứng trước tính từ & danh từ. 

=> Trật tự tính từ: “beautiful” – chỉ quan điểm + “brand-new” – chỉ độ tuổi, + “Swiss” – chỉ nguồn gốc.

Tạm dịch: Cô ấy vừa mới mua một chiếc đồng hồ đeo tay mới tinh từ Thụy Sỹ rất đẹp.

Question 10 (TH) Đáp án C

Kiến thức: Sự phối hợp về thì của động từ

Giải thích: Thì quá khứ đơn và quá khứ tiếp diễn kết hợp trong câu: Diễn tả hành động đang xảy ra trong quá khứ thì một hành động khác xen vào, hành động đang xảy ra chi thì quá khứ tiếp diễn, hành động xen vào chia thì quá khứ đơn

Cấu trúc: S + was/ were + V_ing + when + S + Ved/bqt

Tạm dịch: Lần cuối cùng tôi nhìn thấy anh ấy, anh ấy đang sống ở London. 

Question 11 (TH) Đáp án D

Kiến thức: Liên từ / Mệnh đề nhượng bộ

Giải thích:

Dấu hiệu: sau chỗ trống là một cụm danh từ “his disability”.

A. because of + N/V-ing: bởi vì => loại

B. because + S + V: bởi vì => loại

C. despite + N/V-ing: mặc cho, mặc dù => loại

D. Although + S + V: mặc dù

Xét về nghĩa câu => D phù hợp nhất.

Tạm dịch: Khỉ nhện là những nhà leo núi giỏi nhất ở trong rừng cho dù chúng không có ngón tay cái.

Question 12 (NB) Đáp án A

Kiến thức: Mệnh đề chỉ thời gian / Sự hòa hợp thì trong mệnh đề

Giải thích:

Mệnh đề chính chia thì tương lai => động từ trong mệnh đề chỉ thời gian chia thì hiện tại (hiện tại đơn, hiện tại hoàn thành).

Loại luôn được các phương án B, C, D do sai thì.

by the time: cho đến khi

when: khi

as soon as: ngay khi

after: sau khi

Tạm dịch: Bà Brown sẽ đã sống ở đây được 30 năm cho đến khi bà ấy nghỉ hưu.

Question 13 (VDC) Đáp án C

Kiến thức: Mệnh đề phân tử / Rút gọn mệnh đề đồng ngữ

Giải thích:

Khi 2 mệnh đề có cùng chủ ngữ (she) thì có thể rút gọn 1 trong 2 mệnh đề về dạng:

- V-ing / Having P2: nếu mệnh đề được rút gọn mang nghĩa chủ động

- P2 (quá khứ phân từ): nếu mệnh đề được rút gọn mang nghĩa bị động

Chủ ngữ “she” có thể làm chủ (tự thực hiện hành động “hand in” (nộp) => nghĩa chủ động.

Tạm dịch: Sau khi học xong nhảy cổ điển trong 5 năm, Akiko cuối cùng cũng cảm thấy tự tin biểu diễn trước công chúng.

Question 14 (TH) Đáp án C

Kiến thức: Từ loại

Giải thích:

Dấu hiệu sau “a” và trước danh từ “contribution” cần dùng một tính từ.

A. volunteer (v/n): tình nguyện

B. voluntary (adj): tình nguyện

C. voluntarily (adv): một cách tình nguyện

D. voluntariness (n): sự tự nguyện

Cấu trúc: be popular with sb/sth: được ưa chuộng, phổ biến với ai/cái gì.

Tạm dịch: Chính quyền địa phương đã yêu cầu sự đóng góp tình nguyện của cộng đồng để sửa chữa đường và cầu.

Question 15 (TH) Đáp án B

Kiến thức: Cụm động từ

Giải thích: 

put off: trì hoãn                                            bring about: mang lại

hold up: làm trì hoãn                                   set off: khởi hành

Tạm dịch: Cách tiếp cận như vậy nên được hỗ trợ và lồng ghép trong các can thiệp sức khỏe để mang lại sự thay đổi hành vi tích cực.

Question 16 (VD) Đáp án A

Kiến thức: Sự kết hợp từ

Giải thích: make a speech: phát biểu

Tạm dịch: Hiệu trưởng sẽ phát biểu tại cuộc họp

Question 17 (TH) Đáp án B

Kiến thức: Từ vựng

Giải thích:

A. business (n): việc kinh doanh, doanh nhiệp                       

B. career (n): nghề nghiệp, sự nghiệp

C. living (n): cuộc sống, sinh kế                     

D. profession (n): nghề, nghề nghiệp

Lưu ý: Phân biệt “career” và “profession”:

- career: danh từ chỉ nghề nghiệp hoặc công việc làm trong một thời gian dài

- profession: nghề nghiệp đòi hỏi kĩ năng và trình độ học vấn giáo dục cao

Tạm dịch: Thật khôn ngoan khi nghĩ về việc chọn nghề nghiệp trước khi rời trường.

Question 18 (VD) Đáp án B

Kiến thức: Thành ngữ

Giải thích:

Let one's hair down (idiom): thư giãn, xả hơi

Các phương án khác không kết hợp với “under the” để tạo thành thành ngữ trên.

A. heart (n): tim

C. soul (n): tâm hồn

D. head (n): đầu

Tạm dịch: Sau khi chúc mừng cả đội, huấn luyện viên rời đi để các cầu thủ được thư giãn.

Question 19 (VDC)

Kiến thức: Từ vựng/Cụm từ

Giải thích:

catch the eye of: thu hút sự chú ý của ai

A. eye (n): mắt 

B. peek (v): nhìn trộm (have/take a peek)

C. flash (v): nhấp nháy

D. glimpse (v): thoáng qua 

Tạm dịch: Cửa hàng của bạn cần có một bảng hiệu in đậm để có thể thu hút sự chú ý của bất cứ ai khi bước xuống phố. Điều đó có thể giúp bán được nhiều sản phẩm hơn.

Question 20 (NB) Đáp án B

Kiến thức: Từ vựng – từ đồng nghĩa 

Giải thích:

A. depress (v): làm chán nản

B. motivate (v): thúc đẩy

C. overlook (v): lờ đi, bỏ qua, không chú ý tới

D. reject (v): không chaaps thuận, phản đối 

=> inspire (v): truyền cảm hứng... = motivate

Tạm dịch: Sự dũng cảm của cô không chỉ truyền cảm hứng cho những người theo dõi cô mà còn khiến các đối thủ của cô cảm động.

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• Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG năm 2021 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THPT Nguyễn Việt Hồng Lần 2
• Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG năm 2021 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THPT Bình Điền Lần 2

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