Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG năm 2021-2022 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THPT Nguyễn Thái Bình

TRƯỜNG THPT NGUYỄN THÁI BÌNH

ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM HỌC 2021-2022 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH (Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút)

*Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. consist	B. disable	C. vision	D. suggest
Question 2: A. chance	B. charity	C. brochure	D. charter

*Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on you answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3: A. certainly	B. persuasive	C. marvelous	D. counseling
Question 4: A. accidental	B. instrument	C. represent	D. souvenir

* Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5: Small companies may take their goods abroad for trade show without paying foreign value-added taxes by acquiring ................ an ATA carnet.

A. a document calls

B. a document called

C. calls a document

D. called a document

Question 6: Your sister has lost an awful lot of weight. She must have been on a diet, .............?

A. mustn’t she       B. needn’t she         C. haven’t she          D. hasn’t she

Question  7:  The  rat  population is rapidly ........... the  increase,  bringing  with  it  increased risk of diseases.

A. in                  B. on              C. with       D. for

Question 8: The death ................. from infectious diseases is still very high, largely because of increased populations.

A. number         B. roll           C. toll                    D. total

Question 9: They ............ married for two years or so when Roy employed a very attractive Indian secretary in his Glasgow office.

A. only have been

B. were only

C. have only been

D. had only been

Question 10: In 1962 the American Telephone and Telegraph Company launched telstar, .............. communications satellite to transmit telephone and television signals.

A. it was a first

B. that was the first

 C. first it was a

D. the first

Question 11: They can't adequately provide basic necessities for themselves, ......... afford to save money for the future.

A. much less                 B. not only         C. so to speak               D. regardless of

Question 12: These camps keep children amused while allowing them to ....... up  on their acting skills, the backstroke or leam to play a sport.

A. back                  B. build                 C. bear         D. brush

Question 13: The lecturer recommended ....... a number of books before the exam.

A. to read                 B. reading      C. we reading                    D. to have read

Question 14: We are ............. considering having a swimming pool built as the summers are   so long and hot.

A. thoughtfully                 B. sincerely         C. responsibly          D. seriously

Question  15:  We’d  better  leave early  tomorrow .......... there’s a lot of traffic when we get to London.

A. unless             B. so long as            C. in case          D. if

Question 16: With ................. to the situation in Lebanon, my delegation has mixed feelings  about recent developments in that country.

A. relation         B. reference                C. regards          D. regarding

* Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 17: Mr. Collin is speaking to his student, Brian.

Mr. Collin: “You’ve been making very good progress. I’m proud of you!” Brian: “............”

A. No problem 

B. Don’t worry about it!

C. Everything’s alright. Thank you.

D. I really appreciate you saying that.

Question 18: “It usually costs £150, but I got it for £75 in the sale!” “..............”

A. Lucky you. 

B. Really? You are so lucky.

C. It’s a real bargain! 

D. I’m not that lucky.

*Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 19: Mary was completely out of touch with her family for over ten years. She can't remember how each of the members looks like.

A. Completely out of touch with her family for over ten years, Mary can't remember how each of the members looks like.

B. If completely out of touch with her family for over ten years, Mary can't remember how each of the members looks like.

C. Although she was out of touch with her family for over ten years, Mary can't remember how each of the members looks like.

D. Completely out of touch with her family for over ten years but Mary can't remember how each of the members looks like.

Question 20: The teacher suspected that Larry cheated in the final term test. He had been cheating since the beginning of the semester.

A. If the teacher didn't suspect Larry of cheating in the final test, he would not have been cheating since the beginning of the semester.

B. The teacher suspected that Larry cheated at the final test; in fact, he had been cheating since the beginning of the semester.

C. Larry was suspected of having been cheating since the beginning of the semester so he cheated in the final test.

D. Because he had been cheating since the beginning of the semester, the teacher suspected that Larry cheated in the final term test.

*Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 21: The number of accidents has gone down steadily since the speed limit was imposed.

A. There has been a steady decline in the number of accidents since the speed limit was imposed.

B. It is the speed limit that reduce steadily the number of accidents.

C. The imposing of speed limit has resulted from the number of accidents.

D. There have been few accidents than before since they used the speed limit.

Question 22: The mistake in the accounts was not noticed until the figures were re-checked.

A. It was not until the mistake in the accounts was noticed that the figures were rechecked.

B. Once re-checking the figures, the mistake in the accounts was noticed.

C. The mistake in the accounts only came to light when the figures were re-checked.

D. When the figures were re-checked they came to light the mistake in the accounts.

Question 23: "Why don't you take extra classes in English if you want to become a tourist guide?" said my friend.

My friend advised me to take extra classes in English only if I wanted to become a tourist guide.

My friend suggested I take extra classes in English if I wanted to become a tourist guide.

In my friend's opinion, I will never become a tourist guide if I don't take extra classes in English.

In my friend's opinion, taking extra classes in English is necessary if I wanted to become a tourist guide.

*Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 24 to 30.

Thirty years ago, Lake Ponkapog in Hartwell, New Jersey, was full of life. Many birds and animals lived beside the water, which was full of fish. Now there are few birds, animals, and fish. The lake water is polluted. It is a dirty brown colour, and it is filled with strange plants.

How did this happen? First, we must think about how water gets into Lake Ponkapog. When it rains, water comes into the lake from all around. In the past, there were woods all around Lake Ponkapog, so  the rainwater was clean.

Now there are many homes on the lake shore. People often use the chemicals in their gardens. They use other chemicals inside their houses for cleaning and killing insects. There are also many businesses. Businesses use chemicals in their machines or stores. Other chemicals fall onto the ground from cars or trucks. When it rains, the rainwater flows by these homes and businesses. It picks up all the chemicals and then pours them into the lake. They pollute the water and kill the animal life.

There is still another problem at the lake: exotic plants. These plants come from other countries. They have no natural enemies here, and they grow very quickly. In a short time, they can fill up a lake. Then there is no room for other plants. The plants that normally grow there die. These plants gave many animals and fish their foods or their homes. So now those animals and fish die, too.

People in Hartwell are worried. They love their lake and want to save it. Will it be possible? A clean lake must have clean rainwater going into it. Clean rainwater is possible only if people are more careful about chemicals at home and at work. They must also be more careful about gas and oil and other chemicals on the ground.

(“Reading Power ” by Beatrice S. Mikulecky/Linda Jeffries - Longman)

Question 24: This article is about                        .

A. the exotic plants in Lake Ponkapog

B. dirty lakes in New Jersey

C. chemicals in Lake Ponkapog

D. why the water is dirty in Lake Ponkapog

Question 25: In the past, the water in Lake Ponkapog was made clean by                        .

A. fish              B. rain              C. forests                D. birds

Question 26: Chemicals from homes and businesses                      .

A. get into the rainwater

B. are good for the lake

C. are always clean

D. can help the animals

Question 27: The highlighted word “They” in the third paragraph refers to                      .

A. these homes         B. chemicals         C. cars or trucks         D. businesses

Question 28: Exotic plants grow quickly because they                      .

A. make the water dirty

B. have no natural enemies

C. are large and strong

D. have a lot of water

Question 29: The phrase “fill up” in the passage probably means                    .

A. become too crowded

B. grow in tiny quantities

C. become full of water

D. cover the surface

Question 30: To save Lake Ponkapog, people need to                       .

A. use more water from the lake

B. be more careful about chemicals

C. grow fewer plants in the gardens

D. use more boats on the lake

*Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from II to 35.

Before the 1960’s, Singapore was essentially a trading nation.  Since (31) ........., it has developed a more (32) ............. economy  and  has  become  an  important  financial,  trade, and transportation center.   Singapore   has   many    banks,   (33) ....... firms,   and   finance   companies, as (34) as a stock exchange. Tourism is also important to the economy of Singapore.

There is little unemployment in Singapore. The country’s annual income per capita (per person) is one of the highest in Asia.

The government of Singapore plays a major role in the country’s economy. For example, it decides what benefits, such as vacation time and sick leave, must be provided for workers by employers. It also operates  an  employment  agency  to  help  people  find  jobs,  and  it provides (35) ............. for retired workers.

Question 31. A. then	B. time	C. that	D. age
Question 32. A. various	B. varied	C. different	D. better
Question 33. A. insurance	B. guarantee	C. underwritten	D. ensuring
Question 34. A. long	B. far	C. much	D. well
Question 35. A. wages	B. incomes	C. earnings	D. pensions

* Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following question.

Question 36: When I last spoke to her yesterday she was full of beans, very cheerful and chirpy, so I deduce from that that all was going well.

A. eating a lot

B. hyperactive

C. melancholy

D. lively and in high spirits

Question 37: The government has made an attempt to avert the crisis.

A. have a go at averting

B. on the go at averting

C. deep in thought with averting 

D. save their bacon to avert

* Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 38: Several brands have replied and questioned the methods used in the study and they said that the number of plastics evaluated was exaggerated.

A. over the top         B. magnified          C. excessive        D. understated

Question 39: It has been a secret for many years, but I am going to break the seal now.

A. tell it              B. keep it             C. save it             D. hold it

*Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 40: The medical problems of parents and their children tend to be very similar to because of the hereditary nature of many diseases.

A. their       B. tend to       C. similar to        D. because

Question 41: Many ancient cultures begin their spiritual life by worshipping the Sun.

A. Many           B. begin         C. their            D. by worshipping

Question 42: Almost lemons grown in the United Ststes come from farms in Floria and California.

A. Almost           B. grown          C. come           D. farms

*Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.

It is often the case with folktales that they develop from actual happenings but in their development lose much of their factual base; the story of Pocahontas quite possibly fits into this category of folktale. This princess of the Powhatan tribe was firmly established in the lore of early America and has been made even more famous by the Disney film based on the folktale that arose from her life. She was a real-life person, but the actual story of her life most probably different considerably from the folktale and the movie based on the folktale. Powhatan, the chief of a confederacy of tribes in Virginia, had several daughters, none of whom was actually named Pocahontas. The nickname means “playful one,” and  several of Powhatan’s daughters were called Pocahontas. The daughter of Powhatan who became the subject of the folktale was named Matoaka. What has been verified about Matoaka, or Pocahontas as she has come to be known, is that she did marry an Englishman and that she did spend time in England before she died there at a young age. In the spring of 1613, a young Pocahontas was captured by the English and taken into Jamestown. There she was treated with courtesy as the daughter of chief Powhatan. While Pocahontas was at Jamestown, English gentlemen John Rolfe fell in love with her and asked her to marry. Both the governor of the Jamestown colony and Pocahontas’s father Powhatan approved the marriage as a means of securing peace between Powhatan’s tribe and the English at Jamestown. In 1616, Pocahontas accompanied her new husband to England, where she was royally received. Shortly before her planned return to Virginia in 1617, she contracted an illness and died rather suddenly.

A major part of the folktale of Pocahontas that is unverified concerns her love for English Captain John Smith is the period of time before her capture by the British and her rescue of him from almost certain death. Captain John Smith was indeed at the colony of Jamestown and was acquainted with Powhatan and his daughters, he even described meeting them in 1612 journal. However, the story of his rescue by the young maiden did not appear in his writing until 1624, well after Pocahontas had aroused widespread interest in England by her marriage to an English gentlemen and her visit to England. It is the discrepancy in dates that has caused some historians to doubt the veracity of the tale. However, other historians do argue quite persuasively that this incident did truly take place.

(“Preparation Course " for the TEOFL Test - Deborah Phillips - Longman)

Question 43: The main idea of the passage is that                .

A. Pocahontas fell in love with John Smith and saved his life

B. any one of Powhatan’s daughter could have been the Pocahontas of legend

C. Pocahontas did not really exist

D. folktales are often not very factual

Question 44: The expression “arose from” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to                  .

A. went up with

B. developed from

C. climbed to

D. was told during

Question 45: What is true about the name Pocahontas, according to the passage?

A. It meant that someone was playful.

B. Only one girl was known to have used this name.

C. Powhatan was one of several people given this nickname.

D. It was the real name of a girl named Matoaka.

Question 46: How was Pocahontas treated when she was held at Jamestown?

A. With disregard

B. With surprise

C. With harshness

D. With respect

Question 47: It can be inferred from the passage that Pocahontas                        .

A. suffered from a long illness

B. had a long marriage

C. never intended to return to Virginia

D. did not mean to remain in England

Question 48: The pronoun “he” in the third paragraph refers to                      .

A. the governor       B. Powhatan       C. John Smith    D. Pocahontas

Question 49: When did John Smith most likely meet Pocahontas?

A. In 1613   B. In 1616       C. In 1612        D. In 1624

Question 50: Why are some historians doubtful about the portion of the Pocahontas folktale dealing with John Smith?

A. His account did not appear until well after the event supposedly happened.

B. Captain John Smith probably never knew Pocahontas.

C. Captain John Smith was never actually in Jamestown.

D. His rescue purportedly happened while Pocahontas was in England.

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 1

1.C	2.C	3.B	4.B	5.B	6.D	7.B	8.C	9.D	10.D
11.A	12.D	13.B	14.B	15.C	16.C	17.D	18.C	19.A	20.B
21.A	22.C	23.B	24.D	25.C	26.A	27.B	28.B	29.D	30.B
31.A	32.B	33.A	34.D	35.D	36.D	37.A	38.D	39.B	40.C
41.B	42.A	43.D	44.B	45.D	46.D	47.D	48.C	49.C	50.B

ĐỀ THI THPT QG MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT NGUYỄN THÁI BÌNH- ĐỀ 02

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

According to anthropologists, people in pre-industrial societies spent 3 to 4 hours per day or about 20 hours per week doing the work necessary for life. Modern comparison of the amount of work performed per week, however, began with the Industrial Revolution (1760-1840) when 10 to 12-hour workdays with six workdays per week were the norm. Even with extensive time devoted to work, however, both incomes and standards of living were low. As incomes rose near the end of the Industrial Revolution, it became increasingly common to treat Saturday afternoons as a half-day holiday. The half- day holiday had become standard practice in Britain by the 1870s, but did not become common in the United States until the 1920s.

 In the United States, the first third of the twentieth century saw the workweek move from 60 hours per week to just under 50 hours by the start of the 1930s. In 1914 Henry Ford reduced daily work hours at his automobile plants from 9 to 8. In 1926 he announced that henceforth his factories would close for the entire day on Saturday. At the time, Ford received criticism from other firms such as United States Steel and Westinghouse, but the idea was popular with workers.

 The Depression years of the 1930s brought with them the notion of job sharing to spread available work around; the workweek dropped to a modem low for the United States of 35 hours. In 1938 the Fair Labor Standards Act mandated a weekly maximum of 40 hours to begin in 1940, and since that time the 8-hour day, 5-day workweek has been the standard in the United States. Adjustments in various places, however, show that this standard is not immutable. In 1987, for example, German metalworkers struck for and received a 37.5-hour workweek; and in 1990 many workers in Britain won a 37-hour week. Since 1989, the Japanese government has moved from a 6 to a 5-day workweek and has set a national target of 1,800 work hours per year for the average worker. The average amount of work per year in Japan in 1989 was 2,088 hours per worker, compared to 1,957 for the United States and 1,646 for France.

Question 1: What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. Why people in preindustrial societies worked few hours per week

B. Changes that have occurred In the number of hours that people work per week

C. A comparison of the number of hours worked per year in several industries

D. Working conditions during the Industrial Revolution

Question 2: Compared to preindustrial times, the number of hours in the workweek in the nineteenth century

A. remained constant

B. decreased slightly

C. decreased significantly

D. increased significantly

Question 3: The word "henceforth" in line 11 is closest in meaning to

A. in the end

B. for a brief period

C. from that time on

D. on occasion

Question 4: The "idea" mentioned in line 13 refers to

A. the 60-hour workweek

B. the reduction in the cost of automobiles

C. the reduction in the workweek at some automobile factories

D. the criticism of Ford by United States Steel and Westinghouse

Question 5: What is one reason for the change in the length of the workweek for the average worker in the United States during the 1930's?

A. Several people sometimes shared a single job.

B. Labor strikes in several countries influenced labor policy in the United states.

C. Several corporations increased the length of the workweek.

D. The United States government instituted a 35-hour workweek.

Question 6: Which of the following is mentioned as one of the purposes of the Fair Labor Standards Art of 1938?

A. To discourage workers from asking for increased wages

B. To establish a limit on the number of hours in the workweek      

C. To allow employers to set the length of the workweek for their workers

D. To restrict trade with countries that had a long workweek

Question 7: The word "immutable" in line 18 is closest in meaning to

A. unmatched                B. irregular

C. unnecessary              D. unchangeable

Mark the tetter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in meaning to the sentence(s) given in each of the following questions.

Question 8: "You should have returned the book to me before I asked you to", the girl said to her younger brother.

A. The girl blamed her younger brother for returning the book late.

B. The girl advised her younger brother to return the book early.

C. The girl told her younger brother to return the book when she asked.

D. The girl wanted to have the book returned to her younger brother soon.

Question 9: You are breaking up a bit. I will call you back.

A. I can't understand why you're breaking up a bit, so I will call back.

B. I will call back to know why you two are breaking up.    

C. I will call you back because I can't hear you clearly.

D. I will call back to say goodbye.

Question 10: It's my shout this time! Waitress!

A. I will shout at the waitress.

B. I will pay for the drinks.

C. I have to call the waitress loudly.

D. The waitress does not seem to hear me well.

Question 11: Our company holds the monopoly over the import of these chemicals.

A. Our company is one of the few companies allowed to import these chemicals.

B. Ours is the only company allowed to import these chemicals.

C. All companies but ours are allowed to import these chemicals.

D. These exported chemicals are held by our company, which is monopoly.

Question 12: "Go on, Susan! Apply for the job," the father said.

A. The father forced Susan to apply for the job.

B. The father asked Susan to applying for the job.

C. The father wanted Susan not to apply for the job.

D. The father encouraged Susan to apply for the job.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 13: A. cursed            B. ragged      C. sacred        D. compiled

Question 14: A. desperate      B. irritate       C. grateful        D. frustrate

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to choose the word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

Since the time of Nostradamus, meteorologists have been trying to decipher the mystery of climatic changes. Their objective has been to be able to precisely (15)______ the weather for the days to come. In the past, meteorologists looked skywards to find hints in the clouds. At present, their eyes are directed at the spots (16)______the most intriguing climatic transformations (17)______ about, namely, the ultimate depths of the oceans where swirls, whirlpools and waves generate the patterns for the future weather.

The most efficient way of (18)_____ hold of the ever changing map of the swirling currents circulating their heat around the planet is from space. Weather satellites equipped (19)_____complicated instruments examine the surface and the bottom of the oceans and determine the exact height of water. The impressive advantage offered by satellite scanning is that measurements can be (20)_____even in the most inaccessible parts of the oceans and can provide daily pictures of the water surface together with the calculated wave height and wind speed.

Question 15: A. unravel	B. perceive	C. forecast	D. explore
Question 16: A. when	B. where	C. what	D. why
Question 17: A. come	B. turn	C. bring	D. get
Question 18: A. getting	B. coming	C. finding	D. making
Question 19: A. by	B. with	C. in	D. of
Question 20: A. done	B. formed	C. fulfilled	D. taken

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 21: A. emotional           B. capacity           C. opinion                D. instrument

Question 22: A. documentary     B. contemporary  C. complementary    D. contradictory

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 23: A good auditorium will ensure that the sound is able to be heard.

A. illegitimate             B. inedible

C. inaudible                D. illegible

Question 24: In spite of his being tortured, the captured soldier did not reveal the location of the camp.

A. divert                      B. conceal 

C. digress                    D. divulge

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

The Arts and Crafts Movement in the United States was responsible for sweeping changes in attitudes toward the decorative arts, then considered the minor or household arts. Its focus on decorative arts helped to induce United States museums and private collectors to begin collecting furniture, glass, ceramics, metalwork, and textiles in the late nineteenth and early twentieth centuries. The fact that artisans, who were looked on as mechanics or skilled workers in the eighteenth century, are frequently considered artists today is directly attributable to the Arts and Crafts Movement of the nineteenth century. The importance now placed on attractive and harmonious home decoration can also be traced to this period, when Victorian interior arrangements were revised to admit greater light and more freely flowing spaces.

The Arts and Crafts Movement reacted against mechanized processes that threatened handcrafts and resulted in cheapened, monotonous merchandise. Founded in the late nineteenth century by British social critics John Ruskin and William Morris, the movement revered craft as a form of art. In a rapidly industrializing society, most Victorians agreed that art was an essential moral ingredient in the home environment, and in many middle- and working-class homes, craft was the only form of art. Ruskin and his followers criticized not only the degradation of artisans reduced to machine operators, but also the impending loss of daily contact with handcrafted objects, fashioned with pride, integrity, and attention to beauty.

In the United States as well as in Great Britain, reformers extolled the virtues of handcrafted objects: simple, straightforward design; solid materials of good quality; and sound, enduring construction techniques. These criteria were interpreted in a variety of styles, ranging from rational and geometric to romantic or naturalistic. Whether abstract, stylized, or realistically treated, the consistent theme in virtually all Arts and Crafts designs is nature.

The Arts and Crafts Movement was much more than a particular style; it was a philosophy of domestic life. Proponents believed that if simple design, high-quality materials, and honest construction were realized in the home and its appointments, then the occupants would enjoy moral and therapeutic effects. For both artisan and consumer, the Arts and Crafts doctrine was seen as a magical force against the undesirable effects of industrialization.

Question 25: The passage primarily focuses on nineteenth-century arts and crafts in terms of which of the following?      

A. Their naturalistic themes

B. Their importance in museum collection

C. Their British origin

D. Their role in an industrialized society

Question 26: It can be Inferred from the passage that the Arts and Crafts Movement would have considered all of the following to be artists EXCEPT

A. creators of textile designs

B. people who produce handmade glass objects

C. operators of machines that automatically cut legs, for furniture

D. metalworkers who create unique pieces of jewelry

Question 27: The word "revered" in line 12 is closest in meaning to

A. respected                   B. described

C. avoided                       D. created

Question 28: According to paragraph 2, the handcrafted objects in the homes of middle- and working-class families were usually

A. made by members of the family.

B. the least expensive objects in their homes.

C. regarded as being morally uplifting.

D. thought to symbolize progress.

Question 29: The word "extolled" in line 18 is closest in meaning to

A. exposed                      B. praised

C. believed                       D. accepted

Question 30: The author mentions all of the following as attributes of handcrafted objects EXCEPT

A. the pride with which they were crafted 

B. the complexity of their designs

C. the long time that they lasted

D. the quality of their materials

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ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 2

1	2	3	4	5
B	D	C	C	A
6	7	8	9	10
B	D	A	C	B
11	12	13	14	15
B	D	D	A	C
16	17	18	19	20
B	A	A	B	D
21	22	23	24	25
D	B	C	B	D
26	27	28	29	30
C	A	C	B	B
31	32	33	34	35
A	D	C	B	C
36	37	38	39	40
A	D	A	D	B
41	42	43	44	45
C	A	D	A	A
46	47	48	49	50
D	A	A	D	D

ĐỀ THI THPT QG MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT NGUYỄN THÁI BÌNH- ĐỀ 03

*Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. bad	B. fan	C. calm	D. cat
Question 2: A. google	B. giraffe	C. girl	D. garage

*Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on you answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. justice	B. survey	C. campaign	D. knowledge
Question 2: A. tropical	B. commercial	C. mysterious	D. disastrous

*Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5: To all intents and ................, we are already confronting the challenges of the future.

A. purposes       B. views         C. plans       D. aims

Question 6: “What happened to the plane?” “It had hardly touched down ............. it burst into flames.”

A. than           B. that              C. while      D. when

Question 7: “Isn’t your class picnic today?” “No, ourplans for the picnic .................”

A. fell through                  B. fell down        C. fell off       D. fell over

Question  8:  Although  thunder  and  lightning  are  produced  at  the  same  time,  light  waves travel faster ............, so we see the lightning before we hear the thunder.

A. do sound waves 

B. than sound waves are

C. than sound waves do

D. sound waves

Question  9:  On  checking  them  out,  I  found  that  I  was  mentioned  in  the  article,  which  did  me no ............. at all.

A. harm            B. harmfully       C. adverse       D. adversely

Question 10: Such investments are beyond the ............... of a small farmer's family.

A. abilities         B. means          C. capitals              D. earnings

Question 11: ......... was expected, these discussions raised temperatures in the chapter hall.

A. Such          B. So      C. As          D. That

Question  12:  Your  products .......... an  advantage  through  color  and  brilliance, for example,  for automotive coatings and many other applications.

A. gain        B. earn        C. achieve           D. win

Question 13: I’d rather you .............. say anything to John about his converstion.

A. didn’t         B. don’t         C. hadn’t         D. won’t

Question 14: She was also ............. from school, after teachers said she would be a ‘bad influence’ on the other girls.

A. excluded     B. exiled          C. extracted     D. expelled

Question 15: Seeing the children playing hide and seek in the school yard,                  .

A. I thought of the times long ago when I did the same thing

B. one of the children hid behind a huge tree

C. it had a lot of fun

D. my friends called me to pick them up at the bus stop

Question 16: It's ............... that you would send your child out to cross the street without first giving a lesson in safe crossing.

A. likable       B. alike               C. unlikely        D. likely

*Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 17: “What qualities do you have that make you a suitable candidate for this post?” “                   ”

A. Well, I have a lot if qualifications that match.

B. I’m highly qualified for the post.

C. I used to work in a similar position for two years.

D. I consider myself to be trust worthy, responsible and punctual.

Question 18: Jenny: “Hi, Mark. Long time no see. What’s going on?" Mark: “            ”.

A. So-so

B. I’m going to see a movie

C. I saw you yesterday.

D. Good morning.

*Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 19: The city made major improvements in the old waterfront area. As a result, it is a great attraction today.

A. The city is a great attraction today, making major improvements in the old waterfront area.

B. Without major improvements made in the old waterfront area, the city wouldn’t be a great attraction.

C. But for major improvements made in the old waterfront area, the city is a great attraction.

D. Despite major improvements made in the old waterfront area, the city is a great attraction.

Question 20: We cannot create a rule-based ASEAN. We don’t have means of drafting, interpreting and enforcing rules.

A. Having means of drafting, interpreting and enforcing rules, it is impossible to create a rule-based ASEAN.

B. It is impossible to create a rule-based ASEAN community with means of drafting, interpreting and enforcing rules.

C. Not having means of drafting, interpreting and enforcing rules, we are unable to create a rule-based ASEAN.

D. To have means of drafting, interpreting and enforcing rules, we are able to create a rule- based ASEAN.

* Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 21: It will take some time before the impact of the new legislation is brought home to the person in the street.

A. In the future street people will be able to take advantage of the new legislation for long.

B. The new legislation will affect home lives of many people in the city for a long time.

C. The new law will be effective only for the people who are brought home to work.

D. It will take some time before the impact of the new legislation is felt by ordinary people.

Question 22:1 don’t mind whether we go to the seaside or not this year.

A. I wouldn’t mind going to the seaside this year.

B. I am looking forward to going to the seaside this year.

C. It doesn’t make any difference to me whether we go to the seaside or not this year.

D. For me, we shouldn’t go to the seaside this year.

Question 23: The weather was so dismal that they had to cancel the picnic immediately.

A. The weather was too dismal that the picnic was cancelled immediately.

B. So dismal was the weather that they had to cancel the picnic immediately.

C. The picnic would be cancelled immediately since the weather was dismal.

D. The weather was enough dismal for them to cancel the picnic immediately.

* Read the following passage and mark the letter A, R, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 24 to 30.

People have been donating blood since the early twentieth century to help accident victims and patients undergoing surgical procedures. Usually a pint of whole blood is donated, and it is then divided into platelets, white blood cells, and red blood cells. People can donate blood (for red blood cells) about once every two months.

Transfusing the blood from the donor to the recipient is straightforward. It involves taking the blood from a donor’s arm vein by means of a hypodermic syringe. The blood flows down from the container by gravity. This is a slow process and may last as long as 2 hours to complete the infusion of blood into the recipient. The patient is protected from being infected during the transfusion. Only sterile containers, tubing, and needles are used, and this helps ensure that transfused or stored blood is not exposed to disease causing bacteria.

Negative reactions to transfusions are not unusual. The recipient may suffer an allergic reaction or be sensitive to donor leukocytes. Some may suffer from an undetected red cell incompatibility. Unexplained reactions are also fairly common. Although they are rare, other causes of such negative reactions include contaminated blood, air bubbles in the blood, overloading of the circulatory system through  administration of excess blood, or sensitivity to donor plasma or platelets.

Today, hospitals and blood banks go to great lengths to screen all blood donors and their blood. All donated blood is routinely and rigorously tested for diseases, such as HIV, hepatitis B, and syphilis. When the recipient is a newborn or an infant, the blood is usually irradiated to eliminate harmful elements. Donated blood is washed, and the white blood cells and platelets removed.

Storing the blood sometimes requires a freezing process. To freeze the red blood cells, a glycerol solution is added. To unfreeze the, the glycerolis removed. The ability to store blood for long periods has been a boon to human health.

Question 24. The word "it" refers to                      .

A. surgical procedures

B. accident victims

C. a pint of whole blood 

D. surgery patients

Question 25. According to the passage, how often can people donate blood for red blood cells?

A. Every four months 

B. Every three month

C. Every two months

D. Every month

Question 26. All of the following are mentioned as potential  negative  reactions  to  transfusion  EXCEPT                                    .

A. Sensitivity to donor leukocytes

B. Air bubbles in the blood

C. Allergies 

D. Red-cell incompatibility

Question 27. What answer choice is closest in meaning to the word “undetected”?

A. not illustrated          B. not captured            C. not found            D. not wanted

Question 28. What can the phrase "go to great length" best replaced by?

A. irradiated            B. rigorously               C. routinely            D. removed

Question 29. Based on the information in the passage, what can be inferred about blood transfused to infants and newborns?

A. It is treated with radiant energy.

B. It is not treated differently from adults.

C. It is not dangerous for children.

D. It is rigorously tested as blood for adults.

Question 30. What does the author imply in the passage?

A. Storing blood benefits mankind.

B. Clotting cannot be prevented.

C. Freezing blood destroys platelets.

D. Transfusing blood is a dangerous process.

*Read the following passage and mark the letter A, II, C or I) on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

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ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 3

1.C	2.B	3.C	4.A	5.A	6.D	7.A	8.C	9.A	10.B
11.C	12.A	13.A	14.D	15.A	16.C	17.D	18.A	19.B	20.C
21.D	22.C	23.B	24.C	25.C	26.B	27.C	28.B	29.A	30.A
31.A	32.A	33.B	34.D	35.A	36.A	37.C	38.B	39.D	40.C
41.C	42.C	43.A	44.B	45.C	46.A	47.B	48.C	49.B	50.D

ĐỀ THI THPT QG MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT NGUYỄN THÁI BÌNH- ĐỀ 04

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. malaria	B. eradicate	C. character	D. spectacular
Question 2: A. amount	B. countable	C. country	D. around

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 3: Drivers are advised to get enough petrol because filling stations are few and far between on the highway.

A. easy to find

B. difficult to access

C. unlikely to happen

D. impossible to reach

Question 4: We have to husband our resources to make sure we make it through these hard times.

A. spend      B. manage    C. use up     D. marry

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 5: I didn't go to work this morning. I stayed at home due to the morning rain.

A. thanks to

B. on account of

C. in spite of 

D. in addition to

Question 6: TV commercials that sell household products have often been accused of reinforcing stereotypes of societal roles.

A. strengthening

B. modifying

C. contrasting 

D. exposing

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 7: Which expression is used to start a conversation?

A. Well, it’s been nice meeting you

B. How’s everything at school?

C. Catch you later.

D. Sorry, I’ve got to go. Talk to you later.

Question 8: Hoa: “Are you going to buy a new computer or just continue using the old one?” - Mary: “______.”

A. Neither. I’m going to lease one.

B. That's impossible. I can’t afford a new one

C. Yes, I'd like one. Thank you.

D. Yes, I am.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on you answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.

Question 9: A. microscopic    B. redundant     C. reluctant       D. acquaintance

Question 10: A. magnetic      B. substitute      C. refusal          D. phenomenon

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 11: In summer (A), warm southern air carries (B) moist (C) north to the eastern and central (D) United States.

Question 12: If you had sat (A) the plant in a cooler (B) location, the leaves (C) would not have burned (D).

Question 13: Fred, who usually conducts the choir rehearsals (A) did not show up (B) last night because he had (C) an accident on his way to the practice (D).

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 14: I got very nervous during the exam. When the examiner asked my name, my mind went completely ________.

A. empty                     B. blank

C. white                      D. void

Question 15: Some people are ________ interested in animals than in other people.

A. further                    B. far more

C. much                      D. most

Question 16: The complaints he received were like water off a duck’s ________.

A. feather                    B. wings 

C. back                        D. body

Question 17: There’s a rumor that the National Bank is going to ________ the company I work for.

A. take over                B. overtake

C. take on                   D. take off

Question 18: I can’t tell you the exact amount, but I can give you a ________ estimate.

A. smooth                   B. rough 

C. tidy                         D. similar

Question 19: “I left the cookies on the table, but now it’s gone. What happened to it?”

“I didn’t know. One of the children ________ it.”

A. may have eaten

B. could eat

C. had to eat

D. should have eaten

Question 20: My father always has the builder ________ the roof of our house.

A. repaired

B. to repair

C. to be repaired

D. repair

Question 21: If only I ________ run as fast as he can.

A. can                         B. could

C. might                      D. have

Question 22: Here ________ notebook and report that I promised you last week.

A. is the                     B. are the

C. was the                  D. has been a

Question 23: There were two rooms in the beach house, ________ served as a kitchen.

A. the smaller of which

B. the smallest of which

C. the smaller of them

D. smallest of that

Question 24: The minister has, in a ________ of speaking, resigned.

A. form                       B. means

C. kind                        D. manner

Question 25: The news of his sister’s death came as a(n) ________ shock to him.

A. utter                        B. entire

C. extreme                   D. great

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: Few other paintings in the world are as famous as the Mona Lisa.

A. There are more famous paintings in the world than the Mona Lisa, but not many.

B. The Mona Lisa is among a group of paintings that are very famous worldwide.

C. A few other paintings in the world are more famous than the Mona Lisa.

D. Only a small number of paintings throughout the world are equally well-known as the Mona Lisa.

Question 27: It’s likely that I’ll have left the party before she shows up.

A. I would like to have left the party before she arrives.

B. She won’t be able to find me at the party when she finally arrives.

C. By the time she arrives at the party, I may well have already gone.

D. Once she has got to party, I will probably leave.

Question 28: She regrets not having taken the opportunity to learn Chinese.

A. It's a pity that she has never been able to speak Chinese.

B. She should have chosen to study Chinese when she was at school.

C. She wishes that she had had the chance to study Chinese.

D. She is sorry that she didn't learn Chinese when she had the chance.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29: He was suspected of having stolen credit cards. The police have investigated him for days.

A. Suspected of having stolen credit cards, he has been investigated for days.

B. Suspecting of having stolen credit cards, he has been investigated for days.

C. He has been investigated for days, suspecting of haying stolen credit cards.

D. Having suspected of having stolen credit cards, he has been investigated for days.

Question 30: No member in the team came to his birthday party. But Julia did come.

A. Julia was the only member in the team to come to his birthday party.

B. Not only did Julia come to his birthday party but also other members did.

C. Julia was one of the members who came to his birthday party.

D. Every member in the team came to his birthday party.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions

FOOD CHAINS

Originally, the idea of a "food chain" was developed by a scientist named Charles Elton in 1927. Elton described a general food chain in terms of where plantsand animals get their energy. He started with plants, which get energy from sunlight. Next, plant-eating animals get their energy from eating other plants. At the next level of the chain, meat-eating animals get their energy from eating other animals. Elton's idea of a "chain" related to the concept that all these animals are linked together by what they eat. Anything that affects one part of the chain affects all of the other parts in the chain. The first part of the chain, plants, is called the producer. All of the parts of the chain above the producer are called consumers.

Here is a simple example of a food chain. Grass uses sunlight to produce sugars and proteins so that it can grow. Rabbits eat the grass and get energy from it. Foxes eat rabbits and get energy from them. Foxes are at the "top" of this food chain because nothing eats them. Now imagine that a farmer plows up the field of grass where the rabbits usually eat. Some of the rabbits might die. Others will probably move to another location to find food. In either case, there are fewer rabbits. This means less food for the foxes. Thus, the foxes depend on the grass in a way, even though they don't eat the grass directly.

A In the natural world, of course, there are no simple food chains like this. Rabbits eat lots of plants besides grass. B Foxes eat lots of things besides rabbits. C Additionally, there are lots of other things in nature that eat grass and rabbits! D

However, that does not mean the idea of a simple food chain is not important. Food chains are still a useful concept to consider, even if they are an oversimplification of reality. Take, for example, the case of DDT’s effect on animals. In the 1960s, DDT, a common pesticide at that time, was used a lot by farmers. Farmers only used a little at a time, so large animals were not harmed. However, once DDT was used in a field, it did not go away. Whenever it was used, DDT just stayed in the environment. Eventually, rain washed it into rivers and lakes. Plankton, a tiny water organism, absorbed the DDT. Then, fish ate the plankton. There was not much DDT in one bit of plankton, but small fish consumed many little bits of plankton. Then, larger fish ate lots of the smaller fish. So, the concentration of DDT in the larger fish became higher. Then, birds such as the osprey ate larger quatities of the larger fish.

In the end, compared to the concentration of DDT in plankton, the concentration of DDT in osprey was 10 million times greater! The DDT did not kill the osprey, though. It just made the female osprey lay eggs with very thin shells. The shells were so thin that when the mother sat on the eggs, they broke. Thus the osprey population became greatly reduced before rebounding to today’s levels.

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ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 4

1	2	3	4	5
A	C	A	A	B
6	7	8	9	10
A	B	A	A	B
11	12	13	14	15
C	D	C	B	B
16	17	18	19	20
C	A	B	A	D
21	22	23	24	25
B	B	A	D	D
26	27	28	29	30
D	C	D	A	A
31	32	33	34	35
C	A	D	B	D
36	37	38	39	40
A	D	C	C	D
41	42	43	44	45
B	D	B	D	B
46	47	48	49	50
B	B	B	C	D

ĐỀ THI THPT QG MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT NGUYỄN THÁI BÌNH- ĐỀ 05

Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from that of the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions:

Question 1. A. promise	B. devise	C. surprise	D. realise
Question 2. A. comment	B. development	C. confidence	D. reference

Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions:

Question 3. A. voluntary	B. necessary	C. compulsory	D. stationary
Question 4. A. advent	B. pizza	C. survive	D. rescue

Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions:

Question 5. Works are written (A) by Vladimir Nabokov often (B) contain heroes and heroines who (C) have lived (D) in many places.

Question 6. Mostly (A) medical doctors have had (B) some training (C) in (D)psychology and psychiatry.

Question 7. Sandara has not rarely (A) missed a play (B) or concert since (C) she was seventeen years old (D).

Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer in each of the following questions:

Question 8. I bought the car because it is in good quality and at a ............ price.

A. comfortable              B. valuable

C. reasonable              D. enjoyable

Question 9. More and more people were moving to Glasgow as they found it there ............. to earn a living.

A. so much easier 

B. much so easier 

C. so easier

D. by far the easiest

Question 10. You aren’t allowed to drive your car in the city centre at .............. rush hour because there is too much traffic then.

A. a                           B. an

C. x                           D. the

Question 11. I explained the grammar rule as .............. as I could, but many students are still confused.

A. simple                     B. simplified

C. simplistic                D. simply

Question 12. It’s amazing how Jenny acts as though she and Daren ........... serious problems at the moment.

A. aren’t having

B. weren’t having

C. hadn’t had

D. hadn’t been having

Question 13. When we were in Athens, I bought a ................ statuette.

A. white beautiful marble little

B. marble beautiful little white

C. beautiful little marble white

D. beautiful little white marble

Question 14. It ............. that many people are homeless after the floods.

A. is reported              B. reports

C. is reporting             D. reported

Question 15. The brain is made up of billions of neurons that differ ............... each other greatly ................ size and shape.

A. with – with              B. from – by

C. from – in                D. with - from

Question 16. I think the strikes will bring ............. some changes in management.

A. off                          B. on

C. down                      D. about

Question 17. I ................... most of my books .............. to my roommates when I left college.

A. give – away               B. throw – away

C. put – away                 D. get – away

Question 18. Different conservation efforts in order to save endangered species.

A. have made

B. have been made

C. have done 

D. have been done

Question 19. Many Vietnamese families now own household ................... such as refrigerators, microwaves and cookers.

A. applicators

B. applications

C. applicants 

D. appliances

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following.

Question 20. The education system is a mirror that reflects the culture.

A. points                    B. explains 

C. shows                     D. gets

Question 21. It is an occasion when strength and sports are tested, friendship and solidarity was built and deepened.

A. practice                   B. power 

C. will                         D. competence

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22. Doctors have criticized the government for failing to invest enough in the health service.

A. praised                    B. blamed

C. accused                   D. commented

Question 23. The company will only employ competent engineers, so they want to see evidence of their work as well the references from previous employers.

A. proficient                  B. inconvenient 

C. ambitious                 D. unqualified

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable respone to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 24. Peter: “Do you like going to the cinema this evening, Susan?”

Susan: “................”

A. I feel very bored.

B. That would be great

C. You’re welcome

D. I don’t agree, I’m afraid.

Question 25. Peter: “Oops, I’m terribly sorry!?”

Susan: “..................”

A. You’re welcome

B. That’s OK

C. That’s right

D. You’re right

Mark the letter A,B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26. I had to clear the spare room before I could start decorating.

A. Not until had I cleared the spare room I could start decorating.

B. Before I cleared the spare room I could start decorating.

C. Only when I had cleared the spare room could I start decorating.

D. Only when I had finished clearing the spare room, I could start decorating.

Question 27. He didn’t pay attention to what I said.

A. He took no notice of my words.

B. He didn’t hear me even though I was saying to him.

C. He had no intention to talk to me.

D. He took my advice.

Question 28. “You’re always making terrible mistakes”, said the teacher.

A. The teacher asked his students why they always make terrible mistakes.

B. The teacher realized that his students always made terrible mistakes.

C. The teacher complained about his students making terrible mistakes.

D. The teacher made his students not always make terrible mistakes.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrases that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

Parents and teachers are always making (29) between the time when they were children and the present generation . They say everything was better than it is today, especially in education. (30)   , they say they used to work much harder in school, and that nowadays, we aren’t very interested. I disagree, because we spend hours every day doing homework after our lessons or (31)      for exammination. I wonder (32)                our parents really had to study so much after school every day. In my opinion, it is no exaggeration to say we have forgotten how to play. I think one reason why kids (33)     in class is because they need to get rid of stress.

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ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 5

1	2	3	4	5
A	A	C	C	A
6	7	8	9	10
A	A	C	D	C
11	12	13	14	15
D	B	D	A	B
16	17	18	19	20
D	A	B	D	C
21	22	23	24	25
B	A	D	B	B
26	27	28	29	30
C	A	C	A	C
31	32	33	34	35
B	B	D	C	C
36	37	38	39	40
B	A	B	B	C
41	42	43	44	45
A	C	D	B	B
46	47	48	49	50
B	A	D	D	D

...

Trên đây là một phần trích đoạn nội dung Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG năm 2021-2022 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THPT Nguyễn Thái Bình. Để xem toàn bộ nội dung các em chọn chức năng xem online hoặc đăng nhập vào trang hoc247.net để tải tài liệu về máy tính.

Mời các em tham khảo tài liệu có liên quan:

• Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG năm 2021-2022 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THPT Phú Hòa
• Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG năm 2021-2022 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THPT Nguyễn Công Trứ

Hy vọng bộ đề thi này sẽ giúp các em học sinh ôn tập tốt và đạt thành tích cao trong kì thi sắp tới.