Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG môn Tiếng Anh năm 2021-2022 có đáp án Trường THPT Dương Tự Minh

TRƯỜNG THPT DƯƠNG TỰ MINH

ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM HỌC 2021-2022 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH (Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút)

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. seizure	B. heifer	C. sheila	D. receive
Question 2: A. satisfy	B. qualify	C. freestyle	D. simpty

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions

Question 3: A. risky	B. conserve	C. liquid	D. forest
Question 4: A. certificate	B. apartment	C. individual	D. biology

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 5: “Can I try out your new bicycle?” ~ “Be my guest.”

A. Sorry, you can’t.

B. You’re kidding. 

C. Never mind

D. No problem.

Question 6: We should keep these proposals secret from the chairman for the time being.

A. revealed

B. frequent

C. lively

D. accessible

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 7: It was inevitable that the smaller company should merge with the larger one.

A. vital                              B. unnecessary                  C. urgent            D. unavoidable

Question 8: From an airplane, the grasslands of the western prairie appear almost as uniform as a placid sea.

A. hilly                              B. calm             C. seedy               D. fake

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 9: - Linda: “_________” - Sally: “Bob? Oh. He’s come back again.”

A. Has Bob been here? I’ve been looking for him all day.

B. People say Bob has divorced his third wife.

C. Yes, certainly. Bob will be here in a moment.

D. Someone called you last night. His name was Bob.

Question 10: - Lisa: “How are things with Sarah?” - Mary: "_________”

A. Not so good. They had a new machine.

B. Yes, certainly. She’l! be here in a moment.

C. Of course. We’re going to have a lovely autumn.

D. Fine. She’s just come back from Vietnam.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 11: It is a biological fact that children _________ their parents.

A. take after                      B. take to                           C. look up                         D. care for

Question 12: The Cosmonaut Training Center at Star City, Russia was named _________Gagarin.

A. to             B. with              C. by      D. after

Question 13: _________taught me how to play the guitar.

A. It was my uncle whom

B. It was my uncle

C. it is my uncle when

D. It was my uncle that

Question 14: _________ species are plant and animal species which are in danger of extinction.

A. Dangerously                 B. Endangered                  C. Endanger        D. Dangerous

Question 15: It’s very warm. We _________ take coats with us.

A. needn’t                         B. may                               C. mustn’t            D. must

Question 16: We have just bought some _________ cups.

A. Chinese old lovely

B. old lovely Chinese

C. lovely old Chinese

D. Chinese lovely old

Question 17: No one gave you any gift on your birthday, _________ ?

A. didn’t them                   B. did it          C. didn’t they                    D. did they

Question 18: All fossil fuels are _________ resources that cannot be replaced after used.

A. abundant        B. renewable                     C. plentiful                        D. non-renewable

Question 19: It gets _________ when the winter is coming.

A. more and more cold

B. colder and colder

C. cold and colder

D. cold and less cold

Question 20: Their house is _________ decorated.

A. beautify                        B. beautiful                       C. beautifully        D. beauty

Question 21: I would like to _________ my gratitude to everyone for their hard work.

A. expand                          B. extend                          C. express         D. enlarge

Question 22: Looking down at the coral reef, we saw _________ of tiny, multi-coloured fish.

A. teams                            B. flocks                            C. shoals          D. swarms

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.

LIFE OF EARTH IN 2110

The worst prediction for the next century (23) _________ the weather. Many people   think that global warming will cause important environmental changes. There is scientific evidence that suggests cities on the coast may disappear if the sea level (24) _________ There  is  better news regarding health. Medical advances mean that people will live longer. Doctors will be more successfully diagnosing an illness (25) _________ of new technology. Infective diseases will disappear in many areas  of the world and new drugs will be how to treat muscular aches and pains. Futuristic organ transplants will be easier.  Technological  progress  will  give  experts the (26) _________ to  manufacture invisibility cloaks, which may be (27) _________ the market before the end of the century.

Question 23: A. concerns	B. participates	C. contacts	D. relates
Question 24: A. roars	B. lifts	C. rises	D. raises
Question 25: A. because	B. approving	C. regardless	D. in spite
Question 26: A. love	B. chance	C. tool	D. power
Question 27: A. at	B. in	C. to	D. on

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.

The days of the camera-toting tourist may be numbered. Insensitive travelers are being ordered to stop pointing their cameras and camcorders at reluctant local residents. Tour companies selling expensive trips to remote comers of the world, off the well-trodden path of the average tourist, have become increasingly irritated at the sight of the visitors upsetting locals. Now one such operator plans to ban clients from taking any photographic equipment on holidays. Julian Mathews is the director of Discovery Initiatives, a company that is working hand-in-hand with other organizations to offer holidays combining high adventure with working on environmental projects. His trips are not cheap; two weeks of white-water rafting and monitoring wildlife in Canada cost several thousand pounds.

Matthews says he is providing ‘holidays without guilt’, insisting that Discovery Initiatives is not a tour operator but an environmental support company. Clients are referred to as ‘participants’ or ‘ambassadors’. ‘We see ourselves as the next step on from cco-tourism, which is merely a passive form, of sensitive travel - our approach is more proactive.’ However, says Matthews, there is a price to pay. ‘I am planning to introduce tours with a total ban on cameras and camcorders because of the damage they do to our relationships with local people. I have seen some horrendous things, such as a group of six tourists arriving at a remote village in the South American jungle, each with a video camera attached to their face. That sort of thing tears me up inside. Would you like somebody to come into your home and take a photo of you cooking? A camera is like a weapon; it puts up a barrier and you lose all the communication that comes through body language, which effectively means that the host communities are denied access to  the so-called cultural exchange.

Matthews started organizing environmental holidays after a scientific expedition for young people. He subsequently founded Discovery Expeditions, which has helped support 13 projects worldwide. With the launch of Discovery Initiatives, he is placing a greater emphasis on adventure and fun, omitting in the brochure all references to scientific research. But his rules of conduct are strict. ‘In some parts of the world, for instance, I tell people they should wear long trousers, not shorts, and wear a tie, when eating out. It may sound dictatorial, but I find one has a better experience if one is well dressed. I don’t understand why people dress down when they go to other countries.’

Matthews’ views reflect a growing unease among some tour companies at the increasingly cavalier behaviour of well-heeled tourists. Chris Parrott, of Journey Latin America, says: ‘We tell our clients that indigenous people are often shy about being photographed, but we certainly don’t tell them not to take a camera. If they take pictures without asking, they may have tomatoes thrown at them.’ He also reports  that increasing numbers of clients are taking camcorders and pointing them indiscriminately at locals. He says: ‘People with camcorders tend to be more intrusive than those with cameras, but there is a payoff - the people they are filming get a tremendous thrill from seeing themselves played back on the viewfinder.’

Crispin Jones, of Exodus, the overland truck specialist, says: ‘We don’t have a policy but, should cameras cause offence, our tour leaders will make it quite clear that they cannot be used. Clients tend to do what they are told.

Earthwatch, which pioneered the concept of proactive eco-tourism by sending paying volunteers to  work on scientific projects around the world, does not ban cameras, but operates strict rules on their use. Ed Wilson, the marketing director of the company, says: ‘We try to impress on people the common courtesy of getting permission before using their cameras, and one would hope that every tour operator would do the same. People have to be not only environmentally aware but also culturally aware. Some people use the camera as a barrier; it allows them to distance themselves from the reality of what they see. I would like to see tourists putting their cameras away for once, rather than trying to record everything they see.’

Question 28: The word “indigenous” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to

A. timid      B. native        C. ignorant       D. impoverished

Question 29: Which of the following does Chris Parrott believe?

A. Local people may react angrily towards tourists who use cameras

B. Tourists are becoming more sensitive about their use of cameras.

C. Camcorders always cause more trouble with local people than cameras

D. Tourists are unlikely to agree to travel without their cameras.

Question 30: In the first paragraph we learn that Discovery Initiatives

A. organizes trips to places where few tourists go

B. offers trips that no other tour company offers

C. has decided to respond to its customers’ complaints

D. has already succeeded in changing the kind of tourist it attracts

Question 31: Which of the following best summarizes the view of Earthwatch?

A. There are more problems concerning the use of cameras these days.

B. Cameras enable people to be detached from places they visit.

C. Too many tour operators ignore the problems caused by cameras.

D. Most tourists realize when they have caused offence to local people.

Question 32: The word “courtesy” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to

A. dignity                          B. politeness                      C. nobility         D. elite

Question 33: What does Matthews say in paragraph 3 about cameras and camcorders?

A. They prevent local people from learning about other societies.

B. They encourage holidaymakers to behave unpredictable

C. They discourage holidaymakers from intruding on local people.

D. They give local people a false impression of holidaymakers.

Question 34: What is Matthews keen for clients to realize?

A. that the brochure does not contain all the information they need.

B. that certain behavior may spoil their enjoyment of a trip.

C. that it is likely that they will not be allowed in certain places.

D. that they may find certain local customs rather surprising.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.

There are two main hypotheses when it comes to explaining the emergence of modem humans. The ‘Out of Africa’ theory holds that homo sapiens burst onto the scene as a new species around 150,000 to 200,000 years ago in Africa and subsequently replaced archaic humans such as the Neandertals. The other model, known as multi-regional evolution or regional continuity, posits far more ancient and diverse roots for our kind. Proponents of this view believe that homo sapiens arose in Africa some 2 million years ago and evolved as a single species spread across the Old World, with populations in different regions linked through genetic and cultural exchange.

Of these two models, Out of Africa, which was originally developed based on fossil evidence, and supported by much genetic research, has been favored by the majority of evolution scholars. The vast majority of these genetic studies have focused on DNA from living populations, and although some small progress has been made in recovering DNA from Neandertal that appears to support multi-regionalism, the chance of recovering nuclear DNA from early human fossils is quite slim at present. Fossils thus remain very much a part of the human origins debate.

Another means of gathering theoretical evidence is through bones. Examinations of early modem  human skulls from Central Europe and Australia dated to between 20,000 and 30,000 years old have suggested that both groups apparently exhibit traits seen in their Middle Eastern and African  predecessors. But the early modem specimens from Central Europe also display Neandertal traits, and the early modem Australians showed affinities to archaic Homoffom Indonesia. Meanwhile, the  debate among paleoanthropologists continues, as supporters of the two hypotheses challenge the evidence and conclusions of each other.

(Source: www.coursehero.com)

Question 35: The passage primarily discusses which of the following?

A. Evidence that supports the “Out of Africa” theory.

B. Two hypotheses and some evidence on the human origins debate

C. The difficulties in obtaining agreement among theorists on the human origins debate

D. That fossils remain very much a part of the human origins debate

Question 36: The word “emergence” in the passage is closest in meaning to                           

A. complexity                    B. development                 C. appearance                    D. decline

Question 37: All of the following statements are true EXCEPT                           

A. three methods of gathering evidence are mentioned in the passage

B. the multi-regional model goes back further in history

C. the “Out of Africa” model has had more support from scholars

D. DNA studies offer one of the best ways in future to provide clear evidence

Question 38: Which of the following is NOT true?

A. The vast majority of genetic studies have focused on living populations

B. Early modem human skulls all support the same conclusions

C. Both hypotheses focus on Africa as a location for the new species

D. Early modem Australian skulls have similarities to those from Indonesia

Question 39: The word “their” in the passage refers to                           

A. Middle Easterners and Africans

B. skulls

C. central Europeans and Australians

D. traits

Question 40: Which of the following is NOT true about the two hypotheses?

A. Both hypotheses regard Neanderthals to be the predecessors of modem humans

B. Genetic studies have supported both hypotheses

C. Both hypotheses cite Africa as an original location

D. One hypothesis dates the emergence of homo sapiens much earlier than the other

Question 41: It can be inferred from the passage that                            

A. there is likely to be an end to the debate in the near future

B. the debate will interest historians to take part in

C. the debate is likely to be less important in future

D. there is little likelihood that the debate will die down

Question 42: According to the passage, the multi-regional evolution model posits far more diverse roots for our kind because                           

A. evidence from examinations of early modem human skulls has come from a number of different parts of the world.

B. DNA from Neanderthal appears to support multi-regionalism

C. populations in different regions were linked through genetic and cultural exchange

D. this has been supported by fossil evidence

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 43: It is likely that the council will convene next week.

A. The council must convene next week

B. The council can’t convene next week.

C. The council will not convene next week.

D. The council may convene next week.

Question 44: First impression on university life varies from student to student.

A. University life makes the students vary in impression.

B. No two students share the same experience at the university.

C. Each student has his/her own first impression on university life.

D. Students hold different viewpoints on university life.

Question 45: “You are a newcomer here, aren’t you?” she asked me.

A. She wanted to know why I did not come here again.

B. She asked me whether I was a newcomer there.

C. She did not know that I am the newcomer.

D. She told me she was a newcomer in that place.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 46: (A) When precipitation occurs, (B) some of it evaporates, some runs off (C) the surface it strikes, and some (D) sinking into the ground.

Question 47: (A) What happened in that city (B) were a reaction from city workers, (C) including  firemen and policemen who had been laid off from (D) their jobs.

Question 48: (A) Opened the letter (B) from her boyfriend, she (C) felt extremely (D) excited.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49: The Postal Service used the Roman god Mercury as its symbol. This was replaced in 1837 with a running pony.

A. The Postal Service, which used the Roman god Mercury as its symbol, was replaced in 1837 with a running pony.

B. The Postal Service used the Roman god Mercury as its symbol, which was replaced in 1837 with a running pony.

C. The Postal Service, that was replaced in 1837 with a running pony, used the Roman god Mercury as its symbol.

D. The Postal Service used a running pony as its symbol, which was replaced in 1837 with the Roman god Mercury.

Question 50: The most successful candidates are not always the best educated. They are the best trained in the technique.

A. The most successful candidates are the best at training in the technique, if not they will need education.

B. The most successful candidates are people who are trained well in the technique, although well educated.

C. The most successful candidates are not only the best educated but also the best trained in the technique.

D. The most successful candidates are not always the best educated, but the best trained in the technique.

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 1

Câu	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Đáp án	B	D	B	C	A	A	D	B	D	D
Câu	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Đáp án	A	D	D	B	A	C	D	D	B	C
Câu	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Đáp án	C	C	A	C	A	B	D	B	A	D
Câu	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Đáp án	B	B	A	A	B	C	D	B	C	A
Câu	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Đáp án	D	C	D	C	B	D	B	A	A	D

ĐỀ THI THPT QG MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT DƯƠNG TỰ MINH- ĐỀ 02

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. prepared      B. organized        C. impressed       D. involved

Question 2: A. surround       B. source            C. account           D. plough

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions

Question 3: A. justice         B. leading          C. diverse               D. namely

Question 4: A. applicant     B. investment     C. commercial       D. domestic

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 5: Research suggests that children are more resilient than adults when it comes to getting over an illness.

A. becoming much stronger

B. becoming healthy again

C. making a slow recovery 

D. making a quick recovery

Question 6: Blue is an old hand at such compositions and has never had any trouble with them.

A. relaxed about 

B. reserved about 

C. uninterested in

D. inexperienced in

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 7: Not only is summer sea ice shrinking rapidly in the Arctic, but so is the average thickness of sea ice.

A. getting larger

B. getting better 

C. getting smaller

D. getting thicker

Question 8: What most prevents women from reaching the boardroom, say bosses and headhunters, is lack of hands-on experience of a firm’s core business.

A. significant                     B. practical                        C. available                       D. tested

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 9: Carol is wearing a new dress and Helen loves it.

Helen: “ _________ ” - Carol: “Thanks. I’m glad you like it. My sister gave it to me yesterday.”

A. What a fashionable dress you are wearing!

B. Oh! I don’t like your fashionable dress.

C. I think you have a fashionable dress.

D. Your fashionable must be expensive.

Question 10: Nam and Mai are talking about their plan for the weekend.

Nam: “Do you feel like going to the cinema this weekend?” - Mai: “ _________ ”

A. You’re welcome!

B. That would be great!

C. I don’t agree. I’m afraid 

D. I feel very bored.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 11: You should _________ more attention to what your teacher explains.

A. make         B. get              C. set            D. pay

Question 12: The Foreign Ministries of Vietnam and  Mexico agreed _________ measures to boost the bilateral cooperation between the two nations.

A. to take

B. taking

C. to be taken

D. being taken

Question 13: There are no easy ways to learn a foreign language, _________ ?

A. are they                        B. are there           C. aren’t they    D. aren’t there

Question 14: You look exhausted. You _________ in the garden all day.

A. must have worked 

B. must be working

C. can’t have worked

D. must have been working

Question 15: The more _________ you look, the better you will feel.

A. confident

B. confide

C. confidently 

D. confidence

Question 16: In 1973, when the tigers appeared to  be facing _________ , the World Wide Fund for _________ and the Indian Government agreed to set up “Operation Tiger”.

A. extinct/ Nature

B. extinction/ Nature

C. extinction/ Natural

 D. extinct/ Naturalists

Question 17: After six months of convalescence in a nursing home, Tim is finally on the _________ 

A. mend                            B. go           C. run                                D. top

Question 18: Most children enjoy _________ with their parents and siblings.

A. played                           B. play          C. to play                          D. playing

Question 19: Police have not revealed the _________ details of the case.

A. total                              B. whole           C. overall                           D. full

Question 20: It’s too late; you shouldn’t go. Don’t worry! We can _________ for a night.

A. put you up

B. put you through

C. put you away

D. put you aside

Question  21:  We  should  make  full  use _________ the  Internet  as  it  is  an  endless  source  of information.

A. of                                  B. in               C. with                              D. from

Question 22: The manager _________ his temper with the employees and shouted at them.

A. had                               B. lost             C. took                              D. kept

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.

You may have heard that tomatoes and processed tomato product like tomato sauce and canned tomatoes protect (23) _________ some types of cancer. The cancer-preventing properties  of tomato products have been (24) _________ to lycopene. It is a bright red pigment found in tomatoes and other red fruits and is the cause of their red color. Unlike other fruits and vegetables, where nutritional content such as vitamin C is diminished upon cooking, processing of tomatoes increases the concentration of lycopene. Lycopene in tomato paste is four times (25) _________ in fresh tomatoes.

This  is  because  lycopene  is  insoluble  in  water  and  is  tightly  bound  to  vegetable  fiber.  Thus,  (26) _________ tomato products such as pasteurized tomato juice, so up, sauce, and ketchup  contain the highest concentrations of lycopene. Cooking and crushing tomatoes as in the canning process and serving in oil-rich dishes such as spaghetti sauce or pizza (27) _________ increase  assimilation from the digestive tract into the bloodstream. Lycopene is a fat-soluble substance, so the oil is said to help absorption to a great extent.

Question 23: A. out	B. off	C. against	D. away
Question 24: A. pressed	B. responsible	C. attributed	D. original
Question 25: A. much more	B. as much as	C. as many as	D. further than
Question 26: A. fresh	B. processed	C. contained	D. raw
Question 27: A. largely	B. chiefly	C. mainly	D. greatly

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.

Music therapy is using music to help people with a variety of problems. For example, it can help people with communication and speech problems speak better. It can help people with memory problems remember things from their past. Music therapy can also help people manage stress and be more relaxed. It can even make people with bad pain feel better.

In music therapy, a music therapist works with one person alone or with small groups. The therapist meets with the person and does tests to find out what the problem is and what the person can do with music. Then the therapist decides what kind of music therapy to use. Some people sing, and others might compose music, but a person doesn’t need to know about music to be helped by music therapy. There are options such as listening to music and dancing to music. Research shows that these activities are good for the body and for the mind.

Homes that take care of elderly people often have music therapy programs. The programs help the elderly be more energetic and also help with memory problems. Some hospitals have music therapy for patients who are in a lot of pain. Music can affect a part of the brain that reduces pain.

Trevor Gibbons is one example of a person who was helped by music therapy. In 2000, he was putting in windows on the fourth floor of a building when he fell. He was in the hospital for over a year. He was in a lot of pain, and he couldn’t talk. He went from the hospital to a rehabilitation center that has a music therapy program, and a music therapist worked with him for several years. He could sing more easily than he could talk. Trevor says that music also helped him manage loneliness, sadness, and pain after he was hurt. Music and the music therapist inspired him, and he has written and sung many songs. He has even recorded CDs and performed at Lincoln Center in New York.

(From “Four Corners 4" by Jack C. Richards and David Bohlke)

Question 28: Which is the main idea of the passage?

A. the history of music therapy

B. the life of a music therapist

C. other uses of music

D. music for the elderly

Question 29: According to paragraph 1, music can be helpful for all of the following people EXCEPT ……….

A. people with good stress management

B. people with communication and speech problems

C. people with bad pain

D. people with memory problems

Question 30: According to the passage, the kind of music therapy is chosen by ……….

A. the composer                B. the patient                     C. the therapist                  D. the singer

Question 31: The word “energetic” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to …………

A. rich in money

B. short of breath

C. full of life

D. lack of energy

Question 32: It is stated in the passage that …………

A. listening and dancing to music are not included in music therapy

B. homes for the aged don’t have music therapy programs

C. in music therapy some people sing or even compose music

D. Trevor Gibbons hurt himself when he fell off the fifth floor

Question 33: It can be inferred from the last paragraph that a rehabilitation center is ……..

A. a center for victims of natural disasters

B. a center for people to recover from injuries

C. a center for poor or homeless people

D. a center for disabled or disadvantaged children

Question 34: Which of the following statements is TRUE about music therapy?

A. Trevor Gibbons was not helped by music therapy.

B. A music therapist always works with one person each time.

C. A person must know about music to be helped by music therapy.

D. Music can reduce pain by affecting a part of the brain.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.

Plants and animals will find it difficult to escape from or adjust to the effects of global wanning. Scientists have already observed shifts in the lifecycles of many plants and animals, such as flowers blooming earlier and birds hatching earlier in the spring. Many species have begun shifting where they live or their annual migration patterns due to warmer temperatures.

With further warming, animals will tend to migrate towards the poles and up mountainsides towards higher elevations. Plants will also attempt to shift their ranges, seeking new areas as old habitats grow too warm. In many places, however, human development will prevent these shifts. Species that find cities or farmland blocking their way north or south may become extinct. Species living in unique ecosystems,  such as those found in polar and mountaintop regions, are especially at risk because migration to new habitats is not possible. For example, polar bears and marine mammals in the Arctic are already threatened by dwindling sea ice but have nowhere farther north to go.

Projecting species extinction due to global warming is extremely difficult. Some scientists have estimated that 20 to 50 percent of species could be committed to extinction with 2 to 3 Celsius degrees of further warming. The rate of warming, not just the magnitude, is extremely important for plants and animals. Some species and even entire ecosystems, such as certain types of forest, may not be able to adjust quickly enough and may disappear.

Ocean ecosystems, especially fragile ones like coral reefs, will also be affected by global warming. Warmer ocean temperatures can cause coral to “bleach”, a state which if prolonged will lead to the death of the coral. Scientists estimate that even 1 Celsius degree of additional warming could lead to  widespread bleaching and death of coral reefs around the world. Also, increasing carbon dioxide in the atmosphere enters the ocean and increases the acidity of ocean waters. This acidification further stresses ocean ecosystems.

(From "Global Warming" by Michael Mastrandrea and Stephen H, Schneider)

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ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 2

Câu	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Đáp án	C	B	C	A	C	D	C	B	A	B
Câu	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Đáp án	D	A	B	D	A	B	A	D	D	A
Câu	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Đáp án	A	B	C	C	B	B	D	C	A	C
Câu	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Đáp án	C	C	B	D	A	D	C	A	B	D
Câu	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Đáp án	A	B	A	B	D	C	C	B	C	A

ĐỀ THI THPT QG MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT DƯƠNG TỰ MINH- ĐỀ 03

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. needed        B. stopped            C. provided      D. naked

Question 2: A. teach          B. break                C. deal              D. clean

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions

Question 3: A. notify          B. advocate          C. influence          D. interfere

Question 4: A. royal            B. unique            C. remote              D. extreme

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 5: I’d like to pay some money into my bank account.

A. withdraw some money from

B. put some money into

C. give some money out

D. leave some money aside

Question 6: She was unhappy that she lost contact with a lot of her old friends when she went abroad to study.

A. made room for

B. put in charge of

C. got in touch with

D. lost control of

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 7: One of the main goals of WHO is conducting research on medical development and health care.

A. going by

B. giving away

C. carrying out

D. looking up

Question 8: Because their birthdays occurred in the same month, they shared a birthday party.

A. did 

B. spared

C. merited 

D. experienced together

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 9: Mary: “It’s a nice day today. Let’s play a game of tennis. - Linda:                            

A. Will we not play?

B. Why do I have to play it?

C. Why not?

D. Shall I make a cup of tea?

Question 10: John is talking to his wife, Mary.

- John: “Put the kettle on, will you?” - Mary: “                            ”

A. Yes, but I am busy.

B. I’ll have a go.

C. Not at all. Go ahead.

D. Your wish is my command.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 11: One of the most difficult decisions young adults face is what to do for a(n) _________ .

A. work       B. lifestyle                         C. living         D. existence

Question 12: Is Helen _________ the hotel reservations for us?

A. being made

B. to be making

C. to be made

D. going to make

Question 13: I think it’s safer to go on a  package _________ than  make  my   own  travel arrangements.

A. travel                            B. journey                         C. cruise                            D. holiday

Question 14: The minimum _________ for the post was a degree in education.

A. requiring                       B. required                        C. require                          D. requirement

Question 15: “I wouldn’t buy that dress if I were you; it isn’t in _________ - “You’re right, it probably doesn’t suit me either.”

A. fashion                          B. mode                            C. style                              D. trend

Question 16: I’m not completely _________ with the way the hairdresser styled my hair.

A. satisfied

B. satisfying 

C. satisfyingly

D. satisfaction

Question 17: Peter _________ a book when I saw him.

A. is reading

B. has been reading

C. read

D. was reading

Question 18: My car isn’t xcxc . It’s always letting me down.

A. believable                     B. reliable                          C. colorable     D. conceivable

Question 19: The lecture was so boring that John could hardly keep himself _________ asleep.

A. of falling

B. to falling

C. from falling

D. in falling

Question 20: He can borrow this CD _________ he gives it back to me by Thursday.

A. unless                            B. in case         C. as long                          D. provided

Question 21: This book provides students _________ useful tips that help them to pass the coming exam.

A. at                                  B. about          C. for                                 D. with

Question 22:  The team had beentrying to win the competition for  years.  Last year they finally _________ 

A. carried away

B. carried it on

C. brought it off 

D. brought it on

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.

Education and Employment

All  men  should  study,  we  have  to  study to (23) _________ our  knowledge  and develop our intelligence. An uneducated man can only utilize his (24) _________ strength to work and live.

An educated man, without this strength, still has the faculty of his intelligent brain and good reflection. This intelligence and thought enable him to help his physical strength to act more quickly and cleverly.

In a same profession or work, the educated man differs from the uneducated considerably. Therefore, intellectual workers have to study, this is a matter of course   but (25) _________ workers must also

(26) _________ an education. In civilized countries compulsory education has been applied. Man must spend seven or eight

years studying. From ploughmen to labourers in these nations, no one is (27) _________ to read a book or a paper fluently.

Question 23: A. last	B. stretch	C. enlarge	D.increase
Question 24: A. body	B. power	C. labour	D. brain
Question 25: A. simple	B. easy	C. hard	D. manual
Question 26: A. learn	B. study	C. acquire	D.know
Question 27: A. able	B. unable	C. not	D. never

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.

Over the past 600 years, English has grown from a language of few speakers to become the dominant language of international communication, English as we know it today emerged around 1350, after having incorporated many elements of French that were introduced following the Norman invasion of 1066, Until the 1600s, English was, for the most part, spoken only in England and had not expanded even as far as Wales, Scotland, or Ireland. However, during the course of the next two century, English began to spread around the globe as a result of expl orati on, trade (inc 1 uding slave trade), colonization, and missionary work. Thus, small enclaves of English, speakers became established and grew in various parts of the world. As these communities proliferated, English gradually became the primary language of international business, banking, and diplomacy.

Currently, about 80 percent of the information stored on computer systems worldwide is in English. Two thirds of the world’s science writing is in English, and English is the main language of technology, advertising, media, international airport, and air traffic controllers. Today there are more than 700 million English users in the world, and over half of these are non-native speakers, constituting the largest number of non-native users than any other language in the world.

Question 28: What is the main topic of the passage?

A. The number of non-native users of English.

B. The French influence on the English language.

C. The expansion of English as an international language.

D. The use of English for science and technology.

Question 29: In the first paragraph, the word “emerged” is closest in meaning to

A. appeared                       B. hailed                            C. frequented                    D. engaged

Question 30: In the first paragraph, the word “elements” is closest in meaning to

A. declaration                    B. features                         C. curiosities                     D. customs

Question 31: Approximately when did English begin to be used beyond England?                           

A. In 1066     B. around 1350                 C. before 1600  D. after 1600

Question 32: According to the passage, all of the following contributed to the spread of English around the world EXCEPT ................

A. the slave trade 

B. the Norman invasion

C. missionaries

D. colonization

Question 33: In the second paragraph, the word “stored” is closest in meaning to                            .

A. bought     B. saved                            C. spent                             D. valued

Question 34: According to the passage, approximately how many non-native users of English are there in the world today ?                        .

A. a quarter million 

B. half a million

C. 350 million

D. 700 million

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.

We find that bright children are rarely held back by mixed-ability teaching. On the contrary, both their knowledge and experience are enriched. We feel that there are many disadvantages in Streaming pupils- It does not take into account the fact that children develop at different rates. It can have a bad effect on both the bright and the not-so-bright child. After all, it can be quite discouraging to be at the bottom of the top grade!

Besides, it is rather unreal to grade people just according to their intellectual ability. This is only one aspect of their total personality. We are concerned to develop the abilities of all our pupils to the full, not just their academic ability. We also value personal qualities and social skills, and we find that mixed- ability teaching contributes to all these aspects of learning.

In our classroom, we work in various ways. The pupils often work in groups; this gives them the opportunity to learn to co-operate, to share, and to develop leadership skills. They also learn how to cope with the personal problems as well as learning how to think, to make decisions, to analyze and evaluate,  to communicate effectively. The pupils learn from each other as well as from the teachers.

Sometimes the pupils work in pairs; sometimes they work on individual tasks and assignments, they can do this at their own speed. They also have some formal class teaching when this is appropriate. We encourage our pupils to use the library, and we teach them the skills they need in order to do this effectively. An advanced pupil can do advanced works; it does not matter what age the child is. We  expect our pupils to do their best, not their least, and we give them every encouragement to attain this goal.

(Source: Business English Integrated Course 1, Passage 4)

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ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 3

Câu	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Đáp án	B	B	D	A	A	C	C	D	C	D
Câu	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Đáp án	C	D	D	D	A	A	D	B	C	D
Câu	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Đáp án	D	C	D	A	D	C	B	C	A	B
Câu	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Đáp án	D	B	B	C	C	D	C	B	A	D
Câu	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Đáp án	C	A	B	B	B	C	C	D	B	B

ĐỀ THI THPT QG MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT DƯƠNG TỰ MINH- ĐỀ 04

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. events   B. teams        C. medals     D. games

Question 2: A. cool      B. hood          C. fool          D. boot

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions

Question 3: A. recipient       B. satisfaction       C. continual      D. gymnasium

Question 4: A. parrot           B. apply                 C. leopard        D. panda

Mark the letter A. B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 5: A salesman finally managed to persuade her into buying a skirt that she really didn’t like.

A. convince her of

B. talk her out of

C. look upon on her

D. turn down her

Question 6: The wealthy man stood idly by while the poor people starved.

A. did something to help

B. indulged in medicines

C. worked hard

. got nervous

Mark the letter A, B( C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 7: It’s not my cup of tea.

A. the kind of thing I like

B. my field of study

C. my responsibility

D. my best choice

Question 8: You have to be on your toes if you want to beat her.

A. pay all your attention to what you are doing

B. upset her in what she is doing

C. get involved in what she is doing

D. make her comply with your orders

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 9: - “By the time I’m 30, I’ll be a millionaire and married to a supermodel.”

- “ _________ ”

A. Yes, take care!

B. In your dreams!

C. Hands off!

D. Oh, what a shame!

Question 10: David and Mary are in the canteen.

-David: “Here’s a small gift for your birthday. It’s something I know you like”

-Mary: “ _________ ”

A. You are absent-minded but how can you know the gift I like?

B. So did you remember my birthday! Thank you so much!

C. You may be right but I don’t like it much.

D. I don’t know. How much did you pay for it?

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 11: _________ at school yesterday when we were informed that there was no class  due to a sudden power cut.

A. We have hardly arrived

B. We had arrived hardly

C. Hardly we had arrived

D. Hardly had we arrived

Question 12: Such characters as fairies or witches in Walt Disney animated cartoons are purely _________ .

A. imaginary       B. imaginative                   C. imagining                      D. imaginable

Question 13: I _________ Tom with me if I had known you and he didn’t get along well  with each other.

A. didn’t bring

B. won’t bring

C. hadn’t brought

D. wouldn’t have brought

Question 14: This project _________ by the end of this month.

A. will have been finished

B. will be finishing

C. will finished 

D. will have finished

Question 15: We are having our wedding invitations _________ in London

A. to print                          B. print                C. printed                          D. printing

Question 16: He _________ the plants. If he had, they wouldn’t have died.

A. needn’t have watered

B. can’t have watered

C. shouldn’t water

D. couldn’t water

Question 17: It’s important to know about how developed countries have solved the urbanization problems and _________ some solutions to those in Vietnam.

A. think         B. advise                           C. expect                           D. propose

Question 18: Her first novel has been _________ acclaimed as a masterpiece.

A. nation         B. national                         C. international                 D. internationally

Question 19: People have used coal and oil to _________ electricity for a long time.

A. cultivate        B. breed                            C. raise                              D. generate

Question 20: As the clouds drifted away, the pattern of the fields was clearly _________ from a height.

A. apparent         B. visible                           C. foreseeable                   D. evident

Question 21: The energy _________ from the sun is renewable and environmentally-friendly.

A. harnessing         B. is harnessed                  C. which harnessed           D. harnessed

Question 22: Don’t worry. He’ll do the job as _________ as possible.

A. economizing        B. economic                      C. economical                   D. economically

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.

Millions of people of all ages enjoy a hobby which is both interesting (23) _________ fun. And every year, more and more people start a stamp collection on their own and discover an interest which can last a lifetime. Starting your collection is easy (24) _________ stamps  can  be found everywhere. Holiday postcards from friends, birthday cards from relatives and letters from pen pals can all (25) _________ you with stamps from all over the world. But once you have started collecting (26) , you will probably want to join the Stamp Collectors’ Club (27) _________ exists to provide collectors with new British stamps.

Question 23: A. also	B. at	C. or	D. and
Question 24: A. moreover	B. although	C. furthermore	D. because
Question 25: A. take	B. consider	C. give	D. provide
Question 26: A. seriously	B. competitively	C. greatly	D. attractively
Question 27: A. where	B. which	C. what	D. when

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.

The Hindu culture celebrates marriage as a pure and pristine rite enabling two individuals start their journey of life together. It puts emphasis on the values of happiness, harmony and growth and could be traced back from the Vedic times.

Months before the wedding ceremony, an engagement is held which is called “magni”. The couple is blessed here with gifts, jewelry and clothes. Another important ritual is the “mehendi which is a paste made from the leaves of henna plant. It is the traditional art of adorning the hands and the feet of the bride with mehendi and the name of the groom is also hidden in the design.

On the day of marriage, the couple exchanges garlands as a gesture of acceptance of one another and a pledge to respect one another as partners which is known as “jaimala”. This is followed by “kanyadaan”, where the father of the bride places her hand in the groom's hand requesting him to accept her as an equal partner.

Another ritual is the “havan” in which the couple invokes Agni, the god of Fire, to witness their commitment to each other. Crushed sandalwood, herbs, sugar rice and oil are offered to the ceremonial fire. The “gath bandhan” takes place where scarves of the bride and groom are tied together symbolizing their eternal bond.This signifies their pledge before God to love each other and remain loyal. The couple then takes four “mangal pheras” or walk around the ceremonial fire, representing four goals in life: “Dharma”, religious and moral duties; “Artha”, prosperity; “Kama” earthly pleasures; “Moksha”, spiritual salvation.

The couple also takes seven steps together to begin their journey, called the “saptapardi”.  Then the ritual of “sindoor” takes place where the groom applies a small dot of vermilion, a red powder to the bride’s forehead and welcomes her as his partner for life. This signifies the completion of the marriage. The parents of the bride and the groom then give their blessings, “ashirwad” to the newly wed couple as they touch the feet of their parents.

Question 28: What might be the most suitable title for this reading passage?

A. The Hindu culture

B. The Hindu religion

C. The Hindu wedding

D. The Hindu tradition

Question 29: What does the word “magni” stand for?

A. the wedding

B. the paste made from the leave of one another

C. the engagement

D. the gesture of acceptance of one another

Question 30: What do the Hindu people think about marriage?

A. It is entirely a spiritual traditional ritual allowing two individuals to live together.

B. It is a belief in the growth of a family newly formed by two individuals.

C. It is a wish of happiness and harmony to come to two individuals.

D. It is just a living-together announcement of two individuals.

Question 31: What can the word “adorning” be best replaced by?

A. decorating                    B. painting           C. repairing             D. dying

Question 32: What can the word “invokes” be best replaced by?

A. tells              B. says                  C. prays                 D. talks

Question 33: Why does the couple exchange garlands?

A. to do a ritual

B. to show both their acceptance of and the swear to respect the partner.

C. to express their acceptance of one another and a wish of happiness.

D. to express their vow to respect each other for the whole life.

Question 34: When is the wedding ceremony completed?

A. When the parents of the bride and the groom give their blessings to the couple.

B. When the couple touches their parents’ feet.

C. When the couple makes seven steps together.

D. When the groom applies a small dot of Vermillion of the bride’s forehead.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.

Harvard University, today recognized as part of the top echelon of the world’s universities, came from very inauspicious and humble beginning.

This oldest of American universities was founded in 1636, just sixteen years after the Pilgrims landed at Plymouth. Included in the Puritan emigrants to the Massachusetts colony during this period were more than 100 graduates of England’s prestigious Oxford and Cambridge universities, and these universities graduates in the New World were determined that their sons would have the same educational opportunities that they themselves had had. Because of this support in the colony for an institution of higher learning, the General Court of Massachusetts appropriated 400 pounds for a college in October of 1636 and early the following year decided on a parcel of land for the school; this land was in an area called Newetowne, which was later renamed Cambridge after its English cousin and is the site of the present-day university.

When a young minister named John Harvard, who came from the neighboring town of Charlestowne, died from tuberculosis in 1638, he willed half of his estate of 1,700 pounds to the fledgling college. In spite of the fact that only half of the bequest was actually paid, the General Court named the college after the minister in appreciation for what he had done. The amount of the bequest may not have been large, particularly by today’s standard, but it was more than the General Court had found it necessary to appropriate in order to open the college.

Henry Dunster was appointed the first president of Harvard in 1640, and it should be noted that in addition to serving as president, he was also the entire faculty, with an entering freshmen class of four students. Although the staff did expand somewhat, for the first century of its existence the entire teaching staff consisted of the president and three or four tutors.

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ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 4

Câu	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Đáp án	A	B	B	B	B	A	A	A	B	B
Câu	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Đáp án	D	A	D	A	C	B	D	D	D	B
Câu	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Đáp án	D	D	D	D	D	A	B	C	C	A
Câu	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Đáp án	A	C	B	D	B	D	B	B	A	C
Câu	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Đáp án	D	D	B	A	C	B	D	C	A	A

ĐỀ THI THPT QG MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT DƯƠNG TỰ MINH- ĐỀ 05

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 1. She helped us a lot with our project. We couldn't continue without her.

A. If her contribution wouldn't come, we couldn't continue with the project.

B. If she hadn't contributed positively, we couldn't have continued with the project.

C. Unless we had her contribution, we could continue with the project.

D. Because of her contribution, we could have continued with the project.

Question 2. We paid for the meal. We wanted to say sorry for what we had done.

A. We paid for the meal in order to say sorry for what we had done.

B. We paid for the meal although we wanted to say sorry for what we had done.

C. The meal we paid for is what we want to say sorry for what we had done.

D. In order to pay for the meal, we wanted to say sorry for what we had done.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Biological diversity has become widely recognized as a critical conservation issue only in the past two decades. The rapid destruction of the tropical rain forests, which are the ecosystems with the highest known species diversity on Earth, has awakened people to the importance and fragility of biological diversity. The high rate of species extinctions in these environments is jolting, but it is important to recognize the significance of biological diversity in all ecosystems. As the human population continues to expand, it will negatively affect one after another of Earth's ecosystems. In terrestrial ecosystems and in fringe marine ecosystems (such as wetlands), the most common problem is habitat destruction. In most situations, the result is irreversible. Now humans are beginning to destroy marine ecosystems through other types of activities, such as disposal and runoff of poisonous waste; in less than two centuries, by significantly reducing the variety of species on Earth, they have irrevocably redirected the course of evolution.

Certainly, there have been periods in Earth's history when mass extinctions have occurred. The extinction of the dinosaurs was caused by some physical event, either climatic or cosmic. There have also been less dramatic extinctions, as when natural competition between species reached an extreme conclusion. Only 0.01 percent of the species that have lived on Earth have survived to the present, and it was largely chance that determined which species survived and which died out.

However, nothing has ever equaled the magnitude and speed with which the human species is altering the physical and chemical world and demolishing the environment. In fact, there is wide agreement that it is the rate of change humans are inflicting, even more than the changes themselves, that will lead to biological devastation. Life on Earth has continually been in flux as slow physical and chemical changes have occurred on Earth, but life needs time to adapt-time for migration and genetic adaptation within existing species and time for the proliferation of new genetic material and new species that may be able to survive in new environments.

Question 3. The author mentions the extinction of the dinosaurs in the 2nd paragraph to emphasize that _____.

A. not all mass extinctions have been caused by human activity 

B. the cause of the dinosaurs' extinction is unknown

C. actions by humans could not stop the irreversible process of a species' extinction 

D. Earth's climate has changed significantly since the dinosaurs' extinction

Question 4. The author mentions all of the following as examples of the effect of humans on the world's ecosystem EXCEPT ______.

A. damage to marine ecosystems

B. the introduction of new varieties of plant species

C. destruction of the tropical rain forests

D. habitat destruction in wetlands

Question 5. The word "jolting" is closest in meaning to ______.

A. illuminating    

B. shocking    

C. unknown    

D. predicted

Question 6. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. The cause of the extinction of the dinosaurs.

B. The time required for species to adapt to new environments.

C. The impact of human activities on Earth's ecosystems.

D. The variety of species found in tropical rain forests.

Question 7. With which of the following statements would the author be most likely to agree? 

A. Humans should be more conscious of the influence they have on ecosystems.

B. The extinction of a few species is an acceptable consequence of human progress.

C. Technology will provide solutions to problems caused by the destruction of ecosystems.

D. Human influence on ecosystems should not be a factor in determining public policy.

Question 8. According to the passage, natural evolutionary change is different from changes caused by humans in that changes caused by humans ______.        

A. are less devastating to most species    

B. are occurring at a much faster rate

C. affect fewer ecosystems        

D. are reversible    

Question 9. The word "critical" is closest in meaning to ______.    

A. complicated            

B. interesting    

C. negative    

D. essential

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 10.    

A. nuclear    

B. treasure    

C. weather    

D. threaten

Question 11.   

A. steps

B. defends

C. kicks

D. advocates

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 12. I would like to extend my gratitude to all the staff for their ______ support, without which our company couldn't have overcome the crisis.

A. unfriendly    

B. unfailing    

C. unsuitable    

D. unfeeling

Question 13. Cars have become much more complicated. ______, mechanics need more training than in the past.

A. Therefore    

B. Besides    

C. But    

D. However

Question 14. By the end of 2021, I ______ as an accountant in this company for 15 years.

A. have worked    

B. will have worked    

C. had worked    

D. will work

Question 15. A large number of people in the world are now ______ work because of the serious impacts of the COVID-19 pandemic.

A. in on    

B. at    

C. out of    

D. with

Question 16. Those problems will be worse if the government does not ______ any measures to reduce the negative effects of urbanisation.

A. pay 

B. make 

C. take 

D. do 

Question 17. Human beings are ______ greatest threat to the survival of endangered species.

A. the    

B. a    

C. Ø (no article)    

D. an

Question 18. Not until all their demands had been ______ did the workers decide to go on strike for more welfare.

A. turned on    

B. turned up    

C. turned down    

D. turned off

Question 19. She got the job ______ she actually had very little experience.

A. despite    

B. although    

C. because    

D. because of

Question 20. One ______ method for keeping our mind active is doing crossword puzzles.

A. popular    

B. popularize    

C. popularly    

D. popularity

Question 21. She said she ______ the next week but I never saw her again.

A. had back    

B. will be back    

C. would be back    

D. is back

Question 22. The 2021 Southeast Asian Games, commonly known as the 31st SEA Games, ______ in Hanoi, Vietnam from 21st November to 2nd December 2021.        

A. will be held    

B. will held    

C. held    

D. was held

Question 23. Pitt is an ambitious man who will never ______ till he gets what he wants.

A. take off    

B. put on    

C. turn off    

D. give up

Question 24. Dr John is the person in ______ I have so much confidence.    

A. whom    

B. which    

C. that    

D. who

Question 25. If I had enough money, I ______ abroad to improve my English.    

A. should go    

B. go    

C. will go    

D. would go

Question 26. Young people leave their home villages to find ______ jobs in the fast growing industrial zones.

A. day-to-day    

B. wide- ranging    

C. well-paid    

D. weather-beaten

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 27. "It was nice of you to give me the present. Thank you." Mary said to Helen.

A. Mary thanked Helen for the present.    

B. Mary was sorry to receive the present for Helen.

C. Mary asked Helen for the present.

D. Mary was happy to give Helen te present.

Question 28. We last went to that cinema 2 months ago.

A. We didn't want to go to the cinema anymore.

B. We have been to the cinema for 2 months.

C. We didn't go to the cinema for 2 months.

D. We haven't been to the cinema for 2 months.

Question 29. People don't use this road very often.

A. This road not very often is used.

B. This road very often is not used.

C. This road is not used very often.

D. Not very often this road was not used.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 30. The 13th National Congress of the Communist Party of Viet Nam was attended by 1,587 delegates from around the country, the largest number at any congress so far.

A. representatives    

B. watchers    

C. viewers    

D. audiences

Question 31. The boy was let off lightly this morning due to not having done his homework.

A. persuaded

B. punished        

C. praised    

D. congratulated

---(Để xem tiếp nội dung của đề thi số 5 các em vui lòng xem tại online hoặc đăng nhập vào HỌC247 để tải về máy)---

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 5

Câu	Đáp án	Câu	Đáp án	Câu	Đáp án	Câu	Đáp án	Câu	Đáp án
1	B	11	B	21	C	31	B	41	C
2	A	12	B	22	A	32	B	42	D
3	A	13	A	23	D	33	D	43	A
4	B	14	B	24	A	34	B	44	B
5	B	15	C	25	D	35	B	45	B
6	C	16	C	26	C	36	C	46	C
7	A	17	A	27	D	37	C	47	C
8	B	18	C	28	D	38	D	48	B
9	D	19	B	29	C	39	C	49	B
10	A	20	A	30	A	40	B	50	A

...

Trên đây là một phần trích đoạn nội dung Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG môn Tiếng Anh năm 2021-2022 có đáp án Trường THPT Dương Tự Minh. Để xem toàn bộ nội dung các em chọn chức năng xem online hoặc đăng nhập vào trang hoc247.net để tải tài liệu về máy tính.

Mời các em tham khảo tài liệu có liên quan:

• Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG môn Tiếng Anh năm 2021-2022 có đáp án Trường THPT Trần Phú
• Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG môn Tiếng Anh năm 2021-2022 có đáp án Trường THPT Tây Đô

Hy vọng bộ đề thi này sẽ giúp các em học sinh ôn tập tốt và đạt thành tích cao trong kì thi sắp tới.