Bộ 5 đề thi HK1 môn Tiếng Anh 12 năm 2022-2023 có đáp án Trường THPT Lý Nhân Tông

TRƯỜNG THPT LÝ NHÂN TÔNG

ĐỀ THI HK1 NĂM HỌC 2022-2023 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 12 (Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút)

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 1. Not until all their demands had been turned down did the workers decide to go on strike for more welfare.

A. deleted                          B. reviewed

C. sacked                           D. rejected

Question 2. The overall aim of the book is to help bridge the gap between theory and practice, particularly in language teaching.

A. reduce the differences

B. construct a bridge

C. increase the understanding

D. minimize the limitations

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 3. Daniel and Anthony are discussing the causes of air pollution.

Daniel: " I think urbanization has led to air pollution. "

Anthony:  "_______________"

A. Absolutely. I am not with you there. 

B. I can’t agree with you more.

C. Can I help you?

D. I don’t think so. I can’t agree with you more

Question 4. At the school canteen.

Alexina: I like ice-cream.
Serena: ______________.

A. I too like ice-cream        B. Me either

C. So am I                          D. Me too

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE  in meaning to the underlined part in each of the questions.

Question 5. He is writing a letter of acceptance to the employer with the hope to get his favorite position in the company.

A. agree         B. refusal              C. admission             D. confirmation

Question 6. She’s a bit down in the dumps because she has to take her exam again.

A. happy        B. confident            C. sad                         D. embarrassed

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 7. Nora hardly never misses an opportunity to play in the tennis tournaments.

A. an               B. in               C. to play              D. hardly never

Question 8. The villagers are highly appreciable of the volunteers' efforts in reconstructing their houses after the devastating storm.

A. highly appreciable        B. volunteers' efforts

C. reconstructing                D. devastating

Question 9. In present-day business, entrepreneurs were taking fewer risks than their predecessors a century ago.

A. fewer                             B. were taking

C. present-day                   D. a century ago

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 10. The government today is trying to combine ____________ of indigenous cultures with economic development.

A. preservation                  B. industrialization

C. expectation                   D. disposal

Question 11. Composting, turning your leftovers into fuel for your garden, is a recommended way to dispose ____________ food waste.

A. by                                    B. at                                   C. from                               D. of

Question 12. When the boss came into the office, his secretary ____________, and the accountant ____________ on the phone.

A. was typing/ was talking    B. typed/ talked

C. typed/ was talking             D. was typing/ talked

Question 13. We send them monthly reports ____________ they may have full information.

A. while                               B. even if 

C. so that                            D. although

Question 14. Garlic was once thought to ____________ people against evil spirits.

A. protect                           B. fight

C. preserve                        D. struggle

Question 15. It is a good idea that you ____________ breaks when reading in order to assimilate faster.

A. should take                    B. will take

C. may take                        D. are taking

Question 16. State health inspectors have demanded that the city ____________ immediately to clean the water supply.

A. act                                 B. be acted

C. is acted                          D. acts

Question 17. ____________ and food related industries and services provide over 44 million jobs in the EU, including regular work for 20 million people within the agricultural sector itself.

A. Agricultural                     B. Agriculture

C. Agrarian                         D. Agriculturalists

Question 18. Keeping goals clear and focused is a good way for managers to help their employees to work ____________.

A. more and more efficiently 

B. as efficient as possible 

C. more and more efficient 

D. more efficiently than

Question 19. We teach children how to deal with cyberbullying and the safe use of chat rooms and __________.

A. news headlines               B. social networks

C. the mass media              D. documentaries

Question 20. ____________ supports the idea that every person can make a unique and positive contribution to the larger society because of, rather than in spite of, their differences.

A. Cultural dominance        B. National costume

C. Cultural diversity            D. Cultural practice

Question 21. He ____________ three books and he is working on another one.

A. had written                     B. has been writing

C. has written                     D. was writing

Question 22. Spending too much time on the Internet leads to an internet ____________, which can destroy a healthy balance of interests and activities in your teen’s life.

A. addicted                         B. addictive

C. addiction                        D. addict

Question 23. The car ____________ to William for four years before Harper ___________ it last week.

A. had belonged/ has bought

B. had belonged/ bought

C. was belonging/ bought

D. has belonged/ buy

Question 24. Physical appearance and intellect are insufficient foundation for effective ____________ relationships.

A. weather-beaten             B. year-round

C. downmarket                   D. long-lasting

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on the answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following sentences.

Question 25. A. approached    B. noticed      C. finished          D. admitted

Question 26. A. culture            B. brush         C. justice            D. campus

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in meaning to the sentence given in each of the following questions.

Question 27. John said: “You’d better not lend them any money, Daisy.”

A. John advised Daisy not to lend them any money.

B. John asked Daisy if she had lent them any money.

C. John ordered Daisy not to lend them any money.

D. John commanded Daisy not to lend them any money.

Question 28. I was not surprised to hear that Harry had failed his driving test.

A. If Harry hadn’t failed his driving test, I wouldn’t have surprised.

B. By having failed his driving test, Harry made no surprise.

C. Harry’s having failed his driving test is not my surprise.

D. It came as no surprise to me that Harry had failed his driving test.

Question 29. It was not sensible when they didn’t call the police in that circumstance.

A. They should have called the police in that circumstance.

B. They needn’t have called the police in that circumstance.

C. They might have called the police in that circumstance.

D. They must have called the police in that circumstance.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following sentences. 

Question 30. He refused to do his share of chores. This annoyed the others.

A. He refused to do his share of chores, it annoyed the others.

B. He refused to do his share of chores, what annoyed the others.

C. He refused to do his share of chores, which annoyed the others.

D. He refused to do his share of chores, that annoyed the others.

Question 31. I can’t help admiring the man’s courage. I do not approve of his methods.

A. I can’t help admiring the man’s courage so that I do not approve of his methods.

B. When I can’t help admiring the man’s courage, I do not approve of his methods.

C. Because I can’t help admiring the man’s courage, I do not approve of his methods.

D. Although I can’t help admiring the man’s courage, I do not approve of his methods.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Online shopping is no longer just a fad, it’s a lifestyle. People everywhere are taking advantage of the convenience of ordering anything and having it delivered right to their doorstep. In order to capitalize on this shift in lifestyle, retailers have taken to the ecommerce world and are setting new norms for online businesses across the globe. Ecommerce is continuing to get more and more competitive. Websites are smarter, shipping is quicker, and expectations are higher. In order to keep up with the market, online stores have started to gravitate towards new trends.

One way in which mobile devices are being utilized for shopping is through social media. Facebook and Instagram have opened up the ecommerce marketplace and made it easier for users to shop through their social media platforms. Instagram, for example, has started to offer a feature for direct product links to be tagged in posts that even include product and price details.

Additionally, companies have taken to social media to advertise their brands and products. At this point, a company without a Facebook or Instagram account is, quite frankly, a step behind. People spend hours scrolling through their social media news feeds daily. Even if a company isn’t directly paying for advertisements, their own accounts serve as an effective self promotion tool.

(Sounce: https://www.entrepreneur.com)

Question 32.  Retailers have taken to the ecommerce world because ____________.

A. customers’ expectations are higher

B. shipping is quicker

C. it becomes more competitive

D. websites are smarter

Question 33.  Which of the following is NOT included in a product on social media platforms?

A. Product links 

B. Manufacturer’s brand

C. Promotion tool

D. Products details

Question 34.  The word “right” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to ____________.

A. exactly                             B. necessarily

C. immediately                    D. completely

Question 35.  According to the passage, if companies don’t create accounts to advertise their products on social media, ____________.

A. there are still websites

B. they have to set up another marketing channel

C. they will be left behind

D. they can’t use the accounts for other purposes

Question 36.  What can be concluded about the writer’s attitude toward ecommerce?

A. neutral             B. indifferent                      C. supported                      D. uninvolved

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 37. A. sustainable    B. population    C. presentation      D. introduction

Question 38. A. factor             B. avoid            C. support               D. result

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

When corals are mentioned, many people think of rock-life forms in the sea filled with colorful fish. But corals are made up of hundreds of thousands of small organisms which live and feed like any other sea life. For the past five years, researchers in Hawaii and Australia have been engineering corals inside a lab to see if they could better resist the effects of climate change. They say it is now time to see how their creations perform in nature. The scientists say climate change linked to human causes has led to warming oceans that can harm sea life. They say if the more heat-resistant corals they developed do well in the ocean, the method can be used to help save suffering and dying reefs.

The team tested three methods for making corals that would be strong and healthy in nature. One was the method of selective breeding. This method involves scientists choosing parents with desirable characteristics for reproductive purposes. A second method subjected the corals to increasing temperatures to condition them to be able to survive in warm ocean environments. The third involved making changes to the algae that provide corals with necessary nutrients. The leader of the project, University of Hawaii researcher Kira Hughes, said all the methods proved successful in the lab. She told The Associated Press that some scientists might worry that such methods go against the natural processes of nature. But with the planet continuing to warm more and more, she does not see any better options.

“We have to intervene in order to make a change for coral reefs to survive into the future,” Hughes said. When ocean temperatures rise, corals release algae that supplies nutrients and gives them color. This causes them to turn white, a process called bleaching. When this happens, corals can quickly become sick and die. But for years, scientists have been observing corals that have survived bleaching, even when others have died on the same reef. They are now centering on those healthy survivors and hoping to further increase their resistance to heat. Those corals were used as the parents for the newly created kinds.

 (https://learningenglish.voanews.com)

Question 39.  What is the main idea of the passage?

A. Scientists have created corals in lab to better resist climate change.

B. Bleaching, a process where coral reefs turn white and die.

C. There are many causes leading to climate change and loss of coral reefs.

D. A new kind of algae helps to bring more nutrients for corals.

Question 40.  The word “resist” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to______.

A. confuse            B. withstand                       C. preserve         D. frighten

Question 41.  The word “They” in paragraph 1 refers to_______.

A. the effects of climate change           B. organisms                     

C. researchers                                      D. corals 

Question 42.  According to paragraph 2, _______.

A. three methods, although contrasting, are tested effective in reality

B. the scientific community reach a consensus about making these new types of corals

C. the first method is concerned with selecting advantageous breeds

D. Kira Hughes is optimist about finding a quite number of choices to solve the loss of corals

Question 43.  The word bleaching in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to_______.

A. releasing algae              B. supplying nutrient

C. increasing resistance     D. becoming white

Question 44.  Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?

A. The research has come to an end and new types of corals will soon be introduced in dying reefs.

B. The aim of the experiment is to make corals accustomed to warmer ocean environments.

C. Human activities lead to higher temperatures in oceans which do damage to coral reefs.

D. Coral reefs are comprised of not only corals but also a wide range of other creatures.

Question 45.  Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

A. Hawaii and Australia have the most biodiverse coral reefs on Earth.

B. No corals can remain alive through the process of turning white.

C. The scientists want to reduce the resistance ability of corals.

D. Algae have a crucial role to play in maintaining the life of corals.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to choose the word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

Wind, water, air, ice and heat all work to cause erosion. As the wind blows over the land, it often picks up small grains of sand. When these grains of sand strike against solid rocks, the rocks are slowly worn away. In this way, ______(46)______ very hard rocks are worn away by the wind. When particles of rocks or soil became loosened in any way, running water carries them down the ______(47)______. Some rocks and soil particles are carried into streams and then into the sea. Land ______(48)______ is covered with trees, grass and other plants wears away very slowly, and so loses very little of its soil. The roots of plants help to hold the rocks and soil in place. Water that falls on grasslands runs away more slowly than water that falls on bare ground. ______(49)______, forests and grasslands help to slow down erosion. Even where the land is thickly covered with plants, some erosion goes on. In the spring, the melting snow turns into a large ______(50)______ of water that then runs downhill in streams. As a stream carries away some of the soil, the stream bed gets deeper and deeper. After thousands of years of such erosion, wide valleys are often formed.

Question 46. A. such	B. even	C. though	D. still
Question 47. A. backside	B. hillsides	C. borders	D. topside
Question 48. A. when	B. what	C. that	D. who
Question 49. A. In contrast	B. Even if	C. Thus	D. However
Question 50. A. number	B. quantity	C. quality	D. total

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 1

1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
D	A	B	D	B	A	D	A	B	A
11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
D	A	C	A	A	A	B	A	B	C
21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
C	C	B	D	D	D	A	D	A	C
31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
D	C	C	A	C	C	A	A	A	B
41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
C	C	D	A	D	B	B	C	C	B

ĐỀ THI HK1 MÔN TIẾNG ANH 12 NĂM 2022-2023 TRƯỜNG THPT LÝ NHÂN TÔNG- ĐỀ 02

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 1: Because of his heart disease, the doctor advised him to abstain from alcohol and meat.

A. contain           B. refrain                      C. maintain           D. complain

Question 2: When it comes to diversity, language can be a bridge for building relationships, or a tool for creating and maintaining divisions across differences.

A. assimilation                  B. distinction              C . uniformity      D. variance

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 3:  Mrs. Smith and Mr. Watson are talking about Mr. Watson's son.

Mrs. Smith: "What's the matter with your son?"

Mr. Watson: ________.

A. He's just graduated from university. 

B. He did an experiment on a cure for the headache.

C. He went to London two weeks ago.

D. He's got a headache.

Question 4:  - Jenny: "I think higher living standard is one of the reasons that many people want to be a city dweller."

- Mark: “_________  ”

A. I couldn't agree more.

B. It's nice of you to say so.

C. That's quite all right.

D. Why not?

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 5: “Why don’t you  ask the teacher for help ?” Peter asked me .

A. Peter told me the reason why I did not ask the teacher for help .

B. Peter suggested that he should ask the teacher for help .

C. Peter recommended me not to ask the teacher for help .

D. Peter advised me to ask the teacher for help.

Question 6: In Vietnam, football is more popular than basketball.

A. In Vietnam, basketball is not as popular as football.

B. In Vietnam, basketball is more popular than football.

C. In Vietnam, football is not as popular as basketball.

D. In Vietnam, football is as popular as basketball.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 7: A. distributed        B. used            C. emailed       D. copied

Question 8: A. face                    B. back           C. take             D. save

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 9: A. belief              B. culture             C. custom            D. value 

Question 10: A. computer      B. technology       C. magazine       D. connection

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 11: Individuals define themselves by nationality, ethnic, language, clothing and food.

A. Individuals      B. nationality              C. ethnic                     D. clothing

Question 12: The alarm was raised too late because when the emergency crew arrived, no less than 10,000 gallons of oil has gusted into the stream.                                         

A. raised           B. arrived                    C. less                         D. has gusted

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer that best completes each of the following questions.

Question 13:  I know too little Dutch to have understood what they were talking about. What I ____ was that their boss would be there the next morning.

A. did understand

B. didn't understand

C. have understood

D. could have understood

Question 14: The tabloids completely ____ that story about Bruce Willis. It's not true at all.

A. stood out           B. filed in                    C. made up                  D. turned over

Question 15: _________ he was the most prominent candidate for this job, he was not chosen.

A. Despite             B. Although                C. Because of              D. Because

Question 16: All bottles _________ before transportation.            

A. frozen              B. is frozen                 C. was frozen              D. were frozen

Question 17: Are you thinking of a career in ____?

A. journal                           B. journalism              C. journalist                D. journalistic

Question 18: She is ____ eldest in her house, so she has to look after her brothers when her parents go out.

A. the                                 B. a                              C. an                            D. Ø

Question 19: Would you like _______to the party?

A. to come                         B. come                       C. coming        D. to have come

Question 20: I hate ____ newspapers; they're just full of gossip, scandal and lies!

A. online                            B. daily                       C. tabloid          D. rubbish

Question 21: While a sports match has spectators and radio has listeners, television has ____.

A. audience                        B. witnesses                C. viewers         D. commentators

Question 22: The ____ involves TV, radio and even electronic forms of communication such as the Internet.

A. media                            B. press                       C. network           D. telecommunication

Question 23: She was like a cat on hot bricks before her driving test.

A. nervous                         B. comfortable                        C. depressed    D. relaxing

Question 24: The market for tablets is becoming ____ all the time.

A. more competitive and competitive

B. more and more competitive

C. competitive and more competitive

D. competitive and competitive

Question 25: If you want to be healthy, you should_________your bad habits in your lifestyles.

A. give up                B call off                     C break down              D get over

Question 26: The tabloids completely ____ that story about Bruce Willis. It's not true at all.

A. stood out             B. filed in                    C. made up                  D. turned over

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 27: The problem is due to discipline, or, more precisely, the lack of discipline, in school.

A. wrongly                         B. informally               C. casually                  D. flexible

Question 28:  Cultural changes in identity can be stressful and result in problems with self-esteem and mental health.

A. anxiety                          B. confidence              C. dissatisfaction        D. modesty

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29: There's no point in preventing people from shifting to a different language.

A. It is possible to prevent people from shifting to a different language.

B. It's useless to prevent people from shifting to a different language.

C. People will be prevented from shifting to a different language though it's hard.

D. No one wants to prevent people from shifting to a different language.

Question 30: Languages allow people to experience and share their cultures.

A. People are able to experience and share their cultures through languages.

B. People are not allowed to experience and share their cultures without languages.

C. People must experience and share their cultures by languages.

D. People cannot experience and share their cultures without languages.

Question 31: Most of the classmates couldn't come. He invited them to the birthday party.

A. Most of the classmates he was invited to the birthday party couldn't come.

B. Most of the classmates that he invited them to the birthday party couldn't come.

C. Most of the classmates he invited to the birthday party couldn't come.

D. Most of the classmates which he invited to the birthday party couldn't come.

Question 32: I did not follow the Health Ministry's 5K message. I got infected with the Corona virus.

A. If I had followed the Health Ministry's 5K message, I would never get infected with the Corona virus.

B. If only I had followed the Health Ministry's 5K message, I would get infected with the Corona virus.

C. I wish I hadn't followed the Health Ministry's SK message and would have got infected with the Corona virus.

D. I wish I had followed the Health Ministry's 5K message and wouldn't have got infected with the Corona virus.

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ĐỀ THI HK1 MÔN TIẾNG ANH 12 NĂM 2022-2023 TRƯỜNG THPT LÝ NHÂN TÔNG- ĐỀ 03

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

The United States of America, (1)_________its immense size and diverse heritage, has one of the most complex cultural identities in the world. Millions of immigrants from all over the globe have journeyed to America since the Europeans (2) __________ and colonised the land back in the 17th and 18th centuries. The blending of cultural backgrounds and ethnicities in America led to the country becoming known as a “melting pot.” As the third largest country in both area and population, America’s size has enabled the formation of subcultures within the country. These subcultures are often geographical as a result of settlement patterns by non-natives as well as regional weather and landscape (3) _______. While there are countless ways to divide the U.S. into regions, here we have referenced the four regions that are West, Midwest, North East and South. People from each region may have different lifestyles, cultural values, business practices and dialects. While there are qualities and values (4) _______ most Americans commonly share, it is important not to generalise or assume that all Americans think or act the same way.

(Adapted from https://www.londonschool.com/)

Question 1:   A. because              B. as                         C. due to              D. since

Question 2:   A. investigated         B. discovered          C. invented           D. identified

Question 3:   A. differences         B. different                 C. differently        D. differ

Question 4:   A. when                    B. who                       C. why                  D. that

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 5: He resigned from the company in order to take a more challenging job.

A. complicated                  B. difficult                   C. demanding                      D. effortless

Question 6: Cultural changes in identity can be stressful and result in problems with self- esteem and mental health.

A. anxiety                          B. confidence              C. dissatisfaction                    D. modesty

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 7: Ben: “_______________.”

Jane: “Never mind.”

A. Sorry for staining your carpet. Let me have it cleaned.         

B. Would you mind going to dinner next Sunday? 

C. Thank you for being honest with me. 

D. Congratulations! How wonderful! 

Question 8: A: Thanks a lot for fixing the computer for me!

B: ___________________.

A. You will be welcome! 

B. It's my pleasure to help you!

C. Safe and sound!

D. You must say again!

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 9: According to linguists, children can learn several languages well, as good as they know when to speak each one.                                          

A. According to linguists

B. several languages

C. as good as

D. when to

Question 10: The alarm was raised too late because when the emergency crew arrived, no less than 10,000 gallons of oil has gusted into the stream.                                             

A. raised                            B. arrived                                C. less            D. has gusted

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the answer that best completes each of the following questions.

Question 11:  Linda only ____ the film after she ____ the book.

A. understood – read                                 B. understood – had read

C. had understood – read                           D. understood – was reading

Question 12: "If no one can soon ____ a good solution, we're going to be in trouble,” the board chair warned. 

A. come up with        B. put up with 

C. catch up with          D. check up with

Question 13: ………… Lan had missed a lot of classes, she had to work hard to catch up with her classmates.

A. Because of                    B. Because                  C. Despite                   D. Although

Question 14: It _________ that learning English is easy.   

A. are said                          B. said                         C. is said                     D. is sayed

Question 15: New digital media forms are more personal and social as they allow people to connect each other and ____ their experiences.

A. personal                        B. person                     C. personalize             D. personify

Question 16: Vietnam was the  host country of                         22nd SEA Games.

A. a                                    B. an                            C. the                          D. Ø

Question 17: Who was the first person _________ the South Pole?

A. to reach                         B.  who reaches          C.  reached                  D.  reaching

Question 18: The mass media are ____ of communication, such as books, newspapers, recordings, radio, movies, television, mobile phones and the Internet.

A. models                          B. means                     C. parts                       D. types

Question 19: TV companies ___ their programmes across the country or even across the world.

A. broadcast                       B. refresh                    C. connect                   D. publish

Question 20: How many means of ____ do you use on a regular basis?

A. communication    B. communicating

C. communicator        D. communicative

Question 21: She grabbed it firmly, got to her feet and walked past him with her nose in the air.

A. proudly                          B. nervously               C. arrogantly               D. modestly

Question 22: The more cigarettes you smoke,                       you will die.

A. the easier                       B. more sooner           C. the sooner               D. faster

Question 23: The police_______ the hospital to rescue everyone.

A. stand up                        B. turn up                    C. look after                D. broke into

Question 24: The tabloids completely ____ that story about Bruce Willis. It's not true at all.

A. stood out                       B. filed in                    C. made up                  D. turned over

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Culture is the lens with which we evaluate everything around us; we evaluate what is proper or improper, normal or abnormal, through our culture. If we are immersed in a culture that is unlike our own, we may experience culture shock and become disoriented when we come into contact with a fundamentally different culture. People naturally use their own culture as the standard to judge other cultures; however, passing judgment could reach a level where people begin to discriminate against others whose “ways of being” are different than their own - essentially, we tend to fear that which we do not understand.

Cultural diversity is important because our country, workplaces, and schools increasingly consist of various cultural, racial, and ethnic groups. We can learn from one another, but first we must have a level of understanding about each other in order to facilitate collaboration and cooperation. Learning about other cultures helps us understand different perspectives within the world in which we live and helps dispel negative stereotypes and personal biases about different groups.

In addition, cultural diversity helps us recognize and respect “ways of being” that are not necessarily our own, so that as we interact with others, we can build bridges to trust, respect, and understanding across cultures. Furthermore, this diversity makes our country a more interesting place to live, as people from diverse cultures contribute language skills, new ways of thinking, new knowledge, and different experiences.

(Adapted from https://www.purdueglobal.edu/)

Question 25: Before we can learn from people from other cultures, we need to    .

A. understand one another

B. facilitate collaboration

C. have different perspectives 

D. form personal biases

Question 26: The word “their” in paragraph 1 refers to      .

A. evels                            B. people             C. others            D. ways of being

Question 27: The word “dispel” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to                 .

A. liminate                       B. contain                  C. realize          D. discuss

Question 28: Which best serves as the title for the passage?

A. What is the function of culture?

B. How do people use own culture?

C. Why is cultural diversity a “good thing”?

D.How can we learn from one another?

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 29: “ Mary, you should not take a lot of vitamins,” said the doctor.

A. The doctor made Mary not to take a lot of vitamins. 

B. The doctor advised Mary to take a lot of vitamins.

C. The doctor advised Mary not to take a lot of vitamins.          

D. The doctor let Mary not to take a lot of vitamins.

Question 30: The last time I saw her was three years ago.

A. I have not seen her for three years.                 

B. About three years ago, I used to meet her.

C. I have often seen her for the last three years. 

D. I saw her three years ago and will never meet her

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ĐỀ THI HK1 MÔN TIẾNG ANH 12 NĂM 2022-2023 TRƯỜNG THPT LÝ NHÂN TÔNG- ĐỀ 04

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrases that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

Children in the Netherlands must be at least four years old to (1)_______ primary education. Almost all 4-year-olds (99.3%) in the country indeed attend primary school, (2)________ this is not compulsory until children reach the age of. Primary school is free of charge. In most schools, children are grouped by age in mixed ability classes, with one teacher for all subjects. Primary school consists of 8 groups, thus schooling (3)_______ for 8 years. During the first two years, which is also called kindergarten, children receive an average of 22 hours of (4)______, during the last 6 years children receive an average of 25 hours per week. Schools are open 5 days a week, but children are free on Wednesday afternoon. At the end of primary school, or in group 8, schools advice on secondary school choice. Most schools use a national test to support this advice, for instance the ′Citotoets’, a test (5)_______ by the Central Institute for Test development.

Question 1.

A. afford

B. enter

C. come

D. run

Question 2.

A. although

B. despite

C. inspite

D. due to

Question 3.

A. spends

B. lasts

C. lengthens

D. takes

Question 4.

A. educate

B. educative

C. educator

D. education

Question 5.

A. develop

B. to develop

C. developed

D. developing

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Preparation is a key to a successful interview. Does the idea of going to a job interview make you feel a little nervous? Many people find that it is the hardest part of the employing process. But it is not really true. The more you prepare and practice, the more comfortable you will feel. You should find out as much as possible about the company before you go to the interview. Understand the products that they produce and the services that they provide . It is also good to know who the customers are and who the major competitors are. Practice makes perfect. It will also make you feel more confident and relaxed. So, practice your answers to common. Make a list of questions to ask, too. Almost all interviewers will ask if you have . This is a great opportunity for you to show your keenness, enthusiasm, and knowledge.

Make a great impression . The interview is your chance to show that you are the best person for the job. Your application or resume has already exhibited that you are qualified. Now it is up to you to show how your skills and experience match this position and this company. The employer will be looking and listening to determine if you are a good fit. He site will be looking for a number of different qualities, in addition to the skills that you possess. To make the best impression, dress appropriately; express your strengths; arrive early, by about 10 – 15 minutes; be enthusiastic; shake hands firmly; be an active listener; sit up straight and maintain eye contact; and ask.

After the interview, follow up with a thank-you note. This is a chance for you to restate your interest and how you can benefit the company. Your best bet is to by to time it so that the note gets there before the hiring: decision is made. You should also follow up with a phone call if you do not hear back from the employer within the specified time.

Question 6. The pronoun “it” refers to ________.

A. the job

B. the interview

C. the interviewer

D. the preparation

Question 7. What does the writer advise you to practice?

A. Asking and answering questions related to the job.

B. Making products that the company produces.

C. Providing services that the company serves.

D. Meeting some customers and competitors.

Question 8. Which should not be shown during your interview?

A. Punctuality

B. A firm hand shaking

C. Being properly-dressed

D. Weaknesses

Question 9. What shouldn’t you do to make the best impession?

A. listen actively

B. a firm hand shaking

C. being properly-dressed

D. weakness

Question 10. What does the employer look at to determine whether you are a good fit besides qualification?

A. experience

B. skills

C. qualities

D. all of them

Question 11. You can show your qualifications in the _________.

A. dressing style and punctuality

B. competing with the competitors

C. resume and letter of application

D. eye contact with the interviewer

Question 12. The word “key” is closest in meaning to _________.

A. unnessesary

B. important

C. unessential

D. properly

Question 13. Which is not included in the writer's advice?

A. You should not communicate with the interviewer after the interview.

B. You should make the best impression in the interview.

C. You should write a note to say thanks to the interviewer after the interview.

D. You should telephone the interviewer for any information after the interview.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

University Entrance Examination is very important to Vietnamese students. High school graduates have to take it and get high results to be admitted to universities. The pressure on the candidates remains very high despite the measures that have been taken to reduce the heat around these exams, since securing a place in a state university is considered a major step towards a successful career for young people, especially those from rural areas or disadvantaged families. In the year 2004, it was estimated that nearly 1 million Vietnamese students took the University Entrance Examination, but on average only 1 out of 5 candidates succeeded. Normally, candidates take 3 exam subjects, and each lasts 180 minutes for the fixed group of subjects they choose. There are 4 fixed groups of subjects: Group A: Mathematics, Physics, and Chemistry; Group B: Mathematics, Chemistry and Biology; Group C: Literature, History, and Geography; Group D: Literature, Foreign Language, and Mathematics.

In addition to universities, there are community colleges, art and technology institutes, professional secondary schools, and vocational schools which offer degrees or certificates from a-few-month to 2-year courses.

According to Vietnam’s Ministry of Education and Training, there are currently 23 non-public universities, accounting for 11% of the total number of universities. These non-public universities are currently training 119,464 students or 11.7% of the total number of students. The government is planning to increase the number of non-public universities to 30% by 2007.

Question 14. University Entrance Examination in Vietnam is very _________.

A. interesting

B. stressful

C. free

D. easy

Question 15. The word “those” refers to _________.

A. exam subjects

B. young people

C. universities

D. examinations

Question 16. In 2004, the proportion of the students who got success in University Entrance Examination was about _________ percent.

A. 5     B. 10     C. 20    D. 50

Question 17. Which sentence refers to the University Entrance Examination in Vietnam?

A. Students find it easy to get success in the University Entrance Examination.

B. Maths is compulsory in the University Entrance Examination.

C. Students are not allowed to choose their exam subjects.

D. There are four fixed groups of exam subjects for students to choose.

Question 18. The word “non-public” can be replaced by ________.

A. state

B. goverment

C. dependent

D. private

Question 19. Which sentence is NOT true to the passage?

A. Getting admitted to universities is very important for young people to achieve success in their job.

B. High school graduates don’t have to take any exam in order to get a place in a university

C. It takes more than 2 years to complete vocational courses.

D. More than 1 million VNese students took the University Entrance Exam in 2004.

Question 20. According to the passage ________.

A. the Vietnamese government will close all non-public universities by next year.

B. the Vietnamese government does not appreciate non-public universities

C. the Vietnamese government encourages the establishing of non-public universities.

D. Vietnamese students have no alternative to continue their higher study besides universities.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 21. The situation seems to be changing minute by minute.

A. from time to time

B. time after time

C. again and again

D. very rapidly

Question 22. Now I understand why you moved out of that house.

A. I am surprised

B. it frustrates me

C. I am intrigued

D. it makes sense to me

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 23. In my judgement, I think Hem is the best physicist among the scientists of the SEA region.

A.I think

B.the best

C.among

D.the SEA region.

Question 24. It is believed that in the near future robots will be used to doing things such as cooking.

A.It is believed

B.in the near future

C.be used to doing

D.cooking.

Question 25. Passengers are required to arrive to the gate fifteen minutes before departure time.

A.are required

B.arrive to

C.before

D.departure time

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 26. Unlike the other Asian states, Singapore has ________ raw materials.

A. Hardly any

B. any hardly

C. hardly no

D. hardly some

Question 27. They are conducting a wide _________ of surveys throughout VN.

A. Collection

B. range

C. selection

D. group

Question 28. What do you mean, he’s watching television? He’s ______ to be washing the car.

A. Supposed

B. hoped

C. expected

D. thought

Question 29. Dick tried to place the _______ on others for his mistakes.

A. Blame

B. denial

C. complaint

D. hurt

Question 30. It _______ out that the major had brided several councils to vote for him.

A. Resulted

B. pointed

C. broke

D. turned

---(Để xem tiếp nội dung của đề thi số 4 các em vui lòng xem tại online hoặc đăng nhập vào HỌC247 để tải về máy)---

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 4

1B	2A	3B	4D	5C
6B	7A	8D	9D	10D
11C	12B	13A	14B	15B
16C	17D	18D	19D	20C
21D	22D	23A	24C	25B
26A	27B	28D	29B	30D
31A	32A	33B	34B	35A
36C	37B	38D	39A	40A
41B	42B	43B	44D	45D
46A	47B	48C	49C	50B

ĐỀ THI HK1 MÔN TIẾNG ANH 12 NĂM 2022-2023 TRƯỜNG THPT LÝ NHÂN TÔNG - ĐỀ 05

I. Read the passage and choose the best answer for each question. (2đ)

Computer programmer David Jones earns £ 35, 000 a year designing new computer games, yet he can't find a bank prepared to let him have a cheque card. Instead, he has been told to wait another two years, until he is 18.

The 16-year-old boy works for a firm in Liverpool, where the problem of most young people of his age is finding a job. David's firm releases two new games for the expanding home computer market each month.

But David's highest headache is what to do with his money. Despite his salary, earned by inventing new programs within tight schedules, with bonus payments and profit-sharing, he can't drive a car, take out a mortage, or obtain credit cards. He lives with his parents in their council house in Liverpool, where his father is a bus driver. His company has to pay £150 a month in taxi fares to get him the five miles to work and back every day because David can't drive.

David got his job with the Liverpool-based company four months ago, a year after leaving school with six O-levels and working for a time in a computer shop." I got the job because the people who run the firm knew I had already written some programs," he said. David added:" I would like to earn a million and suppose early retirement is a possibility. You never know when the market might disappear,"

1. Why is David different from other young people at his age?

A. Because he lives at home with his parents.

B. Because he isn't unemployed

C. Because he earns an extremely high salary.

D. Because he doesn't go out much.

2. David's greatest problem is ……………………

A. making the bank treat him as an adult.

B. spending his salary.

C. inventing computer games.

D. learning to drive.

3. He was employed by the company because……………………………..

A. he had worked in a computer shop.

B. he had written some computer programs.

C. he works very hard.

D. he had learnt to use computers at school.

4. He left school after taking O-levels because ……………………….

A. he wanted to earn a lot of money.

B. he was afraid of getting too old to start computing.

C. he didn't enjoy school

D. he wanted to work with computers and staying at school did not help him.

II. Read the passage and choose the best answer to fill in each blank.(2đ)

Schooling is ……(5)…………. for all English children from the age of 5 to 16. The …(6)………… year in England runs from September to July and is divided …(7)…. 3 terms. Autumn term is from the beginning of September to mid- December. Spring term is from the beginning of January to mid-March and Summer term from early April to mid-July. Each term is separated by one-week ……(8)……. called half term.

5. A. optional	B. necessary	C. available	D. compulsory
6. A. All are correct	B. curriculum	C. academic	D. full
7. A. in	B. into	C. about	D. to
8. A. break	B. out	C. off	D. nap

III. Choose the best answer (6đ)

9. Peter: Can I speak to Hellen , please? Mary: ______________

A. Talking B. Answering C. Calling D. Speaking

10. Most students in the UK __________ around sixteen or seventeen start preparing for A-level exams.

A. age B. aged C. aging D. ages

11. If I had known that you were in hospital, I…………………you.

A. will have visited B. have visited C. would had visited D. would have visited

12………… I told the absolute truth, no one would believe me.

A. In spite of B. As C. Although D. But

13. She was completely ____ because she was wearing a mask and sunglasses.

A. unrecognizable B. recognition C. recognize D. recognizable

14. He ……..(just go) home when you …….(phone).

A. had just gone/ phoned B. has just gone/ phoned C. went/ phoned D. had just gone/ had phoned

15. Gold _____________in California in the nineteenth century.

A. discovered B. has been discovered C. is discovered D. was discovered

16. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the last.

A. offer B. copy C. course D. college

17. We enjoyed Mexico city, _____________ we spent our vacation.

A. which B. where C. Both B & D are correct D. in which

18. When I came, the room was in a terrible mess because someone ……………..in.

A. broke B. had broken C. has broken D. was broken

19. They _______ the rise in oil prices for the big increase in inflation.

A. challenged B. accused C. blamed D. thanked

20. Ann ……… to get to the carpet for the room but someone ……...it.

A. went/ has already taken

B. has gone/ had already taken

C. went/ had already taken

D. went/ taken

21. Before the interview , you should find out as much as possible about the job and the vacancy.

A. a seat that is available

B. a job that is available

C. a part of a newspaper where jobs are advertised

D. A $ B are correct

22. Unless she ___________, she will be late for school.

A. hurried B. doesn't hurry C. hurry D. hurries

23. John speaks Chinese fluently because he used to live in China for ten years.

A. Unless John had lived in China for ten years, he could have spoken Chinese fluently.

B. If John hadn't lived in China for ten years, he could not speak Chinese fluently.

C. Provided that John lived in China for ten years, he could speak Chinese fluently.

D. Suppose John has lived in China for ten years, he can speak Chinese fluently.

24. Choose the word whose main stress is different from the last.

A. shortcoming B. mathematics C. engineering D. economics

25. Which underlined part is NOT correct?

The first year (A) at college (B) was probably the best and (C) more challenging year (D) of my life.

26. ……….., he walked to the station.

A. Despite being tired B. Although to be tired C. In spite being tire D. Despite tired

27. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the last.

A. category B. applicant C. candidate D. academic

28. I got home late last night. Otherwise _______________________.

A. I would have called you B. I would call you C. I called you D. I could call you

29. More and more forests ____________ down for wood by man.

A. has cut B. have cut C. have been cut D. has been cut

30. ………… it was sunny, it was quite a cold day.

A. And B. Although C. Despite D. In spite of

---(Để xem tiếp nội dung của đề thi số 5 các em vui lòng xem tại online hoặc đăng nhập vào HỌC247 để tải về máy)---

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 5

Câu 1	C	Câu 11	D	Câu 21	B	Câu 31	B
Câu 2	B	Câu 12	C	Câu 22	D	Câu 32	C
Câu 3	B	Câu 13	A	Câu 23	B	Câu 33	B
Câu 4	D	Câu 14	A	Câu 24	A	Câu 34	B
Câu 5	D	Câu 15	D	Câu 25	C	Câu 35
Câu 6	C	Câu 16	C	Câu 26	A	Câu 36	D
Câu. 7	B	Câu 17	C	Câu 27	D	Câu 37	D
Câu 8	A	Câu 18	B	Câu 28	A	Câu 38	B
Câu 9	D	Câu 19	C	Câu 29	C	Câu 39	A
Câu 10	B	Câu 20	C	Câu 30	C	Câu 40	A

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