Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG năm 2021 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THPT Thống Nhất

BỘ 5 ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA MÔN TIẾNG ANH NĂM 2021

TRƯỜNG THPT THỐNG NHẤT

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 1: My friend is good at mimicking people. He ______ a great impression of Charlie Chaplin.

A. made                      B. did

C. took                        D. gave

Question 2: You can ask Matin anything about history. He actually has quite a good _____ for facts.

A. head                       B. understanding 

C. knowledge               D. ability

Question 3: His jokes seemed to ______ a treat with his audience, if their laughter was any indication.

A. go along                 B. go by

C. go off                     D. go down

Question 4: It was such a sad film that we all were reduced _______ tears at the end.

A. with                        B. onto 

C. to                            D. into

Question 5: _______ an emergency arise, call 911.

A. Should                    B. If 

C. Will                         D. Were

Question 6: The baby can't even sit up yet, ______ stand and walk!

A. but for                    B. let alone

C. all but                     D. rather than

Question 7: I don’t think that everyone likes the way he makes fun, ______?

A. don't I                    B. do I

C. don’t they              D. do they

Question 8: Unfortunately, the injury may keep him out of football _______. He may never play again.

A. for good                 B. now and then

C. once in a while       D. every so often

Question 9: The two cars for sale were in poor condition, so I didn't buy ______.

A. neither of them       B. either of them

C. each of them          D. none of them

Question 10: I used to ______ reading comics, but now I've grown out of it.

A. take a fancy to 

B. keep an eye on 

C. get a kick out of

D. kick up a fuss about

Question 11: The evidence suggests that single fathers ______ more likely to work than single mothers.

A. should be                B. must be 

C. be                           D. are

Question 12: Little Deon: “This herb smells horrible, mommy!”

Mommy: “______, it will do you a power of good.”

A. Come what may

B. By the by

C. What is more

D. Be that as it may

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 13: It’s not fair to put all the blame on him. He’s not the only one at fault.

A. He doesn't deserve to be blamed for everything as there were others involved.

B. He deserved to be punished, but the others don’t.

C. It wouldn't be right to punish those who, like him, were not involved.

D. Only the one who were involved should be punished.

Question 14: You will have to tell him about it in the end. The longer you put off doing so, the harder it’s going to be.

A. You can never keep things secret for long, so the best is to tell him about it soon.

B. Surely it’s better to let him know about it now than wait until he finds out for himself.

C. He will have to be notified about it, and the sooner the better.

D. You can’t keep him in the dark about it forever, and telling him will get harder the longer you wait.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 15:

A. technique                 B. gazelle

C. canal                       D. compass

Question 16:

A. informative              B. preservative

C. mandatory              D. compulsory

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 17:

A. smooth                   B. sunbath

C. youth                      D. cloth

Question 18:

A. rough                      B. touchy

C. southern                 D. coup

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 19:

We had about ten people helping (A) us carry our belongings to a van parking (B) outside when there was a sudden crash which made us turn round (C) to find the big mirror lying in pieces (D) on the ground.

Question 20:

You should take out (A) insurance for (B) your house from (C) any possible damage. Earthquakes sometimes occur (D) here.

Question 21:

In a famous experiment conducted (A) at University of Chicago (B) in 1983, rats kept (C) from sleeping died after two and a half weeks.(D)

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 22 to 26.

The invention of the mobile phone has undoubtedly revolutionized the way people communicate and influenced every aspect of our lives. The issue is whether this technological innovation has done more harm than good.

In order to (22)______ the question, we must first turn to the type of consumer. Presumably, most parents buy mobile phones for their teenagers to track their whereabouts and ensure their safety. We can also assume that most teenagers want mobile phones to avoid missing out (23)______ social contact. In this context, the advantages are clear. However, we cannot deny the fact that text messages have been used by bullies to intimidate fellow students. There is also (24)______ evidence that texting has affected literacy skills.

The ubiquitous use of the mobile phone has, (25)______ question, affected adult consumers, too. What employee, on the way home from work, would be reluctant to answer a call from their boss? Apparently, only 18% of us, according to a recent survey, are willing to switch off our mobile phones once we’ve left the office.

Admittedly, mobile phones can be intrusive but there are obvious benefits to possessing one. Personally speaking, they are invaluable when it comes to making social or business arrangements at short (26)______. According to a recent survey, they also provide their owners with a sense of security in emergency situations.

In conclusion, mobile phones do have their drawbacks, but these are outweighed by the benefits. I would argue that it is not the tool that chooses its purpose, but the user.

Question 22:

A. answer                   B. address

C. remedy                   D. put right

Question 23:

A. in                            B. to

C. of                            D. on

Question 24:

A. indisputable             B. arguable

C. doubtless                 D. unhesitating

Question 25:

A. out of                     B. without

C. beyond                   D. outside

Question 26:

A. time                          B. notice

C. term                        D. warning

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 27:   - John: “Oh, I forgot my girlfriend's birthday last week.” - Anne: “______.”

A. Not on your life. 

B. So I guess you are in the doghouse again.

C. Sure, knock on wood.  

D. You really should get a life.

Question 28:   - Porter: “I didn’t do too well on my final exams.”    - Mary: “______.”      

A. That's a shame!      

B. Don’t mention it!

C. What a drag!         

D. That will be the day!

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 29: The appeal was rejected by the committee, despite the fact that it had been signed by over 5,000 people.

A. application              B. petition 

C. permit                     D. form

Question 30: The children were full of beans today, looking forward to their field trip.

A. eating a lot

B. hyperactive

C. melancholy

D. lively and in high spirits

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 31: The device is very sophisticated and should only be operated by someone who is familiar with it.

A. crude                     B. advanced 

C. makeshift               D. archaic

Question 32: Relations between the two countries have improved considerably in the last few years.

A. abolish                   B. demolish  

C. diminish                 D. deteriorated

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions

Question 33: However much effort he put into it, he will never make a go of the business.

A. He’s a failure as an a businessman even though he’s extremely hardworking.

B. No matter how hard he tries, he won’t ever turn that business into a going concern.

C. The success of the business will depend upon the amount of hard work he puts into it.

D. Unless he is willing to make more of an effort, the business is never likely to be a success.

Question 34: The last time I saw Peter was when I ran into him at the station on my way to Glasgow.

A. I haven't seen Peter since a chance meeting with him at the station when I was setting off for Glasgow

B. The last time I went to Glasgow, I happened to meet Peter at the station.

C. When I last saw Peter at the station when I was on my way to Glasgow, I ran after him.

D. I finally saw Peter at the station when I was on my way to Glasgow.

Question 35: We got caught in a traffic jam so we were among the last to arrive at the cinema.

A. The traffic jam prevented us from getting to the cinema.

B. The traffic was so heavy that everybody arrived at the cinema late.

C. There was such a congestion on the road that nobody arrived at the cinema on time.

D. Most people get to the cinema before us as we were held up by the traffic jam.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions

All foods contain water - cabbage and other leaf vegetables contain as much as 93% water, potatoes and other root vegetables 80%, lean meat 75% and fish anything from 80% to 60% depending on how fatty it is. If this water is removed, the activity of the bacteria which cause food to go bad is checked.

   Fruit is sun-dried in Asia Minor, Greece, Spain and ot her Mediterranean countries, and also in California, South Africa and Australia. The methods used vary, but in general the fruit is spread out on trays in drying yards in the hot sun. In order to prevent darkening, pears, peaches and apricots are exposed to the fumes of burning sulphur before drying. Plums for making prunes, and certain varieties of grapes for making raisins and currants, are dipped in an alkaline solution in order to crack the skins of the fruit slightly and remove their wax coating, so increasing the rate of drying.

   Nowadays most foods are dried mechanically; the conventional method of such dehydration is to put food in chambers through which hot air is blown at temperatures of about 110°C at entry to about 45°C at exit. This is the usual method for drying such things as vegetables, minced meat, and fish.

   Liquids such as milk, coffee, tea, soups and eggs may  be dried by pouring them over a heated horizontal steel cylinder or by spraying them into a chamber through which a current of hot air passes. In the first case, the dried material is scraped off the roller as a thin film which is then broken up into small, though still relatively coarse flakes. In the second process it falls to the bottom of the chamber as a fine powder. Where recognizable pieces of meat and vegetables are required, as in soup, the ingredients are dried separately and then mixed.

   Dried foods take up less room and weigh less than the same food packed in cans  or frozen, and they do not need to be stored in special conditions. For these reasons they are invaluable to climbers, explorers and soldiers in battle, who have little storage space. They are also popular with housewives because it takes so little time to cook them.

Question 36: What is the main idea of the passage?

A. Advantages of dried foods.

B. Water: the main component of food.

C. Mechanization of drying foods.

D. Different methods of drying foods.

Question 37: The word “checked” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ______.

A. reduced considerably

B. put a tick

C. examined carefully

D. motivated to develop

Question 38: In the process of drying certain kinds of fruits, sulphur fumes help ______.

A. remove their wax coating 

B. kill off bacteria

C. maintain their color        

D. crack their skin

Question 39: Nowadays the common method for drying vegetables and minced meat is ______.

A. spreading them out on trays in drying yards

B. putting them in chambers and blowing hot air through

C. dipping them in an alkaline solution

D. pouring them over a heated horizontal steel cylinder

Question 40: What does the word “which”  in the fourth paragraph refer to?

A. Vegetables             B. Foods 

C. Things                    D. Chambers

Question 41: The final product of the process of drying liquids that uses the first method will be ______.

A. small flakes            

B. fine powder 

C. dried soup             

D. recognizable pieces

Question 42: According to the passage, dried foods are most useful for ______.

A. explorers who are underweight 

B. soldiers who are not in battle

C. people who are on the move 

D. housewives who have little storage space

Question 43: This passage is mainly ______.

A. argumentative        B. analytical 

C. informative             D. fictional

Read the following passage and mark the letter A B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions

Very few people, groups, or governments oppose globalization in its entirety. Instead, critics of globalization believe aspects of the way globalization operates should be changed. The debate over globalization is about what the best rules are for governing the global economy so that its advantages can grow while its problems can be solved.

            On one side of this debate are those who stress the benefits of removing barriers to international trade and investment, allowing capital to be allocated more efficiently and giving consumers greater freedom of choice. With free-market globalization, investment funds can move unimpeded from the rich countries to the developing countries. Consumers can benefit from cheaper products because reduced taxes make goods produced at low cost from faraway places cheaper to buy. Producers of goods gain by selling to a wider market. More competition keeps sellers on their toes and allows ideas and new technology to spread and benefit others.

            On the other side of the debate are critics who see neo-liberal policies as producing greater poverty, inequality, social conflict, cultural destruction, and environmental damage. They say that the most developed nations – the United States, Germany, and Japan – succeeded not because of free trade but because of protectionism and subsidies. They argue that the more recently successful economies of South Korea, Taiwan, and China all had strong state-led development strategies that did not follow neo-liberalism. These critics think that government encouragement of “infant industries” – that is, industries that are just beginning to develop – enables a country to become internationally competitive.

            Furthermore, those who criticize the Washington Consensus suggest that the inflow and outflow of money from speculative investors must be limited to prevent bubbles. These bubbles are characterized by the rapid inflow of foreign funds that bid up domestic stock markets and property values. When the economy cannot sustain such expectation, the bubbles burst as investors panic and pull their money out of the country.

            Protests by what is called the anti-globalization movement are seldom directed against globalization itself but rather against abuses that harm the rights of workers and the environment. The question raised by nongovernmental organizations and protesters at WTO and IMF gatherings is whether globalization will result in a rise of living standards or a race to the bottom as competition takes the form of lowering living standards and undermining environmental regulations.

            One of the key problems of the 21st century will be determining to what extent markets should be regulated to promote fair competition, honest dealing, and fair distribution of public goods on a global scale.

Question 44: Supporters of free-market globalization point out that

A. investment will be allocated only to rich countries  

B. taxes that are paid on goods will be increased

C. there will be less competition among producers   

D. consumers can benefit from cheaper products

Question 45: The word “allocated” in the passage mostly means

A. distributed               B. solved

C. removed                 D. offered

Question 46: The phrase “keeps sellers on their toes” in the passage mostly means

A. prevents sellers from selling new products

B. forces sellers to go bare-footed

C. makes sellers responsive to any changes

D. allows sellers to stand on their own feet

Question 47: According to critics of globalization, several developed countries have become rich because of

A. their help to developing countries 

B. their neo-liberal policies

C. their protectionism and subsidies  

D. their prevention of bubbles

Question 48: The word “undermining” in the passage mostly means

A. making less effective        

B. obeying 

C. observing               

D. making more effective

Question 49: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?

A. Critics believe the way globalization operates should be changed.

B. The anti-globalization movement was set up to end globalization.

C. Hardly anyone disapproves of globalization in its entirety.

D. Some Asian countries had strong state-led economic strategies.

Question 50: The debate over globalization is about how    

A. to spread ideas and strategies for globalization

B. to govern the global economy for the benefit of the community

C. to use neo-liberal policies for the benefit of the rich countries

D. to terminate globalization in its entirety

ĐÁP ÁN

1	2	3	4	5
B	A	D	C	A
6	7	8	9	10
B	D	A	B	C
11	12	13	14	15
D	D	A	C	D
16	17	18	19	20
C	A	D	A	B
21	22	23	24	25
B	A	D	B	A
26	27	28	29	30
B	B	A	B	D
31	32	33	34	35
A	D	B	A	D
36	37	38	39	40
D	A	C	B	D
41	42	43	44	45
A	C	C	D	A
46	47	48	49	50
C	C	A	B	B

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that need correction in each of the following questions

Question 1: Many hundred years ago (A), there were (B) many villages and little (C) towns in (D) England.

Question 2: Alike (A) light waves (B), microwaves may be (C) reflected and concentrated (D) elements.

Question 3: Many successful (A) film directions (B) are former (C) actors who desire to expand (D) their experience in the film industry.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

       Although the “lie detectors” are being used by governments, police departments, and businesses that all want guaranteed ways of detecting the truth, the results are not always accurate. Lie detectors are properly called emotion detectors, for their aim is to measure bodily changes that contradict what a person says. The polygraph machine records changes in heart rate, breathing, blood pressure, and the electrical activity of the skin (galvanic skin response, or GSR). In the first part of the polygraph test, you are electronically connected to the machine and asked a few neutral questions (“What is your name?”, “Where do you live?”). Your physical reactions serve as the standard (baseline) for evaluating what comes next. Then you are asked a few critical questions among the neutral ones (“When did you rob the bank?”). The assumption is that if you are guilty, your body will reveal the truth, even if you try to deny it. Your heart rate, respiration, and GSR will change abruptly as you respond to the incriminating questions.

       That is the theory; but psychologists have found that lie detectors are simply not reliable. Since most physical changes are the same across all emotions, machines cannot tell whether you are feeling guilty, angry, nervous, thrilled, or revved up form an exciting day. Innocent people may be tense and nervous about the whole procedure. They may react physiologically to a certain word (“bank”) not because they robbed it, but because they recently bounced a check. In either case the machine will record a “lie”. The reverse mistake is also common. Some practiced liars can lie without flinching, and others learn to beat the machine by tensing muscles or thinking about an exciting experience during neutral questions.

Question 4:  What is the main idea of this passage?

A. Lie detectors distinguish different emotions

B. Physical reaction reveal guilty

C. Lie detectors make innocent people nervous

D. How lie detectors are used and their reliability

Question 5:  According to the test, polygraph ________.

A. measure a person’s thoughts

B. always reveal the truth about a person

C. make guilty people angry     

D. record a person’s physical reactions

Question 6: According to the passage, what kind of questions is asked on the first part of the polygraph test?

A. incriminating                   

B. critical

C. emotional                       

D. unimportant

Question 7: The word “ones” in paragraph 1 refers to ______.

A. questions                           

B. reactions

C. standards                           

D. evaluations

Question 8: The word “it” in paragraph 1 refers to ______.

A. the question                       

B. your body

C. the assumption                   

D. the truth

Question 9: The word “assumption” in paragraph 1 could best be replaced with _____.

A. belief                        B. faith

C. statement                 D. imagining

Question 10:  This passage was probably written by a specialist in _____.

A. sociology                       

B. anthropology

C. criminal psychology       

D. mind reading

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to the following questions

Question 11:  The 26^th Annual Meeting of the Asia-Pacific Parliamentary Forum (APPF) ______ in Hanoi, our beautiful and peaceful capital city, from January 18^th  to 21^st, 2018

A. was held                          B. is held

C. is being held                    D. will be held

Question 12: The Meeting of Women Parliamentarians, a part of APPF-26, contributed to strengthening the presence and ______ of women parliamentarians and helping to forge a network connecting them together.

A. influenced                       

B. influencing

C. influence                        

D. influential

Question 13:  National Assembly Chairwoman Nguyen Thi Kim Ngan said that ______, a large number of women and girls in various areas in the world are being discriminated and subjected to violence.

A. though positive outcomes in gender equality and women empowerment

B. despite of positive outcomes in gender equality and women empowerment

C. in spite positive outcomes in gender equality and women empowerment

D. in spite of positive outcomes in gender equality and women empowerment

Question 14:  In the quarter-final showdown with Malaysia, Cho Jae-wan (Korea Republic) wrote himself into the history books when he found the back of the net just 11.35 seconds into the game – the second ______ goal in any AFC tournament.

A. latest                               

B. worst

C. best                                

D. fastest

Question 15:  Bob was absent; he _____ sick again.

A. shouldn’t have been

B. mustn’t have been

C. must have been

D. should have been

Question 16: Could you ______ me a lift into town?

A. give                    B. get

C. do                      D. make

Question 17: The lack of family support and the committee’s concerns around the design of the proposed statue of the former British Prime Minister, Margaret Thatcher, outside UK Parliament were the key determining factors in ________ this application.

A. breaking up                     

B. turning down

C. taking off                       

D. putting up

Question 18:  I think we’ve come in for a lot of _____ about the impatience of some shop assistants.

A. compliments                     

B. problems

C. complaints                         

D. criticism

Question 19:  Britain’s Prime Minister Theresa May was the first world leader ______ Trump at the White House after his inauguration last year.

A. visited                               

B. visiting

C. visit                                   

D. to visit

Question 20:  South African anti-apartheid veteran Winnie Madikizela-Mandela, ex-wife of late President Nelson Mandela, _______ in and out of hospital since 2016 for back and knee surgery.

A. has been being                     

B. has been

C. was                                     

D. had been

ĐÁP ÁN

1	2	3	4	5
C	A	B	D	D
6	7	8	9	10
D	A	D	A	C
11	12	13	14	15
A	C	D	D	C
16	17	18	19	20
A	B	C	D	B
21	22	23	24	25
A	D	A	B	B
26	27	28	29	30
C	C	A	A	C
31	32	33	34	35
B	C	B	A	C
36	37	38	39	40
A	C	A	B	D
41	42	43	44	45
D	B	C	B	B
46	47	48	49	50
B	A	D	D	A

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1.

A. pedal                        B. petrol

C. pretty                       D. petty

Question 2.

A. around                      B. south

C. souvenir                    D. thousand

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3.

A. postpone                 B. product

C. postcard                  D. purpose

Question 4.

A. economics               B. material

C. unpopular                D. delicious

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following question.

Question 5. Many citizens say that they are _____ of the political policies of the candidates in a local election.

A. ignorance                B. ignorantly

C. ignorant                   D. ignoring

Question 6. If he _____ the lesson yesterday, he could do the test better today.

A. has reviewed          B. had reviewed 

C. will review               D. reviewed

Question 7. Many people hate Mondays, saying that they really _____.

A. get over them          B. get down them 

C. get them over          D. get them down

Question 8. Their children _____ lots of new friends since they _____ to that town.

A. made/ have been moving

B. made/ are moving              

C. have made/ moved 

D. were making/ have moved

Question 9. Sometimes in a bad situation, there may still be some good things. Try not to “throw out the _____ with the bathwater”.

A. fish                         B. duck 

C. baby                       D. child

Question 10. There is no reason to _____ his honesty; he is absolutely sincere.

A. doubt                     B. ask

C. inquire                    D. search

Question 11. Ann hoped _____ to join the private club. She could make important business contact here.

A. being invited           B. to invite

C. to be invited           D. inviting

Question 12. Before I send this article to the editor, I’d be grateful if you could _____ it for me.

A. go through              B. break through

C. take over                D. look up

Question 13. By next year, my son will have _____ his education at Cambridge University.

A. realized                   B. completed   

C. graduated               D. terminated

Question 14. The problem needs to be _____ urgently, otherwise it will be too late.

A. addressed               B. focused

C. monitored               D. checked

Question 15. Tom looks so frightened and upset. He _____ something terrible.

A. should have experienced

B. must experience                 

C. can have experienced 

D. must have experienced

Question 16. There are so many _____ names now that it is impossible to remember them all.

A. brand                      B. model 

C. trademark               D. logo

Mark the letter A, B, C or D in your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 17. The Oxford Dictionary is well known for including many different meanings of words and to give real examples.

A. The                         B. well known

C. meanings                D. to give

Question 18. All the candidates for the scholarship will be equally treated regarding of their sex, age, or nationality.

A. candidates

B. scholarship

C. regarding 

D. nationality

Question 19. The assumption that smoking has bad effects on our health have been proved.

A. The                      B. that 

C. effects on             D. have

ĐÁP ÁN

1	2	3	4	5
C	C	A	A	C
6	7	8	9	10
B	D	C	C	A
11	12	13	14	15
C	A	B	A	D
16	17	18	19	20
A	D	C	D	D
21	22	23	24	25
B	D	A	C	C
26	27	28	29	30
B	D	B	C	D
31	32	33	34	35
A	A	D	D	B
36	37	38	39	40
D	A	D	B	B
41	42	43	44	45
B	C	B	A	B
46	47	48	49	50
A	C	C	B	A

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 1: The energy _______ from the sun is renewable and environmentally-friendly.

A. harnessing

B. is harnessed

C. which harnessed

D. harnessed

Question 2: We truly respected our father and always _______ by his rule.

A. submitted                           B. obeyed

C. complied                            D. abode

Question 3: The architects have made _______ use of glass and transparent plastic.

A. imaginative 

B. imagine

C. imagination

D. imaginatively

Question 4: Tom denied _______ part in the fighting at school.

A. to take                        B. take

C. to taking                      D. taking

Question 5: Your brother hardly talks to anyone, _______?

A. does he                         B. is he 

C. doesn’t he                     D. isn’t he

Question 6: Pesticide residues in fruit and vegetable can be _______ to health.

A. crucial

B. supportive

C. receptive

D. destructive

Question 7: You looked exhausted. I think you’ve _______ more than you can handle.

A. turned on                  B. taken up

C. turned up                  D. taken on

Question 8: Only after she had finished the course did she realize she _______ a wrong choice.

A. had made

B. has made

C. had been making

D. was making

Question 9: It ______ Sue that you saw last night. She’s abroad with her family.

A. should have been

B. must have been

C. can’t have been

D. needn’t have been

Question 10: If Paul _______ a job now, he wouldn’t be so unhappy.

A. has                           B. has had

C. had                           D. would have

Question 11: The wine had made him a little _______ and couldn’t control his movement.

A. narrow-minded

B. light-headed

C. light-footed

D. light-hearted

Question 12: You need to make ______ about what course to take at university.

A. a decision                     B. a fortune 

C. a guess                         D. an impression

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 13: Mike an Joe are talking about transport in the future.

                        - Mike: “Do you think there will be pilotless planes?” – Joe: “_____”

A. I’m afraid I can’t.

B. What for? There are quite a few around.

C. Why not? There have been cars without drivers.

D. I’m glad you like it.

Question 14: Julie and Ann are talking about their classmate.

                        - Julie: “_______”       -           Ann: “Yeah, not bad, I suppose.”

A. Do you see him often?

B. What are you thinking?

C. How did you meet him?

D. He is quite good-looking, isn’t he?

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 15: The way the care-taker treated those little children was deplorable. She must be punished for what she did.

A. respectable                 B. unacceptable 

C. mischievous                D. satisfactory

Question 16: My parent’ warnings didn’t deter me from choosing the job of my dreams.

A. influence                     B. discourage

C. reassure                     D. inspire

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 17:

A. quality                       B. solution 

C. compliment               D. energy

Question 18:

A. angry                       B. complete 

C. polite                        D. secure

ĐÁP ÁN

1	2	3	4	5
D	D	A	D	A
6	7	8	9	10
D	B	A	C	C
11	12	13	14	15
B	A	C	D	B
16	17	18	19	20
B	B	A	D	C
21	22	23	24	25
A	D	D	A	C
26	27	28	29	30
D	B	A	A	A
31	32	33	34	35
C	C	C	D	D
36	37	38	39	40
A	B	C	B	C
41	42	43	44	45
B	B	B	A	C
46	47	48	49	50
A	B	B	A	C

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 1:     

A. dramatic                 B. entertain

C. employee                D. musician

Question 2:    

A. occur                      B. prefer

C. apply                      D. surface

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet io indicate word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 3:    

A. suggest                   B. survive

C. support                   D. summer

Question 4:    

A. extended                B. skipped

C. looked                    D. watched

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 

Question 5: We've had _________ problems with our new computer that we had to send it back to the shop.

A. so                            B. such

C. enough                    D. too

Question 6: Dawn's thinking of setting ________ a social club for local disabled people.

A. out                          B. in

C. up                            D. off

Question 7: Mr. Putin won a fourth term as Russia's president, picking up more than three-quarters of the vote with _________ of more than 67 percent.

A. an outcome             B. a turnup

C. a turnout                 D. an output 

Question 8: His work ________ new ground in the treatment of cancer. It is now giving many cancer victims hope of complete recovery. 

 A. broke                      B. found

C. dug                          D. uncovered

Question 9: We like ________ policies.

A. American recent economic

B. recent American economic

C. recent economic American

D. economic recent American

Question 10: She worked here for a while then _________ afternoon she just quit and left. 

A. an                           B. one

C. the                          D. Ø

Question 11: DNA tests ________ accepted in court eases.

A. are known              B. were used

C. have been               D. will have

Question 12: The disavantaged should be cared for by _______.

A. the wealth              B. wealth

C. the wealthy             D. wealthier

Question 13: Why not ________ the meeting until Thursday morning?

A. postpone

B. postponing

C. you postpone

D. do you postpone 

Question 14: You're 18! You ________ to be able to look after yourself by now.

A. are advisable          B. expect

C. suppose                  D. will have 

Question 15: I was very sad when the vet said he'd have to ________ Gertie, our lapdog.

A. put down                B. feel up to

C. pull through             D. wear off

Question 16: It is said that a drizzle on the Phap Van - Cau Gie Expressway caused poor______ and slippery road surface, leading to the vehicles, traveling at high speed, unable to respond safely.

A. vision                      B. view

C. visibility                   D. visionary

ĐÁP ÁN

1	2	3	4	5
B	D	D	A	B
6	7	8	9	10
C	C	A	B	C
11	12	13	14	15
C	C	A	D	A
16	17	18	19	20
C	D	B	B	A
21	22	23	24	25
C	B	D	A	B
26	27	28	29	30
C	C	B	B	D
31	32	33	34	35
D	B	B	C	C
36	37	38	39	40
D	B	A	D	B
41	42	43	44	45
D	A	B	B	A
46	47	48	49	50
A	B	B	D	C

---

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