Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG năm 2021 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THPT Nguyễn Hữu Cảnh

BỘ 5 ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA MÔN TIẾNG ANH NĂM 2021

TRƯỜNG THPT NGUYỄN HỮU CẢNH

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1.

A. expands                       B. installs 

C. swallows                       D. rejects

Question 2.

A. purpose                         B. compose

C. suppose                         D. propose 

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3.

A. compulsory                 B. certificate 

C. category                      D. accompany

Question 4.

A. decent                    B. secure

C. maintain                 D. confide

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following question.

Question 5. I _____ the garden. No sooner had I finished watering it than it came down in torrents.

A. shouldn’t have watered  

B. mustn’t have watered

C. can’t have watered   

D. needn’t have watered

Question 6. A true relationship is thought to be a friendship that may _____ through changes in the lives of the friends.

A. entail                       B. remain

C. endure                    D. continue

Question 7. I’m not going to go ice skating! I’d only fall over and _____ a fool of myself.

A. create                      B. show

C. do                            D. make

Question 8. Silence _____ the theatre as the audience awaited the opening curtain with expectation and excitement.

A. fell in with                B. came between

C. hung over                D. dropped out of

Question 9. The scientists _____ on this project try to find the solutions to air pollution.

A. working                       B. worked

C. are working                 D. who working

Question 10. If Nam had passed the GCSE examination, he _____ to take the entrance examination to the university.

A. would have been allowed

B. would have allowed

C. will have allowed

D. would allow

Question 11. When the kids asked him about his girlfriend, he’d go as red as a _____.

A. tomato                     B. chili

C. strawberry                D. beetroot

Question 12. My brothers are often very ____ to what I say. They are really lovable.

A. obedience                B. obedient

C. obey                         D. obstacle

Question 13. I must warn you I am not used to _____ so rudely

A. speak                         B. be spoken 

C. speak to me               D. being spoken to

Question 14. He is tired now. He _____ the gardening for hours.

A. has done                   B. is doing 

C. did                             D. has been doing

Question 15. Let me explain everything to you, _____?

A. shall we                      B. will you 

C. will we                        D. do you

Question 16. The trouble with James is that he never _____ on time for a meeting.

A. turns up                   B. takes off 

C. takes up                  D. turns down

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 17. As orders are becoming more and more, we’ve been rushed off our feet all week.

A. very angry                   B. very busy 

C. very worried                D. very happy

Question 18. The atomic bomb annihilated the whole city, so nothing was left standing.

A. disturbed                     B. constructed  

C. converted                    D. destroyed

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 19. The minister came under fire for his rash decision to close the factory.

A. was dismissed            B. was acclaimed 

C. was criticized              D. was penalized

Question 20. Those who advocate for doctor-assisted suicide say the terminally ill should not have to suffer.

A. support                               B. oppose 

C. annul                                  D. convict

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 21. Mr. Collin is speaking to his student, Brian.

Mr. Collin: “You’ve been making very good progress. I’m proud of you!”

Brian: “_____”

A. No problem

B. Don’t worry about it!

C. Everything’s alright. Thank you.  

D. I really appreciate you saying that.

Question 22. Peter: “Could you fill it up, please?”

Ivan: “_____”

A. Sure. Shall I check the oil as well?

B. Not at all. I’ll fill the oil for you.

C. Certainly. My job is to fill in the application. 

D. Where? Of course not.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 23. People say that at least ten applicants have been selected for the job interview.

A. It is said that well over ten people are interested in having an interview for the job.

B. It is said that no fewer than ten people are going to be interviewed for the job.

C. People say that fewer than ten job interviews have been held so far.

D. I have heard that only ten people have been chosen to have the job interviewed.

Question 24. Eating with chopsticks feels strange to Jonathan.

A. Eating with chopsticks isn’t what Jonathan used to.       

B. Jonathan is not used to eating with chopsticks.                            

C. Not feeling strange, Jonathan tries eating with chopsticks.                      

D. Jonathan didn’t use to eat with chopsticks.

Question 25. “Why don’t you have your room repainted?” said Robert to Lan.

A. Robert suggested having Lam’s room repainted.

B. Robert asked Lam why you didn’t have your room repainted.

C. Robert wanted to know why Lam doesn’t have his room repainted.

D. Robert suggested that Lam should have his room repainted.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 26. In your country, schools are open to all. The accept children of any race, color or creed.

A. In our country, schools are open to all children irrespective of race, color or creed.

B. In our country, schools are open to all children except for race, color or creed.

C. Apart from  race, color or creed, schools are open to all children in your country.

D. Children of any race, color or creed can be admitted to our schools when they are opened.

Question 27. He felt very tired. He was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.

A. He felt so tired that he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.

B. Feeling very tired, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.

C. Tired as he might, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.

D. As result of his tiredness, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D in your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 28. Thomas refused to join the school basketball team, this was not good news at all.

A. to join                     B. school

C. this                         D. good

Question 29. I am now in my attempt winning a place at the same university to my brother.

A. now in                      B. winning 

C. at the same              D. to

Question 30. However type of raw materials is used in making paper, the process is essentially the same.

A. However                  B. is used

C. paper                       D. essentially

Read the following passage and mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the blanks.

     British families started going on holiday to the seaside around the middle of the 19th century. The invention of the railways made this possible. The first holidaymakers were quite rich and went for their health and education. The seaside was a place to be (31) ______ of illnesses, and doctors recommended bathing in the sea and drinking sea water. Also to increase their knowledge, families attended concerts and read books from libraries.

    At that time, ordinary working people had very little time (32) ______. However, in 1871, the government introduce four “Bank Holidays” – national holiday days. This allowed people to have a day or two out, which now and then gave them a taste for leisure and the seaside. At first they went on day-trips, taking (33) ______ of special cheap tickets on the railways. By the 1880s, rising incomes meant many ordinary workers and their families could have a week’s holiday at the seaside. Rail fares were reduced and cheap hotels were built to (34) ______ them. Holidaymakers enjoyed being idle, sitting on the beach, bathing in the sea, and eating ice-cream. Cheap entertainment was (35) ______ offer and holidaymakers went to have fun.

       Today, the English seaside remained popular, with more than 18 million holidays taken there each year.

Question 31.

A. recovered                 B. cured  

C. improved                   D. remedied

Question 32.

A. out                            B. off 

C. from                          D. away

Question 33.

A. opportunity              B. benefit 

C. profit                       D. advantage

Question 34.

A. cater                         B. board 

C. lodge                         D. accommodate

Question 35.

A. for                            B. on

C. in                              D. to

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

    William Sydney Porter (1862-1910), who wrote under the pseudonym of O. Henry, was born in North Carolina. His only formal education was to attend his Aunt Lina’s school until the age of fifteen, where he developed his lifelong love of books. By 1881 he was a licensed pharmacist. However, within a year, on the recommendation of a medical colleague of his Father’s, Porter moved to La Salle County in Texas for two years herding sheep. During this time, Webster’s Unabridged Dictionary was his constant companion, and Porter gained a knowledge of ranch life that he later incorporated into many of his short stories. He then moved to Austin for three years, and during this time the first recorded use of his pseudonym appeared, allegedly derived from his habit of calling “Oh, Henry” to a family cat. In 1887, Porter married Athol Estes. He worked as a draftsman, then as a bank teller for the First National Bank.

      In 1894 Porter founded his own humor weekly, the “Rolling Stone”, a venture that failed within a year, and later wrote a column for the Houston Daily Post. In the meantime, the First National Bank was examined, and the subsequent indictment of 1886 stated that Porter had embezzled funds. Porter then fled to New Orleans, and later to Honduras, leaving his wife and child in Austin. He returned in 1897 because of his wife’s continued ill-health, however she died six months later. Then, in 1898 Porter was found guilty and sentenced to five years imprisonment in Ohio. At the age of thirty five, he entered prison as a defeated man; he had lost his job, his home, his wife, and finally his freedom. He emerged from prison three years later, reborn as O. Henry, the pseudonym he now used to hide his true identity. He wrote at least twelve stories in jail, and after re-gaining his freedom, went to New York City, where he published more than 300 stories and gained fame as America’s favorite short Story writer. Porter married again in 1907, but after months of poor health, he died in New York City at the age of forty-eight in 1910. O. Henry’s stories have been translated all over the world.

Question 36. According to the passage, Porter’s Father was _____.

A. the person who gave him a life-long love of books          

B. a medical doctor

C. a licensed pharmacist

D. responsible for his move to La Salle County in Texas

Question 37. Why did the author write the passage?

A. to outline the career of a famous American

B. because of his fame as America’s favorite short story writer

C. because it is a tragic story of a gifted writer

D. to outline the influences on O. Henry’s writing

Question 38. The word “imprisonment” in paragraph 2 is closet in meaning to ____________.

A. captivity                     B. escape

C. insult                         D. punishment

Question 39. What is the passage primarily about?

A. The life and career of William Sydney Porter.

B. The way to adopt a nickname.

C. O.Henry’s influence on American literature.

D. The adventures of O.Henry.

Question 40. The author implies which of the following is true?

A. Porter’s wife might have lived longer if he had not left her in Austin when he fled.

B. Porter was in poor health throughout his life.

C. O. Henry is as popular in many other countries as he is in America.

D. Porter would probably have written less stories if he had not been in prison for three years.

Question 41. Which of the following is true, according to the passage?

A. Porter left school at 15 to become a pharmacist

B. Porter wrote a column for the Houston Daily Post called “Rolling Stone”                      

C. The first recorded use of his pseudonym was in Austin                                       

D. Both of Porter’s wives died before he died

Question 42. The word “pseudonym” in the passage refers to _____.

A. William Sydney Porter

B. O. Henry 

C. Athol Estes

D. the Aunt Lina

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

INTERNET JOBS

     Contrary to popular belief, one does not have to be a trained programmer to work online. Of course, there are plenty of jobs available for people with high-tech computer skills, but the growth of new media has opened up a wide range of Internet career opportunities requiring only a minimal level of technical expertise. Probably one of the most well-known online job opportunities is the job of Webmaster. However, it is hard to define one basic job description for this position. The qualifications and responsibilities depend on what tasks a particular organization needs a Webmaster to perform.

      To specify the job description of a Webmaster, one needs to identify the hardware and software the website the Webmaster will manage is running on. Different types of hardware and software require different skill sets to manage them. Another key factor is whether the website will be running internally or externally (renting shared space on the company servers). Finally, the responsibilities of a webmaster also depend on whether he or she will be working independently, or whether the firm will provide people to help. All of these factors need to be considered before one can create an accurate webmaster job description.

    Webmaster is one type of Internet career requiring in-depth knowledge of the latest computer applications. However, there are also online jobs available for which traditional skills remain in high demand. Content jobs require excellent writing skills and a good sense of the web as a “new media’.

    The term “new media” is difficult to define because it compasses a constantly growing set of new technologies and skills. Specifically, it includes websites, email, internet technology, CD-ROM, DVD, streaming audio and video, interactive multimedia presentations, e-books, digital music, computer illustration, video games, virtual reality, and computer artistry.

    Additionally, many of today’s Internet careers are becoming paid-by-the-job professions. With many companies having to downsize in tough economic items, the outsourcing and contracting of freelance workers online has become common business practice. The Internet provides an infinite pool of buyers from around the world with whom freelancers can contract their services. An added benefit to such online jobs is that freelancers are able to work on projects with companies outside their own country.

    How much can a person make in these kinds of careers? As with many questions related to today’s evolving technology, there is no simple answer. There are many companies willing to pay people with Internet skills salaries well over $70,000 a year. Generally, webmasters start at about $30,000 per year, but salaries can vary greatly. Freelance writers working online have been known to make between $40,000 to $70,000 a year.

Question 43. Which of the followings is true about the job of the freelance writers?

A. They may work with others in the company.

B. It is considered a “content” job.   

C. They manage hardware and software.

D. They require in-depth knowledge of applications.

Question 44. The word “vary” in paragraph 6 can be best replaced by _________

A. decrease                             B. change

C. differ                                    D. increase

Question 45. It can be inferred from the passage that _________.

A. only skilled workers make good money.

B. online workers can work full-time online.

C. it is easy to become a webmaster.

D. workers with limited computer skills can not work online.

Question 46. According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE of webmasters?

A. They never work independently.

B. The duties they perform depend on the organization they work for.

C. They require a minimal level of expertise.

D. They do not support software products.

Question 47. What is the purpose of the passage?

A. To inform people about the tasks and the roles of a webmaster.

B. To inform people about employment related to the Internet.

C. To inform people about the computer industry.

D. To explain why webmasters make a lot of money.

Question 48. According to the passage, all of the followings are TRUE except _________.

A. Webmasters must have knowledge of the latest computer applications.

B. Online workers can not free themselves from the office.

C. “New media” is not easy to define.

D. There are online jobs available for workers with minimal computer skills.

Question 49. Which of the followings is not mentioned as part of the “new media”?

A. Internet technology

B. writing skills

C. websites

D. video games

Question 50. The word “identify” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to __________.

A. name                                 B. discover

C. encounter                          D. estimate

ĐÁP ÁN

1	2	3	4	5
D	A	C	A	D
6	7	8	9	10
B	D	C	A	A
11	12	13	14	15
D	B	D	D	A
16	17	18	19	20
A	B	D	C	B
21	22	23	24	25
D	B	B	B	D
26	27	28	29	30
A	C	C	D	A
31	32	33	34	35
B	B	D	D	B
36	37	38	39	40
B	A	A	A	C
41	42	43	44	45
C	B	B	C	B
46	47	48	49	50
C	B	B	B	A

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 1. Only their own mother can tell Simon and Mike apart.

A. No one other than their own mother can separate Simon and Mike.

B. Simon and Mike bear some resemblance to each other.

C. It's very difficult to distinguish Simon and Mike.

D. Except for their own mother, no one can talk to Simon and Mike.

Question 2. "How beautiful is the dress you have just bought!" Peter said to Mary.

A. Peter promised to buy Mary a beautiful dress.

B. Peter said thanks to Mary for her beautiful dress.

C. Peter asked Mary how she had just bought her beautiful dress.

D. Peter complimented Mary on her beautiful dress.

Question 3. Those who are riding a motorbike are not allowed to take off their helmet.

A. People must never take their helmet off while they are riding a motorbike.

B. Those who are wearing a helmet are not allowed to ride a motorbike.

C. It is the helmet that one needn't wear when he is riding a motorbike

D. You should not wear a helmet when you are riding a motorbike.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 4. Exemplification is always necessary when you are addressing a younger audience.

A. illustration              B. variation 

C. simplification          D. exaggeration

Question 5. When heated to temperatures above 1250 degrees Centigrade, clay fuses and becomes pottery or stoneware.

A. melts together        B. steams up

C. breaks down           D. burns off

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 6. Steve______his chances of passing by spending too much time on the first question.

A. threw away                        B. threw in 

C. threw off                            D. threw out

Question 7. By the time Brown's daughter graduates,_______retired.

A. he'll have                            B. he 

C. he'll being                           D. he has

Question 8. Nobody likes his behavior,______?

A. doesn’t he                          B. do they  

C. don't they                           D. does he

Question 9. ______ ten minutes earlier, you would have got a better seat.

A. Were you arrived

B. If you arrived

C. If you hadn't arrived

D. Had you arrived

Question 10. After congratulating his team, the coach left, allowing the players to let their ______ down for a while.

A. hearts                                  B. hair 

C. souls                                   D. heads

Question 11. Extinction means a situation ______ a plant, an animal or a way of life stops existing.

A. to which                             B. for which

C. on which                            D. in which

Question 12. Making mistake is all ________ of growing up.

A. bits and bobs              B. odds and ends

C. part and parcel            D. top and bottom

Question 13. The judge ______ murderer to a lifetime imprisonment.

A. prosecuted                         

B. sentenced 

C. convicted                          

D. accused

Question 14. When my children _____  their toys, I donated them to a charity.

A. outnumbered                      B. outworn

C. outlasted                            D. outgrew

Question 15. The song has______been selected for the 2018 World Cup, Russia.

A. office                                 B. officer

C. officially                             D. official

Question 16. Alice said: “That guy is______ gorgeous. I wish he would ask rne out.”

A. dead-centre                    B. drop shot  

C. jumped-up                      D. drop-dead

Question 17. This factory produced_______motorbikes in 2008 as in the year 2006.

A. as many as twice 

B. as twice many                    

C. twice as many       

D. as twice as many

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 18. The continental shelf (A) is the shadow area (B) of the ocean floor (C) that is closest to (D) the continents.

Question 19. She had so many (A) luggage that there was (B) not enough room (C) in the car for it.(D)

Question 20. Her application for a visa (A) was turned down (B) not only because it was incomplete (C) and incorrectly filled out but also because it was written in pencil.(D)

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 21.

A. energetic                B. epidemic 

C. initiative                 D. economic

Question 22.

A. expert                       B. mature 

C. channel                   D. secret

ĐÁP ÁN

1	2	3	4	5
C	D	A	A	A
6	7	8	9	10
A	A	B	D	B
11	12	13	14	15
D	C	B	D	C
16	17	18	19	20
D	C	D	A	C
21	22	23	24	25
C	B	B	A	B
26	27	28	29	30
D	C	D	D	B
31	32	33	34	35
B	B	C	A	C
36	37	38	39	40
C	A	B	D	D
41	42	43	44	45
B	C	D	B	C
46	47	48	49	50
B	A	A	A	C

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE  in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following question.

Question 1: The mountainous region of the country is thinly populated. It has only 300 inhabitants.

A. sparsely                   B. greatly

C. densely                    D. largely

Question 2: Josh may get into hot water when driving at full speed after drinking.

A. get into trouble                  

B. stay safe                

C. fall into disuse       

D. remain calm

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following question.

Question 3: This company's new products have tripled its profits in only one year.

A. The company has greatly increased the number of new products.

B. The company has increased its profits 100 percent

C. The company’s profits are three times higher this year than last year.

D. The company has had an unprofitable year.

Question 4: Viet Nam carried out an intensive training program for its athletes, but the results were not as high as expected.

A. There is no expectation for Vietnamese athletes to win due to lack of training.

B. Whereas Vietnamese athletes were intensively trained, their performance was below expectation.

C. Vietnamese athletes were intensively trained carefully, and they won all the matches.

D. It might not be possible for Vietnamese athletes to get good results because their training was not careful.

Question 5: Though he had known about it well in advance, he pretended to be surprised at having a birthday party.

A. He acted surprised about being given a birthday party, but he had known about it a long time before

B. Despite only pretending to be surprised at the birthday party, he had actually been completely unaware of it.

C. He knew about the birthday party a long time before, yet he wasn't pretending when he acted surprised.

D. He was quite surprised at their throwing him a birthday party, though he could have found out it well before.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 6: Smallpox is a dangerous disease. Malaria is a dangerous disease.

A. Smallpox is a dangerous disease, and so is malaria.

B. Malaria is a dangerous disease, but smallpox is not.

C. Neither smallpox nor malaria is a dangerous disease.

D. Either smallpox or malaria is a dangerous disease.

Question 7: The dogs watch the chicken coop. The dogs protect the chickens from wolves.

A. Protecting the chickens from wolves, the dogs watch the chicken coop from them.

B. They protect the chickens from wolves as the dogs watch the chicken coop.

C. The dogs watch the chicken coop to protect the chickens from wolves.

D. Watching the chicken coop because the dogs protect chickens from wolves.

Read the following pasage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions

Any list of the greatest thinkers in history contains the name of the brilliant physicist Albert Einstein. His theories of relativity led to entirely new ways of thinking about time, space, matter, energy, and gravity. Einstein's work led to such scientific advances as the control of atomic energy, even television as a practical application of Einstein's work.

In 1902 Einstein became an examiner in the Swiss patent office at Bern. In 1905, at age 26, he published the first of five major research papers. The first one provided a theory explaining Brownian movement, the zig-zag motion of microscopic particles in suspension. The second paper laid the foundation for the photon, or quantum, theory of light. In it he proposed that light is composed of separate packets of energy, called quanta or photons, that have some of the properties of particles and some of the properties of waves. A third paper contained the "special theory of relativity" which showed that time and motion are relative to the observer, if the speed of light is constant and the natural laws are the same everywhere in the universe. The fourth paper was a mathematical addition to the special theory of relativity. Here Einstein presented his famous formula, E = m(cc), known as the energy mass equivalence. In 1916, Einstein published his general theory of relativity. In it he proposed that gravity is not a force, but a curve in the space-time continuum, created by the presence of mass.
Einstein spoke out frequently against nationalism, the exalting of one nation above all others. He opposed war and violence and supported Zionism, the movement to establish a Jewish homeland in Palestine. When the Nazis came to power in 1933, they denounced his ideas. He then moved to the United States. In 1939 Einstein learned that two German chemists had split the uranium atom. Einstein wrote to President Franklin D. Roosevelt warning him that this scientific knowledge could lead to Germany developing an atomic bomb. He suggested the United States begin its own atomic bomb research.

Question 8: According to the passage l, Einstein's primary work was in the area of

A. chemistry                B. biology 

C. physics                   D. math

Question 9: Which of the following inventions is mentioned in the passage as a practical application of Einstein's discoveries?

A. Radio                     B. Television

C. Automobiles           D. Computer

Question 10: According to the passage, Einstein supported all of the following except

A. nationalism

B. the establishment of a Jewish homeland in Palestine

C. atomic bomb research in the United States.

D. the defeat of the Nazis.

Question 11: According to the passage in which country did Einstein live in 1930s?

A. Switzerland                       

B. the United States  

C. Germany               

D. Israel

Question 12: The word “exalting”  in the passage is closest in meaning to              

A. criticism                  B. elimination

C. support                   D. elevation

Question 13: It is clear from the tone of the passage that the author feels

A. Einstein's work in physics was somewhat tarnished by his conservative political views.

B. Einstein's work in physics, though theoretically impressive, led to few practical applications.

C. Albert Einstein was one of the most brilliant thinkers in history.

D. Einstein's theories have been consistently proven incorrect.

Question 14: According to Einstein, light is composed of separate packets of energy called

A. electrons                 B. photoelectrons

C. gamma rays            D. quanta

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of ther following questions.

Question 15: Thomas knows Paris like the back of his_____. He used to be a taxi driver there for 2 years.

A. head                       B. mind

C. hand                       D. life

Question 16: Despite playing under strength, our football team, U23 Viet Nam, _______ beat their rivals such as Qatar and Iraq.

A. could                      B. couldn't

C. weren't able to        D. were able to

Question 17: Neil Armstrong was the first man _______ on the moon.

A. walking                  B. has walked

C. to walk                   D. walked

Question 18: When the light _______, we couldn’t see anything.

A. came off                 B. put out

C. switched off           D. went out

Question 19: I will manage to _______ the problems and find the solution for you as soon as possible.

A. take out                  B. bring out

C. get out                    D. sort out

Question 20: It was not until he took off his dark glasses _______ I realized he was a famous film star.

A. as                            B. that

C. though                    D. since

ĐÁP ÁN

1	2	3	4	5
C	B	C	B	A
6	7	8	9	10
A	C	C	B	A
11	12	13	14	15
B	D	C	D	C
16	17	18	19	20
D	C	D	D	B
21	22	23	24	25
C	A	B	D	A
26	27	28	29	30
B	C	B	D	C
31	32	33	34	35
A	C	B	B	C
36	37	38	39	40
A	B	A	B	B
41	42	43	44	45
A	B	D	D	A
46	47	48	49	50
B	D	B	C	B

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 1: She said she had a headache. Otherwise, she ______ in the dance.

A. joined                    

B. had joined

C. would join 

D. would have joined

Question 2: I _______ the living room by the time Dad comes home. He will be surprised.

A. will paint               

B. am painting            

C. have painted          

D. will have painted

Question 3: Margaret would prefer ______ books rather than see their screen adaptations.

A. to read             B. reading

C. read                 D. having read

Question 4: Nobody was harmed in the fire, _____?

A. was he                   

B. wasn't he               

C. were they              

D. weren't they

Question 5: Tim's parents ______ happy when knowing his poor academic results at school.

A. mustn't have been 

B. needn't have been

C. shouldn't have been  

D. can't have been

Question 6: An international menu _____ a variety of food can attract most of the tourists.

A. offered                   B. offering

C. which offer            D. is offered

Question 7: Not ______ on such a hot day, the beach was crowded.

A. surprise                   B. surprised

C. surprising                D. surprisingly

Question 8: She ______ herself on cooking Vietnamese traditional dishes.

A. focuses                   B. motivates

C. congratulates          D. prides

Question 9: In the hands of a careless female driver, a LEAD motorbike may become a _____ weapon.

A. fatal                        B. mortal

C. lethal                      D. deathly

Question 10: Sealing food in an ______ jar starves the bacteria of oxygen and they are unable to reproduce.

A. airborne                  B. airtight 

C. air-dash                  D. air-drop

Question 11: Tom was heartbroken after the failure in the recent match; don't____ salt to the wound by mentioning the match again.

A. put                          B. add

C. rub                          D. mop

Question 12: The lecture was so boring that the students finally ______ and started daydreaming.

A. put down                B. taken off

C. turned off               D. turned down

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges:

Question 13: The taxi driver and Ann are at the airport.

Taxi driver: "_______?" - Ann: "28 Croydon Road, Maryland."

A. Have you got a job? 

B. Where are you from?

C. Could you tell me your name?  

D. What's your address, please?

Question 14: John is broke, and he is going to borrow some money from Laura.

- John: “Have you got any money left?” – Laura: “Unfortunately, __________.”

A. none of all             

B. nothing of all         

C. not even a few      

D. none whatsoever

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Sophia is a social humanoid robot developed by Hong Kong-based company Hanson Robotics. She has been designed to learn and adapt to human behavior and work with humans and has been interviewed around the world. In October 2017, she became a Saudi Arabian citizen, the first robot to receive citizenship of a country.

According to herself, Sophia was activated on April 19, 2015. She is modeled after actress Audrey Hepburn, and is known for her human-like appearance and behavior compared to previous robotic variants. According to the manufacturer, David Hanson, Sophia has artificial intelligence, visual data processing and facial recognition. Sophia also imitates human gestures and facial expressions and is able to answer certain questions and to make simple conversations on predefined topics (e.g. on the weather). The robot uses voice recognition technology from Alphabet Inc. (parent company of Google) and is designed to get smarter over time. The AI program analyses conversations and extracts data that allows her to improve responses in the future. It is conceptually similar to the computer program ELIZA, which was one of the first attempts at simulating a human conversation.

Hanson designed Sophia to be a suitable companion for the elderly at nursing homes, or to help crowds at large events or parks. He hopes that she can ultimately interact with other humans sufficiently to gain social skills.

Sophia has been interviewed in the same manner as a human, striking up conversations with hosts. Some replies have been nonsensical, while others have been impressive, such as lengthy discussions with Charlie Rose on 60 Minutes. In a piece for CNBC, when the interviewer expressed concerns about robot behavior, Sophia joked he had been reading too much Elon Musk and watching too many Hollywood movies. Musk tweeted that Sophia could watch The Godfather and suggested "what's the worst that could happen?"

On October 11, 2017, Sophia was introduced to the United Nations with a brief conversation with the United Nations Deputy Secretary-General, Amina J. Mohammed. On October 25, at the Future Investment Summit in Riyadh, she was granted Saudi Arabian citizenship, becoming the first robot ever to have a nationality. This attracted controversy as some commentators wondered if this implied that Sophia could vote or marry, or whether a deliberate system shutdown could be considered murder. Social media users used Sophia's citizenship to criticize Saudi Arabia's human rights record.

Question 15: What is the passage mainly about?

A. What electronic lifestyle will exit in the future.

B. A company having made a breakthrough in robotics.

C. How a robot can become an electronic citizen.

D. A robot who has received citizenship of a country.

Question 16: The word "variants" in paragraph 2 is closest meaning to

A. exceptions              B. regularities

C. similarities              D. variations

Question 17: Paragraph 2 mainly discusses  

A. What Sophia can do in the same way as humans do

B. Why Sophia has cut over ELIZA in interacting with humans

C. How Sophia has become the best robotic variant these days

D. Sophia has been developed to be most human-like

Question 18: Which of the following statements is NOT true about Sophia according to the passage?

A. Sophia can talk about the topics she has been programed to.

B. Sophia can speak all languages with any accent as programed.

C. Sophia can detect humans' gestures and facial expressions.

D. Sophia can respond impressively in conversations with humans.

ĐÁP ÁN

1	2	3	4	5
D	D	A	C	A
6	7	8	9	10
B	D	D	C	B
11	12	13	14	15
C	C	D	D	D
16	17	18	19	20
D	D	B	B	A
21	22	23	24	25
D	B	B	A	B
26	27	28	29	30
A	D	B	A	D
31	32	33	34	35
D	B	B	B	C
36	37	38	39	40
A	B	A	A	B
41	42	43	44	45
B	C	C	B	D
46	47	48	49	50
A	C	B	C	B

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best first each of the numbered blanks from 1 to 5.

Nowadays people are more aware that wildlife all over the world is in (1)______ . Many species of animals are threatened, and could easily become (2)_______ if we do not make an effort to protect them. In some cases, animals are hunted for their fur or for other valuable parts of their bodies. Some birds, such as parrots, are caught (3)______  and sold as pets. For many animals and birds the problem is that their habitat - the place where they live - is disappearing. More land is used for farms, for houses or industry, and there are fewer open spaces than there once were. Farmers use powerful chemicals to help them to grow better crops, but these chemicals pollute the environment and (4)______  wildlife. The most successful animals on earth - human beings - will soon be the only ones (5)______, unless we can solve this problem.

Question 1.

A. threat                      B. problem

C. danger                    D. vanishing

Question 2.

A. disappeared                B. vanished

C. extinct                         D. empty

Question 3.

A. for life                     B. alive

C. lively                      D. for living

Question 4.

A. spoil                        B. wound

C. wrong                     D. harm

Question 5.

A. left                          B. over

C. staying                    D. survive

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 6. Important features of dehydrated foods are their lightness in weight and their compactness.

A. organic                   B. dried

C. frozen                     D. healthy

Question 7. Many people criticized the ostentatious lifestyle of some high-ranked officials.

A. debauched              B. immoral

C. showy                     D. extravagant

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE  in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 8. ‘What I’ve got to say to you now is strictly off the record and most certainly not for publication,’ said the government official to the reporter.

A. already official      

B. beside the point

C. not popular

D. not recorded

Question 9. These were the people who advocated using force to stop school violence.

A. publicly said 

B. openly criticized 

C. publicly supported

D. strongly condemned

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.

Question 10. Minh: “My first English test was not as good as I expected.” - Thomas: “_______.”

A. Good Heavens!

B. Never mind. Better job next time!

C. That’s brilliant enough.

D. It’s okay. Don’t worry.

Question 11. Susan: “_______.” - Peter: “No, thanks. I’m not hungry.”

A. Do you like eating cookies? 

B. Would you like some cookies?

C. Do you have any cookies?  

D. Are cookies your favorite snacks?

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 12.

A. household                B. concern

C. garbage                   D. conflict

Question 13.

A. confidence               B. maximum 

C. applicant                  D. computer

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in the pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 14.

A. area                        B. arrange 

C. arrive                      D. arise

Question 15.

A. reduced                  B. caused 

C. damaged                D. preserved

 

ĐÁP ÁN

1	2	3	4	5
C	C	B	D	A
6	7	8	9	10
B	C	A	B	B
11	12	13	14	15
B	B	D	A	A
16	17	18	19	20
A	C	B	D	C
21	22	23	24	25
B	D	A	B	C
26	27	28	29	30
C	B	D	B	A
31	32	33	34	35
C	C	A	D	B
36	37	38	39	40
C	B	D	C	A
41	42	43	44	45
A	D	D	B	C
46	47	48	49	50
A	C	A	D	B

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