Dưới đây là Đề thi HSG cấp huyện môn Tiếng Anh 9 năm 2020 có đáp án Phòng GD & ĐT huyện Cần Giờ. Đề thi gồm có các câu hỏi trắc nghiệm và tự luận sẽ giúp các em học sinh ôn tập nắm vững các kiến thức, các dạng bài tập để chuẩn bị cho kỳ thi sắp đến. Các em xem và tải về ở dưới.
PHÒNG GD & ĐT HUYỆN CẦN GIỜ |
ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 9 Năm học: 2020-2021 (Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút) |
PART ONE: LISTENING (3.0 pts)
Listen and fill in the gaps with the words you hear: (15 0.2 = 3.0 pts)
THE FUTURE
I sometimes wonder what life will be like in the future. Life has (1) ……………….....................….. so much in just the past few years. I'm sure that there are still big changes that are coming.
Do you think we'll still drive (2) ……………….....................…..? Maybe we'll get into computerized (3) ……………….....................….. that we won't have to drive. We'll just push a few buttons, and the vehicles will take us to wherever we have to go. Maybe there won't be roads. We might just fly through (4) ……………….....................….. to get where we want to go. Instead of (5) ……………….....................….., we'll just use our computers. We'll be able to see each other when we talk. That type of thing is (6) ……………….....................….. happening. Maybe we won't have to cook our meals. We might be able to push buttons to order (7) ……………….....................….. we want. A nice roast beef dinner, or an ice cream sundae, might just pop out of a machine. It would be nice to have a (8) ……………….....................….. to clean the house for you. In the past few years, computers have been extremely (9) ……………….....................….. . People used to write to each other through the mail.
Now, people (10) ……………….....................….. so much more frequently through E-mail. Most of my friends own computers. If we had all of these things to do the work for us, what would we do? We would still need people to (11) ……………….....................….. the computers. We could spend more time being (12) ……………….....................….., rather than doing everyday chores.
The future holds many surprises. I'm sure that (13) ……………….....................….. will become even more and more amazing. When my parents were young, they had never even seen a color television. Nobody (14) ……………….....................….. a computer. It doesn't take long for things to change a lot. Who knows what (15) ……………….....................….. things are in store for us?
PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts)
I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently: (5 0.2=1.0 pt)
16. A. limitation B. rivalry C. confident D. tunic
17. A. material B. article C. inspiration D. advanced
18. A. magnificent B. manager C. magically D. generous
19. A. therefore B. rhythm C. altogether D. wealth
20. A. whole B. wonderful C. well-qualify D. awareness
II. Choose the word in each group which has the main stress on a different syllable from the others (5 0,2 = 1,0 pt):
21. A. astounding B. exporter C. furniture D. extended
22. A. impossible B. adorable C. entertainment D. ability
23. A. forgotten B. expensive C. retirement D. picturesque
24. A. balcony B. attractive C. numerous D. decorate
25. A. together B. government C. atmosphere D. scenery
PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.5pts)
I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (15 0.1 = 1.5 pts)
26. By 2050, medical technology ...................... many current incurable diseases.
A. has conquered B. will conquer C. will have conquered D. is conquering
27. Mrs. Lan is a friendly woman. She gets ...................... with all her neighbours.
A. up well B. down well C. on well D. well on
28. We have to leave now because we are due ...................... in Ha Long Bay by seven.
A. be B. to be C. to being D. being
29. I was enjoying my book, but I stopped ...................... a programme on TV.
A. to read to watch B. reading to watch C. to read for watching D. reading for to watch
30. ...................... Jason became famous, he has ignored his old friends. He shouldn’t do that.
A. Ever since B. If C. Due to D. Even though
31. By the time our manager comes back from Japan, the work .......................
A. will be finished B. will be finishing C. will have been finishing D. will have been finished
32. ...................... English fluently, we should practise speaking it whenever possible.
A. So as to speaking B. In order to speak
C. In order for speaking D. With a view to speak
33. In recent years, the government has imposed pollution controls on automobile manufaturers. Both domestic and imported automobiles must.................. anti-pollution devices.
A. equip with B. equip by C. be equipped with D. be equipped by
34. Hardly...................... the captain of the team when he had to face the problems.
A. did he appoint B. was he appointing C. had he been appointed D. was he being appointed
35. It was the first time I ...................... in such an important match.
A. have ever played B. have ever been playing C. was ever playing D. had ever played
36. Air consists of a combination of nitrogen and oxygen ...................... in place by gravity.
A. are holding B. being hold C. holding D. held
37. Unemployment is on the rise again, which means that good jobs are .......................
A. far and away B. far from it C. as far as they go D. few and far between
38. - Thuy: “Do you have the book...................... the teacher?” - Hanh: “Yes, I do”.
A. that it belongs to B. that belongs to C. to which belongs D. to which belongs to
39. Neither of those students will be treated preferentially, ......................?
A. will they B. won’t they C. will them D. won’t them
40. - Tom: “I can’t open the top of this apple juice.” - Mary: “ ...................... it.”
A. Have Mark do B. Make Mark to do C. Mark have to do D. Have Mark done
II. Give the correct form of the words given in the box to complete the sentences:
(10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)
00. AGREE
(41) ENCOURAGE
(42) HELP
(43) HEAD
(44) DEPEND
(45) CARE
(46) ADVISE
(47) LIMIT
(48) PROBABLE
(49) FORTUNATE
(50) HEALTH
Most people would be in (00) …….agreement…… with the idea, often put forward by doctors, that we should avoid taking medicines unnecessarily. Even people with only (41)........................................... medical knowledge say that it is not (42) ........................................... to take aspirin, for example, whenever you have a (43) ........................................... or some other minor ailments. It is certainly true that people have tended to become very (44) ........................................... on pills when in any kind of discomfort, rather than simply waiting for the symptoms to pass. Many people would do well to take a different attitude to preventing illness. The best way to keep well is to avoid (45) ........................................... foods and habits. It is also (46) ........................................... to take plenty of exercise, and we should give (47) ........................................... to people of all ages to do this, particularly the young ones. If we can educate people at an early age to keep fit and to look after themselves (48) ........................................... then the (49) ........................................... of their having problems in later life will be considerably reduced. However, no matter how well we look after ourselves and how much exercise we do, illness, (50) ..........................................., is not always preventable.
III. Fill in the missing preposition or adverb: (10 x 0.2 = 2.0 pts)
set aside = save for a special purpose
set somebody back = cost sb a lot of money
set off = (1) start a reaction; (2) begin a journey
set out = begin a task/job with a special intention
set an animal on sb = cause an animal to attack sb
set up = establish (a record)
set in = begin (of a period)
set about = begin set back = hinder
51. You had better have central heating installed before winter sets................................................ .
52. A wedding reception for 200 people will certainly set you ................................................ thousands.
53. The Pikes set................................................ for their destination at 8 o’clock this morning.
54. Thomas set................................................ a new world record for the 100 metres race.
55. My new friend’s jokes set ................................................ the whole class laughing.
56. A fire in the factory set production................................................ by several weeks.
57. Thuy Linh set................................................ to become a dancer but an injury prevented her from fulfilling her ambition.
58. You should set................................................ some money every week if you want to buy a new house.
59. How would they set ................................................ teaching a dog to perform tricks?
60. He treated to set the dogs................................................ us if we didn’t get off his properly.
PART FOUR: READING COMPREHENSION: (5.0 pts)
I. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase for each of the blanks. (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)
Today, in China, (61) ................................................ large scale destruction of forests has occurred, the government has required that every citizen (62) ................................................ the age of 11 and 60 plant three to five trees (63) ................................................ year or do the equivalent amount of work in other forest (64) ................................................ The government claims that at (65) ................................................ 1000 million trees have been planted in China every year (66) ................................................ 1982.
In western countries, increasing consumer demand for wood products that have been produced cause forest landowners and forest industries to become (67) ................................................ accoutable for their forest management and timber harvesting practices.
The Arbor Day Foundation’s Rain Forest Rescue program is a charity that helps to (68)................................................ deforestation. The charity uses money to buy up (69) ................................................ preserve rainforest land before the lumber companies can buy it. The Arbor Day Foundation then (70) ................................................ the land from deferestation.
61. A. whom B. which C. that D. where
62. A. on B. between C. of D. in
63. A. the B. for C. per D. many
64. A. services B. destructions C. extinction D. damage
65. A. least B. the least C. last D. the last
66. A. in B. since C. for D. ago
67. A. increase B. increasing C. increasingly D. increased
68. A. pollute B. motivate C. encourage D. prevent
69. A. and B. nor C. or D. but
70. A. protects B. supplies C. provides D. destroy
II. Read the passage and fill each blank with only ONE suitable word: (10 × 0,2 =2,0 pts)
SHOPPING FOR GIRLS
Little girls all over London have a twelve-year-old boy to thank for marking some of their dreams (71) ............................................. true. Vivienne Pringle was out shopping with her children (72)............................................. they passed an empty shop. As a game, she asked them what sort of thing they thought should be sold in it. Her son Benedict Pringle said that (73)............................................. wasn’t a shop that sold all the things that his four-year-old sister liked and that’s what he (74)............................................. sell there. Thinking about his suggestion, Vivienne realised it was a great idea. Although many different shops sold some things aimed (75)............................................. little girls, no-one had thought of putting them all together in one place.
Vivienne, who already ran a successful mail order company, opened her first shop last March. It is called Girlheaven. (76)............................................. you might expect, it sells traditional toys and educational games, but the best-selling lines are partly clothes and all the accessories that go (77)............................................. them. In short, as (78)............................................. as it’s pink and glittery, it sells at Girlheaven. But the shop is also a fun place to visit. On Saturdays, there are dance shows led (79)............................................ members of the sales staff and the young shoppers are invited to join in. It’s even possible (80)............................................. regular customers to hold their birthday parties there.
III. Read and circle the best option A, B, C, or D to answer the questions: (50.2=1.0 pt)
People often call New York “the Big Apple”. Maybe it is not exactly like an apple, it’s certainly very big. There are too many people, that’s the problem. The streets are always full of car and trucks, you can never find a place to park. You can take a taxi if you have enough money. New York cabs are yellow. They look all the same. But the drivers are very different. Some were born and raised in New York, but many are newcomers to the United States. A few drive slowly, but most go very very fast. Cab driving is difficult job. It can be dangerous too. Thieves often try to steal the drivers’ money. Drivers sometimes get hurt.
If you don’t want to take a taxi, you can go by bus or you can take the subway. The subway is quick and it’s cheap, but parts of it are old and dirty. Lights don’t always work and there are often fire on the track. On some subway lines, there are new, clean, silver trains. But you can’t see the color of the old trains easily. There is too much dirt and too much graffiti, inside and out side.
81. What is the problem in New York?
A. it has too many apples B. it’s too crowded
C. it looked like an apple D. it's too big
82. What does a cab mean?
A. a truck B. a bus C. a taxi D. It is too crowded
83. It is …………………………………………to go by subway.
A. slow and expensive B. slow and inexpensive
C. quick and expensive D. quick and inexpensive
84. The world “track” can best be replaced by …………………………………………
A. roadway B. station C. light bulb D. train
85. Subways in New York …………………………………………
A. have no lights B. are quick but dirty C. are clothes D. often cause fires
PART FIVE: WRITING: (4.5 pts)
I. Rewrite the following sentences with the same meaning as the first ones: (50.2=1.0 pt)
86. They tried to do the exercise, but without success. (matter)
-> No ……………………………….……………… do the exercise.
87. My father decided to have an early night because he was exhausted. (go)
-> My father ……………………………………….…………………….. because he was exhausted.
88. If we work late tonight, you will be tired tomorrow. (later)
-> The……………………………....……………we will be tomorrow.
89. Couldn’t the newspaper have printed a better headline? (could)
-> Was that………………………………………….……...……………….. print?
90. The loss of the account was not our fault. (blame)
-> We………………………………………….…………………….. the account.
II. Write complete sentences using the suggested words: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)
Dear Linda Young,
91. On behalf/ our class,/ I would like/ express/ great gratitude/ you/ help/ us organize/ English Speaking Club.//
-> ……………………………………………………………………………….……………………..
92. Our English Speaking Club/ wouldn’t / be hold/ successful/ but for/ great help.//
-> ………………………………………………………………………….……………………..
93. Club stimulated/ spirit/English learning among us/ so we/ have/lot/fun/ learn/ each other//
-> ……………………………………………………………….……………………..
94. I hope/ get more assistance/ you/ future/ hold/ activities/ the Club/ regular//.
-> ……………………………………………………………………….……………………..
95. I/ forward/ hear/ you/ soon//
-> …………………………………………………………………….……………………..
Your sincerely,
Khanh Hoa
III. In about 200 words, write a paragraph about the importance of examinations:
(2.5 points) (Don’t show your proper names/ school/ village…)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………............…….……………………..
ĐÁP ÁN
PART ONE: LISTENING (3.0 pts)
LISTEN AND FILL IN THE GAPS: (15 0.2 = 3.0 pts)
1. changed 2. cars 3. vehicles 4. space 5. telephones
6. already 7. whatever 8. robot 9. important 10. communicate
11. program 12. creative 13. technology 14. owned 15. amazing
PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts)
I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently: (5 0.2=1.0 pt)
16. B. rivalry 17. B. article 18. A. magnificent 19. D. wealth 20. A. whole
II. Choose the word in each group which has the main stress on a different syllable from the others (5 0,2 = 1,0 pt):
21. C. furniture 22. C. entertainment 23. D. picturesque 24. B. attractive 25. A. together
PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.5pts)
I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (15 0.1 = 1.5 pts)
26. C. will have conquered 27. C. on well with 28. B. to be 29. B. reading to watch 30. A. Ever since
31. D. will have been finished 32. B. In order to speak 33. C. be equipped with
34. C. had he been appointed 35. D. had ever played
36. D. 37. D. 38. B. that 39. A. 40. A held few and far between belongs to will they Have Mark do
...
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Trên đây là một phần trích đoạn nội dung Đề thi HSG cấp huyện môn Tiếng Anh 9 năm 2020 có đáp án Phòng GD & ĐT huyện Cần Giờ. Để xem toàn bộ nội dung các em chọn chức năng xem online hoặc đăng nhập vào trang hoc247.net để tải tài liệu về máy tính.
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Các em quan tâm có thể tham khảo tư liệu cùng chuyên mục:
- Đề thi HSG cấp huyện môn Tiếng Anh 9 năm 2020 có đáp án Phòng GD & ĐT huyện Châu Thành
- Đề thi HSG cấp huyện môn Tiếng Anh 9 năm 2020 có đáp án Phòng GD & ĐT huyện Mê Linh
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