Bộ 5 đề thi chọn HSG môn Tiếng Anh 12 có đáp án năm 2021 Trường THPT Văn Hiến

TRƯỜNG THPT VĂN HIẾN

ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI NĂM HỌC 2020-2021 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 12 (Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề)

A. LISTENING:

Questions 1-5: You will hear Sarah Brown talking about her work as a television weather forecaster.You will hear the recording twice.

Listen to her talk and do exercise

Choose the best word (A, B, C or D). Write your answer on your answer sheet.

Question 1 - How long has Sarah worked as a weather forecaster?

A) two years B) seven years C) thirty years D) thirteen years

Question 2 - What does Sarah say about her job?

A) She sometimes has to work at night.

B) She enjoys getting up early.

C) She works ten or twelve hours a day.

D) She normally stays up late to manage the department.

Question 3 - When Sarah does a weather forecast, ______

A) she prepares it in advance.

B) she sometimes forgets her words.

C) she worries about making a mistake.

D) There is much time for her to prepare

Question 4 - Sarah's husband ______

A) works on the same days each week. B) wants to move nearer his work.

C) spends a lot of time travelling. D) is often on short-distance flights.

Question 5 - Sarah is pleased because she ______

A) has got her pilot's license. B) taught her husband to play tennis

C) took part in a long race. D) skis all the time

Questions 6-10: You will hear a LECTURE about Jack London’s life and work. You will hear the recording twice.

Listen to the lecture and do exercise

Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D). Write your answer on your answer sheet.

Question 6. What is the lecture mainly about?

A How London's life and work are contrasted.

B How London's life influenced his work.

C London's political writings.

D London's early adventures.

Question 7. According to the professor, what effect did the absence of a father have on London?

A It affected his relationship with his mother.

B It causes him to commit crimes.

C It influenced aspects of his writing.

D It prepared him for a life of adventure.

Question 8. Why does the professor think that London read so many books?

A London wanted to learn from other writers.

B London was enrolled at a university.

C London needed to use other writer's ideas.

D London had few ways of gaining real experience.

Question 9. What does the professor imply about London’s success?

A He was immediately successful as a writer.

B He was successful only in later life.

C He worked hard to achieve success.

D He never really achieved much success.

Question 10. What does the professor think of London's work?

A Most of London's work was excellent.

B Most of London's work is careless.

C Much of London's work is not very good.

D Much of London's work is very modern.

B. MULTIPLE CHOICES

Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three words in each question.

Question 11: A. encourage B. expertise C. occasion D. depend

Question 12: A. access B. accent C. influence D. individual

Question 13: A. limitation B. necessarily C. government D. interactive

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in

meaning to the sentence given in each of the following question.

Question 14: Only with careful environmental planning can we protect the world in which we live.

A. We can protect the world we live in only with careful environmental planning.

B. Protecting the world we live in, we plan the environment carefully.

C. Careful environmental planning protects the world we live in.

D. Planning the environment carefully, we can protect the world in which we live.

Question 15: You should take regular exercises instead of sitting in front of the television all day.

A. Don’t take regular exercises, just sit in front of the television all day.

B. Sitting in front of the television all day and taking exercises are advisable.

C. Taking regular exercises is better than sitting in front of the television all day.

D. Sitting in front of the television all day helps you take regular exercises.

Question 16: It was not until after I got home that I realized I had not set the burglar alarm in the office.

A. I didn’t turn the burglar alarm on before I left the office, but I only became aware of this after I'd arrived home.

B. Fortunately, I realized that I hadn't set the burglar alarm just before I left for home; otherwise, I would have had to travel all the way back to the office.

C. On the way home, I suddenly realized that I had forgotten to turn on the burglar alarm in the office.

D. I wish I had realized before I arrived home that I hadn't turned on the burglar alarm in the office, then it would have been easier to go and set it.

Question 17: Had Kathy studied hard, she would have passed the examination.

A. Kathy studied very hard but she did not succeed in the examination.

B. Kathy knew that she would succeed in the examination.

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C. But for her hard study, Kathy would have succeed in the examination.

D. Kathy did not study hard, so she failed.

Question 18: We are going to get into hot water when we arrive home

A. The water will become hot when we arrive at home.

B. When coming home, we will have a nice hot bath.

C. We are going to have trouble when we get home

D. We have to boil water first when we arrive home

Choose the word or phrase OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the

following sentences.

Question 19: At first, our problems seemed insurmountable. However, now I think we'll be able

to find solutions.

A. not able to be solved B. able to be solved

C. able to be discussed D. not able to be discussed

Question 20: Dalat is famous for various ideal excursion places such as Xuan Huong lake, pine forests and waterfalls

A. unique B. likely C. different D. similar

Read the following passage and choose the best answer to each question

In today’s culture, tattoos are very popular as a form of body decoration. As seen in their prevalence among rebellious teenagers, social outsiders, dangerous outlaws, and many other people, tattoos are viewed as luxurious fashion statements that possess a forbidden attraction - mainly as long as they remain unseen. However, some people get tattoos in order to identify themselves with certain groups, such as military units, fraternities, or even criminal organizations, like the Japanese yakuza. Tattoos have been used in this manner throughout history by many different cultures in the world. In fact, they have always been an important functional and symbolic feature in most tribal and ancient cultures, whether they were used for identification, worship, therapy, decoration, or in other rituals. The earliest written records describing tattoo usage date back to Ancient Egypt, from where the practice spread to Crete, Greece, Persia, and Arabia. However, tribal cultures throughout northern Europe, the western hemisphere, and east Asia had been applying tattoos for several thousands of years before this, with people in Japan reportedly creating tattoos ten thousand years ago. One of the best pieces of evidence of this usage came from the excavation of Otzi the Ice Man, the Oldest naturally preserved body discovered in Europe. Dating back to 3300BC, this mummy had fifty-seven tattoos on its body, mostly located on the inside of the left knee, ankle, and legs. In China and Russia, naturally mummified bodies that are just as old have been found to bear tattoos in similar sports. Based on the location of these tattoos, some researchers speculate that they were part of a therapeutic treatment for bones.

Ancient and tribal cultures used tattoos primarily for identification, though. A person’s tattoo would indicate their tribe, family, or social status. For instance, the Norse, the Danes, the Saxons, and other Germanic peoples used tattoos to identify their particular clans. The Maori in New Zealand used tattoos to indicate their social ranking. In many southeast Asian tribes, as well as in American tribes like the Inuit, women used tattoos to indicate that they were eligible for marriage or already married. Tattoos were also very common among warriors who displayed bravery or ferocity in combat. Chickasaw warriors distinguished themselves with tattoos, and the Dayak tribes used them to boast of the people they killed in battle. In later military usage, ancient Greek spies had tattoos that related their military ranks to each other. Originally, Roman soldiers did not  have tattoos. However, after witnessing the fierceness of British tribes they fought, Roman soldiers began to get tattoos in order to emulate their enemy’s ferocity.

Question 21: Which of the following can be the best title of the passage?

A. Usage of tattoos as identification B. Tattoos on ancient mummies

C. Tattoos in tribal and ancient cultures D. Tattoos – a rebellious attraction

Question 22: In paragraph 1, the author mentions the modern use of tattoos as a form of

identification in order to______

A. explain their associations with criminals B. introduce their origins in older cultures

C. condemn them as fashion statements D. provide technical details on tattoos

Question 23: According to paragraph 2, some researchers believe that the tattoos found on mummies were used to______

A. assist them in worship B. mark them as slaves

C. begin their adulthood D. treat bone ailments

Question 24: Based on the information in paragraph 2, what can be inferred about the origins of tattoos?

A. Tattoos developed independently in different cultures.

B. It took thousands of years for tattoos to be used globally.

C. Otzi the Ice Man is the first to have ancient tattoos.

D. All ancient cultures copied the practice from Egypt.

Question 25: The word “them” in paragraph 3 refers to______

A. tattoos B. tribes C. warriors D. themselves

Question 26: The word "eligible" in paragraph 3 could best be replaced by______

A. young enough B. trained C. qualified D. intelligent

Question 27: According to paragraph 3, why did the Roman soldiers begin to get tattoos?

A. They used tattoos to treat their battle wounds.

B. They wanted to boast of the enemies they killed.

C. They needed to identify their military ranks.

D. They were inspired by the ferocity of their tattooed enemies.

Question 28: According to paragraph 3, all of the following are listed as things identified by tattoos in tribal cultures EXCEPT

A. tribal affiliation B. social rank C. marital status D. criminal status

Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest in the same line.

Question 29: A. southern B. admirable C. infamous D. cupboard

Question 30: A. clothes B. horses C. youths D. paths

Circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 31: Now, don’t tell anyone else what I’ve just told you. Remember, it is ______.

A. confident B. confidence C. confidentially D. confidential

Question 32: Dinner will be ready soon. Can you please ______ the table?

A. lay B. put C. make D. settle

Question 33: Some vegetables are grown without soil and under ______ light.

A. unreal B. false C. artificial D. fake

Question 34: My friend’s uncle has been________ MP ( Member of Parliament) for five years.

A. Ø B. a C. an D. the

Question 35: A part – time job gives me the freedom to ________ my own interests.

A. seek B. pursue C. chase D. catch

Question 36: The type of plant and animal life living in and around a pond depends on the soil

of the pond, ________ and the pond’s location.

A. the quality of water B. how is the water quality

C. what the quality of the water is D. what is the water quality

Question 37: After years of being exposed to the sun and rain, the sign had become completely ________

A. readable B. unreadable C. illegible D. misread

Question 38: Waiter: “How would you like your steak, sir? Man: “______”

A. Not too bad B. Yes, of course I like it

C. Rare, please D. Very good

Question 39: It is highly recommended that language learners in general and English learners

______ should learn the language in the native community so as to master it.

A. on the whole B. in particular C. on the other hand D. in short

Question 40: I was thinking of going out, but on ______thoughts, it might be better to stay in.

A. good B. second C. deep D. strong

Question 41: I was very afraid of the history exam, and when I managed to pass it, I

was ______, I invited all my friends to a drink in the local pub.

A. feeling blue B. under the color C. off color D. on cloud nine

Question 42: You shouldn't lose heart; success often comes to those who are not ______ by failures.

A. switched off B. turned on C. put off D. left out

Read the passage and choose the best word or combination of words to fill in each blank.

Write your answers (A, B, C or D) in the box provided.

TRAFFIC IN OUR CITIES

 The volume of traffic in many cities in the world today continues to expand. This causes many problems, including serious air pollution, lengthy delays, and the greater risk (43)_____ accidents. Clearly, something must be done, but it is difficult to (44)_____ people to change their habits and leave their cars at home.

One possible (45)_____ is to make it more expensive for people to use their cars by (46)_____ charges for parking and bringing in tougher fines for anyone who (47)_____ the law. In addition, drivers could be required to pay for using particular routes at different times of the day. This system, (48)_____ as “road pricing”, is already being introduced in a number of cities, using a special electronic card (49)_____ to windscreen of the car. Another way of dealing with the problem is to provide cheap parking on the (50)_____ of the city, and strictly control the number of vehicles allowed in to the centre. Drivers and their passengers then use a special bus service for the (51)_____ stage of their journey.

Of course, the most important thing is to provide good public transport. However, to get people to give up the comfort of their cars, public transport must be felt to be reliable, convenient and comfortable, with fares (52)_____ at an acceptable level.

Question 43: A. about B. by C. for D. of

Question 44: A. persuade B. suggest C. make D. arrange

Question 45: A. custom B. style C. manner D. approach

Question 46: A. growing B. enlarging C. developing D. increasing

Question 47: A. crosses B. breaks C. refuses D. cracks

Question 48: A. named B. known C. seen D. called

Question 49: A. placed B. joined C. built D. fixed

Question 50: A. outside B. outskirts C. limit D. border

Question 51: A. late B. complete C. end D. final

Question 52: A. stood B. given C. kept D. taken

Read the following passage and choose the best answer to each question

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ĐÁP ÁN

1B 2A 3A 4C 5C 6B 7C 8A 9C 10C 11B 12D 13C 14A 15C 16A 17D 18C 19B 20A

21C 22B 23D 24A 25A 26C 27D 28D 29A 30B 31D 32A 33C 34C 35B 36A 37C 38C 39B 40B

I. LEXICO - GRAMMAR (7/20 points)

Part 1: Choose the word or phrase that best completes each sentence. Write your answer (A, B, C, or D) in the numbered box.

1. Sheila will inherit everything ________ her uncle’s death.

A. on account of                     B. in spite of               C. in the event of                    D. in place of

2. His poor handling of the business ________ on negligence.

A. neared                               B. edged                      C. approached                         D. bordered

3. Down ________ for three days.

A. the rain poured                                                       B. poured the rain       

C. did the rain pour                                                     D. do the rain poor

4. Can I ________ your brains for a moment? I can’t do this crossword by myself.

A. have                                    B. pick                        C. mind                                 D. use

5. The job wasn’t giving the ________ of the experience he wanted.

 A. width                                B. depth                        C. length                                D. breadth

6. I suppose I could ________ advertising.

A. catch on                              B. get out of                C. go in for                              D. work out

7. The storm ripped our tent to ________.

A. slices                                  B. shreds                     C. strips                                   D. specks

8. She travelled the world in ________ of her dreams.

A. pursuit                                B. finding                   C. chase                                   D. trail

9. The agency is ________ and not run for profit.

A. charitable                            B. donated                  C. voluntary                            D. free

10. Mike, _______, will you switch off that television!

A. once and for all                                                      B. now and then         

C. over and above                                                       D. from time to time

Your answers

1.	2.	3.	4.	5.
6.	7.	8.	9.	10.

Part 2: Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word in the numbered space provided in the column on the right.

11. The (PLACE)_______ of natural resources is becoming inadequate        for the support of increasing population. 12. The grammar section provides coverage of all the most       (problem)_______ areas. 13. He has recorded the (narrate)______ for the production. 14. In this profession, women (NUMBER)______ men by two to one. 15. An (LAY)_______ showing population can be placed on top of the       map. 16. The shells are so hard and they are virtually (DESTROY)_______. 17. We should arrive two days early in order to (CLIMATE)________. 18. These changes are likely to (POOR)________ single-parent families       even further. 19. I’m afraid the hospital is desperately (STAFF)______ at the moment. 20. This book will challenge your (CONCEPT)_______ about rural life.

11. ________     12. ________ 13. ________ 14. ________ 15. ________   16. ________ 17. ________ 18. ________   19. ________ 20. ________

Part 3: The passage below contains 10 mistakes. Underline the mistakes and correct them in the space provided in the column on the right. (0) has been done as an example.

Human and primates, the family of apes, gorillas, and chimpanzees, among others, divide many common traits. While primates are deemed the most intelligent of animals, most researchers believed they lack the capacity to produce language. However, a research project in the 1970s at University of Georgia showed promise that chimpanzees have the ability to learn a certain language, just as human children do. The project used several chimpanzees as test subjects in which Lana, a female chimp was the study focus. Though the primates lack the vocal constructions to make human speech patterns, the researchers created a language called Yerkish, using lexigram made up of symbols that represent sounds and words. 125 symbols were placed on a keyboard, which Lana was taught how to use the board to communicate with the researchers. She successfully expressed her thoughts by pressing different keys in succession. In some cases, she used up to seven at times.

0. Humans 21. ____________   22. ____________ 23. ____________   24. ____________ 25. ____________ 26. ____________ 27. ____________   28. ____________   29. ____________ 30. ____________

Part 4: Supply the correct form of the VERB in brackets to complete the passage. Write your answer in the numbered box.

I don't normally go to the cinema. Not because I don't like it but because it's just a habit I (31.never GET)__________  into. However, on this occasion I (32. DECIDE)__________ to go because my friends (33. constantly GO)__________ on about this film all week and eventually wore me down. It was starring some ephemeral Hollywood actor whom I had vaguely heard of but couldn't put a face to. We got to the cinema early to find people (34. already  WAIT)__________ outside, which suggested that my friends weren't the only ones who thought it was worth seeing although  I could still think of several other things I would rather having been doing  at that moment. In the end, the film (35. TURN)_________ out to be not half as bad as expected, though I  (36. PREFER)__________ something with a bit more action. The plot centred on two men who were planning to carry out some immensely complicated robbery, though what they (37. completely FAIL) ___________ to realize was that all the time their plans (38. closely MONITOR) ____________ by the police. Somewhat unpredictably, however, they got away with it because they (39. CHANGE) _____________ their plans at the last minute. It was okay but I (40.not THINK)________ of going again.

Your answers

31.	36.
32.	37.
33.	38.
34.	39.
35.	40.

Part 5: Fill each gap in the following sentences with one of the prepositions or particles in the box. Use each word only ONCE and write your answer in the numbered box. (Please note that the given words outnumber the gaps.)

by	through	with	for	in	out
up	into	off	across	down	beyond

41. He likes to show _________ how well he speaks French.

42. They were sad because the plan fell _________ at the last minutes.

43. Ben is a true adventurer. He has climbed this country's highest mountain, canoed _________ the  continent, and hiked through the Amazon jungle.

44. She wrote the book _________ collaboration with one of her students.

45. You'd better write _________ the appointment in your agenda, or you'll probably forget.

46. Mary has always looked _________ to her uncle, who is a very successful actor.

47. I do feel ________ you, honestly!

48.  As I had put on weight, my dress was too tight so I had to let it ________ especially around the waist.

49. I'm sorry but Dr. Ho sees patients _________ appointments only.

50. He spoke _________ such assurance that we couldn't but believe him.

Your answers

41.	46.
42.	47.
43.	48.
44.	49.
45.	50.

 

II. READING (6/ 20 points)

Part 1: Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap. Write your answer in the numbered box. (0) has been done as an example.

            When faced (0)________ some new and possible bewildering technology change, most people (51)________ in one of two ways. They either recoil (52)________ anything new, claiming that it is unnecessary, or too complicated or that it (53)________ makes life less than human. Or they learn to adapt to the new invention and (54)________ wonder how they could possibly have existed (55)________ it. Take computers as example. For many of us, they still (56)________ a threat to our freedom and give us a frightening (57)________ of a future in which all decisions will be (58)________ by machines. This may be because they seem (59)________, and difficult to understand. Ask most people what you can use a home computer for, and you usually get vague answers about how ‘they give you information’. In fact, even those of us who are (60)________ with computer and use them in our daily work, have little idea of how they work. But it does not take long to learn how to operate a business programme, even if things occasionally go wrong for no apparent (61)________. Presumably, much the same happened when telephone and television became widespread. What seems to alarm most people is the (62)________ of technology change, (63)________ than change itself. And the objections that are made to new technology may (64)________ have a point to them, since change is not always an improvement. As we discover during power cuts, there is a lot to be said for the oil lamp, the coal fire, and forms of entertainment, such as books or board (65)________, which don’t have to be plugged into work.

0.         A. with                        B. to                            C. for                           D. on

51.       A. react                       B. treat                         C. solve                       D. perform

52.       A. of                            B. out of                      C. away from              D. from

53.       A. somewhere             B. someplace               C. someway                D. somewhat  

54.       A. eventually               B. possibly                  C. initially                   D. naturally

55.       A. with                        B. without                   C. on                           D. for

56.       A. show                       B. meet                        C. face                         D. represent

57.       A. possibility               B. sense                       C. idea                         D. prospect

58.       A. invented                 B. changed                  C. taken                       D. done

59.       A. unsteady                 B. unsure                     C. mysterious              D. obvious

60.       A. accustomed             B. familiar                   C. used                        D. commonplace

61.       A. reason                     B. cue                          C. excuse                     D. cause

62.       A. rate                         B. swiftness                C. speed                      D. tempo

63.       A. more                       B. less                          C. rather                      D. other

64.       A. badly                      B. better                      C. worse                      D. well

65.       A. sports                      B. games                     C. plays                       D. shows

Your answers

0. A

51.	52.	53.	54.	55.
56.	57.	58.	59.	60.
61.	62.	63.	64.	65.

Part 2: Read the following passage and answer the questions from 66 to 75 that follow.

The History of the Guitar

The word 'guitar' was brought into English as an adaptation of the Spanish word 'guitarra’, which was, in turn, derived from the Greek 'kithara'. Tracing the roots of the word further back into linguistic history, it seems to have been a combination of the Indo-European stem 'guit-’, meaning music, and the root '-tar’, meaning chord or string. The root '-tar' is actually common to a number of languages, and can also be found in the word 'sitar’, also a stringed musical instrument. Although the spelling and pronunciation differ between languages, these key elements have been present in most words for 'guitar' throughout history.

While the guitar may have gained most of its popularity as a musical instrument during the modern era, guitar-like instruments have been in existence in numerous cultures throughout the world for more than 5.000 years. The earliest instruments that the modern eye and ear would recognise as a 'normal' acoustic guitar date from about 500 years ago. Prior to this time, stringed instruments were in use throughout the world, but these early instruments are known primarily from visual depictions, not from the continued existence of music written for them. The majority of these depictions show simple stringed instruments, often lacking some of the parts that define a modern guitar. A number of these instruments have more in common with the lute than the guitar.

There is some uncertainty about the exact date of the earliest six-string guitar. The oldest one still in existence, which was made by Gaetano Vinaccia, is dated 1779. However, the authenticity of six-string guitars alleged to have been made prior to 1790 is often suspect, as many fakes have been discovered dating to this era. The early nineteenth century is generally accepted as the time period during which six-string guitars began taking on their modern shape and dimensions. Thus for nearly two hundred years, luthiers, or guitar makers, have been producing versions of the modern acoustic guitar.

The first electric guitar was not developed until the early twentieth century. George Beauchamp received the first patent for an electric guitar in 1936, and Beauchamp went on to co-found Rickenbacker, originally known as the Electro String Instrument Company. Although Rickenbacker began producing electric guitars in the late 1930s, this brand received most of its fame in the 1960s, when John Lennon used a Rickenbacker guitar for the Beatles' debut performance on the Ed Sullivan show in 1964. George Harrison later bought a Rickenbacker guitar of his own, and the company later gave him one of their earliest 12-string electric guitars. Paul McCartney also used a Rickenbacker bass guitar for recording. The Beatles continued to use Rickenbacker guitars throughout their career, and made the instruments highly popular among other musicians of the era.

The Fender Musical Instruments Company and the Gibson Guitar Corporation were two other early electric guitar pioneers, both developing models in the early 1950s. Fender began with the Telecaster in 1950 and 1951, and the Fender Stratocaster debuted in 1954. Gibson began selling the Gibson Les Paul, based partially on assistance from jazz musician and guitar innovator Les Paul, in 1952. The majority of present day solid-body electric guitars are still based largely on these three early electric guitar designs.

Throughout the history of the guitar, an enormous number of individuals have made their mark on the way in which the instrument was built, played and perceived. Though some of these individuals are particularly well known, like the Beatles or Les Paul, the majority of these people are virtually invisible to most modern guitar fans. By looking at the entire history of the guitar, rather than just recent developments, largely confined to electric guitars, it is possible to see more of the contributions of earlier generations.

Questions 66 - 70

Complete the sentences. Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer. Write your answer in the numbered box.

66. Despite differences in _________, 'guit-' and '-tar' appear in the word for 'guitar' in many languages.

67. Instruments that we would call acoustic guitars have been made and played for approximately   _________.

68.  The ________ of acoustic guitars have not changed much in 200 years.

69.  Les Paul, the well-known ________ guitarist, was involved in the development of the electric guitar.

70.  Most ________ of the guitar know little about its rich history.

Your answers

66.	67.
68.	69.
70.

Questions 71 - 75

Complete the summary. Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer. Write your answer in the numbered box.

Instruments similar to the guitar have been played by musicians for over (71) ________ years. What we know about many of these instruments comes from (72) ________ rather than actual physical examples or music played on them. In some ways, these early stringed instruments were closer to (73) ________ than the guitar as we know it today. We do have examples of six-string guitars that are 200 years old. However, the (74) ________ of six-string guitars made by guitar makers who are also known as luthiers before the final decade of the eighteenth century is often open to question.

Although the electric guitar was invented in the 1930s, it took several decades for electric guitars to develop, with the company Rickenbacker playing a major part in this development. Most (75) ________  electric guitars in use today are similar in design to guitars produced by the Fender Musical Instruments Company and the Gibson Guitar Corporation in the 1950s.

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ĐÁP ÁN

I. LEXICO - GRAMMAR (7/20 points)

Part 1: (1/ 20pts) (0.1 point for each correct answer)

1. C 2. D 3. B 4. B 5. D 6. C 7. B 8. A 9. C 10. A Part 2: (1/ 20pts) (0.1 point for each correct answer) 11. replacement 12. problematic 13. narration 14. outnumber 15. overlay 16. indestructible 17. acclimatize 18. impoverish 19. short-staffed  20. preconceptions

Part 3: (2/20pts) (0.2 point for each correct answer)

21. divide   =>  share	22. believed   =>  have believed	23. University =>  the University	24. just as      =>  just like	25. in which    =>  among which
26. study focus  =>  study’s focus	27. Though =>  Since	28. up of =>   of	29. which      =>   and	30. at times      =>   at a time

Part 4: (2/ 20pts) (0.2 point for each correct answer)

31. have never got	32. decided	33. had been constantly going/ had constantly gone	34. were already waiting	35. turned
36. would have preferred	37. completely failed	38. were being closely monitored/ were closely monitored	39. changed	40. am not thinking

Part 5: (1/ 20pts) (0.1 point for each correct answer)

41. off

42. through

43. across

44. in

45. down

46. up

47. for

48. out

49. by

50. with

II. READING: (6/ 20 points)

Part 1: (1.5/ 20pts) (0.1 point for each correct answer)

51. A

52. D

53. C

54. A

55. B

56. D

57. B

58. C

59. C

60. B

61. A

62. C

63. C

64. D

65. B

 Part 2: (2/ 20pts) (0.2 point for each correct answer)

66. spelling and pronunciation	67. five hundred years	68. shape and dimensions	69. jazz	70. Fans
71. five thousand	72. visual depictions	73. the lute	74. authenticity	75. solid-body

Part 3: (1/ 20pts) (0.2 point for each correct answer)

76. H

77. B

78.  G

79. D

80. F

Part 4: (1.5/ 20pts) (0.1 point for each correct answer)

81. now	82. covered	83. but	84. least	85. warming
86. experiencing	87. the	88. fuels	89. been	90. risk
91. almost	92. rising	93. homeless	94. according	95. worsen

III. WRITING: (7/ 20 points)

Part 1: (0.75/20pts) (0.15 point for each correct answer)

Suggested answers

96. Clay-modelling was timetabled for/took up/ half the afternoon.

97. Many’s the time (that) I heard her use those words.

98. It was not so much a discussion as argument.

99. We wouldn't have been reimbursed if we hadn’t taken legal advice.

100. You drove me to distraction with your silly question.

Part 2: (0.75/20pts) (0.15 point for each correct answer)

Suggested answers

101. In terms of education, his childhood years had been well spent.

102. He’s a very good footballer/ tennis player in addition to being a very good tennis player/ footballer.

 Or: He’s a very good footballer/ tennis player in addition (is) a good tennis player/ footballer.

103. If only everything weren’t difficult to me!

104. Working without a break makes you more prone to error.

105.They were all ears to the president’s speech.

ĐỀ THI GỒM 80 QUESTIONS (TỪ QUESTION 1 ĐẾN QUESTION 80)

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs

from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. comfortable B. syllable C. able D. capable

Question 2: A. habitat B. protection C. essential D. priority

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the sentence given in each of the following questions.

Question 3: “I’m very sorry for what happened but you will just have to accept the truth.” Laura said to her friend.

A. Laura took the responsibility for what had happened.

B. Laura didn’t mean to tell the truth.

C. Laura apologized to her friend for what had happened.

D. Laura consoled her friend.

Question 4: No matter how hard he tried, Mike could not make sense of his economics textbook.

A. Mike could not understand his economics textbook because he hardly tried to at all.

B. In spite of his efforts, Mike was unable to understand the contents of his economics textbook.

C. If Mike had studied harder, he would have been able to comprehend what was in his economics textbook.

D. It was impossible for Mike to understand his economics textbook without making a great effort.

Question 5: I have seen all of her films but one.

A. I have seen only one film of hers.

B. I have seen one of her films.

C. There is only one film of hers that I have not seen.

D. I have finished seeing even one film of hers.

Question 6: Many people are afraid of sharks, but they rarely attack people.

A. Although sharks rarely attack people, many people are afraid of them.

B. Many people are afraid of sharks because they are dangerous.

C. Rarely attacked by sharks, many people are, therefore, afraid of them.

D. Sharks rarely attack people because many people are afraid of them.

Question 7: In 1908, the Irish explorer Earnest Shackleton was on the point of reaching the South Pole when he decided to turn back.

A. The Irish explorer Earnest Shackleton couldn’t see the point of reaching the South Pole in 1908, so he chose to go back.

B. In 1908, Earnest Shackleton, who was an explorer from Ireland, reached the South Pole just when he was deciding to return.

C. At the point when the Irish explorer Earnest Shackleton thought about turning around, he was on his way to the South Pole.

D. Earnest Shackleton, who was an Irish explorer, came close to the South Pole in 1908, but then he made up his mind to go back.

Question 8: “All right, it’s true. I was nervous,” said the girl.

A. The girl admitted to have been nervous. B. The girl decided that she had been nervous.

C. The girl denied being nervous. D. The girl admitted that she had been nervous.

Question 9: People say that Carter was the best director of his time.

A. Carter is said to be the best director of his time.

B. Carter is said to have been the best director of his time.

C. It was said that Carter was the best director of his time.

D. Carter was said to have been the best director of his time.

Question 10: I’d rather you did not park here.

A. Parking here is permitted. B. I did not park here.

C. Would you mind not parking here? D. I would like you to park here.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the

position of the main stress in each of the following questions.

Question 11: A. particular B. interesting C. significant D. curriculum

Question 12: A. eradicate B. independent C. agricultural D. optimistic

Question 13: A. casual B. prepare C. prosperity D. historical

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 14: Because Jack defaulted on his loan, the bank took him to court.

A. failed to pay B. paid in full C. had a bad personality D. was paid much money

Question 15: His career in the illicit drug trade ended with the police raid this morning.

A. elicited B. irregular C. secret D. legal

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the

correct word(s) for each of the following blanks.

The Great Wall (16)_______ for 5,000 kilometers across China from the East coast to the Gobi Desert. This biggest of all building projects was begun 2,000 years ago during Qin Dynasty. (17)_______built walls were all joined up to form one huge line, supposedly to (18)_______any invading nomads. The project used thousands of workers, many of (19)_______ were prisoners. (20)_______180 million cubic meters of earth were used to form the wall’s core. The wall was not particularly successful as a deterrent to invaders. However, it was very useful as a kind of ancient, elevated motorway. Men and equipment could be (21)_______ moved along the wall, through the previously inhospitable, mountainous land. Also, a very useful communication system was developed between the different sections of the wall. Smoke signals were used (22)_______messages quickly anywhere along the wall’s length. Now, the Great Wall is China’s most popular (23)_______. It has suffered some decay and destruction over the centuries. Parts have been worn away by the wind and weather. Other sections have been destroyed by local peasants who carried off the materials to make their own homes. However, the wall is still a (n) (24)_______ sight, and a lasting monument to the (25)______Chinese civilization that created it.

Question 16: A. stretches B. lengthens C. balances D. lasts

Question 17: A. Detachedly B. Separately C. Privately D. Individually

Question 18: A. keep on B. keep out C. keep from D. drive away

Question 19: A. who B. which C. whom D. them

Question 20: A. Or so B. Somewhat C. Around D. Approximate

Question 21: A. easily B. difficultly C. easier D. quicker

Question 22: A. to sending B. to take C. to send D. to taking

Question 23: A. tour guide B. tourist business C. tourist centre D. tourist attraction

Question 24: A. delighting B. scaring C. boring D. amazing

Question 25: A. antique B. old C. aged D. ancient

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 26: Crime invention is as crucial in the workplace like it is in the home or neighborhood.

Question 27: It would be much better if everyone were charged for the amount of rubbish one produced.

Question 28: Of the more than 1,300 volcanoes in the world, only about 600 can classify as active.

Question 29: When I got to the passport control, there was a long line of people waited to show their passports.

Question 30: Finished her household chores, Mary decided to do some shopping.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Psychologists who study information processing have identified and described several memory structures that clarify how our memory works. They include the sensory register short-term memory, and long-term memory. Each structure varies as to how much information it can hold and for how long.

 A description of how human process information typically begins with environmental stimuli. Our sense receptors are constantly stimulated by visual, auditory, tactile, olfactory, and gustatory stimuli. These experiences are initially recorded in the sensory register, so named because information is thought to be encoded there in the same form in which it was perceived. The purpose of the sensory register is to hold information one to three seconds. Information not recognized or otherwise selected by us disappears from the system. The sensory register can hold about twelve items of information at a time. Typists make extensive use of the sensory register in order to remember words just long enough to get them typed. If no further processing takes place, a typist’s ability to recall that information later is minimal. Similarly, most of us have had the experience of reading an entire page of text, only to discover when we got to the bottom of the page, we couldn’t say anything about it except that we had indeed “read” every word. Once information has been recognized as meaningful, it is sent to short-term memory. In this case, short-term is approximately 20 seconds. While this may seem surprising, it can be easily demonstrated. If you were asked to dial an unfamiliar phone number, received a busy signal, and were then distracted by something or someone else for 15 to 20 seconds, chances are you would have forgotten the number at that point. Short-term memory is often referred to as “working” memory.

 Most cognitive psychologists believe that the storage capacity of long-term memory is unlimited and contains a permanent record of everything an individual has learned and experienced. Information is encoded there to enhance its meaningfulness and organization so that it can be easily retrieved when necessary.

Question 31: What is the purpose of the passage?

A. To explain how our memory processes information.

B. To describe the sensory register.

C. To explain why we sometimes forget information.

D. To compare short-term and long-term memory.

Question 32: The word “They” in paragraph 1 refers to__________.

A. psychologists B. information C. memory structures D. environmental stimuli

Question 33: The word “stimuli” in lines 4 and 5 is closest in meaning to__________.

A. objects or events that activate our memory. C. things that help us to later recall what happened.

B. objects we consider attractive. D. situations in which we experience emotions.

Question 34: According to the passage, typists are unable to recall information they type if__________.

A. they are tired.

B. they are distracted by something or someone.

C. they have too much work to be able to process it all.

D. they do not recognize it as meaningful enough to remember.

Question 35: The word “minimal” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to__________.

A. very big B. very good C. very pretty D. very small

Question 36: According to the passage, which type of information is sent to short-term memory?

A. Information we need for three seconds or less. C. Information that is relevant to us.

B. Information that surprises us. D. Environmental stimuli we do not perceive.

Question 37: It can be inferred that short-term memory is called “working” memory because________.

A. we use it extensively when we are working.

B. it holds information we are working on at a given moment.

C. it is very difficult to use effectively.

D. we must work hard to retrieve information from it.

Question 38: The word “capacity” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to__________.

A. size B. quality C. location D. time

Question 39: The word “retrieved” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to__________.

A. bought B. interrupted C. recovered D. forgotten

Question 40: Which of the following would we most easily retrieve from long-term memory?

A. A wrong telephone number we dialed. B. The face of a stranger on the street.

C. The birth date of our child. D. Voices from the television in the background.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in

meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 41: The pilot miraculously survived the crash unscathed.

A. unsurprised B. unhurt C. unhappy D. undeterred

Question 42: Ponce de Leon searched in vain for a means of rejuvenating the aged.

A. making weary again B. making wealthy again C. making young again D. making merry again

Question 43: Tennis wear has become a very lucrative business for both manufacturers and tennis stars.

A. illegal B. expansive C. circumstantial D. profitable

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct sentence that is made by the following words given.

Question 44: plants/animals/survive/ oxygen.

A. Neither plants nor animals can survive having oxygen.

B. Neither plants or animals can survive without oxygen.

C. Neither plants nor animals can survive without oxygen.

D. Not plants nor animals can survive with no oxygen.

Question 45: Never/history/humanity/there/be/more people/live/world.

A. Never in the history of humanity there are more people living in this world.

B. Never in the history of humanity has there been more people to live in this world.

C. Never in the history of humanity are there more people living in this world.

D. Never in the history of humanity have there been more people living in this world

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

After the Anasazi abandoned southwestern Colorado in the late 1200s or early 1300s, history’s pages are blank. The Anasazi were masons and apartment builders who occupied the deserts, river valleys, and mesas of this region for over a thousand years, building structures that have weathered the test of time. The first Europeans to visit southwestern Colorado were the ever-restless, ambitious Spanish, who sought gold, pelts, and slaves. In 1765, under orders from the Spanish governor in Santa Fe, Juan Maria Antonio Rivera led a prospecting and trading party into the region. Near the Dolores River in southwestern Colorado, he found some insignificant silver-bearing rocks, and it is thought that it was he who named the mountains nearby the Sierra de la Plata or the Silver Mountains. Rivera found little of commercial value that would interest his superiors in Santa Fe, but he did open up a route that would soon lead to the establishment of the Old Spanish Trail. This expedition and others to follow left names on the land which are only reminders we have today that the Spanish once explored this region. In 1776, one of the men who had accompanied Rivera, Andre Muniz, acted as a guide for another expedition. That party entered southwestern Colorado in search of a route west to California, traveling near today’s towns of Durango and Dolores. Along the way, they camped at the base of a large green mesa which today carries the name Mesa Verde. They were the first Europeans to record the discovery of an Anasazi archeological site in southwestern Colorado. By the early 1800s, American mountain men and trappers were exploring the area in their quest for beaver pelts. Men like Peg-leg Smith were outfitted with supplies in the crossroads trapping town of Taos, New Mexico. These adventurous American trappers were a tough bunch. They, possibly more than any other newcomers, penetrated deeply into the mountain fastness of southwestern Colorado, bringing back valuable information about the area and discovering new routes through the mountains. One of the trappers, William Becknell, the father of the Santa Fe Trail, camped in the area of Mesa Verde, where he found pottery shards, stone houses, and other Anasazi remains.

Question 46: What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. The Spanish influence in Colorado. B. The history of the Anasazi in Colorado.

C. Early exploration of Colorado. D. Economic exploitation of Colorado.

Question 47: The phrase “weathered the test of time” in paragraph 1 means that__________

A. The Anasazi culture was very old.

B. Anasazi buildings can still be seen.

C. The Anasazi abandoned Colorado because of the desert conditions.

D. Climatic conditions have changed since the time of the Anasazi.

Question 48: Why does the author mention “gold, pelts, and slaves” in paragraph 2 ?

A. To classify the natural resources. B. To criticize the cruelty of the Spanish.

C. To point out the wealth of the region. D. To show commercial interest in the region.

Question 49: The phrase “the region” in paragraph 2 refers to__________

A. Sierra de la Plata B. Santa Fe C. southwestern Colorado D. New Mexico

Question 50: It can be concluded from the lines 10-11 that__________

A. many places have Spanish names.

B. Rivera’s expedition was unsuccessful.

C. not much is known of the Spanish exploration of the region.

D. the Spanish culture quickly overtook the native culture.

Question 51: The purpose of the expedition of 1776 was__________

A. to look for a way to reach California. B. to study the archaeology of the region.

C. to look for silver in the mountains. D. to build the towns of Durango and Dolores.

Question 52: In paragraph 4, the author suggests that__________

A. American trappers traded with the Spanish.

B. mountain men and trappers survived in harsh conditions.

C. Peg-leg Smith owned a trading post in New Mexico.

D. beaver pelts were becoming scarce in Colorado in the 1800s.

Question 53: Which of the following is most likely true about William Becknell?

A. He collected Anasazi pottery.

B. He was well-educated about the Anasazi culture.

C. He built the Santa Fe Trail.

D. He was wealthy from selling beaver pelts.

Question 54: Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage?

A. A comparison of Spanish and American expeditions.

B. A description of southwestern Colorado.

C. An illustration of archaeological discovery.

D. A historical account of southwestern Colorado .

Question 55: Which of the following sentences should NOT be included in a summary of this passage?

A. The discovery of gold and silver changed Colorado history.

B. The Anasazi were early inhabitants of Colorado.

C. The Spanish were the first Europeans to explore Colorado.

D. Economic interests influenced the exploration of Colorado.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

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ĐÁP ÁN

1 C 2 C 3 D 4 B 5 C 6 A 7 D 8 D 9 B 10 C 11 B 12 A 13 A 14 B 15 D 16 A 17 B 18 B 19 C 20 C

21 A 22 C 23 D 24 D 25 D 26 C 27 D 28 C 29 C 30 A 31 A 32 C 33 A 34 D 35 D 36 C 37 B 38 A 39 C 40 C

41 B 42 C 43 D 44 C 45 D 46 C 47 B 48 D 49 C 50 A 51 A 52 B 53 C 54 D 55 A 56 D 57 C 58 A 59 A 60 D

61 D 62 D 63 C 64 A 65 B 66 B 67 B 68 B 69 B 70 D 71 D 72 D 73 C 74 C 75 B 76 C 77 B 78 B 79 A 80 B

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

The initial contact between American Indians and European settlers usually involved trade, whereby Indians acquired tools and firearms and the Europeans obtained furs. These initial events usually pitted Indian tribes against each other as they competed for the European trade and for the lands containing fur-producing animals. When the furs had been depleted, the Europeans began a campaign to obtain the lands the Indians occupied. The Indians often formed confederations and alliances to fight back the Europeans; however, the Indians’ involvement in the white people’s wars usually disrupted these confederations. Indians resisted the attempts by the whites to displace them. They fought defensive wars such as the Black Hawk War in 1832. Indian uprisings also occurred, like the Sioux uprising in the 1860s.

Despite the resistance of the Indians, the Europeans were destined to win the conflict. After Indian resistance was crushed, the whites legitimized the taking of Indian lands by proposing treaties, frequently offering gifts to Indian chiefs to get them sign the treaties. Once an Indian group had signed a treaty, the whites proceeded to remove them from their land. Often the Indians were forced west of the Mississippi into Indian Territory-land the whites considered uninhabitable. If only a few Indians remained after the conquest, they were often absorbed by local tribes or forced onto reservations.

No aspect of American history is more poignant than the accounts of the forced removal of Indians across the continent. As white settlers migrated farther west, Indians were forced to sign new treaties giving up the lands earlier treaties had promised them. Some Indian tribes, realizing the futility of resistance, accepted their fate and moved westward without force. The Winnebagos, who offered little resistance, were shifted from place to place between 1829 and 1866. About half of them perished during their perpetual sojourn. Other tribes, however, bitterly resisted. The Seminoles signed a treaty in 1832 but violently resisted removal. Hostilities broke out in 1835 and continued for seven years. The United States government lost nearly 1,500 men and spent over $50 million in its attempts to crush Seminole resistance. Most of Seminoles were eventually forced to Indian Territory. However, several hundred remained in the Florida Everglades, where their descendants live today.

Question 1: What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. Violation of treaties by white settlers.

B. Conflict between American Indians and European settlers.

C. The diverse cultures of American Indian tribes.

D. Trade between American Indians and European settlers.

Question 2: What does the author mean by the phrase “pitted Indian tribes against each other”?

A. Trade with Europeans took place in public market pits.

B. Contact with Europeans caused opposition among Indian tribes.

C. Athletic events were popular with the Indian tribes.

D. Indians used European-made firearms in their shooting competitions.

Question 3: The word “legitimized “in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to__________.

A. encouraged B. wrote to support C. justified D. coordinated

Question 4: It can be concluded from the lines 9-11 that__________.

A. Both Indians and Europeans wanted to end the conflict by signing treaties.

B. Indian chiefs were easily bribed by economic offerings.

C. Europeans showed great speaking skill in their treaty proposals.

D. Europeans had greater military, political, and economic power than Indians.

Question 5: The author makes the point that Indian Territory was__________.

A. where a few Indians remained.

B. in the western part of Mississippi.

C. where several battles between Indians and whites took place.

D. considered undesirable by European settlers.

Question 6: According to the passage, which of the following did NOT happen?

A. Treaties allowed Indians to live where they wanted.

B. Indian tribes formed alliances with other tribes.

C. Indians were forced to live on reservations.

D. Indians rebelled against European settlers.

Question 7: In lines 15-17, the author implies that__________.

A. Indian treaties and removal were minor events in American history.

B. new treaties promised Indians more land than had the earlier treaties.

C. many accounts of Indian removal are not true.

D. Indian removal was a shameful tragedy of American history.

Question 8: The word “futility” could be best replaced by__________.

A. uselessness B. expense C. importance D. advantage

Question 9: The word “perpetual” in paragraph3 is closest in meaning to__________.

A. victorious B. long-lasting C. seasonal D. gradual

Question 10: According to the passage, which tribe did NOT fight against removal?

A. Sioux B. Winnebago C. Seminole D. Black Hawk

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part

differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 11: A. stopped B. washed C. walked D. warned

Question 12: A. future B. refuse C. abuse D. fuss

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

The election of Andrew Jackson to the presidency in 1928 marked the political ascendancy of the

“common man” in American politics. Whereas all previous presidents had been Easterners from well-to-do families, Jackson was a self-made man of modest wealth from the West. Born in 1767, Jackson fought in the American Revolution, in which many of his relatives died. Afterwards, he studied law and moved to the Western District of North California. When that territory became the state of Tennessee, Jackson was elected the state’s first congressman. His name became a household word during the war of 1812, when, as a U.S Army major general, he led troops against the Creek Indians in the Mississippi Territory and later defeated the British at New Orleans. After his presidential inauguration, Jackson rode on horseback to the White House to attend a private party. Crowds of well-wishers suddenly appeared at the reception and nearly destroyed the White House as they tried to glimpse the new president. The common man had made a dramatic entrance onto the national political scene.

Jackson’s two terms moved American society toward truer democracy. Many states abandoned property requirements for voting. Elected officials began to act more truly as representatives of the people than as their leaders. As president of the common man, Jackson waged a war against the Bank of the United States, vetoing the bill that re-chartered the institution, declaring it a dangerous monopoly that profited the wealthy few.

Although he had built his reputation as an Indian fighter during the War of 1812, Jackson was not an Indian hater. He adopted what was at the time considered an enlightened solution to the Indian problem-removal. Many tribes submitted peacefully to being moved to the West. Others were marched by force to the Indian Territory, under brutal conditions, along what the Cherokees called the Trail of Tears. One of Andrew Jackson’s most enduring legacies was the Democratic Party, which under him became a highly organized political party. In opposition to the Democrats were the Whigs, a party that attracted supporters of the Bank of the United States and opposed the tyranny of the man called “King Andrew”. A less specific but more basic legacy is the populist philosophy of politics that still bears the name “Jacksonian Democracy.”

Question 13: The author’s perspective toward Andrew Jackson could be best described as_______.

A. critical B. emotional C. personal D. historical

Question 14: The phrase ‘became the household word” in paragraph 1 means that__________.

A. a house style was called Jackson. B. Jackson acquired fame.

C. people criticized Jackson. D. Jackson was a popular boy’s name

Question 15: The author suggests that Jackson’s election and inauguration __________.

A. destroyed the White House.

B. brought a new style to the presidency.

C. made a lot of common people angry.

D. put a military man in the White House for the first time.

Question 16: The word “institution” in paragraph 3 refers to__________.

A. the presidency of the United States B. American society.

C. The Bank of the United States. D. democracy

Question 17: According to the passage, why did Jackson oppose the Bank of the United States?

A. He thought it benefited only rich people.

B. It started a war.

C. It opposed electing him “King Andrew”.

D. It opposed giving common people the right to vote.

Question 18: According to the passage, Jackson’s policy toward American Indians was__________.

A. developed during the War of 1812. B. forceful and cruel

C. considered his greatest achievement. D. considered progressive at the time.

Question 19: The word “brutal” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to__________.

A. tearful B. abrupt C. humane D. harsh

Question 20: The word “legacy” in lines 22 and 25 in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to_____.

A. philosophy B. trend C. contribution D. legend

Question 21: Which of the following is NOT attributed to Andrew Jackson?

A. The Whig Party. B. Jacksonian Democracy.

C. The rise of the common man. D. The Democratic Party.

Question 22: Which of the following could NOT be inferred about Andrew Jackson?

A. He served his country throughout his life. B. He supported democratic reforms.

C. He inspired populist politics. D. He was president during a violent war.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 23: She had a cozy little apartment in Boston.

A. uncomfortable B. warm C. lazy D. dirty

Question 24: He was so insubordinate that he lost his job within a week.

A. fresh B. disobedient C. obedient D. understanding

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word(s) for each of the following blanks.

Reference books are not designed to be read from the first page to the last but rather to be consulted to answer the questions and provide both general and specific pieces of information. One of the most (25)_______-used reference books is a dictionary, which provides information about words. It lists meanings and spellings, (26)_______ how a word is pronounced, gives (27)_______ of how it is used, may reveal its origins and also lists synonyms and (28)_______. To help you find the words faster, there are guide words at the top of each page showing the first and last words on that pageand of course it (29)_______ to know the alphabet!  There may be numerous special sections at the back with (30)_______ about famous people and places, lists of dates and scientific names, etc. There is usually a section at the front (31)_______ how to use the dictionary, which includes the special abbreviations or signs. An atlas is also a reference book and (32)_______ charts, tables and geographical facts, as well as maps. Political maps locate countries and cities, physical maps show the formation of the land with its mountains and valleys, and economic maps show industries and agriculture. To find a specific place, you need to look in the (33)_______ at the back of the atlas and the exact position on the map. There are numerous map (34)_______ that you need to know in order to be able to read a map-almost like a special language-and these are explained at the front of the atlas.

Question 25: A. greatly B. mainly C. widely D. largely

Question 26: A. speaks B. tells C. says D. gives

Question 27: A. evidence B. roof C. examples D. cases

Question 28: A. antonyms B. closest C. opposite D. controversies

Question 29: A. assists B. pays C. helps D. works

Question 30: A. events B. stories C. facts D. materials

Question 31: A. explaining B. interpreting C. suggesting D. presenting

Question 32: A. composes B. includes C. consists D. contains

Question 33: A. foreword B. preface C. complement D. index

Question 34: A. marks B. signs C. signals D. symbols

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.

Question 35: A. employment B. assimilate C. relative D. tomorrow

Question 36: A. memory B. weather C. criticize D. potential

Question 37: A. mosquito B. comfortable C. millennium D. policeman

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 38: It was not until the late 1970s when these country people could enjoy the benefits of

electricity.

Question 39: Neither the director nor any members of the staff is working overtime today.

Question 40: A big wedding requires a lot of preparation, such as sending invitations, hiring costumes

and choose dishes.

Question 41: When attempt to explain children’s food preferences, researchers are faced with

contradictions.

Question 42: People live in big cities often have trouble making friends.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best joins each of the following pairs of sentences in each of the following questions.

Question 43: Joe does a lot of exercise. He’s still very fat.

A. Despite the fact that doing a lot of exercise, Joe’s still very fat.

B. Joe does a lot of exercise, so he’s very fat.

C. Even though Joe does a lot of exercise, he’s very fat.

D. Joe’s very fat, but he does a lot of exercise.

Question 44: Canada does not require US citizens to obtain passports to enter the country. Mexico does

not require US citizens to do the same.

A. Canada does not require US citizens to obtain passports to enter the country, and Mexico does, either.

B. Canada does not require US citizens to obtain passports to enter the country, and Mexico does not,

either.

C. Canada does not require US citizens to obtain passports to enter the country, and neither Mexico

does.

D. Canada does not require US citizens to obtain passports to enter the country while Mexico does.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

--(Nội dung đầy đủ, chi tiết vui lòng xem tại online hoặc đăng nhập để tải về máy)---

ĐÁP ÁN

1B 2B 3C 4D 5D 6A 7D 8A 9B 10B 11D 12D 13D 14B 15B 16C 17A 18D 19D 20C

21A 22D 23A 24C 25C 26B 27C 28A 29C 30C 31A 32D 33D 34D

35C 36D 37B 38B 39C 40D 41A 42A 43C 44B 45C 46B 47C 48D 49C 50A

51D 52B 53A 54B 55B 56C 57D 58C 59B 60D 61A 62D 63C 64A 65A 66D

67B 68C 69B 70A 71B 72A 73C 74C 75C 76C 77D 78B 79B 80A

ĐỀ THI GỒM CÓ 80 CÂU (TỪ QUESTION 1 ĐẾN QUESTION 80)

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 1: That the subways are overcrowded in Manhattan it  is a problem that should be dealt with soon.

                 A                                                                         B C                                                 D

Question 2: The duties of the secretary are to take the minutes, mailing the correspondence, and calling the

                                                                  A      B                             C

members before the meetings.   

                                      D                  

Question 3: A football match begins with the ball kicking forwards from a spot in the centre of the field.

                                                     A       B                            C                                         D

Question 4: With its compound eyes, dragonflies can see moving insects approximately 18 feet away.

                              A                                                                 B                            C                         D

Question 5: Most oxygen atoms have eight neutrons, but a small amount have nine or ten.

                 A                              B                                                 C                          D

Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct  answer to each of the following questions from 6 to 15.

         Are organically grown foods the best choices? The advantages claimed for such foods over conventionally grown and marketed food products are now being debated. Advocates of organic foods – a term whose meaning varies greatly – frequently proclaim that such products are safer and more nutritious than others.

The growing interest of consumers in the safety and more nutritional quality of the typical North American diet is a welcome development . However, much of this interest has been sparked by sweeping claims that the food supply is unsafe or inadequate in meeting nutritional needs. Although most of these claims are not supported  by scientific evidence, the preponderance of written material advancing such claims makes it difficult for the general public to separate fact from fiction. As a result, claims that eating a diet consisting entirely of organically grown foods prevents or cures disease or provides other benefits to health have become widely publicized and form the basis for folklore.

        Almost daily the public is besieged by claims for “no-aging” diets, new vitamins, and other wonder foods. There are numerous  unsubstantiated reports that natural vitamins are superior to synthetic ones, that fertilized eggs are nutritionally superior to fertilized eggs, that untreated grains are better than fumigated grains and the like. One thing that most organically grown food products seem to have in common is that they cost more than conventionally grown foods. But in many cases consumers are misled if they believe organic foods can maintain health and provide better nutritional quality than conventionally grown foods. So there is real cause for concern if consumers, particularly those with limited incomes, distrust the regular food and buy only expensive organic foods instead

Question 6:  According to the first paragraph , which of the following is true about the terms “ organic foods” ?

A. It has been used only in recent years.                     B. It is seldom used by consumers.

C. It has no fixed meaning.                                        D. It is accepted by most nutritionists .

Question 7:  The “ welcome development” mentioned is an increase in___.

A. the amount  of health food grown in North American

B. interest in food safety and nutritional quality of the typical North American diet

C. the number of consumers in North American

D. the nutritional quality of the typical North American diet

Question 8:  The word “Advocates” is closest in meaning to which of the following ?

A. Proponents                   B. Inspectors                     C. Consumers                   D. Merchants

Question 9:  In the first paragraph, the word “others” refers to ___.

A. advocates                     B. organic foods                C. advantages                   D. products

Question 10: The word “maintain” is closest in meaning to ___.

A. preserve                       B. retire                            C. improve                       D. monitor

Question 11: Who does the author think should NOT buy organic foods ?

A. Advocated of organic food                                    B. Wealthy people

C. Concerned consumers                                           D. Low income consumers

Question 12:  The word “unsubstantiated” is closest in meaning to ___.

A. unverified                    B. unbelievable                 C. uncontested                  D. unpopular

Question 13:  According to the last paragraph, consumers who believe that organic foods are better than conventionally

grown foods are often ___.

A. wealthy                        B. mistaken                      C. thrifty                          D. careless

Question 14:  What is the author’s attitude toward the claims made by advocates of health foods?

A. Very enthusiastic          B. Neutral                         C. Skeptical                      D. Somewhat favorable

Question 15: The author implies that there is cause for concern if consumers with limited incomes buy organic foods

 instead of conventionally grown foods because ___.

A. too many farmers will stop using conventional method to grow food crops

B. many organic foods are actually less nutritious than similar conventionally grown foods

C. conventionally grown foods are more readily available than organic foods

D. organic foods can be more expensive but are often no better than conventionally grown  foods

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks from 16 to 25.

In the US, industries that generate hazardous wastes want to dispose of them as cheaply as possible. Private companies hired to dispose of this waste compete with each other to offer the lowest prices to these industries. The government does not get involved, beyond setting minimum safety standards.

Unfortunately, the (16)______ of companies that generate and dispose of waste is to save money, (17)_____ to guarantee safety. These companies usually send waste to landfills because this is cheaper than recycling or incineration. Disposal firms who want to increase their business must cut corners to lower costs and (18)______customers. At the same time, relatively (19)_______ is done to reduce the volume of waste generated, because disposal costs (20)________relatively modest.

            Things are different in Denmark. There the government (21)_______ in the waste disposal process beginning (22)________the front end. Together with industry, the government formed a corporation to establish and (23)_______waste disposal facilities. This company, called Kommunichem, has a (24)_________ on waste disposal. Generators of hazardous waste (25)______ship their waste to one of Kommunichem’s disposal facilities. In this system, there is no price competition in the waste disposal business.

Question 16: A. goal                 B. solution                   C. importance               D. license

Question 17: A. not                   B. just                           C. besides                     D. something

Question 18: A. survive            B. gain                          C. prosper                    D. efficient

Question 19: A. more                B. this                           C. recycling                 D. little

Question 20: A. still                  B. have                         C. remain                      D. cheap

Question 21: A. interferes         B. participates               C. involved                    D. control

Question 22: A. to                    B. by                             C. of                             D. at

Question 23: A. prepare            B. found                       C. operate                      D. generate

Question 24: A. power              B. profit                        C. monopoly                 D. responsibility

Question 25: A. must                B. disposal                   C. take                          D. help

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose stress is placed differently from that of the others.

Question 26: A. synchronized               B. horizon                    C. opponent                 D. canoeing

Question 27: A. compulsory                 B. certificate                C. category                  D. curriculum

Question 28: A. industry                      B. proficiency              C. redundancy              D. industrial

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underline part is pronounced differently from that of the others.

Question 29: A. foot                            B. book                         C. boot                         D. hook

Question 30: A. conserve                     B. reside                       C. resume                    D. preserve

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 31: Her style of dress accentuated her extreme slenderness.

A. revealed                    B. emphasized               C. disfigured                 D. betrayed

Question 32: The lecture hall is practically full now.

A. already                     B. completely                C. probably                  D. almost

Question 33: Soot can penetrate closed window.

A. enter                         B. stick to                     C. erode                        D. make dirty        

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 34:His physical condition was not an impediment to his career as a violinist.

A. hindrance                 B. obstruction                C. setback                    D. furtherance      

Question 35: Why are you being so arrogant?

A. humble                    B. snooty                      C. cunning                    D. naive

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 45. 

       It is commonly believed in the United States that school is where people go to get an education. Nevertheless, it has been said that today children interrupt their education to go to school. The distinction between schooling and education implied by this remark is important.

Education is much more open-ended and all-inclusive than schooling. Education knows no bounds. It can take place anywhere, whether in the shower or on the job, whether in a kitchen or on a tractor. It includes both the formal learning that takes place in schools and the whole universe of informal learning. The agents of education can range from a revered grandparent to the people debating politics on the radio, from a child to a distinguished scientist. Whereas schooling has a certain predictability, education quite often produces surprises. A chance conversation with a stranger may lead a person to discover how little is known of other religions. People are engaged in education from infancy on. Education, then, is a very broad, inclusive term. It is a lifelong process, a process that starts long before the start of school, and one that should be an integral part of one's entire life. Schooling, on the other hand, is a specific, formalized process, whose general pattern varies little from one setting to the next. Throughout a country, children arrive at school at approximately the same time, take assigned seats, are taught by an adult, use similar textbooks, do homework, take exams, and so on. The slices of reality that are to be learned, whether they are the alphabet or an understanding of the workings of government, have usually been limited by the boundaries of the subject being taught. For example, high school students know that they are not likely to find out in their classes the truth about political problems in their communities or what the newest filmmakers are experimenting with. There are definite conditions surrounding the formalized process of schooling.

Question 36: What does the author probably mean by using the expression “children interrupt their education to go to school”?

     A. Going to several different schools is educationally beneficial.

     B. School vacations interrupt the continuity of the school year.

     C. Summer school makes the school year too long.

     D. All of life is an education.                            

Question 37: The word “chance” is closest in meaning to

     A. unplanned                        B. unusual                      C. lengthy                      D. lively

Question 38: The word “an integral” is closest in meaning to

     A. an equitable                     B. a profitable                C. a pleasant                   D. an essential           

Question 39: The word “bounds” is closest in meaning to________.

     A. rules                                 B. limits                         C. experience                 D. exceptions

Question 40: The word “they” refers to

     A. slices of reality                  B. similar textbooks      C. boundaries                 D. seats

Question 41: The phrase “For example,” introduces a sentence that gives examples of

     A. similar textbooks                                                 B. the results of schooling

     C. the workings of a government                                D. the boundaries of classroom subjects

Question 42: From the passage, we can infer that a high school teacher _________.

      A. is free to choose anything to teach                       B. is bound to teach programmed subjects

      C. is not allowed to teach political issues                  D. has to teach social issues to all classes

--(Nội dung đầy đủ, chi tiết vui lòng xem tại online hoặc đăng nhập để tải về máy)---

ĐÁP ÁN

1B 2B 3C 4A 5C 6C  7B 8A 9D 10A 11D 12A 13B 14C 15D 16A 17A 18B 19D 20C

21B 22D 23C  24C 25A 26A 27C 28A 29C 30A  31B 32D 33A 34D 35A 36D37A 38D 39B 40A  

41D 42B 43A 44C 45C 46A 47C 48C 49A 50A 51D 52B 53A 54A 55C 56B 57C 58D 59A60B  

61D 62C 63B 64A65C 66B 67C 68A 69D 70A71B 72C 73D 74A 75A 76D 77B 78A 79C 80C

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• Bộ 5 đề thi chọn HSG môn Tiếng Anh 12 có đáp án năm 2021 Trường THPT Hiệp Đức
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