Để cung cấp thêm tài liệu giúp các em học sinh lớp 11 ôn tập chuẩn bị trước kì thi HSG sắp tới HOC247 giới thiệu đến các em tài liệu Bộ 5 đề thi chọn HSG môn Tiếng Anh 11 có đáp án năm 2021 Trường THPT Trần Cao Vân được HOC247 biên tập và tổng hợp với phần đề và đáp án, lời giải chi tiết giúp các em tự luyện tập làm đề. Hi vọng tài liệu này sẽ có ích cho các em, chúc các em có kết quả học tập tốt!
|
TRƯỜNG THPT TRẦN CAO VÂN |
ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI NĂM HỌC 2020-2021 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 11 (Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề) |
1. Đề số 1
PART I: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR. (7, 0 POINTS)
I. Choose the best option to complete each of the sentences. (2,0 points)
1. The strike was ___ owing to a last minute agreement with the management.
A. called off B. broken up C. set back D. put down
2. Lindsay’s excuses for being late are beginning to ___ rather thin.
A. get B. turn C. wear D. go
3. ___ the people who come to this club are in their twenties and thirties.
A. By and large B. Altogether C. To a degree D. Virtually
4. My cousin was nervous about being interviewed on television, but she rose to the ___ wonderfully.
A. event B. performance C. incident D. occasion
5. The train service has been a ___ since they introduced the new schedules.
A. shambles B. rumpus C. chaos D. fracas
6. Is an inexperienced civil servant ___ to the task of running the company.
A. capable B. skilled C. eligible D. suited
7. We ___ have been happier in those days.
A. can’t B. couldn’t C. might not D. must not
8. You’ve lived in the city for most of your life, so ___ you’re used to the noise.
A. apparently B. presumably C. allegedly D. predictably
9. The storm ripped our tent to ___
A. slices B. shreds C. strips D. specks
10. He ____ so much harm on the nation during his regime that it has never fully recovered.
A. indicted B. inferred C. inducedD. inflicted
11. Hotel rooms must be ____ by 10 a. m, but luggage may be left with porters.
A. vacatedB. evacuatedC. abandoned D. left
12. I do not think there is so much as a ____ of truth in that rumor.
A. crumb B. speck C. grain D. pebble
13. He’s not exactly rich but he certainly earns enough money to ____
A. get through B. get by C. get on D. get up
14. I have very ____ feelings about the plan – it might possibly work or it could be a disaster.
A. certain B. mixed C. doubtful D. troubled
15. The noise of the typewriter really ____ me off. I just couldn’t concentrate.
A. put B. pulled C. set D. took
16. The sixth time he called me at night was the ____
A. last cause B. last straw C. touch and go D. hot air
17. All three TV channels provide extensive ____ of sporting events.
A. broadcast B. network C. coverage D. vision
18. They seemed to be ____ to the criticism and just carried on as before.
A. disinterested B. sensitive C. uncaring D. indifferent
19. “Shall we go out tonight?”- “____”
A. Yes, I can B. Yes, we are C. Yes, we go D. Yes, let’s
20. It's no use ___ over ___ milk.
A. crying/ spilt B. to cry/ spilling C. crying/ spilling D. crying/ to spill
II. Read the passage below. Use the word given in bold to form a word that fits in the numbered gap. (2, 5 points)
BLACK WIDOW SPIDER
The black widow spider’s notoriety is not without foundation. However, an element of exaggeration has led to certain ___ (1. CONCEPT) regarding its evil nature.
Firstly, this spider is not as dangerous as is often thought. While it is indeed one of the most ___ (2. VENOM) species of spider, its venom being fifteen times stronger than that of the prairie rattlesnake, its bite injects such as amount of venom by ___ (3. COMPARE) that it is unlikely to kill humans. In fact, ___ (4. FATAL) are rare.
Black widows bite only if they are touched or their web is threatened. Furthermore, only the adult female is poisonous. Those most at risk from the female are the spider’s natural pray-insects-and male black widow spiders. The latter are vulnerable as the female is ___ (5. SOLITUDE) by nature, and has been known to kill and eat the male after mating. Such ___ (6. OCCUR) are rare, but they explain how the spider got its name – and its reputation.
Nevertheless, the ___ (7. PLEASE) effects of this spider’s bite should not be ___ (8. ESTIMATE), and if you live in a temperate climate and have a fireplace in your home, it is advisable to take ___ (9. CAUTION). Black widow spiders often inhabit wood piles, so you should wear gloves when handling firewood. Furthermore, since black widow spiders are ___ (10. RESIST) to many insecticides, you should regularly clean out likely hiding places.
IV. The passage below contains TEN mistakes. Underline them and write the correct forms in the numbered boxes. (2, 5 points)
Large animals inhabit the desert have evolved adaptations for reducing the effects of extreme hot. One adaptation is to be light in color, and to reflect the Sun's rays. Desert mammals also depart from the normal mammalian practice of maintaining a constantly body temperature. Instead of try to keep down the body temperature inside the body, what would involve the expenditure of water and energy, desert mammals allow their temperatures rise to what would normally be fever height, and temperatures as high as 46 degree Celsius have been measured in Grant's gazelles. The overheated body cools down during the cold desert night, and indeed the temperature may fall unusual low by dawn, as low as 34 degrees Celsius in the camel. This is a advantage since the heat of the first few hours of daylight absorb in warming up the body.
PART II: READING COMPREHENSION. (6, 0 POINTS)
I. Read the passage and fill in each of the blanks with ONE suitable word. (2,0 points)
True relaxation is most certainly not a matter of flopping down in front of the television with a welcome drink. Nor is it about drifting (1) ___ an exhausted sleep. Useful though these responses to tension and over-tiredness (2) ___ be, we should distinguish between them and conscious relaxation in (3) ___ of quality and effect. (4) ___ of the level of tiredness, real relaxation is a state of alert yet at the same time passive awareness, in which our bodies are (5) ___ rest while our minds are awake.
Moreover, it is as natural for a healthy person to be relaxed when moving as resting. (6) ___ relaxed in action means we bring the appropriate energy to everything we do, so as to have a feeling of healthy tiredness by the end of the day, (7) ___ than one of exhaustion. Unfortunately, as a result of living in today’s competitive world, we are under constant strain and have difficulty in coping, (8) ___ alone nurturing our body’s abilities. What needs to be rediscovered is conscious relaxation. With (9) ___ in mind we must apply ourselves to understanding stress and the nature of its causes (10) ___ deep-seated.
Your answers:
|
1. |
2. |
3. |
4. |
5. |
|
6. |
7. |
8. |
9. |
10. |
II. Read the text and do the tasks as follow. (2, 0 points) OUT OF THE ASHES
Paragraph A
On the afternoon of 30th August 1989, fire broke out at Uppark, a large eighteenth century house in Sussex. For a year builders had been replacing the lead on the roof, and by a stroke of irony, were due to finish the next day, on August 31st. Within fifteen minutes of the alarm being sounded, the fire brigade had arrived on the scene, though nothing was to survive of the priceless collection on the first floor apart from an oil painting of a dog which the firemen swept up as they finally retreated from the blaze. But due to the courage and swift action of the previous owners, the Meade-Featherstonhaugh family, and the staff, stewards and visitors to the house, who formed human chains to pass the precious pieces of porcelain, furniture and paintings out on to the lawn, 95 percent of the contents from the ground floor and the basement were saved. As the fire continued to rage, the National Trust’s conservators were being mobilised, and that evening local stationers were especially opened to provide the bulk supplies of blotting paper so desperately needed in the salvage operation.
Paragraph B
The following morning, Uppark stood open to the sky. A sludge of wet charcoal covered the ground floor and basement, and in every room charred and fallen timbers lay amongst the smoke. It was a scene of utter devastation.
Paragraph C
After the initial sense of shock, the days which followed the fire were filled with discoveries. Helped by volunteers, the National Trust’s archaeologists and conservators swung into action, first of all marking the site out into a grid and then salvaging everything down to the last door handle. The position of each fragment was recorded, and all the debris was stored in countless dustbins before being sifted and categorised.
Paragraph D
There was great excitement as remnants of the lantern from the Staircase Hall were pulled out from the debris of two fallen floors, and also three weeks later when the Red Room carpet, thought to have been totally lost, was found wrapped around the remains of a piano. There was a lucky reprieve for the State Bed too. Staff who had left the scene at 3 a.m on the night of the fire had thought its loss was inevitable, but when they returned the next morning it had escaped largely undamaged. Firemen, directed by the National Trust’s conservators from outside the Tapestry Room window, dismantled the silk-hung bed and passed it out piece by piece. Twenty minutes later the ceiling fell in.
Paragraph E
The scale of the task to repair Uppark was unprecedented in the National Trust. The immediate question was whether it should be done at all. A decision had to be taken quickly, as the building was unsound and whatever had not been damaged by the fire was exposed to the elements. Within a month, after consulting many experts and with the agreement of the National Trust’s Executive Committee, the restoration programme began. It was undertaken for three main reasons. After the fire it had become apparent just how much remained of the structure with its splendidly decorated interiors; to have pulled the house down, as one commentator suggested, would have been vandalism. Also the property was covered by insurance, so the repairs would not call upon the National Trust’s own funds. Lastly, much had been saved of the fine collection acquired especially for Uppark from 1747 by Sir Matthew Featherstonhaugh and his son Harry. These objects belonged nowhere else, and complete restoration of the house would allow them to be seen and enjoyed again in their original setting.
Paragraph F
The search for craftsmen and women capable of doing the intricate restoration work was nation-wide. Once the quality and skill of the individual or company had been ascertained, they had to pass an economic test, as every job was competitively tendered. This has had enormous benefits because not only have a number of highly skilled people come to the fore - woodcarvers for example, following in the footsteps of Grinling Gibbons - but many of them, for example plasterers, have relearnt the skills of the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries which can now be of use to other country house owners when the need arises.
Paragraph G
In June 1994 the building programme was completed, on time and on budget. The total cost of the work to repair the house and its contents came to be nearly £20 million, largely met from insurance. In addition, it made economic sense for the National Trust to invest time and money in upgrading water and heating systems, installing modern environmental controls, and updating fire and security equipment.
Paragraph H
The final stages of restoration and the massive programme of reinstallation took eight months. The family and the room stewards were visibly moved when returning to their old haunts, perhaps the best testament that the spirit of Uppark had not died. But the debate will no doubt continue as to whether or not it was right to repair the house after the fire. The National Trust has done its best to remain true to Uppark; it is for others to judge the success of the project. Note: The National Trust is a charitable organisation in Britain set up over a hundred years ago to preserve the national heritage.
Questions 1–6. The text has eight paragraphs, A–H. Which paragraphs contain the following information? Write the appropriate letters, A–H, in the boxes.
1. The procedure for sorting through the remains of the fire.
2. How Uppark looked after the fire.
3. Improvements made to the rebuilt Uppark.
4. The selection of people to carry out the repair work.
5. Why the National Trust chose to rebuild Uppark.
6. How people reacted to the rebuilt Uppark.
Questions 8–10. Answer the questions below. Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the text for each answer. Write your answers in the boxes.
7. On what date in 1989 should the original repairs to the roof have been completed?
8. By what method were things rescued immediately from the burning house?
9. After the fire, what did the conservators require large quantities of immediately?
10. Into what did the conservators put material recovered from the fire?
Your answers:
|
1. |
2. |
3. |
4. |
5. |
|
6. |
7. |
8. |
9. |
10. |
III. Read the following passage and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to each question. Write your answer in the numbered box. (2, 0 points)
A recent survey of crime statistics shows that we are all more likely to be burgled now than 20 years ago and the police advise everyone to take a few simple precautions to protect their homes.
The first fact is that burglars and other intruders prefer easy opportunities, like a house which is very obviously empty. This is much less of a challenge than an occupied house, and one which is well-protected. A burglar will wonder if it is worth the bother.
There are some general tips on how to avoid your home becoming another crime statistic. Avoid leaving signs that your house is empty. When you have to go out, leave at least one light on as well as a radio or television, and do not leave any curtains wide open. The sight of your latest music centre or computer is enough to tempt any burglar.
Never leave a spare key in a convenient hiding place. The first place a burglar will look is under the doormat or in a flower pot and even somewhere more 'imaginative' could soon be uncovered by the intruder. It is much safer to leave a key with a neighbour you can trust. But if your house is in a quiet, desolate area be aware that this will be a burglar's dream, so deter any potential criminal from approaching your house by fitting security lights to the outside of your house.
But what could happen if, in spite of the aforementioned precautions, a burglar or intruder has decided to target your home. Windows are usually the first point of entry for many intruders. Downstairs windows provide easy access while upstairs windows can be reached with a ladder or by climbing up the drainpipe. Before going to bed you should double-check that all windows and shutters are locked. No matter how small your windows may be, it is surprising what a narrow gap a determined burglar can manage to get through. For extra security, fit window locks to the inside of the window.
What about entry via doors? Your back door and patio doors, which are easily forced open, should have top quality security locks fitted. Even though this is expensive it will be money well spent. Install a burglar alarm if you can afford it as another line of defence against intruders.
A sobering fact is that not all intruders have to break and enter into a property. Why go to the trouble of breaking in if you can just knock and be invited in? Beware of bogus officials or workmen and, particularly if you are elderly, fit a chain and an eye hole so you can scrutinise callers at your leisure. When you do have callers never let anybody into your home unless you are absolutely sure they are genuine. Ask to see an identity card, for example.
If you are in the frightening position of waking in the middle of the night and think you can hear an intruder, then on no account should you approach the intruder. It is far better to telephone the police and wait for help.
1. A well-protected house …………
A. is less likely to be burgled. B. is regarded as a challenge by most criminals.
C. is a lot of bother to maintain. D. is very unlikely to be burgled.
2. According to the writer, we should ………… A. avoid leaving our house empty. B. only go out when we have to.
C. always keep the curtains closed. D. give the impression that our house is occupied when we go out.
3. The writer thinks that hiding a key under a doormat or flower pot …………
A. is predictable. B. is useful. C. is imaginative. D. is where you always find a spare key.
4. What word best replaces “desolate” in paragraph 4?
A. isolated B. populous C. dissatisfying D. depressing
5. The phrase “aforementioned precautions” in paragraph 5 refers to steps that …………
A. will tell a burglar if your house is empty or not.
B. are the most important precautions to take to make your home safe. C. will stop a potential burglar.
D. will not stop an intruder if he has decided to try and enter your home.
6. Gaining entry to a house through a small window …………
A. is surprisingly difficult. B. is not as difficult as people think.
C. is less likely to happen than gaining entry through a door. D. is tried only by very determined burglars.
7. According to the writer, window locks, security locks and burglar alarms …………
A. cost a lot of money but are worth it. B. are good value for money.
C. are luxury items. D. are absolutely essential items.
8. The writer argues that fitting a chain and an eye hole…………
A. will prevent your home being burgled. B. avoids you having to invite people into your home.
C. is only necessary for elderly people. D. gives you time to check if the visitor is genuine.
9. What word best replaces “scrutinise” in paragraph 7?
A. glance B. gaze C. search D. examine
10. The best title for the text is ………… A. Increasing household crime. B. Protecting your home from intruders.
C. Burglary statistics. D. What to do if a burglar breaks into your home.
Your answers:
|
1. |
2. |
3. |
4. |
5. |
|
6. |
7. |
8. |
9. |
10. |
PART III. WRITING. (4,0 POINTS)
I. Do NOT change the form of the word given. (1, 0 point)
1. Although Joe kept on attempting to contact his cousin, he didn't manage to speak to her until the next day. ® Despite repeated ........................ TOUCH................... his cousin, Joe didn't manage to speak to her until the next day.
2. When it comes to computer games, Jack is a real expert. CONCERNED
- As far ............................................................................., Jack is a real expert.
3. David said that the accident was his fault.TOOK
- David .................................................................. the accident.
4. If he doesn’t get that job, who knows what he’ll do. KNOWING
- If he doesn’t get that job, ........................................................... what he’ll do.
5. The stranded climber would never have been rescued if his brother hadn’t had an ingenious plan. INGENUITY
- But .......................................................... plan, the stranded climber would never have been rescued.
II. Use the word given and make any necessary additions to complete a new sentence in such a way that it is as similar as possible to the original one. Do NOT change the form of the word given. (1, 0 point)
1. They will try John for murder at the High Court next week. (trial)
→ John …………………………………………………………..………………………………………
2. How do our sales compare with those of other firms? (relation)
→ How do …………………………………………………………………..……………………………
3. The number of accidents has gone down steadily since the speed limit was imposed. (decline)
→ There has ……………………………………………………………..………………………………
4. This new record is certain to sell a lot of copies. (doubt)
→ There is…………………………………………………………..……………………………………
5. I certainly won’t change my mind about resigning. (question)
→ My changing …………………………………………………….……………………………………
III. The charts below give information on the ages of the populations of Yemen and Italy in 2000 and projections for 2050. Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features and make comparisons where relevant. (2, 0 points)
|
ĐÁP ÁN |
|||||
|
PART |
ANSWERS |
MARK |
|||
|
PART I: LEXICO-GRAMMAR (7,0/20 points) |
I. Choose the best option to complete each of the sentences. (2,0 points) |
1. A |
0.1 p |
||
|
2. C |
0.1 p |
||||
|
3. A |
0.1 p |
||||
|
4. D |
0.1 p |
||||
|
5. A |
0.1 p |
||||
|
6. D |
0.1 p |
||||
|
7. B |
0.1 p |
||||
|
8. B |
0.1 p |
||||
|
9. B |
0.1 p |
||||
|
10. C |
0.1 p |
||||
|
11. A |
0.1 p |
||||
|
12. C |
0.1 p |
||||
|
13. B |
0.1 p |
||||
|
14. B |
0.1 p |
||||
|
15. A |
0.1 p |
||||
|
16. B |
0.1 p |
||||
|
17. C |
0.1 p |
||||
|
18. D |
0.1 p |
||||
|
19. D |
0.1 p |
||||
|
20. A |
0.1 p |
||||
|
II. Read the passage below. Use the word given in bold to form a word that fits in the numbered gap. (2,5 points) |
1. misconception |
0.25 p |
|||
|
2. venomous |
0.25 p |
||||
|
3. comparison |
0.25 p |
||||
|
4. fatalities |
0.2 5p |
||||
|
5. solitary |
0.2 5p |
||||
|
6. occurences |
0.2 5p |
||||
|
7. unpleasant |
0.25 p |
||||
|
8. underestimated |
0.25 p |
||||
|
9. precautions |
0.25 p |
||||
|
10. resistant |
0.2 5p |
||||
|
III. Complete each sentence with the correct form of ONE of the two-word verbs. (2,0 point) |
1. hung over |
0.2 p |
|||
|
2. slow down |
0.2 p |
||||
|
3. grew up |
0.2 p |
||||
|
4. run for |
0.2 p |
||||
|
5. doing up |
0.2 p |
||||
|
6. go with |
0.2 p |
||||
|
7. saving up |
0.2 p |
||||
|
8. brought out |
0.2 p |
||||
|
9. dress up |
0.2 p |
||||
|
10. mixed up |
0.2 p |
||||
|
IV. The passage below contains TEN mistakes. Underline them and write the correct forms in the numbered boxes. (2,5 points) |
1. inhabit => inhabiting/which(that) inhabit |
0.5 p |
|||
|
2. hot => heat |
0.5 p |
||||
|
3. constantly => constant |
0.5 p |
||||
|
4. try => trying |
0.5 p |
||||
|
5. what => which |
0.5 p |
||||
|
6. rise => to rise |
0.5 p |
||||
|
7. degree => degrees |
0.5 p |
||||
|
8. unusual => unusually |
0.5 p |
||||
|
9. a => an |
0.5 p |
||||
|
10. absorb => absorbed |
0.5 p |
||||
|
PART II: READING: (6,0/20 points)
|
I. Read the passage and fill in each of the blanks with ONE suitable word. (2,0 points) |
1. into |
0.2 p |
||
|
2. might/may/can |
0.2 p |
||||
|
3. terms |
0.2 p |
||||
|
4. regardless/irrespective |
0.2 p |
||||
|
5. at |
0.2 p |
||||
|
6. Being |
0.2 p |
||||
|
7. rather |
0.2 p |
||||
|
8. let |
0.2 p |
||||
|
9. that/this |
0.2 p |
||||
|
10. how |
0.2 p |
||||
|
II. Read the text and do the tasks as follow. (2,0 points) |
1. C |
0.2 p |
|||
|
2. B |
0.2 p |
||||
|
3. G |
0.2 p |
||||
|
4. F |
0.2 p |
||||
|
5. E |
0.2 p |
||||
|
6. H |
0.2 p |
||||
|
7. August 31st |
0.2 p |
||||
|
8. human chain |
0.2 p |
||||
|
9. blotting paper |
0.2 p |
||||
|
10. dustbins |
0.2 p |
||||
|
III. Read the following passage and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to each question. (2,0 points) |
1. A |
0.2 p |
|||
|
2. D |
0.2 p |
||||
|
3. A |
0.2 p |
||||
|
4. A |
0.2 p |
||||
|
5. C |
0.2 p |
||||
|
6. B |
0.2 p |
||||
|
7. A |
0.2 p |
||||
|
8. D |
0.2 p |
||||
|
9. D |
0.2 p |
||||
|
10. B |
0.2 p |
||||
|
PART III: WRITING: (4,0/20 points)
|
I. Complete each of the sentences. (1,0 point) |
1. Despite repeated [attempts/efforts to get in touch with] his cousin, Joe didn't manage to speak to her until the next day. |
0.2 p |
||
|
2. As far [as computer games are concerned], Jack is a real expert. |
0.2 p |
||||
|
3. David took [the blame/responsibility for] the accident. |
0.2 p |
||||
|
4. If he doesn’t get that job, [there is no knowing] what he’ll do. |
0.2 p |
||||
|
5. But [for the ingenuity of his brother’s] plan, the stranded climber would never have been rescued. |
0.2 p |
||||
|
II. Use the word given and make any necessary additions to complete a new sentence . (1,0 point) |
1. John will stand trial murder at the High Court next week. |
0.2 p |
|||
|
2. How do our sales stand in relation to those of other firms? |
0.2 p |
||||
|
3. There has been a steady decline in the number of accidents since the speed limit was imposed. |
0.2 p |
||||
|
4. There is no doubt that this new record will sell a lot of copies. |
0.2 p |
||||
|
5. My changing my mind about resigning is out of question. |
0.2 p |
||||
|
III. Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features and make comparisons where relevant. (2,0 points) |
1. Content: a. Providing main ideas and details. (summarizing the information, reporting the main features, and make comparisons where relevant) b. Communicating intentions sufficiently and effectively. 2. Organization and presentation: a. Ideas are well-organized and presented with coherence, cohesion, and clarity. b. The paragraph is well-structured. 3. Language: a. Variety of appropriate vocabulary and structures. b. Good use of grammatical structures. 4. Handwriting, punctuation, and spelling: a. Intelligible handwriting. b. Good punctuation and no spelling mistakes. |
1.0
0.25
0.5
0.25 |
|||
2. Đề số 2
I. Circle the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.
1. A. arrow B. loud C. moldy D. poultry
2. A. basilisk B. bison C. basic D. basin
3. A. subtlety B. indebtedness C. bombard D. combing
4. A. benevolent B. content C. molecules D. technique
5. A. conscience B. bronchitis C. shuttle D. chauffeur
II. Choose the word whose syllable is stressed differently from that of the others in each line.
6. A. comic B. clementine C. climax D. thermonuclear
7. A. diligent B. dimension C. action D. innate
8. A. characterize B. absence C. datum D. charcoal
9. A. solicitor B. separately C. spacious D. sequence
10. A. parachute B. armchair C. accent D. accidentally
III. Choose the word or phrase that best completes each sentence.
11. Assembly lines are useful for producing a large _______ of identical products.
A. quality B. quantity C. quandary D. qualification
12. Only the _______ of the building is going to be remodeled.
A. insides B. interior C. indoors D. inner
13. Whether the sports club survives is a matter of complete _______ to me.
A. indifference B. disinterest C. importance D. interest
14. After years of neglect there was a huge _______ program to return the city to its former glory.
A. restoration B. preservation C. conservation D. refurbishment
15. The assistant suggested _______ the next day when the manager would be there.
A. we are coming back B. to come back C. we will come back D. we came back
16. I never get a _______ of sleep after watching a horror film.
A. wink B. blink C. night D. ounce
17. As it was Christmas, the _______ at church was much larger than usual.
A. audience B. convention C. congregation D. grouping
18. The sheep were huddled into a _______ to protect them from overnight frosts.
A. cage B. kennel C. hutch D. pen
19. The jury _______ the defendant “not guilty”.
A. gave B. returned C. subscribed D. found
20. Many _______ crafts such as weaving are now being revived.
A. customary B. habitual C. traditional D. ordinary
21. He managed to finish his thesis under the _______ of his tutor.
A. guidance B. help C. aid D. assistance
VI. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each gap.
The ability to weep is a uniquely human form of emotional response. Some scientists have suggested that human tears are (51)_______ of an aquatic past – but this does not seem very likely. We cry from the moment we enter this world, for a number of reasons. Helpless babies cry to persuade their parents that they are ill, hungry or uncomfortable. As they (52)_______, they will also cry just to attract parental attention and will often stop when they get it.
The idea that having a good cry do you (53)_______ is a very old one and now it has scientific validity since recent research into tears has shown that they (54)_______ a natural painkiller called enkaphalin. By fighting sorrow and pain this chemical helps you feel better. Weeping can increase the quantities of enkaphalin you (55)_______.
Unfortunately, in our society we impose restrictions upon this naturally (56)_______ activity. Because some people still regard it as a (57)_______ of weakness in men, boys in particular are admonished when they cry. This kind of repression can only increase stress, both emotionally and physically.
Tears of emotion also help the body (58)_______ itself of toxic chemical waste, for there is more protein in them than in tears resulting from cold winds or other irritants. Crying comforts, calms and can be very enjoyable – (59)_______ the popularity of highly emotional films which are commonly (60)_______ “weepies”. It seems that people enjoy crying together almost as much as laughing together.
51. A. witness B. evidence C. result D. display
52. A. evolve B. change C. develop D. alter
53. A. better B. fine C. good D. well
54. A. contain B. retain C. hold D. keep
55. A. construct B. achieve C. provide D. produce
56. A. curing B. treating C. healing D. improving
57. A. hint B. symbol C. feature D. sign
58. A. release B. rid C. loosen D. expel
59. A. consider B. remark C. distinguish D. regard
60. A. named B. entitled C. subtitled D. called
VII. Read the following passage and answer the questions.
Legend has it that sometime toward the end of the Civil War (1861-1865) a government train carrying oxen traveling through the northern plains of eastern Wyoming was caught in a snowstorm and had to be abandoned. The driver returned the next spring to see what had become of his cargo. Instead of the skeletons he had expected to find, he saw his oxen, living, fat, and healthy. How had they survived?
The answer lay in a resource that unknowing Americans lands trampled underfoot in their haste to cross the “Great American Desert” to reach lands that sometimes proved barren. In the eastern parts of the United States, the preferred grass for forage was a cultivated plant. It grew well with enough rain, then when cut and stored it would cure and become nourishing hay for winter feed. But in the dry grazing lands of the West that familiar bluejoint grass was often killed by drought. To raise cattle out there seemed risky or even hopeless. Who could imagine a fairy-tale grass that required no rain and somehow made it possible for cattle to feed themselves all winter? But the surprising western wild grasses did just that. They had wonderfully convenient features that made them superior to the cultivated eastern grasses. Variously known as buffalo grass, grama grass, or mesquite grass, not only were they immune to drought; but they were actually preserved by the lack of summer and autumn rains. They were not juicy like the cultivated eastern grasses, but had short, hard stems. And they did not need to be cured in a barn, but dried right where they grew on the ground. When they dried in this way, they remained naturally sweet and nourishing through the winter. Cattle left outdoors to fend for themselves thrived on this hay. And the cattle themselves helped plant the fresh grass year after year for they trampled the natural seeds firmly into the soil to be watered by the melting snows of winter and the occasional rains of spring. The dry summer air cured them much as storing in a barn cured the cultivated grasses.
61. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. A type of wild vegetation B. Western migration after Civil War
C. The raising of cattle D. The climate of the Western United States
62. What can be inferred by the phrase “Legend has it” in line 1?
A. Most history book include the story of the train.
B. The story of the train is similar to other ones from that time period.
C. The driver of the train invented the story.
D. The story of the train may not be completed factual.
63. The word “they” in line 4 refers to________.
A. plains B. skeletons C. oxen D. Americans
64. What can be inferred about the “Great American Desert” mentioned in line 7?
A. Many had settled there by the 1860’s.
B. It was not originally assumed to be a fertile area.
C. It was a popular place to raise cattle before the Civil War.
D. It was not discovered until the late 1800’s.
65. The word “barren” in line 7 is closed in meaning to________.
A. lonely B. uncomfortable C. infertile D. dangerous
66. The word “preferred” in line 8 is closed in meaning to________.
A. favored B. available C. ordinary D. required
67. Which of the following can be inferred about the cultivated grass mentioned in the second paragraph?
A. Cattle raised in the Western United States refused to eat it.
B. It had to be imported into the United States.
C. It would probably not grow in the western United States.
D. It was difficult for cattle to digest.
68. Which of the following was NOT one of the names given to the western grasses?
A. Mesquite grass B. Bluejoint grass C. Buffalo grass D. Grama grass
69. Which of the following was NOT mentioned as a characteristic of western grasses?
A. They contain little moisture B. They have tough stems
C. They can be grown indoors D. They are not affected by dry weather
70. According to the passage, the cattle help promote the growth of the wild grass by________.
A. eating only small quantities of grass.
B. continually moving from one grazing area to another.
C. naturally fertilizing the soil.
D. stepping on and pressing the seeds into the ground.
--(Nội dung đầy đủ, chi tiết vui lòng xem tại online hoặc đăng nhập để tải về máy)---
ĐÁP ÁN
|
I. |
(5pts) 1 point/correct answer. |
II. |
(5pts) 1 point/correct answer. |
||||||||
|
1. B |
2. A |
3. C |
4. C |
5. B |
6. D |
7. B |
8. A |
9. A |
10. D |
||
|
III. |
(20pts) 1 point/correct answer. |
|||||||||
|
11. B |
12. B |
13. A |
14. A |
15. D |
16. A |
17. C |
18. D |
19. D |
20. C |
|
|
21. A |
22. C |
23. B |
24. D |
25. C |
26. A |
27. D |
28. B |
29. B |
30. A |
|
|
IV. |
(10pts) 1 point/correct answer. |
||||
|
31. valuable 32. frightened |
33. length 34. worldwide |
35. tightened 36. terrified |
37. lowered 38. repeatedly |
39. embarrassment 40. heights |
|
|
V. |
(10pts) 1 point/correct answer. |
||||
|
41. acquired 42. explicitly |
43. a few 44. to |
45. to 46. vocational |
47. as 48. assume |
49. certain 50. intended |
|
|
VI. |
(10pts) 1 point/correct answer. |
|||||||||
|
51. B |
52. C |
53. C |
54. A |
55. D |
56. C |
57. D |
58. B |
59. A |
60. D |
|
|
VII. |
(20pts) 2 points/correct answer. |
|||||||||
|
61. A |
62. B |
63. C |
64. D |
65. C |
66. A |
67. C |
68. B |
69. D |
70. B |
|
|
VIII. (20pts) 2 points/correct answer. |
||
|
IX. |
71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78.
79. 80. |
→ An increased number of travelers is being stopped by customs officials this week. → Rather than disturb the meeting, I left without saying goodbye. → The moment I decided to get up to dance, the band decided to stop playing. → At no time did he suspect that the bicycle had been stolen. → Other than to offer to lend her some money, how could I help? → To this day his achievements are unsurpassed in the field of technology. → Peter pulled a face as he swallowed the foul-tasting medicine. → The construction of the building will take longer than originally planned, which is unfortunate. → What he told me whetted my appetite for the rest of the story. → They chose not to drive for fear of too much snow. |
_________THE END_________
3. Đề số 3
PART 1. LISTENING (1 point)
I. Listen and circle the best answer.
01. This is___________.
A. a survey B. an interview
C. a face-to-face conversation D. a chat
02. The people talking___________.
A. are co-workers B. are friends
C. are colleagues D. do not know each other
03. The passenger’s bags haven’t arrived because___________.
A. they have been missed B. they have been postponed
C. they have been taken by mistake D. they have been stolen
II. Listen again and complete the information on the form.
Missing Baggage Details
Flight number: (04)___________. From: (05)___________. Passenger Name: (06)___________.
First name: (07)___________. Number of bags (08)___________. Phone: (09)___________.
Length of stay: (10)___________ at: Princess Hotel
PART 2. PHONETICS (1 point)
I. Circle the correct answer (A, B, C or D) that has the underlined letter(s) pronounced differently from the rest.
11. A. thank B. band C. complain D. insert
12. A. lays B. says C. stays D. plays
13. A. scholarship B. chaos C. cherish D. chorus
14. A. message B. privilege C. college D. collage
15. A. talked B. naked C. asked D. liked
II. Circle the correct answer (A, B, C or D) that has the primary stress different from the rest.
16. A. individual B. reputation C. experience D. scientific
17. A. carpenter B. revise C. ignore D. traditional
18. A. necessary B. achieve C. poetic D. communicate
19. A. influence B. modern C. consider D. different
20. A. contain B. poisonous C. chemical D. scientist
PART 3. LANGUAGE FOCUS (2.5 points)
I. Circle the best answer (A, B, C or D) to complete each of the sentences below. (0.5 point)
21. There are not thing special about his clothes__________ from his flowery tie.
A. but B. except C. other D. apart
22. I’d__________ you explained to her why we can’t go.
A. better B. rather C. want D. need
23. I__________ we meet outside the cinema tomorrow at 8.30.
A. think B. suggest C. consider D. introduce
24. I walked away as calmly as I could__________ .they thought I was the thief.
A. or else B. to avoid C. owing to D. in case
25. __________ the step when you go in.
A. Consider B. Mind C. Attend D. Look
26. __________ of all of us who are tonight, I would like to thank Mr Jones for his talk.
A. On behalf B. On account C. In person D. Instead
27. She refused to eat meat under any__________.
A. circumstances B. occasion C. opportunity D. reason
28. There was nothing they could do________ leave the car at the roadside where it had broken down.
A. than B. unless C. instead of D. but
29. To our__________ his illness proved not to be as serious as we had feared.
A. anxiety B. eyes C. belief D. judgement
30. Mary Smith decided to give up her job for the__________ of her children.
A. sake B. care C. mean D. concern
II. Put the words in brackets into the correct forms. (0.5 point)
Computers have had the ability to play chess for many years now, and their (31. PERFORM)__________ in games against the best players in the world has shown steady improvement. However, it will be years before the designers of computer games machines can beat their (32. BIG)__________ challenge yet – the ancient board game called “Go”. The playing area is (33. CONSIDERABLE)__________ larger than in chess and there are far more pieces, so that the combination of movies is almost endless. The game involves planning so many moves ahead that even the impressive calculations of the fastest modern computers are (34. SUFFICIENT)__________ to deal with the problems of the game. In a recent competition for computer “Go” machines, the best machine beat all its rivals, but lost (35. HEAVY)__________ to three young schoolchildren, so there is obviously still a lot of work to do.
III. Supply the correct verb tenses of the verbs in brackets. (1 point)
a. She says that she (36. live)__________ in the countryside when she (37. be)__________ a child.
b. Oil (38. leak)__________ from a petrol tanker onto the motorway, so the police (39. close)__________ off the section between Junctions 5 and 6.
c. Foreign currency (40. convert)__________ into sterling at a number of points in the city, but the best rate and lowest commission charges (41. provide)__________ at banks.
d. Most of the news on the front page of both daily newspapers (42. concern)__________ the progress of the peace conference.
e. Why are you carrying that saw? I (43. shorten)__________ the legs of the dining room table.
f. Our class (44. go)__________ to the zoo next week.
g. Their grandmother (45. tell)__________ them a lot of stories last year.
IV. Choose the best option (A, B, C, D) to complete each of the sentences below. (0.5 point)
46. “Do well and do not ____________.”
A. look around B. look round C. look up D. look down
47. At this time of the year, we are always__________ with applications for training course.
A. snowed under B. come under C. kept under D. gone under
48. I was asked to__________ with a scheme to reduce the pollution caused by our factory.
A. make up B. set up C. come up D. check up
49. We were all too happy when he managed to__________ the deal__________
A. run/ through B. go/ through C. get/ through D. put/ through
50. I__________ to the man when I saw him collapse, but it was too late.
A. stole up B. come up C. faced up D. rushed up
PART 4. READING (3.0 points)
I. Read the text below and give the word which best fits each space. (1 point)
One of the greatest problems with holidays, (51)__________ from the usual travel complications and accommodation difficulties, (52)__________ the expectations people have of them. When we go on holiday we expect to leave all the stresses and strains of our daily lives (53)__________ us. We imagine we will be able to escape to (54)__________ a degree that we even tend to believe, consciously or not, that we can change our own personalities and become completely different people. The average business-person, tense, preoccupied, short-tempered (55)__________ to relax, envisages herself/himself (56)__________ from the moment of locking the office door, a radically different (57)__________ of person: carefree, good-humoured, ready to relax and enjoy whatever adventures present (58)__________. In practice, we take ourselves with us (59)__________ we go, and the personality that is shaped over years of stress and tension is almost impossible to shake off at a moment’s notice. It is no wonder so many holidays are a disappointment, no matter how smoothly they go or how lovely the weather is. In fact, the frequent problems that crop (60)__________ during the average holiday are probably a welcome distraction from the nagging feeling that we are not enjoying ourselves as much as we should.
II. Choose the best option (A, B, C or D) to complete the passage below. (1.0 point)
PAINTING
Nancy Andrews’ latest exhibition at the Seagull Gallery proves that she is one of our most (61)_________ painters. She has emerged from her (62)_________ phase, in which the influence of Picasso was apparent, and returned to a more (63)_________ style of painting, but without losing her (64)_________ sense of colour and form. She has chosen (65)_________ themes for this show, and her portrait of Bacchus, for example, has a wonderful (66)_________ about it. But the most (67)_________ work is the large canvas called simply “Mars”.
It is a (68)_________ study, in various shades of red and gold, and its balanced (69)_________ gives it a pleasing, even restful feel, despite the (70)_________ of its subject matter.
61. A. gifting B. gift C. gifts D. gifted
62. A. cubist B. cubism C. cubical D. cubic
63. A. tradition B. traditional C. traditionalized D. traditionalizing
64. A. delight B. delighted C. delightful D. delighting
65. A. mythology B. mythologic C. mythological D. mythologious
66. A. simplify B. simplicity C. simplification D. simple
67. A. impressive B. impression C. impress D. impressed
68. A. coloured B. colourless C. colour D. colourful
69. A. compose B. composing C. composition D. composion
70. A. violence B. violent C. violency D. violently
III. Read the passage below and circle the best answer (A, B, C or D) to each question. (1.0 point)
The fertile valleys of the river Nile straddle the hot desert land of Egypt. Rain is relatively scarce, and the summers are scorching hot. Nevertheless the strip of land, known as the Cultivation, on either side of the Nile is reputed to be one of the most fertile places in the world. Its rich black soil is the result of accumulation of silt deposited by the annual flooding of the Nile thousands of years ago. From June to October, the river overflowed its banks. Modern damps were then constructed to control the flooding. The floodwaters left behind a rich sticky black mud which made it suitable for the cultivation of crops. As long as the soil was well irrigated, two or three crops could be grown in one season.
Its rich soil led to the growth and rise of the brilliant civilization of the ancient Egyptians on the Nile valley more than 5000 years ago. The earliest Egyptians had acquired the skills to till the land along the banks, drawing water from the Nile for irrigation purposes. As the villagers along the Nile became wealthy, they embarked on projects of digging ditches and constructing dams to control the floods.
In about 3100 BC, the whole Egypt was united under the reign of King Menes. He and his descendants made up Egypt’s first ruling family, or dynasty. His rule led to the great development of the arts like writing, painting, architecture, and crafts. Egyptian power and influence were and influence were to last for the next 2000 years.
The Egyptian kings had absolute powers. The king possesses all the land, and the peasants had to surrender part of their crops to the king. An army of officials and scribes did the task of collecting the exact amount of due from the individual farmers was united. Crops and livestock were often seen at the storehouses surrounding the royal palaces. In return for their uphill task, the king paid his officials and dishes out funds for huge irrigation projects.
Egypt’s trade with the outside world stretches far and wide. In return for gold, copper, gemstones, and building stores, it purchases the goods that it did not have. Timber, resins, oils, silver and slaves came from Lebanon. From Deria and Anatolia came horses, while the blue stone called lapis lazuli was imported from Mesopotamia. Strong forts were constructed to protect overland trade routes. Egypt held Nubia in the south for almost 800 years. It served as Egypt’s most vital source of gold and slaves.
--(Nội dung đầy đủ, chi tiết vui lòng xem tại online hoặc đăng nhập để tải về máy)---
ĐÁP ÁN
PART 1. LISTENING (1 points) Each correct answer gets 0.1 pt
01. C 02. D 03. B 04. UA675 05. Tokyo
06. Johnstone 07. Bill 08. 2 09. 555-432 10. 3
PART 2. PHONETICS (1 points) Each correct answer gets 0.1 pt
I. Each correct answer gets 0.1 pt: 11. A 12. B 13. C 14. D 15. B
II. Each correct answer gets 0.1 pt: 16. C 17. A 18. A 19. C 20. A
PART 3. LANGUAGE FOCUS (2.5 points)
I. Each correct answer gets 0.05 pt.
21. D 22. B 23. B 24. D 25. B 26. A 27. A 28. D 29. C 30. A
II. Each correct answer gets 0.1 pt.
31. performance 32. biggest 33. considerably 34. insufficient 35. heavily
III. Each correct answer gets 0.1 pt.
36. lived 37. was 38. is leaking 39. are closing
40. can be converted 41. are provided 42. concerns 43. am going to shorten 44. will go/ are going 45. told
III. Each correct answer gets 0.1 pt.
46.B 47.A 48.C 49.D 50. D
PART 4. READING (3.0 points)
I. Each correct answer gets 0.1 pt.
51. apart 52. is 53. behind 54. such 55. unable
56. as 57. kind 58. themselves 59. wherever 60. Up
II. Each correct answer gets 0.1 pt.
61. D 62.A 63.B 64.C 65.C 66.B 67.A 68.D 69.C 70. A
III. Each correct answer gets 0.1 pt.
71. A 72. C 73. D 74. C 75. B 76. D 77. A 78. B 79. C 80.A
PART 5. WRITING (2.5 points)
I. Each correct answer gets 0.1 pt.
81. I suggest that you be telling the truth.
82. She was reported to be a policewoman.
83. He apologized (to me) for not ringing me to say he’d be late.
84. No sooner had the announcement been made than everyone started complaining.
85. Had it not been the death of the Prime Minister, the bill would have been passed.
II. Each correct answer gets 0.1 pt.
86. You will have to turn over a new leaf if you want to succeed.
87. It would be the height of your stupidity to give up your job now.
88. The trouble all stemmed from our computers crashing.
89. Is it compulsory for you to wear a uniform at school?
90. The way many sportsmen behave in public makes an impression on their young fans.
III. Write a paragraph (about 250 words) about the following topic: (1.5 point)
“How important is music in a modern life?”
_________THE END__________
4. Đề số 4
SECTION B: READING
Part 1: Read the following passage and choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions
Most human diets contain between 10 and 15 percent of their total calories as protein. The rest of the dietary energy conies from carbohydrates, fats, and in some people, alcohol.The proportion of calories from fats varies from 10 percent in poor communities to 40 percent or more in rich communities.
In addition to providing energy, fats have several other functions in the body. The fat-soluble vitamins, A, D, E, and K, are dissolved in fats, as their name implies. Good sources of these vitamins have high oil or fat content, and the vitamins are stored in the body‟s fatty tissues. In the diet, fats cause food to remain longer in the stomach, thus increasing the feeling of fullness for some time after a meal is eaten. Fats add variety, taste, and texture to foods, which accounts for the popularity of fried foods. Fatty deposits in the body have an insulating and protective value. The curves of the human female body are due mostly to strategically located fat deposits.
Whether a certain amount of fat in the diet is essential to human health is not definitely known. When rats are fed a fat-free diet, their growth eventually ceases, their skin becomes inflamed and scaly, and their reproductive systems are damaged.Two fatty acids,linoleic and arachidonic acids, prevent these abnormalities and hence are called eseential fatty acids.They also are required by a number of other animals, but their roles in human beings are debatable. Most nutritionists consider linoleic fatty acid an essential nutrient for humans.
1. This passage probably appeared in which of the following?
A. A diet book B. A book on basic nutrition
C. A cookbook D. A popular women‟s magazine
2. We can infer from the passage that all of the following statements about fats are true EXCEPT
A. fats provide energy for the body B. economics influences the distribution of calorie intake
C. poor people eat more fatty foods D. alcohol is not a common source of dietary energy
3. The word “functions” in line 5 is closest in meaning to………
A. forms B. needs C. jobs D. sources
4. The phrase “stored in” in line 7 is closest in meaning to………
A. manufactured in B. attached to C. measured by D. accumulated in
5. The author states that fats serve all of the following body functions EXCEPT to.................
A. promote a feeling of fullness B. insulate and protect the body
C. provide energy D. control weight gain
6. The word “essential to” in line 12 is closest in meaning to………
A. required for B. desired for C. detrimental to D. beneficial to
7. According to the author of the passage, which of the following is true for rats when they are fed a fat free diet?
A. They stop growing B. They have more babies
C. They lose body hair D. They require less care
8. Linoleic fatty acid is mentioned in the passage as………
A. an essential nutrient for humans B. more useful than arachidonic acid
C. preventing weight gain in rats D. a nutrient found in most foods
9. The phrase “these abnormalities” in line 15 refer to……………
A. a condition caused by fried foods
B. strategically located fat deposits
C. curves on the human female body
D. cessation of growth, bad skin, and damaged reproductive systems
10. That humans should all have some fat our diet is, according to the author,……………
A. a commonly held view B. not yet a proven fact
C. only true for women D. proven to be true by experiments in rats
Part 2: Read the passage and answer the questions. Use your predicting skills. Note the type of questions. Read the following extract and answer questions 1–10.
TERROR IN THE MOUNTAINS
A. What is incredibly beautiful yet absolutely terrifying and deadly at the same time? For anyone above the
snowline in the mountains, there is little doubt about the answer. Avalanche – the word strikes fear into the heart of any avid skier or climber. For those unfortunate enough to be caught up in one, there is virtually no warning or time to get out of danger and even less chance of being found. The „destroyer‟ of the mountains, avalanches can uproot trees, crush whole buildings, and bury people metres deep under solidified snow. Around the world, as more and more people head to the mountains in winter, there are hundreds of avalanche fatalities every year.
B. A snow avalanche is a sudden and extremely fast-moving „river‟ of snow which races down a mountainside (there can also be avalanches of rocks, boulders, mud, or sand). There are four main kinds. Loose snow avalanches, or sluffs, form on very steep slopes. These usually have a „teardrop‟ shape, starting from a point and widening as they collect more snow on the way down. Slab avalanches, which are responsible for about 90% of avalanche-related deaths, occur when a stiff layer of snow fractures or breaks off and slides downhill at incredible speed. This layer may be hundreds of metres wide and several metres thick. As it tends to compact and set like concrete once it stops, it is extremely dangerous for anyone buried in the flow. The third type is an isothermal avalanche, which results from heavy rain leading to the snowpack becoming saturated with water. In the fourth type, air mixes in with loose snow as the avalanche slides, creating a powder cloud. These powder snow avalanches can be the largest of all, moving at over 300kmh, with 10,000,000 or more tonnes of snow. They can flow along a valley floor and even a short distance uphill on the other side.
C. Three factors are necessary for an avalanche to form. The first relates to the condition of the snowpack.
Temperature, humidity, and sudden changes in weather conditions all affect the shape and condition of snow crystals in the snowpack which, in turn, influences the stability of the snowpack. In some cases, weather causes an improvement in avalanche conditions. For example, low temperature variation in the snowpack and consistent below-freezing temperatures enable the crystals to compress tightly. On the other hand, if the snow surface melts and refreezes, this can create an icy or unstable layer.
D. The second vital factor is the degree of slope of the mountain. If this is below 25 degrees, there is little danger of an avalanche. Slopes that are steeper than 60 degrees are also unlikely to set off a major avalanche as they „sluff‟ the snow constantly, in a cascade of loose powdery snow which causes minimal danger or damage. This means that slabs of ice or weaknesses in the snowpack have little chance to develop. Thus, the danger zone covers the 25- to 60-degree range of slopes, with most avalanches being slab avalanches that begin on slopes of 35 to 45 degrees.
E. Finally, there is the movement or event that triggers the avalanche. In the case of slab avalanches, this can be a natural trigger, such as a sudden weather change, a falling tree or a collapsing ice or snow overhang. However, in most fatal avalanches, it is people who create the trigger by moving through an avalanche-prone area. Snowmobiles are especially dangerous. On the other hand, contrary to common belief, shouting is not a big enough vibration to set off a landslide.
For questions 1–5, choose the correct heading for each paragraph A–E from the list of headings below (i- viii). There are more headings than paragraphs. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.
- List of headings
i. Examples of Major Avalanches
ii. Stability of the Snowpack
iii. What Sets Off an Avalanche?
iv. An Expert‟s Comments
v. Steepness of Mountains
vi. Avalanche Peril
vii. An Avalanche Risk Table
viii. Types of Avalanche
1. Paragraph A 2. Paragraph B 3.Paragraph C 4. Paragraph D 5. Paragraph E
For questions 6–10, Complete the table below. Use NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the reading passage for each answer. Write your answers in the spaces provided. There is an example at the beginning (0).
|
Type of avalanche |
Characteristics |
|
(0)….............. avalanches |
also known as sluffs; steep slopes; (6)............... shape; minor risk |
|
Slab avalanches |
thick layer of snow breaks off; set very hard once they stop; cause about 90% of (7)……………. |
|
Isothermal avalanches |
caused by weight of (8)............................ mixed in with the snow |
|
Powder snow avalanches |
Develop a cloud of loose snow mixed with air; (9)………… of all types of avalanche; more fast and cover a huge distance, even travelling (10)…………….. |
Part 3: Read the following passage and choose the options that best complete the blanks.
The heart has long been considered to be (1)……… feelings of love dwell. In love songs throughout the ages, love almost always goes together (2)…….. the heart. The heart has continuously been viewed (3)……….. the place where love begins and develops. Even the Bible gives (4)……… to love and the heart. The role of the heart in love must come from what happens to it when a person feels strongly (5)................................................................................................................................................................... to
someone. The strong feelings (6)……… the other person, especially in the early stages of a relationship, have the results that the heart starts beating faster and breathing starts speeding (7)……... According to psychologists, a love relationship is a situation that (8).............. a lot of stress and the body reacts to this by getting ready to face the unknown. This has been called the "fight or flight" (9………, meeting danger by fighting it or running away. So with love, the heart accelerates and (10).............. becomes quick.
--(Nội dung đầy đủ, chi tiết vui lòng xem tại online hoặc đăng nhập để tải về máy)---
ANSWER KEYS
SECTION A: LISTENING (15 points)
Part 1: (1pts × 5 Qs):
1. B 2. G 3. F 4. D 5. A
Part 2: (1pts × 10 Qs)
1.decade
2. long-term
3.100
4.minor explosions
5.2005 to 2010
6.oxygen
7.simply
8.experience
9. water shortages
10. patterns
SECTION B: READING(30 points)
Part 1 (1pts × 10 Qs)
1. B 2. C3.C 4.D 5.D 6.A 7.A 8.A 9.D 10.B
Part 2: (1pts × 10 Qs)
1. vi
2. viii
3. ii
4. v
5. iii
0. loose
6. teardrop
7. deaths
8. water
9. largest
10. uphill
Part 3 (1pts × 10 Qs)
1B 2C 3C 4C 5D 6B 7A 8C 9C 10B
SECTION C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR(30 points)
Part 1: (0,5pts × 10 Qs)
1.C 2.B 3.D 4.A 5.B 6.D 7.A 8.A 9.C 10.B
Part 2: (1pts × 10 Qs)
|
Line |
Mistake |
Correction |
|
|
1 |
1 |
come |
came |
|
2 |
2 |
similarly |
similar |
|
3 |
3 |
rings off |
calls up |
|
4 |
5 |
For turning |
To turn |
|
5 |
7 |
newest handholds |
latest handhelds |
|
6 |
8 |
with reference to |
in preference to |
|
7 |
10 |
which is |
is |
|
8 |
11 |
enlighten |
lighten |
|
9 |
14 |
at |
from |
|
10 |
15 |
had been doing |
has been done |
Part 3: (1pts × 10 Qs)
1. wish/want
2. working
3. would
4. fit
5. out
6. time
7. did
8. on/doing
9. those/women
10. kind
Part 4: (1pts × 5 Qs)
1. rather you didn't eat
2. regret buying that
3. have any objection to
4. I had followed
5. carry out the teacher's
SECTION D: WRITING (25 points)
Part 1: (12pts)
Length (2ps): 80-90 words
Ideas (3ps):
Organization and Style (3ps): informal
Vocabulary and grammar (4ps) Part 2: (13pts)
1. Length: (2ps) : 200 words.
2. Organization & style: (3ps) ideas are organized and presented with coherence, style, and clarity appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students.
3. Ideas (4ps): a provision of main ideas and appropriate details and examples.
4. Grammar and Vocabulary (4ps) a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students.
5. Đề số 5
PART A . PHONETICS : (5.0 point)
Question I: Circle one letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose main stress pattern is different from the others. (2.0 point)
1. A. Perform B. Campus C. Mountain D. Equal
2. A. Information B. Contaminate C. Mathematics D. Politician
Question II: Circle one letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others. (3.0 point)
3. A. Closure B. Pleasure C. Conclusion D. Pressure
4. A. Walked B. Threatened C. Passed D. Forced
5. A. Streets B. Phones C. Books D. Makes
PART B. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (45.0points)
Question I: Circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. (15.0 points).
1. .............the time you get to the theatre, the play will have finished.
A. Until B. In C. By D. On
2. They are going to make........................ excursion next month.
A. a two-week B. two-weeks C. two weeks' D. a two-week
3. He refused to give up work ,....................... he had won a million pounds.
A. despite B. however C. even though D. as though
4. The new system didn’t..................... expectations.
A. catch up with B. bring about C. come across D. come up to
5. The newspaper report contained......................... important information.
A. many B. another C. an D. a lot of
6. You.................... better be careful not to miss the train.
A. would B. should C. had D. did
7. Helen asked me....................... the film called “Stars Wars”.
A. have I seen B. have you seen C. If I had seen D. if had I seen
8. She had no........................ of selling the clock. It had belonged to her grand mother.
A. intention B. meaning C. interest D. opinion
9. I’m really looking forward..................... to university.
A. to go B. go C. going D. to going
10. Let’s go dancing, ……………?” - “Yes, let’s”
A. will we B. do we C. don’t we D. shall we
11. I don’t want much sugar in my coffee. Just............. , please.
A. few B. a few C. little D. a little.
12. They are very happy to have received a(n)............... of 500 dollars from a foreign company.
A. charity B. donation C. hospital D. organisation
13. were so late that we....................... had time to catch the train.
A. nearly B. almost C. hardly D. mostly
14. Many species of animals have become …… due to the irresponsible activities of people.
A. endanger B. dangerous C. danger D. endangered
15.- “Would you like to have noodles, spaghetti or something different?” - “.............. ”
A. Anything will do B. Yes, please C. Never mind D. I don’t mind
Question II: Fill in the blanks with the correct form of the words in capital letters. (10.0 point)
1. Earth Hour is a ...................event organized to raise people’s awareness about the need to take action on climate change. (WORLD)
2. Solar energy, wind power and water power are ...................sources of energy. (ALTERNATE)
3. This organization is very concerned about the........................... of the rain forests. (DESTROY)
4. In Western countries, electricity, gas, and water are not luxuries but ................ . (NECESSARY)
5. Two….......... from the group “Friends of the Earth" are talking to the students. (REPRESENT)
6. What does it mean to say “ the world is................. ? (OVERPOPULATE)
7. Seven............ countries have arrangements to deliver EMS items. (ADD)
8. Petroleum is the most.............. used energy source, supplying about 40% of the planet’s energy. (COMMON)
9. My farther is very good at............. people singing with his guitar and I admire him very much. (ACCOMPANY)
10. Mother’day occurs.............. on the second Sundy in May. (ANNUAL)
Question III: The passage below contains 10 mistakes. UNDERLINE the mistake and WRITE THEIR CORECT FORMS in the space provided in the column on the right. (0) has been done as an example ( 10.0 points)
Question IV: Put each verb in brackets into an appropriate form. (10pt )
A - Stop! You (not see).......................... the notice?
B - I see it but I can’t read it. What it (say)................. ?
That man was a little mad. He always (try)......................... to improve that the earth was flat.
Something tells me that you (not listen) …………….to a single word I have said in the past ten minutes.
I’m so confused that I don’t know what (do) ………………….. .
Smith had a lucky escape. He (kill) ……………………………. .PART D. READING (30.0 points)
Question I: Fill in each numbered blank with ONE appropriate word: ( 10.0 points)
Books give us all the information (1)…………..a man. They show his interest. They are the (2)………to his mind. All the richers of the world lose their importance in the face of books. A man with money and (3)……..
Books is a poor man. Books have become so cheap that a library can easily be made. Money spent on good books is never (4)……………. It is a pleasure to read good books. Thus man gains both efficiency and wisdom. You can(5)…… your library with the expenditure of only a few hundred rupees.
Question II: Read the passage and circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions (10.0 points)
Large animals that inhabit the desert have evolved a number of adaptations for reducing the effects of extreme heat. One adaptation is to be light in color, and to reflect rather than absorb the Sun's rays. Desert mammals also depart from the normal mammalian practice of maintaining a constant body temperature. Instead of trying to keep down the body temperature deep inside the body, which would involve the expenditure of water and energy, desert mammals allow their temperatures to rise to what would normally be fever height, and temperatures as high as 46 degrees Celsius have been measured in Grant's gazelles. The overheated body then cools down during the cold desert night, and indeed the temperature may fall unusually low by dawn, as low as 34 degrees Celsius in the camel. This is an advantage since the heat of the first few hours of daylight is absorbed in warming up the body, and an excessive build-up of heat does not begin until well into the day.
Another strategy of large desert animals is to tolerate the loss of body water to a point that would be fatal for non-adapted animals. The camel can lose up to 30 percent of its body weight as water without harm to itself, whereas human beings die after losing only 12 to 13 percent of their body weight. An equally important adaptation is the ability to replenish this water loss at one drink. Desert animals can drink prodigious volumes in a short time, and camels have been known to imbibe over 100 liters in a few minutes. A very dehydrated person, on the other hand, cannot drink enough water to rehydrate at one session, because the human stomach is not sufficiently big and because a too rapid dilution of the body fluids causes death from water intoxication.
The tolerance of water loss is of obvious advantage in the desert, as animals do not have to remain near a water hole but can obtain food from grazing sparse and far-flung pastures. Desert-adapted mammals have the further ability to feed normally when extremely dehydrated, it is a common experience in people that appetite is lost even under conditions of moderate thirst.
1. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. Weather variations in the desert B. Adaptations of desert animals
C. Diseased of desert animals D. Human use of desert animals.
2. According to the passage, why is light coloring an advantage to large desert animals?
A. It helps them hide from predators B. It does not absorb sunlight as much as dark colors
C. It helps them see their young at night D. It keeps them cool at night
3. The word "maintaining" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. measuring B. inheriting C. preserving D. delaying
4. The author uses of Grant's gazelle as an example of
A. an animal with a low average temperature
B. an animal that is not as well adapted as the camel
C. a desert animal that can withstand high body temperatures
D. a desert animal with a constant body temperature
5. When is the internal temperature of a large desert mammal lower?
A. Just before sunrise B. In the middle of the day
C. Just after sunset D. Just after drinking
6. The word "tolerate" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. endure B. replace C. compensate D. reduce
7. What causes water intoxication?
A. Drinking too much water very quickly B. Drinking polluted water
C. Bacteria in water D. Lack of water.
8. What does the author imply about desert-adapted mammals?
A. They do not need to eat much food. B. They can eat large quantities quickly
C. They easily lose their appetites. D. They can travel long distances looking for food.
9. Why does the author mention humans in the second paragraph?
A. To show how they use camels. B. To contrast them to desert mammals.
C. To give instructions about desert survival. D. To show how they have adapted to desert life.
10. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as an adaptation of large desert animals?
A. Variation in body temperatures B. Eating while dehydrated
C. Drinking water quickly D. Being active at night.
QuestionIII: Read the following passage and circle the most suitable answer (A,B,C or D) for each space: (10.0 point)
The computer is undoubtedly one of the most (1) ...................... and important inventions of the twentieth century. Boring or time-consuming jobs which, in the past, would have been carried out by hundreds of workers can now be done by one small computer. However, the (2) of the computer has not been entirely problem-free. Many people feel that we
are already too dependent on computers. They think that computers themselves are becoming too powerful, and that people are no longer in control of them.
One of the problems with a computer is that, like any other machines, it can (3)..........................
If a computer is damaged, the information it is storing can be lost. If a computer program has a(n) (4)......................... in it, the computer‟s calculation can be seriously (5)........................... .
A faulty program in a hospital or police computer could cause terrible mistakes.
--(Nội dung đầy đủ, chi tiết vui lòng xem tại online hoặc đăng nhập để tải về máy)---
ĐÁP ÁN:
PART A: PHONETICS (5 điểm – Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
1A; 2A; 3D; 4B; 5B
PART B: VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR (45 điểm)
Question I. ( 15 điểm – Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
1. C 2. A3. C 4. D 5. D 6. C 7. C 8. A 9. D 10. D 11. D 12. B 13. C 14. D 15. A
Question II. (10 điểm – Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
1. worldwide
2. alternative
3. destruction
4. necessities
5. representatives
6. overpopulated
7. additional
8. commonly
9. accompanying
10. annually
Question III; (10 điểm – Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm - nếu tìm được lỗi mà sửa không đúng thì cho 0.5 điểm)
1. particular ⇒ particularly
2. with ⇒ than
3. date ⇒ dating/ to date
4. almost ⇒ most
5. for ⇒ of
6. suitable ⇒ unsuitable
7. of ⇒ between/ among
8. mobile ⇒ mobility
9. as ⇒ than
10. one ⇒ once
Question IV: ( 10 điểm - Mỗi câu đúng 2 điểm)
1. Don’t you see/ does it say
2. Was always trying
3. haven’t been listening
4. should been done
5. Could have been killed
PART C: READING COMPREHENSION (30 pts)
Question I: ( 10điểm - Mỗi câu đúng 2 điểm)
1. about
2. index
3. without
4. wasted
5. form
Question II. ( 10 điểm - Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
1. B 2.C 3.C 4.A 5.A 6. B 7.D 8.D 9. B 10.D
Question III. ( 10 điểm -Mỗi câu đúng 2 điểm)
1b 2c 3b 4d 5b
PART D: WRITING (20 pts)
Question I (5 điểm - Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
1. Jim apologised for breaking the glass.
2. It is high time you took some exercises.
3.The sooner we can solve the problem, the better it will be for all concerned.
4. So great was the demand that they had to reprint the book immediately
5.I‟d rather go out for a meal than stay at home.
Question II (5 điểm- Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
1. Some interesting new information has come to light
2. Jack was banned from playing in the next two matches.
3. I'm dying to see her again.
4. She was so beautiful that I couldn't take my eyes off her.
5. We can't wait to watch the program.
Question III. Essay: (10 điểm) Marking criteria:
+ Task completion (4 điểm)
Tuỳ theo khả năng hoàn thành về bố cục và những yêu cầu nội dung cho mỗi phần ( mở bài,thân bài,kết luận) giám khảo có thể chấm từ 1-4 điểm.
+ Grammatical accuracy and spelling 3 điểm: bài viết không có lỗi chính tả và từ ba lỗi ngữ pháp trở xuống được cho 3 điểm tối đa. Cứ 4 lỗi chính tả hoặc ngữ pháp trừ 1 điểm (Trừ không quá 3 điểm).
- Coherence and cohesion (tính mạch lạc và sự liên kết câu, đoạn) – 3 điểm:
Tùy mức độ mạch lạc, liên kết câu, liên kết đoạn của bài viết, giám khảo có thể chấm 1-3 điểm.
Trên đây là một phần trích đoạn nội dung Bộ 5 đề thi chọn HSG môn Tiếng Anh 11 có đáp án năm 2021 Trường THPT Trần Cao Vân. Để xem thêm nhiều tài liệu tham khảo hữu ích khác các em chọn chức năng xem online hoặc đăng nhập vào trang hoc247.net để tải tài liệu về máy tính.
Hy vọng tài liệu này sẽ giúp các em học sinh ôn tập tốt và đạt thành tích cao trong học tập.
Chúc các em học tập tốt!
