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Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG năm 2021-2022 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THPT Nguyễn Thị Định

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TRƯỜNG THPT NGUYỄN THỊ ĐỊNH

ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM HỌC 2021 - 2022

Môn TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian: 60 phút

1. Đề số 1

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. hair B. rain C. laid D. wait
Question 2: A. rhythm B. psychology C. physical D. mythology

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on you answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3: A. physical B. summary C. romantic D. following
Question 4: A. compliment B. counterpart C. kindergarten D. biologist

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5: St Nicholas' Church has been granted more than £130,000 by English Heritage to repair   the .................. building.

A. Weather-beaten            B. Contemporary              C. Under the weather D. Chic

Question 6: I can’t imagine how anyone .................. clever as he is could make a terrible mistake.

A. even-rather                   B. so-as              C. quite-just                      D. as-such

Question 7: What I can’t understand is why he is now pursuing our daughter and why he has not told    her that he was once acquainted .................. us.

A. to                                  B. with                 C. for                        D. of

Question 8: The belief that a man in his early twenties ought to have a firm occupational choice reflects .................. that development is complete by the end of adolescence.

A. the prevailing view

B. the prevailed view

C. the view prevailed

D. this view is prevailing

Question 9: I know that someone who has great natural shape but is .................. won't beat someone   with a lesser shape who is in condition.

A. out of reach        B. out of the question  C. out of the ordinary       D. out of the condition

Question 10: I couldn’t believe my eyes. She .................. in that pink kimono.

A. looked so perfectly       B. looked so beautiful       C. was looking beautifully  D. look such nice

Question 11: Even though Nestlé is a globally recognized .................. name, Nestlé products  only account for a little more than 2% of packaged food and beverages sold around the world.

A. notorious     B. household        C. double-barreled            D. strange-sounding

Question 12: I’m sure you can recognize her; she .................. a purple raincoat.

A. will have worn

B. will be wearing

C. is going to wear 

D. will have been wearing

Question 13: Unlike most modernist poets, .................. based on ordinary speech.

A. Robert Frost’s poems were

B. the works of Robert Frost were

C. Robert Frost wrote poems that were

D. the poetry written by Robert Frost

Question 14: According to reports, choosing a winner from the final three .................. was a hard task.

A. participants       B. contestants                   C. applicants                     D. partakers

Question 15: Peter: “I can’t decide what color I want for my bedroom. What do you think?” Jane: “You should choose .................. color you want. You’re the one who will have to live with it.”

A. whichever that             B. whatever        C. however        D. that what

Question 16: .................. playing professional basketball, she also enjoys tennis.

A. Besides                         B. Moreover                      C. Apart            D. Together

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 17: “Maybe you can take a vacation next month.”

A. Nothing special.

B. You’re welcome.

C. It’s very expensive.

D. I don’t think so. I’m teaching all summer.

Question 18: “ .................. ” “Yes. Do you have any shirts?”

A. Could you do me a favour?

B. Oh, dear. What a nice shirt!

C. May I help you? 

D. White, please.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 19: We’re not taking on any new staff at the moment so that we can cut down the cost.

A. employing        B. hiring                    C. offering                D. laying off

Question 20: The story was that of a little girl who was bom in a well-to-do family and was a top performer in her studies.

A. rolling in money     B. made of money       C. well-heeled                   D. destitute

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 21: The fox was unsuccessful in reaching the grapes.

A. The fox tried in vain to reach the grapes.

B. There’s no point reaching the grapes.

C. It was not worth reaching the grapes.

D. It was no good to reach the grapes.

Question 22: He seemed very reluctant to take my advice.

A. He seemed quite willing to take my advice.

B. It seemed he was not ready to give me advice.

C. It seemed he was not willing to take my advice.

D. He seemed very anxious to take my advice.

Question 23: I don’t agree with prohibiting smoking in bars.

A. I am not in favor to prohibiting smoking in bars.

B. I am not in favor of prohibiting smoking in bars.

C. I am not in favor with prohibiting smoking in bars.

D. I am not on favor of prohibiting smoking in bars.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 24 to 30.

REALITY TELEVISION

Reality television is genre of television programming which, (it is claimed), presents unscripted dramatic or humorous situation, documents actual events, and features ordinary rather than professional actors. It could be described as a form of artificial or “heightened” documentary. Although the genre has existed in some form or another since the early years of television, the current explosion of popularity dates from around 2000.

Reality television covers a wide range of television programming formats, from game or quiz shows which resemble the frantic, often demeaning programmes produced in Japan in the 1980s and 1990s (a modem example is Gaki no Tsukai), to surveillance- or voyeurism- focused productions such as Big Brother.

Critics say that the term “reality television” is somewhat of a misnomer and that such shows frequently portray a modifies and highly influenced form of reality, with participants put in exotic location or abnormal situations, sometimes coached to act in certain ways by off-screen handlers, and with events on screen manipulated through editing and other post-production techniques.

Part of reality television’s appeal is due to its ability to place ordinary people in extraordinary situations. For example, on the ABC show, The Bachelor, an eligible male dates a dozen women simultaneously, traveling on extraordinary dates to scenic locales. Reality television also has the potential to turn its participants into national celebrities, outwardly in talent and performance programs such as Pop Idol, though frequently Survivor and Big Brother participants also reach some degree of celebrity.

Some commentators have said that the name “reality television” is an inaccurate description for several styles of program included in the genre. In competition- based programs such as Big Brother  and Survivor, and other special-living-environment shows like The Real World, the producers design the format of the show and control the day-to-day activities and the environment, creating a completely fabricated world in which the competition plays out. Producers specifically select the participants, and use carefully designed scenarios, challenges, events, and settings to encourage particular behaviours and conflicts. Mark Burnett, creator of Survivor and other reality shows, has agreed with this assessment, and avoids the word “reality” to describe his shows; he has said, “I tell good stories. It really is not reality TV. It really is unscripted drama.”

Question 24. The word “demeaning” is closest in meaning to ..................

A. despising      B. diminishing      C. valueless                       D. humiliating

Question 25. According to the passage, Reality TV appeals to some because ...................

A. it uses exotic locations

B. it shows eligible men dating women

C. it can um ordinary people into celebrities

D. it shows average people in exceptional circumstances

Question 26. According to the passage, the program “Pop Idol” ...................

A. turns all participants into celebrities

B. is more likely to turn its participants into celebrities that Big Brother

C. is less likely to turn participants into celebrities than Big Brother

D. is a dating show

Question 27. Producers choose the participants ..................

A. to make an imaginary world

B. on the ground of talent

C. to create conflict among other things

D. only for special-living-environment shows

Question 28. The term “reality television” is inaccurate ..................

A. for talent and performance programs

B. for special-living-environment program

C. for all programs

D. for Big Brother and Survivor

Question 29. The word “fabricated” is closest in meaning to ...................

A. imaginary        B. real               C. imaginative                   D. isolated

Question 30. Which of the following in NOT true according to the passage?

A. Shows like Survivor have good narratives.

B. Mark Burnett thinks the term “reality television” is inaccurate.

C. Japan has produced demeaning TV shows copied elsewhere.

D. Reality television has been popular since well before 2000.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

Alligators have always been the most dangerous predators of the Florida Everglades, (31) .................. their long-held position is now being challenged by a growing population of Burmese pythons.

The Burmese python, a giant snake measuring up to 20 feet long and weighing up to 200 pounds, is  very popular among exotic pet owners. However, as the (32) .................. snakes grow, they become more difficult to cafe and handle. To avoid dealing with the snakes, the owners irresponsibly release them into the wild. (33) .................. the Everglades is quite similar to the python’s native environment of Southeast Asia, they survive and prosper without difficulty.

The issue with the Burmese pythons is their choice of meals. They eat alligators and endangered birds, which creates a strain on an already (34) .................. ecosystem. Recently a 13-foot long Burmese python was found with a 5-foot alligator bursting from its stomach. They python died trying to eat the alligator but a larger one would have easily won the struggle. With over 30,000 Burmese pythons now living in the Everglades, a solution to stop this invasive species is necessary. If the pythons are (35).................. unchecked, there is a strong possibility they will wipe out a variety of species necessary for the functioning of the Everglades ecosystem.

(Source: * Master TOEFL Junior*, Hahn (2015)

Question 31: A. but B. so C. because D. since
Question 32: A. dead B. died C. death D. deadly
Question 33: A. Although B. On account of C. Since D. When
Question 34: A. solid B. fragile C. balance D. substantial
Question 35: A. left B. leaving C. leave D. to leave

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 36: I’m not surprised that Tom is ill. He’s been burning the candle at both ends for a long time. It was bound to affect his health sooner or later.

A. overworking     B. extra work    C. over loading     D. playing with fire

Question 37: The word crisis is too often used to exaggerate the predicament of a club experiencing  hard times.

A. situation        B. dilemma         C. shame      D. embarrassment

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 38: Julie had a training course in alternative medicine. She was able to help the man out of danger.

A. Much as Julie had a training course in alternative medicine, she was able to help the man out of danger.

B. Having trained in alternative medicine, Julie was able to help the man out of danger.

C. But for a training course in alternative medicine, Julie could have helped the man out of danger.

D. Despite training in alternative medicine, Julie was able to help the man out of danger.

Question 39: The guest on our show who has won the Opera. He is the youngest professional golfer that has won this award so far.

A. The guest on our show is the youngest professional golfer to win the Opera so far.

B.The professional golfer who has won the Opera so far is the youngest guest on our show.

C. The youngest professional golfer won the Opera so far is the guest on our show.

D. The youngest guest on our show is the professional golfer winning the Opera so far.

* Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions

Question 40: If the goal of education is to enhance both individual achievement and social progress, then the “shopping mall colleges” should been replaced with colleges that are true learning communities.

A. to enhance                    B. both          C. been             D. that are

Question 41: If the man had transported to the hospital sooner than he was, he could have survived the electrocution.

A. had transported            B. sooner           C. could                            D. survived

Question 42: Some researchers believe that an unfair attitude toward the poor will contributed to the problem of poverty.

A. Some researchers          B. an unfair         C. poor                D. contributed

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, H, C, or 1) on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.

Theresa May, the second female Britain’s prime minister following Margaret Thatcher, revealed in  2013 that she had been given a diagnosis of Type 1 diabetes, a condition that requires daily insulin injections. Asked later how she felt about the diagnosis, she said her approach to it was the same as toward everything in her life: “Just get on and deal with it.” That kind of steeliness brought her to center stage in the aftermath of Britain’s vote to leave the European Union and the feuding that erupted in the Conservative Party over who would succeed David Cameron.

Ms” May, 59 years old, is the country’s longest-serving home secretary in half a century, with a reputation for seriousness, hard work and above all, determination. She is one of a growing number of women in traditionally male-dominated British politics rising to the upper position of leadership.

Bom in 1956, Ms. May grew up mainly in Oxford shire, an only child who was first drawn to the Conservative Party at age 12. As a conscientious student, she never rebelled against her religious upbringing and remains a regular churchgoer. Tellingly, her sports hero was Geoffrey Boycott, a solid, stubborn cricketer who specialized in playing the long game.

Like many other Britain’s prime minister including Tony Blair, Sir Robert Peel and Margaret Thatcher, she won a place at Oxford. But while almost every other political leader got there by way of Eton College and joined Oxford’s hedonistic Bullingdon Club, she attended a state secondary school and had a more sedate university career. After unsuccessful attempts to be elected to the House of Commons in 1992 and 1994, she finally became an MP in 1997 general election.

May is known for a love of fashion and in particular distinctive shoes. She even wore leopard-print shoes to her final Cabinet meeting as Home Secretary in early 2016. However, she has been quite critical of the media focusing on her fashion instead of her achievement as a politician. May also describes cooking and walking as primary hobbies, and if someone is raising questions about why walking can be classified as a hobby, she elaborates in a column for Balance magazine, in which she wrote of her battle with diabetes.

Question 43. According to the passage, who is the prime minister coming before Theresa May?

A. Tony Blair 

B. Margaret Thatcher

C. Sir Robert Peel 

D. David Cameron

Question 44. The most prominent characteristic of Theresa May is ...................

A. stubbornness       B. seriousness        C. determination               D. hard work

Question 45. Which of the following statements is NOT true?

A. British political life is conventionally controlled mainly by men.

B. The number of women in politics is increasing.

C. Conservative Party didn’t have to discuss about who would be the next prime minister.

D. Theresa May’s toughness was one of the reasons for the Party to choose her for the prime minister position.

Question 46. Which of the following facts is TRUE about Theresa May?

A. She graduated from Eon College.

B. As a child, she was quite rebellious.

C. She didn’t work part time as a university student.

D. She used not to be a home secretary.

Question 47. She first became a member of parliament in ..................

A. 1992      B. 1994                 C. 1997          D. 2013

Question 48. Her reason to consider walking as one of her main hobbies is ..................

A. she is quite critical

B. it helps her fight diabete

C. someone asks about it

D. it is written on Balance magazine

Question 49. The word “approach” is closest in meaning to ..................

A. means          B. advance          C. technique      D. trick

Question 50. The word “hedonistic” is closest in meaning to ..................

A. ordinary         B. luxurious        C. economical     D. simple

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 01

1.A

2B

3.C

4.D

5.A

6.D

7.B

8.A

9.D

10.B

11.B

12. B

13.C

14.B

15.B

16. A

17.D

18.C

19.D

20.D

21.A

22.C

23.B

24.D

25.B

26.B

27.C

28.B

29.A

30.D

31.A

32.D

33.C

34.B

35.A

36.A

37.B

38.B

39.A

40.C

41.A

42.D

43.D

44.C

45.C

46.C

47.C

48.B

49.A

50.B

2. Đề số 2

ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT NGUYỄN THỊ ĐỊNH- ĐỀ 02

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. 

1. A. flooded B. learned C. implanted D. improved
2. A. brought B. ought C. thought D. though

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on you answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions. 

3. A. develop B. adjective C. generous D. popular
4. A. ferocious B. adventure C. history D. achievement

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 

5. Lady Gaga is an American singer, songwriter and actress,_______?

A. doesn't she B. hasn't she    C. won't she    D. isn't she 

6. The 26th Annual Meeting of the Asia-Pacific Parliamentary Forum (APPF) ________ in Hanoi, our beautiful and peaceful capital city, from January 18th to 21st, 2018.

A. was held     B. is held       C. is being held       D. will be held

7. Today, women are increasingly involved ________ the politics.

A. of    B. in       C. with            D. from

8. The faster we walk,_______we will get there. 

A. the soonest B. the soon      C. the more soon         D. the sooner 

9. When my parents traveled to Singapore, they bought me a______piano on my birthday.

A. precious grand ancient wooden 

B. wooden grand ancient precious

C. precious grand wooden ancient

D. ancient grand precious wooden

10. By the time you finish cooking they ________ their homework.

A. will have finished  B. will finish               C. had finished                        D. have finished

11. _________ they do not have much experience, their applications have been approved. 

A. So that        B. Although    C. Because      D. As soon as 

12. The supermarket had closed ______.

A. before Sandra came to buy some sugar     giaoandethitienganh.info

B. when Sandra was coming buy some sugar

C. as soon as Sandra will come to buy some sugar

D. so that Sandra came to buy some sugar

13. _________ the desalination plant, the company could offer an effective solution to the problem of water scarcity. 

A. Being built B. Having been built   C. To build      D. Having built 

14. Good students aren't_______ intelligent students. 

A. necessity     B. unnecessary            C. necessary    D. necessarily 

15. Although he is my friend, I find it hard to________his selfishness 

A. catch up with          B. put up with C. keep up with           D. come down with 

16. Paul is a very__________character, he is never relaxed with strangers. 

A. self-conscious         B. self-satisfied           C. self-directed           D. self-confident 

17. His poor standard of play fully justifies his __________from the team for the next match.

A. expulsion                B. dismissal          C. rejection                 D. exclusion 

18. Like everyone else, Sue has her ________ of course but on the whole, she's quite satisfied with life.

A. ups and downs       B. ins and outs            C. safe and sound      D. odds and ends

19. The accused__________guilty to all charges 

A. confessed   B. pleaded       C. said D. admitted

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 

20. I can’t get on well with my boss because of his authoritative manner that at times is almost arrogant.

A. struck up                B. stuck up                  C. drunk up                 D. sprung up 

21. Her passport seemed legitimate, but on closer inspection, it was found to have been altered.

A. invalid                    B. illegal                      C. improper                 D. lawful 

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 

22. The schoolboy’s excuse wasn’t credible at all. Nobody in the classroom believed in the far-fetched story he told.

A. reliable                    B. predictable              C. knowledgeable       D. unbelievable 

23. We have to work against the clock so as to meet the deadline of the clients tomorrow.

A. work in a haste    B. work slowly       C. work as fast as possible      D. work strenuously 

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the option that best completes following exchanges. 

24. Two students, Joe and James are chatting about time. 

- Joe: "The weekend goes so quickly." - James: "I know. _______________”

A. I love watching TV all Saturdays and Sundays.

B. I can't believe that it's Monday tomorrow.

C. I have English lessons on Tuesdays and Fridays. 

D. How about going out for a meal this weekend? 

25. Claudia is being interviewed by the manager of the company she's applied for

- Manager: “_________________”

- Claudia: "I work hard and I enjoy working with other people."

A. Can you do jobs on your own?

B. Would you describe yourself as ambitious?

C. What are some of your main strengths?

D. Why have you applied for this position? 

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.

In the year 1900, the world was in the midst of a machine revolution. (26) _____ electrical power became more ubiquitous, tasks once done by hand were now completed quickly and efficiently by machine. Sewing machines replaced needle and thread. Tractors replaced hoes. Typewriters replaced pens. Automobiles replaced horse-drawn carriages.

A hundred years later, in the year 2000, machines were again pushing the boundaries of (27) _____ was possible. Humans could now work in space, thanks to the International Space Station. We were finding out the composition of life thanks to the DNA sequencer. Computers and the world wide web changed the way we learn, read, communicate, or start political revolutions.

So what will be the game-changing machines in the year 2100? How will they (28) _____ our lives better, cleaner, safer, more efficient, and (29) _____ exciting?

We asked over three dozen experts, scientists, engineers, futurists, and organizations in five different disciplines, including climate change, military, infrastructure, transportation, and space exploration, about how the machines of 2100 will change humanity. The (30) _____ we got back were thought-provoking, hopeful and, at times, apocalyptic.

(Adapted from https://www.popularmechanics.com/)

26. A. Despite B. However C. Although D. As
27. A. what B. that C. who D. which
28. A. notice B. taste C. make D. hope
29. A. much B. more C. little D. less
30. A. answers B. programs C. contacts D. services

---(Để xem tiếp nội dung của đề thi số 2 các em vui lòng xem tại online hoặc đăng nhập vào HỌC247 để tải về máy)--- 

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 2

Question 1 : Đáp án D

Question 2 : Đáp án D

Question 4 : Đáp án C

Question 5 : Đáp án D

Question 6 : Đáp án A

Question 7 : Đáp án B

Question 8 : Đáp án D

Question 9 : Đáp án A

Question 10 : Đáp án A

Question 11 : Đáp án A

Question 12 : Đáp án A

Question 11 : Đáp án D    

Question 14 : Đáp án D

Question 15 : Đáp án B

Question 16 : Đáp án A

Question 17 : Đáp án D

Question 18 : Đáp án A

Question 19 : Đáp án D

Question 20 : Đáp án B

Question 21 : Đáp án D

Question 22 : Đáp án D

Question 23 : Đáp án B

Question 24 : Đáp án B

Question 25 : Đáp án C

Question 26: Đáp án D

Question 27: Đáp án A

Question 28: Đáp án C

Question 29: Đáp án B

Question 30: Đáp án A

Question 31: Đáp án A

Question 32: Đáp án B

Question 33: Đáp án C

Question 34: Đáp án D

Question 35: Đáp án D

Question 36: Đáp án A

Question 37: Đáp án D

Question 38: Đáp án C

Question 39: Đáp án A

Question 40: Đáp án A

Question 41: Đáp án B

Question 42: Đáp án C

Question 43 : Đáp án D

Question 44 : Đáp án A

Question 45 : Đáp án D

Question 46 : Đáp án A

Question 47 : Đáp án B

Question 48 : Đáp án A

Question 49 : Đáp án A

Question 50 : Đáp án C

3. Đề số 3

ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT NGUYỄN THỊ ĐỊNH- ĐỀ 03

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. canoeing B. penalty C. rival D. tsunami
Question 2: A. ejects B. defends C. advocates D. breaths

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3: A. president B. physicist C. inventor D. property
Question 4: A. economy B. unemployment C. communicate D. particular

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5: Benny Goodman was equally talented as both a jazz performer  as well as a classical musician.

Question 6: Even though the extremely bad weather in the mountains, the climbers decided not to cancel their climb.

Question 7: Despite of the pills which are available, many people still have trouble sleeping.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8: Please, will you just tidy your room, and stop ______ excuses!

A. having                 B. making               C. doing               D. taking

Question 9: This library card will give you free access _______ the Internet eight hours a day.

A. on                        B. to                        C. from                D. in

Question 10: The United States consists of fifty states, _______ has its own government.

A. each of which      B. hence each         C. they each         D. each of that

Question 11: It is very important for a firm or a company to keep ______ the changes in the market.

A. pace of                 B. track about         C. touch with       D. up with

Question 12: John paid $2 for his meal, _______ he had thought it would cost.

A. not as much         B. not so much as   C. less as              D. not so many as

Question 13: The forecast has revealed that the world’s reserves of fossil fuel will have _____ by 2015.

A. taken over            B. caught up           C. used off            D. run out

Question 14: Only when you grow up _______  the truth.

A. you will know      B. you know          C. do you know    D. will you know

Question 15: She had to hand in her notice _______ advance when she decided to leave the job.

A. with                      B. from                  C. in                      D. to

Question 16: They didn’t find _______ in a foreign country.

A. it easy to live 

B. it easy live

C.  it to live easy 

D. easy to live

Question 17: “Buy me a newspaper on your way back, ______ ?”

A. will you        B. don’t you     C. can’t you                D. do you

Question 18: There was nothing they could do _______ leave the cat at the roadside where it had broken down.

A. but          B. instead of           C. than            D. unless

Question 19: If you have anything important to do, do it straight away. Don’t put it _______.

A. on        B. off   C.  over             D. up

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: -“How do you like your steak done?”

-“________.”

A. I don’t like it much    B. Very little        C. Well done   D. Very much

Question 21: - Lora: “Your new blouse looks gorgeous, Helen!”

- Helen: “_______”.

A. Thanks, I bought it at Macy’s

B. It’s up to you

C.  I’d rather not

D. You can say that again

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in

meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: I’ll take the new job whose salary is fantastic.

A. reasonable          B. acceptable          C. pretty high         D. wonderful

Question 23: I could see the finish line and thought I was home and dry.

A. hopeless             B. hopeful               C. successful          D. unsuccessful

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 24: The government is not prepared to tolerate this situation any longer.

A. look down on

B. put up with

C.  take away from 

D. give on to

Question 25: I clearly remember talking to him in a chance meeting last summer.

A. unplanned                B. deliberate              C. accidental               D. unintentional

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: If you need my advice, I would forget about buying a new house.

A. If I were you, I did not buy a new house.

B. If I were you, I would not bought a new house.

C. If I were you, I hadn’t bought a new house.

D. If I were you, I would not buy a new house.

Question 27: He said: “I’m sorry I didn’t reply to the letter.”

A. He apologized for not to reply to the letter.

B. He apologized for not to replying to the letter.

C. He apologized for didn’t reply to the letter.

D. He apologized for not replying to the letter.

Question 28: It’s no use trying to persuade Tom to change his mind.

A. There’s no point to try to persuade Tom to change his mind .

B.  It’s worth trying to persuade Tom to change his mind.

C.  It’s useful trying to persuade Tom to change his mind.

D.  It’s a waste of time trying to persuade Tom to change his mind.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29: I’d suggest that we avoid telling any scary stories with Janet around. She’s a bit unstable and could get hysterical.

A. Janet has trouble keeping her emotions under control, especially when she is told frightening stories.

B. Since Janet is somewhat unbalanced, the only way to make her laugh is by telling stories, but we should avoid scary ones as they might cause her to panic.

C. It is no fun to tell frightening stories to Janet, who is not very stable mentally , because she only laughs instead of getting scared .

D. Janet is somewhat mentally unbalanced and might easily become uncontrollably emotional, so let’s not tell frightening stories in her presence.

Question 30: We choose to find a place for the night. We found the bad weather very inconvenient.

A. Bad weather was approaching, so we started to look for a place to stay.

B. The bad weather prevented us from driving any further.

C. Seeing that the bad weather had set in, we decided to find somewhere to spend the night.

D. Because the climate was so severe, we were worried about what we’d do at night.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

Stories about how people somehow know when they are being watched have been going around for years. However, few (31) _______ have been made to investigate the phenomenon scientifically. Now, with the completion of the largest ever study of the so-called staring effect, there is impressive evidence that this is a recognizable and (32) _______ sixth sense. The study involved hundreds of children. For the experiments, they sat with their eyes covered and with their backs to other children, who were told to either stare at them or look away. The results consistently showed that the children who could not see were able to (33) _______ when they were being stared at. In a total of 18,000 trials carried worldwide, the children correctly sensed when they were being watched almost 70% of the time. The experiment was repeated with the added precaution of putting the children who were being watched outside the room, (34) _______ from the starters by the windows. The results, though less impressive, were more or less the same. Dr. Sheldrake, the biologist who designed the study, believes that the results are (35) _______ enough to find out through further experiments precisely how the staring effect might actually come about.

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ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 3

1D 2B 3C 4B 5C 6A 7A 8B 9B 10A 11D 12B 13D 14D 15C 16A 17A 18A 19B 20C

21A 22D 23C 24A 25B 26D 27D 28D 29D 30C 31B 32A 33D 34D 35C

36B 37D 38B 39D 40B 41A 42A 43B 44C 45B 46B 47C 48C 49D 50D

4. Đề số 4

ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT NGUYỄN THỊ ĐỊNH- ĐỀ 04

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from 

1. A. kite B. bite C. favorite D. quite
2. A. coached B. needed C. wanted D. beloved

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. 

3. A. lemon B. physics C. decay D. decade
4. A. satisfactory B. alternative C. evaluate D. continue

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 

5. “Never say that again,______________?”

A. don’t you         B. will you      C. do you        D. won’t you

6. Gold______________in California in the 19th century

 A. was discovered       B. has been discovered        C. was discover        D. they discover

7. Vietnam is______________the top exporters of rice.

A. in          B. of    C. between      D. among

8. It gets ______________when the winter is coming.

A. more and more cold 

B. colder and colder

C. cold and colder

D. cold and less cold

9. Charles was wearing ______________at the party.

A. a tie yellow silk funny

B. very funny wide yellow silk tie

C. a yellow silk funny tie

D. a funny wide yellow silk tie

10. She was cooking while I______________my homework.

A.was done     B.was doing    C. am doing    D.have done 

11. ______________I heard the phone ring, I didn’t answer it.

A. Because      B. Only if        C. Even though           D. Provided that

12. ______________she often wears in red.

A. After I met her

B. Whenever I meet her

C. By the time I met her

D. Until I will meet her

13. ______________ high school, Nam attended a university in the city centre.

A. Having finished

B. To have finished 

C. Having been finished

D. To finish

14. Judo players are______________to their opponents and bow to each other before and after a contest.

A. respectfully   B.respectful     C. respectable  D. respect

15. I ______________ love with him because of his kind nature.

A. Fell down   B. fell to         C. fell about    D. fell in

16. They have been______________some measures to control traffic jam at rush hours.

A. imagined    B. taken           C. done           D. carried

17. After a momentary ______________of concentration, Simon managed to regain his focus and completed the test.

A. failure.        B. lapse.          C. fault.           D. error

18. Mr Nam knows Hanoi City like the back of his______________.He used to be a taxi driver there for 10 years.

A. head           B. mind           C. hand           D. life

19. Some people  have  the  opinion  that  more  developing  countries  should  be  given the______________    light to become hosts of such international sporting events as Olympics and World Cup.

A. red  B. blue C. green           D. yellow

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

20. Around 150 B.C. the Greek astronomer Hipparchus developed a system to classify stars according to brightness.

A. record         B. shine           C. categorize   D. diversify

21. Before the advent of the railways, communications were slow and difficult.

A. import         B. disappearance         C. introduction            D. arrival

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

22. Unless the two signatures are identical, the bank won’t honour the check.

A. genuine       B. different     C. fake D. similar

23. She’s a bit down in the dumps because she’s got to take her exam again.

A. sad  B. embarrassed            C. confident    D. happy

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.

24. A: “Would you like me to send this package for you?” - B: “______” 

A. That would be nice. Any problems?

B. Yes, please, if you don’t mind. 

C. I’m sorry, but here you are.

D. No, thanks. I’m really busy.

25. Roger: “Wow! You look terrific in that new dress!” - Tina: “______”

A. Oh, what a pity!

B. I’m afraid so! 

C. Thank you. I’m glad you think so.

D. Why dare you say so?

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.

Christ the Redeemer is an Art Deco statue of Jesus Christ in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, created by Polish-French sculptor Paul Landowski and built by the Brazilian engineer Heitor da Silva Costa, in collaboration with the French engineer Albert Caquot. The face was created by the Romanian (26) ______ Gheorghe Leonida. The statue is 30 metres tall, not including its 8-metre pedestal, and its arms stretch 28 metres wide. By (27) ______ , it is approximately two-thirds the height of the Statue of Liberty’s height from base to torch.

The statue weighs 635 metric tons (625 long, 700 short tons), and is (28) ______ at the peak of the 700-metre Corcovado mountain in the Tijuca Forest National Park overlooking the city of Rio. A symbol of Christianity across the world, the statue has also become a cultural icon of both Rio de Janeiro and Brazil, and is listed as (29) ______ of the New Seven Wonders of the World. The statue, (30) ______ was constructed between 1922 and 1931, is made of reinforced concrete and soapstone.

(Adapted from https://world.new7wonders.com/)

26. A. artist B. guitarist C. stylist D. scientist
27. A. package B. comparison C. pleasure D. occasion
28. A. connected B. scratched C. located D. pointed
29. A. other B. each C. another D. one
30. A. why B. which C. who D. that

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.

Culture is the lens with which we evaluate everything around us; we evaluate what is proper or improper, normal or abnormal, through our culture. If we are immersed in a culture that is unlike our own, we may experience culture shock and become disoriented when we come into contact with a fundamentally different culture. People naturally use their own culture as the standard to judge other cultures; however, passing judgment could reach a level where people begin to discriminate against others whose “ways of being” are different than their own—essentially, we tend to fear that which we do not understand.

Cultural diversity is important because our country, workplaces, and schools increasingly consist of various cultural, racial, and ethnic groups. We can learn from one another, but first we must have a level of understanding about each other in order to facilitate collaboration and cooperation. Learning about other cultures helps us understand different perspectives within the world in which we live and helps dispel negative stereotypes and personal biases about different groups.

In addition, cultural diversity helps us recognize and respect “ways of being” that are not necessarily our own, so that as we interact with others, we can build bridges to trust, respect, and understanding across cultures. Furthermore, this diversity makes our country a more interesting place to live, as people from diverse cultures contribute language skills, new ways of thinking, new knowledge, and different experiences.

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ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 4

Question 1. C 

Question 2. A

Question 3. C

Question 4. A

Question 5. B

Question 6. A

Question 7. D

Question 8. B

Question 9. D 

Question 10. B

Question 11. C

Question 12. B 

Question 13. A

Question 14. B

Question 15. D

Question 17. B 

Question 18. C

Question 19. C

Question 20. C

Question 21. D

Question 22. B

Question 23. D

Question 24. B

Question 25. C

Question 26. A

Question 27. B

Question 28. C

Question 29. D

Question 30. B

Question 31. C

Question 32. B

Question 33. D

Question 34. A

Question 35. A

Question 36. C

Question 37. A

Question 38. B

Question 39. A

Question 40. C

Question 41. D

Question 42. B

Question 43. C

Question 44. D                  

Question 45. A                

Question 46. C

Question 47. B

Question 48. B

Question 49. B

Question 50. B

5. Đề số 5

ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT NGUYỄN THỊ ĐỊNH- ĐỀ 05

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. final B. writer C. ivory D. widow
Question 2: A. passed B. managed C. cleared D. threatened

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3: A. apply B. persuade C. reduce D. offer
Question 4: A. preservative B. congratulate C. preferential D. development

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 5: Sirius, the Dog Star, is the  most brightest star in the sky with an absolute magnitude about twenty-three times that of the sun.

Question 6: Killer whales tend to wander in family clusters that hunt, play, and resting together.

Question 7: Alloys of gold and copper have been widely using in various types of coins.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8: There should be an international law against ______.

A. afforestation         B. deforestation      C. forestry          D. reforestation

Question 9: I’d rather you _____ home now.

A. going                    B. go                      C. gone                D. went

Question 10: Don’t worry! I have _____ tire at the back of my car.

A. another                 B. other                  C. others              D. the other

Question 11: ______ he arrived at the bus stop when the bus came.

A. No longer has       B. No sooner had   C. Not until had  D. Hardly had

Question 12: Susan’s doctor insists _____ for a few days.

A. that she is resting  B. her resting         C. that she rest    D. her to rest

Question 13: We couldn’t fly _____ because all the tickets had been sold out.

A. economical           B. economy           C. economic        D. economics

Question 14: Through an ______, your letter was left unanswered.

A. overtone               B. overcharge        C. overtime          D. oversight

Question 15: My mother told me to ______for an electrician when her fan was out of order.

A. send                      B. write                 C. rent                  D. turn

Question 16: Jane _____ law for four years now at Harvard.

A. is studying

B. has been studying      

C. studies

D. studied

Question 17: He _____ to the doctor after the accident, but he continued to play instead.

A. must have gone 

B. should have gone

C. couldn’t go  

D. didn’t have to go

Question 18: I won’t change my mind _____ what you say.

A. whether                B. no matter          C. because            D. although

Question 19: How many times have I told you ______ football in the street?

A. not playing

B. do not play

C. not to play

D. not to have played

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 20: -“Mum, I’ve got 600 on the TOEFL test.”

-“________”

A. Good way!            B. You are right.         C. Oh, hard luck!             D. Good job!

Question 21: - John: “Do you think that we should use public transportation to protect our environment?”

Laura: “_______”.

A. Of course not. You bet! 

B. Well, that’s very surprising.

C.  There’s no doubt about it.

D. Yes, it’s an absurd idea.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in

A. meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: He was asked to account for his presence at the scene of the crime.

A. complain             B. exchange             C. explain              D. arrange

Question 23: The teacher gave some suggestions on what could come out for the examination.

A. effects                 B. symptoms            C. hints                  D. demonstration

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 24: Because Jack defaulted on his loan, the bank took him to court.

A. failed to pay                                        B. paid in full

C. had a bad personality                           D. was paid much money

Question 25: His career in the illicit drug trade ended with the police raid this morning.

A. elicited                B. irregular              C. secret               D. legal

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: If motorists were to drive carefully, they would have fewer accidents.

A. Motorists are not careful and there are many accidents.

B. Motorists are careful and yet there are many accidents.

C. Motorists are not careful and yet there are few accidents.

D. Motorists are careful and there are few accidents.

Question 27: He had hardly left the office when the phone rang.

A. No sooner had he left the office than the phone rang.

B. No sooner he had left the office than the phone rang.

C. No sooner he had left the office when the phone rang.

D. No sooner he did left the office than the phone rang.

Question 28: My boss works better when he’s pressed for time.

A. The more time my boss has, the better he works.

B. The less time my boss has, he works better.

C. The less time my boss has, the better he works.

D. The less time my boss has, he works the better.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 29: She was the first woman in the Philippines. She was elected as the president of the country.

A. She was the first woman to be elected as the president of the Philippines.

B. She was the first woman who is elected as the president of the Philippines.

C. She was the first woman being elected as the president of the Philippines.

D. She was the first woman elected as the president of the Philippines.

Question 30: He is very intelligent. He can solve all the problems in no time.

A. So intelligent is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.

B. He is very intelligent that he can solve all the problems in no time.

C. An intelligent student is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.

D. So intelligent a student is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

NEIGHBOURS INFLUENCE BUYING DECISIONS

However objective we believe ourselves to be, most of us do not judge a product solely on its merits, considering quality, value and style before making a decision. (31) ________, we are easily influenced by the people around us.

There is nothing (32) _______ with this. It is probably a smarter way to make decisions than relying on only our own opinions. But it does make life hard for companies. They have long understood that groups of friends and relatives tend to buy the same products, but understanding the reasons has been tricky. It is because they are so similar with (33) _______ to how much money they make and what television ads they watch that they independently arrive at the same decision? Or do they copy one another, perhaps (34) ________ envy or perhaps because they have shared information about the products?

Research in Finland recently found overwhelming evidence that neighbours have a big influence on buying decisions. When one of a person’s ten nearest neighbours bought a car, the chances that person would buy a car of the same brand during the next week. The researchers argued that it was not just a (35) ________ of envy. Used cars seemed to attract neighbours even more than new cars.   

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ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 5

1D 2A 3D 4C 5A 6D 7C 8B 9D 10A 11D 12C 13B 14D 15A 16B 17B 18B 19C 20D

21C 22C 23C 24B 25B 26A 27A 28C 29A 30A 31B 32A 33B 34C 35C

36A 37C 38C 39B 40A 41C 42A 43C 44C 45D 46B 47A 48D 49A 50C

 

...

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