Bộ 5 đề thi giữa HK2 môn Tiếng Anh 10 có đáp án năm 2021-2022 Trường THPT Nguyễn Văn Trỗi

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TRƯỜNG THPT NGUYỄN VĂN TRỖI

ĐỀ THI GIỮA HỌC KÌ 2 NĂM HỌC 2021-2022

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 10

(Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút)

1. Đề số 1

PART A. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (2.5ps)

I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from that of the others

1. A. teams

B. beats

C. defends

D. tours

2. A. visited

B. decided

C. handicapped

D. wanted

II. Choose the word or phrase -A, B, C, or D - that best completes the sentences or substitutes for the underlined word or phrase.

1.Mark Twain was a famous writer…………books have been translated into many other languages

A. who

B. whom

C. whose

D. that

2. We ............ on a cruise around the Mediterranean to celebrate 10th wedding anniversary.

A. are going to go

B. will go

C. are going

D. go

3.Nam was an………storyteller. We were……… and laughed a lot.

A. amusing/ amused

B. amusing/ amusing

C. amused/amused

D. amused/ amusing

4. I think Manchester United..................a home game this week.

A. will win

B. are going to win

C. are to win

D. win

5. I just bought________new shirt and some new shoes. ________shirt was quite expensive, but_____shoes weren’t.

A. the/ The/ the

B. a /A/ a

C. a/ The/ a

D. a/ The/ the

6. The school boys are in a hurry ________be late for school.

A. so that

B. in order not to

C. in order that

D. so as to

7. Some giant companies tend to buy small firms to expand their business.

A. very big

B. very tiny

C. small

D. very small

8. Anna - “What are you jogging for?” Tom: ……………….

A.For losing weight

B.To lose weight

C. Because I lose weight

D. For I will lose weight

PART B. READING (2.5ps)

I. Read the passage and decide whether these statements are true (T) or False (F).

What kind of music do you enjoy? Some people like going to classical concerts, and listening to an orchestra. The musicians wear very formal clothes, and the audience is silent until the end of the performance. Perhaps you’re a rock music fan Rock concerts are often held at football stadiums or in parks in a crazy atmosphere. Everyone shouts, dances to the music, or sings the songs. Traditional music is layed at weddings and parties in many countries. Nowadays, we can easily hear music, of all kinds, in shops, lifts or any other public places. Many people even make their own music at home or play their own music with them whenever traveling. Music is everywhere!

1. Most people prefer to go to classical concerts, and listening to an orchestra.

2. The musicians wear very informal clothes at the classical performance

3. Rock concerts are often held at football stadiums or in parks in a crazy atmosphere

4. Everyone shouts, dances to the music, or sings the songs in the rock concerts

5. Music is popular now.

II. Read the passage and answer the following questions.

The FIFA World Cup, occasionally called the Football World Cup, but usually referred to simply as the World Cup. The championship has been awarded every four years since the first tournament in 1930, except in 1942 and 1946 when it was not contested because of World War II.

During the 19 tournaments that have been held, seven nations have won the title. Brazil is the only team to have played in every tournament and have won the World Cup a record five times. Italy which is the current champions, has won four titles. And Germany is next with three. The other former champions are Uruguay, winners of the inaugural tournament, and Argentina, with two titles each, and England and France, with one title each.

The most recent World Cup, which was held in Brazil from 12 June to 13 July 2014, was the 20^th World Cup.

1. When was the first World Cup held?

………………………………………………………….

2. Did Brazilian team had four titles?

…………………………………………………………

3. Which team had three titles

………………………………………………………………………

4. In the past, in which years wasn’t the World Cup held?

……………………………………………………………. ……

5. Up to 2014, how many World Cup tournaments were held?

………………………………………………….....................

PART C. WRITING (2.5ps)

I. Complete the second sentence so that it it has a similar meaning to the first one.

1. He didn't return to his native village until the war ended.

It was not ............................................................

2. Jane wanted to earn some pocket money, so she got a part-time job.

Jane got ....................................................................................

3.The movie made me bored

I was ....................................................................................

4. They got these letters from their penpals. (Make the question for underlined part)

………………………………………………………………………....

II. Write a paragraph of 120 about the film you like watching

Name of the film

Type of the film

Setting

Main characters

Content of the film

Your feeling after watching it

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 1

PART A. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (2.5ps)

I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from that of the others.

1. B. beats

2. C. handicapped

II. Choose the word or phrase -A, B, C, or D - that best completes the sentences or substitutes for the underlined word or phrase.

1. C. whose

2. A. are going to go

3. A. amusing/ amused

4. A. will win

5. D. a/ The/ the

6. B. in order not to

7. A. very big

8. B. To lose weight

PART B. READING (2.5ps)

I. Read the passage and decide whether these statements are true (T) or False (F).

1. F

2. F

3. T

4. T

5. T

II. Read the passage and answer the following questions

1. (The first World Cup was held) in 1930

2. No, it didn’t.

3. Germany (had three titles)

4. (The World Cup wasn’t held) in 1942 and 1946

5. 20 (World Cup tournaments were held)

PART C. WRITING (2.5ps)

I. Complete the second sentence so that it it has a similar meaning to the first one.

1. It was not the war ended that he returned to his native village

2.Jane got a part-time job to earn some pocket money

3. I was bored with The movie

4. From whom did they get these letters?

Or Who did they get these letters from?

II. Writing

1. Organization: (0.25 point)

+ correct form of a paragraph

+ coherent

2. Content: (1 point)

* Successfully fulfill the task

+ Say the Name of the film

+ Type of the film

+ Setting

+ Main characters

+ Content of the film

+ Feeling

3. Language: (0.25point)

+ appropriate vocabulary

+ correct grammar

+ punctuation / spelling

2. Đề số 2

ĐỀ THI GIỮA HỌC KÌ 2 MÔN TIẾNG ANH 10- TRƯỜNG THPT NGUYỄN VĂN TRỖI- ĐỀ 02

A. LISTENING (2 points)

You are going to listen to this telephone conversation between JON and JANICE and answer the questions. You should write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer. You will hear the recording TWICE.

Areas dealt with: (1)....................................................................................., North suburbs

Rent: from (2) £................................... to £ 500 a month Depends on: the area availability (3)............................................ garage

Properties available: West Park Road: rent (4) £.................... a month, including the water bill Tithe Road: rent £ 380 a month, including (5).................................rental

Viewing arrangements: meet at office on (6).................................................afternoon at 5.00 pm

Need: letter from bank, reference from your (7).................................................

Must: give (8)......................... notice of moving in give deposit of one-month-pay for contract

B. PHONETICS, GRAMMAR & VOCABULARY (4 points)

I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the other words.

A. Club

B. Lamb

C. Doubt

D. Bomber

A. Disease

B. Spread

C. Breed

D. Treat

II. Choose the word whose main stress is different from that of the other words.

A. Organism

B. Environment

C. Temperature

D. Satellite

A. Secret

B. Ocean

C. Migrate

D. Express

III. Choose the best answer among A, B, C, or D to complete each of the following sentences.

1. ______ is traditional music from a particular country, region, or community.

A. Blues

B. Classical music

C. Folk music

D. Jazz

2. “Tien Quan Ca”, the Viet Nam national______ was written by Van Cao.

A. folk song

B. anthem

C. epic

D. pop song

3. “Silence of the Lambs” is a______ film. It makes the audience scared.

A. disaster

B. science fiction

C. horror

D. action

4. Charlie Chaplin is considered as the greatest comic actor of the______.

A. musical cinema

B. commercial film

C. romantic comedy

D. silent cinema

5. The______ was injured so a defender had to go in goal.

A. attacker

B. goal-scorer

C. opponent

D. goalkeeper

6. The World Cup______ every four years.

A. is held

B. have held

C. holds

D. was held

7. The city of London was______ by the Romans in the year 43 AD.

A. located

B. developed

C. founded

D. characterized

8. People come to the parks to______ from city noise and traffic.

A. get away

B. get out of

C. get over

D. get off

9. ______ is a chemical used for killing-weeds.

A. Pesticide

B. Herbicide

C. Fertilizer

D. Antibiotic

10. Jim wanted to know______ call and tell him where to meet you.

A. you could

B. whether you can

C. if you could

D. when could you

IV. Choose the best answer A, B, C, or D the one that is SIMILAR in meaning to the underlined word.

1. The cattle drank from a river polluted with toxic chemicals.

A. waste

B. colorless

C. odorless

D. poisonous

2. Wastes are poured into the atmosphere, the air becomes contaminated and unpleasant to breathe.

A. dense

B. dirty

C. thirsty

D. important

C. READING (2 points)

I. Fill in each blank space with one appropriate from the box. There are more provided words than needed.

the other attacked fish contests soup

We know that every year less than 100 people are (1)________ by sharks and about 5 to 10 of these people die. But, let’s look at the (2)________ side of the story – How many sharks do people kill? Well I think you already know this: People kill many more sharks. Every year, people hunt and kill thousands of sharks. One reason people kill sharks is for sport; they hunt them just for fun. Some people started to have (3)________to see who kill the most sharks or he bigger sharks. Another reason that people kill sharks is for food. In some countries, such as the United States and Great Britain, shark meat is a popular food. In other countries, such as China, people use shark fins to make (4)________. Because so many people like to eat shark, fishing boats catch a lot of sharks to sell for food.

II. Read the following passage and choose the best answer among A, B, C or D provided.

In the United States and its territories alone, there are more than 40 national parks, varying considerably in landscape and mood. Each park was chosen for its unique features, representative of a particular region of the country. Everglades National Park, for example, at the southern tip of Florida, is a huge subtropical swamp, which provides refuge for such unusual reptiles as the alligator and for thousands of varieties of birds, including the graceful pink flamingo. In sharp contrast to the Everglades are the arid, dusty parks of the West. Mesa Verde National Park in Colorado, for example, preserves the ruins of an Indian civilization which flourished in the twelfth and thirteenth centuries. Today, tourists can wander through the awesome cliff dwellings that the Indians carved out of the steep rock.

1. What is the main idea of the passage?

A. The large number of nation parks.

B. National parks as a wildlife refuge.

C. The diversity of the national parks.

D. The differences between countries.

2. National parks in the US_______.

A. are a lot different from each other.

B. change a lot in landscape and mood

C. are made more interesting

D. are the same as other parks in the world

3. Everglades National Park is_______.

A. in the south of the United States

B. home to alligators and many birds

C. an area of land that is full of water

D. all are correct

4. The word which in the passage refers to_______.

A. Mesa

B. the ruins

C. Indian

D. civilization

--(Để xem tiếp nội dung của đề thi số 2 các em vui lòng xem tại online hoặc đăng nhập vào HỌC247 để tải về máy)---

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 2

A. LISTENING (2 points)

(0.25 point per one correct item)

1. (the) city centre/ center (itself)	5. (the) telephone/ phone
2. 250	6. Wednesday/ Wed
3. (a) garden	7. employer
4. 325	8. two/ 2 weeks’

B. PHONETICS, GRAMMAR & VOCABULARY (2 points)

I. (0.25 point per one correct item):

1. A

2. B

II. (0.25 point per one correct item):

1. B

2. D

III. (0.25 point per one correct item):

1. C	3. C	5. D	7. C	9. B
2. B	4. D	6. A	8. A	10. C

IV. (0.25 point per one correct item):

1. D

2. C

C. READING (2 points)

I. (0.25 point per one correct item):

1. attacked

2. other

3. contests

4. soup

II. (0.25pt/item)

1. C

2. A

3. D

4. B

D. WRITING (2 points)

I. (0.25 point per one correct sentence):

1. The meeting will be held before May Day.

2. It took him two hours to write the essay.

3. Never before have we talked to an interesting person like you.

4. John opened the store in 1932.

II. (1 point)

Phần

Mô tả tiêu chí đánh giá

Điểm tối đa

Bố cục (0.4 point)

- Câu đề dẫn chủ đề mạch lạc

- Bố cục hợp lí rõ ràng phù hợp yêu cầu của đề bài

- Câu kết luận phù hợp

0.1 point

0.2 points

0.1 point

Nội dung (0.4 point)

- Phát triển ý có trình tự logic, đủ thuyết phục người đọc

- Đủ dẫn chứng, ví dụ, lập luận

- Độ dài: Số từ không nhiều hơn hoặc ít hơn so với quy định 5%

0.1 points

0.2 point

Sử dụng ngôn ngữ

(0.2 point)

- Sử dụng ngôn từ phù hợp nội dung, văn phong/ thể loại

- Sử dụng ngôn từ phong phú, ngữ pháp, dấu câu, và chính tả chính xác

0.1 point

Cách tính lỗi:

Lỗi chính tả/ngữ pháp/ từ vựng gây hiểu nhầm/ sai lệch ý sẽ bị tính một lỗi – 0.05 point

(Cùng một lỗi lặp lại chỉ tính là một lỗi)

3. Đề số 3

ĐỀ THI GIỮA HỌC KÌ 2 MÔN TIẾNG ANH 10- TRƯỜNG THPT NGUYỄN VĂN TRỖI- ĐỀ 03

PART A: Multiple choice

I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others:

A. hear

B. dear

C. idea

D. leave

A. poor

B. soon

C. good

D. school

A. town

B. snow

C. cow

D. now

A. house

B. although

C. sound

D. about

II, Read the following paragraph then choose the best word to fill in each gap:

Nowadays people are more aware that wildlife all over the world is in ___(5)___. Many species of animals are threatened and could easily become ___(6)___ if we do not make any effort to ___(7)___ them. In some case, animals are ___(8)___ for their fur, meat or other valuable parts of their bodies.

A. extinct

B. problem

C. danger

D. difficult

A. disappeared

B. extinct

C. empty

D. disliked

A. harm

B. make

C. safe

D. protect

A. looked

B. made

C. hunted

D. got

III. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

English is my mother tongue. Besides, I can speak French and Spanish. I studied the two languages when I was at high school. Now, I am still learning Spanish at university. As for me, mastering a foreign language is not easy. After studying a language, practice is very necessary and useful. Travelling to the country where the target language is spoken is very helpful, but if you cannot speak the language well enough you will certainly have troubles. I also frequently go to the movies, watch television, and listen to the radio in the language I am trying to learn. Reading is another good way to learn. Books are good, but I personally think newspapers and magazines are better. However, getting some knowledge of the language is the most important thing. Grammar and vocabulary should be mastered first.

9. The writer has learnt Spanish _______.

A. at university in Spain

B. at high school in Spain

C. at university and on travel

D.at high school and at university

10. Which way of learning the language is NOT mentioned in the passage?

A. Listening to the radio in the language.

B. Reading books in the language.

C. Seeing films in the language.

D. Singing songs in the language.

11. According to the writer, what should we master first?

A. Vocabulary and verbal skills.

B. Vocabulary and grammar.

C. Writing and listening skills.

D. Reading and speaking

IV. Choose the part among A, B, C or D that needs correcting:

12. If we don’t get tickets (A) for (B) the concert tonight, we’d (C) stay at (D)home.

13. We’d (A) had (B) given you a lift (C) if you hadn’t had (D) your bike with you.

14. Let's (A) having (B) some chicken (C) soup first (D)?

15. She couldn’t find out (A) the (B) solution unless she didn’t understand (C) the (D) problem.

V. Choose the best answer to complete the following sentences:

17. If it were sunny, we ________ go out for a walk.

A. would

B. should

C. must

D. will

18. You look so tired. You ______ go to bed early.

A. will

B. must

C. should

D. would

19. Sea animals are divided ______ different groups.

A. for

B. into

C. in

D. to

20. We should protect plants and animals of the sea to keep its ______.

A. resource

B. energy

C. existence

D. biodiversity

21. Many plants and animals can be used as medicine ______ cancer, AIDS and other sicknesses.

A. by

B. against

C. for

D. with

22. We can't clean up our _______ rivers and seas overnight.

A. polluted

B. polluting

C. pollute

D. pollution

23. I _______ her since last week.

A. didn’t see

B. don’t see

C. haven’t seen

D. hasn’t seen

24. Seventy-five percent of the earth's ______ are covered by sea and oceans.

A. resurface

B. flat

C. surface

D. face

25. Unfortunately, I didn't have address. If I _______ it, I would have sent you a postcard.

A. had

B. had have

C. have had

D. had had

--(Để xem tiếp nội dung của đề thi số 3 các em vui lòng xem tại online hoặc đăng nhập vào HỌC247 để tải về máy)---

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 3

PART A: Multiple choice

I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others:

1 - D

2 - C

3 - B

4 - B

II. Read the following paragraph then choose the best word to fill in each gap:

5 - C

6 - B

7 - D

8 - C

III. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

9 - D

10 - D

11 - B

IV. Choose the part among A, B, C or D that needs correcting:

12 - C

13 - B

14 - C

15 - C

V. Choose the best answer to complete the following sentences:

17 - A

18 - C

19 - B

20 - D

21 - C

22 - A

23 - C

24 - D

25 - D

PART B: Rewrite the following sentences without changing their meaning:

1/ If we had had time, we would have visited the museum

2/ If I weren’t in hurry, I would stay to dinner

3/ If she hadn’t worked so hard, she wouldn’t have got tired

PART C: Put the verbs in brackets into the correct form:

1 - finds

2 - would buy

4. Đề số 4

ĐỀ THI GIỮA HỌC KÌ 2 MÔN TIẾNG ANH 10- TRƯỜNG THPT NGUYỄN VĂN TRỖI- ĐỀ 04

A. LISTENING

I. Listen the recording, then choose the word in the box to fill in the blank:

danger, awful, wildlife, allow, forest, careless

1. A great forest fire is an …………………… thing to see.

2. Late summer is the season when the fire is the greatest……………….. to woods and forests.

3. Foresters do not …………………….. anyone to go into the forests.

4. Every fire destroys valuable wood, ………………….. and good soil.

II. Listen the recording, then decide the following sentences if they are True (T) or False (F):

1. A camp-fire burning near a heap of leaves often causes a forest fire.

2. Campers must always remember to put out the camp-fire.

3. Anyone careless is enough to start a forest fire.

4. Only camper and forester knows how important to care for out great forest and save it.

B. WRITING

Rewrite the sentences with the suggestion:

1. Someone wrote this letter last night.

-> This letter………………………………………………………….

2. The program was interesting.

-> I was………………………………………………………………..

3. I didn’t know how to ride a bicycle until I was 15.

-> It was not ……………………………………………………..

4. We didn’t go on holiday because we didn’t have enough money.

-> If we ………………………………………………….

5. We are taking a holiday next week.

->When ……………………………………………………………?

6. If you don’t see that film, you’ll be sorry.

-> Unless……………………………………………………………………….

7. Mary didn’t work for the UN until 2004

It was not until…………………………………………………………….

8. The teacher corrects our exercises at home.

-> Our exercises……………………………………………………………………………

C. LANGUAGE FOCUS

I. Choose the best answer a, b, c or d to complete the sentences:

1. The soft background music made her ............... sleepy.

A. feel

B. to feel

C. feeling

D. feels

2. "Am I _______ you?" she asked anxiously.

A. bore

B. bored

C. boring

D. boredom

3. Fresh air is _________ for our health

A. usefully

B. using

C. use

D. useful

II. Circle the word that is pronounced differently from the others:

A. character

B. change

C. cheerful

D. achieve

III. Give the correct tense or corect form of the verbs in brackets:

1. I think England (win) …………. this match.

2. If I (be) ………………………………… you, I would look for another job.

3. The passenger asked her how (get)……………to the station.

4. The plants will die unless you (water) ……………………………them everyday.

D. READING

I. Read the passage, then choose the answer a, b, c or d to complete the passage:

Football is the most (1)_____sport in Britain, particularly amongst men. It (2)_____by boys in most schools. Most towns have an amateur football team which plays in a minor league. Football is also the most popular (3)_____sport in Britain. Many people go to see their favourite professional team (4)_____at home, and some go away matches. Many more people watch football on television.

A. difficult

B. famous

C. important

D. popular

A. plays

B. was played

C. is played

D. played

A. spectator

B. viewer

C. champion

D. trophy

A. kicking

B. taking

C. running

D. playing

II. Read the passage and answer the questions:

David Robert Joseph Beckham was born in Leytonstones, London on 2^ndMay 1975. Keen on football from very early on, David won the bobby Charlton Soccer Skills Award when he was 11. Five years later, at the age of 16, he signed on as a trainee at Manchester United Football Club. The following year, he made his first appearance as a substitute but it was another three years before he started playing full-time in the Premier League.

He established himself as a quality player in the 1995/96 season and, in his midfield right position, the number 7 helped his team to win the FA Cup semi-final against Chelsea.

In 1996 he started playing for the English senior team and the year ended with him being voted Young Player of the Year.

It was no surprise that Beckham was picked up to play in the 1998 World Cup in France. A year later he was votes the second best player in the world after Rivaldo, the outstanding Barcelona and Brazil player.

In 2001, he was made captain of the England team, a responsibility which brought out him the best in him. During the match, he led by example and showed that he could play with all his heart.

--(Để xem tiếp nội dung của đề thi số 4 các em vui lòng xem tại online hoặc đăng nhập vào HỌC247 để tải về máy)---

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 4

A. LISTENING

I. Listen the recording, then choose the word in the box to fill in the blank.

danger, awful, wildlife, allow, forest, careless

1. A great forest fire is an …………………… thing to see.(awful)

2. Late summer is the season when the fire is the greatest……………….. to woods and forests.(danger)

3. Foresters do not …………………….. anyone to go into the forests. (allow)

5. Every fire destroys valuable wood, ………………….. and good soil. (wildlife)

II. Listen the recording, then decide the following sentences if they are True(T) or False(F)

1. A camp-fire burning near a heap of leaves often causes a forest fire. T

2. Campers must always remember to put out the camp-fire. F

3. Anyone careless is enough to start a forest fire. T

4. Only camper and forester knows how important to care for out great forest and save it. F

B. WRITING

Rewrite the sentences with the suggestion

1. Someone wrote this letter last night.

This letter was written last night.

2. The program was interesting.

I was interested in the program.

3. I didn’t know how to ride a bicycle until I was 15.

It was not until I was 15that know how to ride a bicycle.

4. We didn’t go on holiday because we didn’t have enough money.

If we had had enough money, I would have gone on holiday.

5. We are taking a holiday next week.

When are you taking a holiday?

6. If you don’t see that film, you’ll be sorry.

Unless you see that film, you’ll be sorry.

7. Mary didn’t work for the UN until 2004.

It was not until 2004 that Mary worked for the UN.

8. The teacher corrects our exercises at home.

Our exercises are corrected at home by the teacher.

C. LANGUAGE FOCUS

I. Choose the best answer a, b, c or d to complete the sentences

1. The soft background music made her ............... sleepy.

A. feel

B. to feel

C. feeling

D. feels

2. "Am I _______ you?" she asked anxiously.

A. bore

B. bored

C. boring

D. boredom

3. Fresh air is _________ for our health

A. usefully

B. using

C. use

D. useful

II. Circle the word that is pronounced differently from the others :

A. character

B. change

C. cheerful

D. achieve

III. Give the correct tense or correct form of the verbs in brackets

1. I think England (win) …………. this match. Will win

2. If I (be) ………………………………… you, I would look for another job. were

3. The passenger asked her how (get )……………to the station. to get

4. The plants will die unless you (water) ……………………………them everyday. water

D. READING

I. Read the passage, then choose the answer a, b, c or d to complete the passage

A. difficult

B. famous

C. important

D. popular

A. plays

B. was played

C. is played

D. played

A. spectator

B. viewer

C. champion

D. trophy

A. kicking

B. taking

C. running

D. playing

II. Read the passage and answer the questions:

He established himself as a quality player in the 1995/96 season and, in his midfield right position, the number 7 helped his team to win the FA Cup semi-final against Chelsea.

In 1996 he started playing for the English senior team and the year ended with him being voted Young Player of the Year.

In 2001, he was made captain of the England team, a responsibility which brought out him the best in him. During the match, he led by example and showed that he could play with all his heart.

1. When did Backham sign as a trainee for MUFC?

Backham signed as a trainee for MUFCwhen he was 16.

2. What position did he play in?

He played in his midfield right position

3. Who became the best player in 1999?

Rivaldo became the best player in 1999.

5. What was he made in 2001?

In 2001, he was made captain of the England team.

5. Đề số 5

ĐỀ THI GIỮA HỌC KÌ 2 MÔN TIẾNG ANH 10- TRƯỜNG THPT NGUYỄN VĂN TRỖI- ĐỀ 05

I. PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM:Chung cho tất cả các thí sinh( from question 1 to question 32).

(8 points).

Question 1: Choose the best option A, B, C or D to complete the following sentence.

Titanic is the one I like best. It is a tragic ...............................................film.

A. detective

B. love story

C. cartoon

D. thriller.

Question 2: Choose the best option A, B, C or D to complete the following sentence.

National Parks help to....................................................endangered animals.

A. protectively

B. protect

C. protective

D. protection

Question 3: Choose the best option A, B, C or D to complete the following sentence.

If I had time, I..............................................to the beach with you this weekend.

A. would go

B. would have gone

C. will go

D. will have gone

Question 4: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently.

A. classical

B. music

C. famous

D. slow

Question 5: Mark the letter A, B, C or D to show the underlined part that needs correction.

If I had knew (A) you were coming (B), I would have met (C) you at the station (D)

Question 6: Choose the best option A, B, C or D to complete the following sentence.

If he ..........................the scholarship, his parents would be very proud of him.

A. got

B. would get

C. is getting

D. gets

Read the passage and choose the best answer (A or B, C, D) from 7 to 11

THE DOLPHIN

Can dolphins talk? May be they can’t talk with words, but they talk with sounds. They show their feeling with sounds.

Dolphins travel in a group. We call a group of fish a “school”. They don’t study, but they travel together. Dolphins are mammals, not fish, but they swim together in a school.

Dolphins talk to the other dolphins in the school. They give information. They tell when they are happy or sad or afraid. They say” Welcome” when a dolphin comes back to the school. They talk when they play.

They make a few sounds above water. They make many more sounds under water. People can not hear these sounds because they are very, very high. Scientists make tapes of the sounds and study them.

Sometimes people catch a dolphin for a large aquarium. People can watch dolphins in a show. Dolphins don’t like to be away from their school in an aquarium. They are sad and lonely.

There are many stories about dolphins. They help people. Sometimes they save somebody’s life. Dolphin meat is good, but people don’t like to kill them. They say that dolphins bring good luck. Many people believe this.

Question 7: Dolphins like to be..............................................................

A. on a tape

B. at an aquarium

C. lonely

D. in their school

Question 8: Dolphins talk with....................................................

A. words

B. their hands

C. sounds

D. music

Question 9: Dolphins make more sounds..............................................

A. under water

B. in school

C. above water

D. for tapes

Question 10: Scientists study.............................................................of dolphins

A. aquariums

B. shows

C. tapes

D. school

Question 11: Which sentence is NOT TRUE?

A. Dolphins always bring good luck

B. People like to watch dolphins

C. A dolphin can save a person’s life

D. A dolphin can talk with sounds

Question 12: Choose the best option A, B, C or D to complete the following sentence.

The lesson was so.......................that most of us were..........................in doing every task of it.

A. interesting / interesting

B. interested / interesting

C. interested / interested

D. interesting / interested

Question 13: Choose the best option A, B, C or D to complete the following sentence.

The life...........................of sperm whale can be up to seventy years.

A. distance

B. length

C. period

D. span

Question 14: Choose the best option A, B, C or D to complete the following sentence.

My little children love watching.............................films very much. They often laugh a lot when watching “Tom and Jerry”.

A. detective

B. cartoon

C. love story

D. science fiction

Question 15: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently.

A. ready

B. instead

C. early

D. weather

Question 16: Choose the best option A, B, C or D to complete the following sentence.

Music plays a very important................................................in our life.

A. field

B. section

C. area

D. part

Question 17: Choose the best option A, B, C or D to complete the following sentence.

Mai to Ly: I like war films because they are very ..........................and I learn a lot from them.

A. boring

B. interesting

C. terrifying

D. good fun

Question 18: Choose the best option A, B, C or D to complete the following sentence.

Language and music make humans different...................................all other animals.

A. of

B. from

C. by

D. with

Question 19: Choose the best option A, B, C or D to complete the following sentence.

If I had known it was your birthday yesterday, I .....................you a card and a bunch of flowers.

A. would have sent

B. would have send

C. sent

D. would send

Question 20: Choose the best option A, B, C or D to complete the following sentence.

It was not ...............................................2010 that I really became a good English teacher.

A. since

B. when

C. until

D. up to

Question 21: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently.

A. chair

B. cheap

C. chemist

D. child

Question 22: Mark the letter A, B, C or D to show the underlined part that needs correction.

It was not (A) until the teacher came that (B) the students didn’t stop (C) talking (D)

Question 23: Choose the best option A, B, C or D to complete the following sentence.

...............I asked my friends did I know the name of the movie star in “Gone With The Wind,”

A. until

B. up to

C. till

D. not until

Question 24: Choose the best option A, B, C or D to complete the following sentence.

Vietnamese folk songs are sweet, gentle and very lyrical.

A. tuneful

B. high quality

C. emotional

D. prosaic

Question 25: Choose the best option A, B, C or D to complete the following sentence.

We can protect the environment by.................................air pollution.

A. reduction

B. reducing

C. reduce

D. to reduce

Question 26: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently.

A. station

B. question

C. national

D. population

Question 27: Choose the best option A, B, C or D to complete the following sentence.

The farmers are busy: They ...........................................for the next crop.

A. have prepared

B. prepare

C. are preparing

D. were preparing

Question 28: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently.

A. watched

B. wanted

C. looked

D. stopped

Question 29: Mark the letter A, B, C or D to show the underlined part that needs correction.

My sister has bought (A) some eggs (B). She will make (C) an enormous omelet for (D) our dinner.

Question 30: Mark the letter A, B, C or D to show the underlined part that needs correction.

If you didn’t (A) learn hard (B), you will fail (C) the exam (D).

Question 31: Mark the letter A, B, C or D to show the underlined part that needs correction.

There are (A) a lot of (B) black clouds in the sky (C).It will rain (D)

Question 32: Choose the best option A, B, C or D to complete the following sentence.

We can go to the National Park to learn about the different......................of animals and plants.

A. types

B. sorts

C. means

D. species

II. PHẦN TỰ LUẬN: (2 points).

Question 33: Rewrite the following sentence in a similar way to the original sentence.

The air is so polluted that people’s health is threatened.

→ If the air weren’t ......................................................................................

Question 34: Rewrite the following sentence in a similar way to the original sentence.

They didn’t begin to learn English until they were in 6^th form.

→ It was not ..........................................................

Question 35: Rewrite the following sentence in a similar way to the original sentence.

They couldn’t go camping because it rained heavily yesterday.

→If it hadn’t .............................................................................

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ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 5

I. Phần trắc nghiệm: (32 x 0,25 = 8 points)

1	B	9	B	17	B	25	B
2	B	10	B	18	B	26	B
3	A	11	A	19	A	27	C
4	B	12	A	20	C	28	B
5	A	13	D	21	C	29	C
6	A	14	B	22	C	30	A
7	D	15	C	23	D	31	D
8	C	16	D	24	C	32	D

II. Phần tự luận: (2 points).

33. If the air weren’t so polluted that people’s health wouldn’t be threatened.

34. It was not until they were in 6^th form that they began to learn English.

35. If it hadn’t rained heavily yesterday, they could have gone camping.

36. It was not until the lights were on that the football match started.

37. It was not until John’s father helped him that he finished his homework.

38. It was not until he could solve the math problems that Tom went to bed.

39. If I were not busy / were free tonight, I would go to the party.

40. If I knew Mary’s address, I would write to her.

...

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