Tài liệu Bộ 5 đề thi chọn HSG môn Tiếng Anh 10 có đáp án năm 2021 Trường THPT Đại Việt được HOC247 biên soạn và tổng hợp giúp các em học sinh lớp 10 ôn tập kiến thức, rèn luyện chuẩn bị cho kì thi sắp tới cũng như giới thiệu đến quý thầy cô và các em học sinh tham khảo. Hi vọng tài liệu này sẽ có ích cho các em học sinh.
Mời các em học sinh và quý thầy cô cùng tham khảo.
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TRƯỜNG THPT ĐẠI VIỆT |
ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI NĂM HỌC 2020-2021 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 10 (Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề) |
1. Đề số 1
A. LISTENING (15 points)
Hướng dẫn phần thi Nghe hiểu: Bài nghe gồm 2 phần, mỗi phần thí sinh được nghe 2 lần. Mở đầu và kết thúc mỗi phần nghe có tín hiệu. Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) có trong bài nghe.
Part 1: Listen to a conversation between an optometrist and a patient and fill in the form. Write no more than 3 words or numbers for each blank.
PATIENT RECORD
|
Time of appointment |
(1)................................ |
|
Given name |
Simon Anthony |
|
Family name |
(2)................................ |
|
Date of birth |
(3)................................, 1989 |
|
Address |
(4)................................, Adam Terrace, Wellington |
|
Name of insurance company |
(5)................................ |
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Date of last eye test |
September 2006 |
|
Patient's observations |
Problems: seeing the distance |
Part 2: You are going to hear a travel agent discussing the holiday booking with 2 customers. Listen to their conversation and decide whether the statements are True (T), False (F) or Not given (NG).
|
Statements |
T |
F |
NG |
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6. They want to book a holiday for July |
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7. They have decided where to go for the holiday. |
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8. Both customers are free to travel in the first week. |
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9. Last year, both of them visited France |
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10. They would like to go to the mountains for skiing this year |
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11. They don't want to go to Italy because the dates don't suit them. |
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12. They don't like to go to Sweden because there are no beaches |
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13. It would be 385 pounds for them to visit Portugal. |
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14. The customers prefer to visit Portugal by flight from London. |
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15. The flight stops at Manchester on the way to Portugal. |
B. PHONETICS (5 points). Choose the word that has a different stress pattern from the others.
16. A. community B. developing C. conditioner D. interested
17. A. continue B. importance C. different D. directed
18. A. medicines B. opposite C. pollution D. capable
19. A. preservation B. inspiration C. disposable D. popularity
20. A. exhausted B. atmosphere C. suspect D. computer
C. GRAMMAR- VOCABULARY-LANGUAGE FUNCTIONS
I. Choose the word, phrase or expression which best completes each sentence (15 points).
21. Hoa: "Are you going to buy a new computer or just continue using the old one?"
Mary: "_________"
A. Yes, I am. B. Yes, I'd like one. Thank you.
C. That's impossible. I can't afford a new one. D. Neither. I'm going to lease one.
22. Mr. Black: "What a lovely house you have!"
Mr John: "_________"
A. No problem B. Thank you. Hope you will drop in.
C. Of course not, it's not costly D. I think so.
23. You have never been to Italy, ________?
A. have you B. haven't you C. did you D. had you
24. You can't tell what someone is like just from their ________.
A. character B. looking C. appearance D. personality
25. "How is it going?" - "________"
A. By bike B. Not much C. It sounds better D. Mustn't grumble
26. ________ a dentist, Mike is very concerned about having healthy teeth.
A. Because B. He is C. As D. That he is
27. ________, you need to achieve a score of 60% or more.
A. To pass this test B. For being passed this test
C. In order pass this test D. So that to pass this test
28. As a famous person ________ many children admire, it is important for her to act responsibly.
A. whose B. whom C. which D. when
29. The brochure says that the hotel has a great ________ of the sea.
A. appearance B. look C. sight D. view
30. Our new coach is popular ________ the whole team.
A. with B. to C. by D. for
31. As soon as you ________ that, I'd like you to go to bed.
A. have done B. did C. will do D. will have done
32. Margaret was slow at school, but she went on ________ Prime Minister.
A. being B. to be C. having been D. to have been
33. In 1870, ________, John D. Rockefeller and others created the Standard Oil Company.
A. in spite of oil prices fluctuated B. despite fluctuating oil prices
C. but the oil prices fluctuated D. oil prices were fluctuating
34. They're staying in rented accommodation for the time ________.
A. going B. making C. doing D. being
35. "I have an idea. Let's go for a swim on Sunday afternoon". - "________"
A. OK, what time? B. You're kidding C. I know D. I'm sure
II. Give the correct form of the words in brackets (10 points).
36. We found it ____________ (THRILL) to your wonderful news.
37. He left the room without any ____________ (EXPLAIN).
38. He didn't feel happy because he worked ____________ (SUCCESS).
39. Many people expressed ____________ (DISAGREE) with the whole idea.
40. There was a ____________ (WIDE) dissatisfaction with the government's policies.
41. Her health has ____________ (BAD) considerably since we last saw her.
42. A lot of plants and animals could be used as medicines against cancer, AIDS, heart diseases and other ____________ (SICK).
43. He was ____________ (INFORMATION) of the consequences in advance.
44. I was kept ____________ (WAKE) last night by the noise from a party in the flat above.
45. This road is so bad that it needs ____________ (SURFACE).
ĐÁP ÁN
A. LISTENING: (15 points) (1 point for each correct answer)
Part 1:
1. 10 am 2. Lee 3. June 1st 4. University Hall 5. Health for Life
Part 2:
6. T 7. F 8. F 9. T 10. NG 11. T 12. NG 13. T 14. F 15. NG
B. PHONETICS: (5 points) (1 point for each correct answer)
16. D 17. C 18. C 19. C 20. B
C. GRAMMAR – VOCABULARY – LANGUAGE FUNCTIONS.
I. Choose the word, phrases or expression which best completes each sentence. (15 points) (1 point for each correct answer)
21. D 22. B 23. A 24. C 25. D 26. A 27. A 28.B
29. D 30. A 31. A 32. B 33. B 34. D 35. A
II. Give the correct form of the words in brackets. (10 points) (1 point for each correct answer)
36. THRILLING 37. EXPLANATION
38. UNSUCCESSFULLY 39. DISAGREEMENTS
40. WIDESPREAD 41. WORSENED
42. SICKNESSES 43. INFORMED
44. AWAKE 45. RESURFACING
III. Choose the underlined word or phrases in each sentence that needs correcting. (5 points) (1 point for each correct answer)
46. A 47. D 48. C 49. D 50. C
D. READING
I. There are 5 blanks in the passage below. From the words given in the box, choose the most suitable for each blank. There are more words than blanks, so you don't need all of them. (5 points) (1 point for each correct answer)
51. G 52. D 53. E 54. F 55. A
II. Read the following passage and decide which option A, B, C or D best fits each space. (10 points) (1 point for each correct answer)
56. B 57. D 58. C 59. A 60. C
61. C 62. D 63. B 64. C 65. D
III. Read the passage and choose the correct answer. (10 points) (1 point for each correct answer)
66. D 67. A 68. B 69. B 70. C
71. A 72. C 73. B 74. B 75. C
E. WRITING
I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it. (5 points) (1 point for each correct answer)
76. Since we had nothing else to do, we decided to go for a walk.
Or (Since we didn't have anything else to do, we decided to go for a walk.)
77. As well as being bad-tempered, she's very lazy.
78. She flatly refused to apply for that kind of job.
79. This school isn't as/so good as the one (that/which) I studied at last year.
Or (This school isn't as/so good as the one at which/ where I studied last year.)
80. You'll miss the bus if you don't leave now.
Or (You'll miss the bus unless you leave now.)
II. Use the words or phrases suggested to write full sentences to make a letter. (10 points)
Dear Sir or Madam.
81. I am writing to complain about the/a hair drier (0.5) (which/that I) bought in your shop last Saturday (0.5) and the treatment (which/that) I received (0.5) when trying/I tried to return it a few days later. (0.5)
82. I bought the hair drier (0.5) on Wednesday, November 22nd. (0.5)
83. The first time I tried to use it, (0.5) the handle became extremely hot (0.5) and within a few minutes part of the plastic casing began to melt. (0.5)
84. I turned it off immediately (0.5) and returned it with the receipt to your shop on Saturday. (0.5)
85. I explained the situation to one of the/ your assistants (0.5) and asked for my/the money back (0.5) but I was told (that I had) to speak to you. (0.5)
86. Unfortunately, you were not available that day, (0.5) so I am writing instead. (0.5)
87. I enclose the hair drier (0.5) and a/the copy of the original receipt. (0.5)
88. Please send me a full refund (0.5) as soon as possible (0.5)
Yours faithfully.
III. Write a paragraph of about 120 words on the following topic. (10p)
Gợi ý phần cho điểm chi tiết như sau:
1. Form: (paragraph) (1 point) (Đoạn văn không xuống dòng - Đủ số từ)
2. Content: (4 points )
Good topic sentence (0.5 p) and appropriate supporting ideas (3.5 points)
3. Language: (5 pts)
+ Appropriate vocabulary (1.5p)
+ Suitable connectors (0.5)
+ Correct grammar (2.5 p)
+ Punctuating/ Spelling (0.5p)
2. Đề số 2
B. PHONETICS (5 points)
Choose the word that has a different stress pattern from the others.
16. A. community B. developing C. conditioner D. interested
17. A. continue B. importance C. different D. directed
18. A. medicines B. opposite C. pollution D. capable
19. A. preservation B. inspiration C. disposable D. popularity
20. A. exhausted B. atmosphere C. suspect D. computer
C. GRAMMAR- VOCABULARY-LANGUAGE FUNCTIONS
I. Choose the word, phrase or expression which best completes each sentence (15 points).
21. Hoa: “Are you going to buy a new computer or just continue using the old one?”
Mary: “_________”
A. Yes, I am. B. Yes, I’d like one. Thank you.
C. That’s impossible. I can’t afford a new one. D. Neither. I’m going to lease one.
22. Mr. Black: “What a lovely house you have!”
Mr John: “_________”
A. No problem B. Thank you. Hope you will drop in.
C. Of course not, it’s not costly D. I think so.
23. You have never been to Italy, ________?
A. have you B. haven’t you C. did you D. had you
24. You can’t tell what someone is like just from their ________.
A. character B. looking C. appearance D. personality
25. “How is it going?” - “________”
A. By bike B. Not much C. It sounds better D. Mustn’t grumble
26. ________ a dentist, Mike is very concerned about having healthy teeth.
A. Because B. He is C. As D. That he is
27. ________, you need to achieve a score of 60% or more.
A. To pass this test B. For being passed this test
C. In order pass this test D. So that to pass this test
28. As a famous person ________ many children admire, it is important for her to act responsibly.
A. whose B. whom C. which D. when
29. The brochure says that the hotel has a great ________ of the sea.
A. appearance B. look C. sight D. view
30. Our new coach is popular ________ the whole team.
A. with B. to C. by D. for
31. As soon as you ________ that, I’d like you to go to bed.
A. have done B. did C. will do D. will have done
32. Margaret was slow at school, but she went on ________ Prime Minister.
A. being B. to be C. having been D. to have been
33. In 1870, ________, John D. Rockefeller and others created the Standard Oil Company.
A. in spite of oil prices fluctuated B. despite fluctuating oil prices
C. but the oil prices fluctuated D. oil prices were fluctuating
34. They’re staying in rented accommodation for the time ________.
A. going B. making C. doing D. being
35. “I have an idea. Let’s go for a swim on Sunday afternoon”. - “________”
A. OK, what time? B. You’re kidding C. I know D. I’m sure
II. Give the correct form of the words in brackets (10 points).
36. We found it ____________ (thrill) to your wonderful news.
37. He left the room without any ____________ (explain).
38. He didn’t feel happy because he worked ____________ (success).
39. Many people expressed ____________ (disagree) with the whole idea.
40. There was a ____________ (wide) dissatisfaction with the government’s policies.
41. Her health has ____________ (bad) considerably since we last saw her.
42. A lot of plants and animals could be used as medicines against cancer, AIDS, heart diseases and other ____________ (sick).
43. He was ____________ (information) of the consequences in advance.
44. I was kept ____________ (wake) last night by the noise from a party in the flat above.
45. This road is so bad that it needs ____________ (surface).
--(Nội dung đầy đủ, chi tiết vui lòng xem tại online hoặc đăng nhập để tải về máy)---
3. Đề số 3
I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.
1. A. food B. good C. tooth D. tool
2. A. classical B.composer C. answer D. serious
3. A. increase B. widespread C. death D. residential
4. A. realize B. teacher C. reason D. feature
5. A. treated B. asked C. sacred D. suggested
II. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR
1. Hurry up! They've only got _______seats left.
A. a little B. a few C. a lot of D. plenty of
2. The paper has .............. good news today.
A. a B. an C. the D. some
3. I'd rather you _______anyone what I said.
A. don't tell B. won't tell C. didn't tell D. not to tell
4. Before the meeting finished, they had arranged when ______ next.
A. they met B. they to meet C. to meet D. should they meet
5. Tom is having someone _______ the newspaper to her.
A. bring B. to bring C. bringing D. who brings
6. They were just _______ us about Anna's new boyfriend.
A. talking B. saying C. speaking D. telling
7. You've got to try to keep _______ as you grow older.
A. act B. active C. action D. actor
8. He was offered the job .............his qualifications were poor
A. although B. in spite of C. because of D. because
9. It's no use ............. a language if you don't try tospeak it
A. learned B. to learn C. learn D. learning
10. He ............. me to take a lawyer to the court with me
A. advised B. suggested C. threatened D. insisted
11. I really prefer just about anything ..............watching TV
A. from B. or C. than D. to
12. Gold .................near San Francisco in 1848 and thegold rush started the following year.
A. has been discovered B. discovered
C. was discovered D. is discovered
13. I regret ................ you that we can't approve yourapplication
A. inform B. to inform C. informing D. informed
14. If I had gone to the bank this morning, I ............money from you now
A. would not borrow B. would not have borrowed
C. will not borrow D. will no have borrowed
15. It was .............. 2005 that he became an actor.
A. until that B. not when C. not until D. until when
III. Supply the correct form of the word in capital.
1. He is engrossed in doing (SCIENCE) .............................. research.
2. They entered the areas without (PERMIT) ..................................
3. He wants (WIDTH) ............................... his knowledge of the subject.
4. The giant panda is a(n) (DANGER) ..............................species.
5. What makes the computer a (MIRACLE). .............................device?
6. You may be surprised at the large (VARIED) ...........................of animals in national parks.
7. He is behaving in a very (MYSTERY) ................................. way.
8. (ACCURATE).........................is very important in scientific experiments.
9. His (DECIDE)........................................ to retire surprised all of the workers.
10. He was very ( PRIDE)............ ..............of the work he had done.
IV. Put the verbs into correct forms.
1. If I (have) ..................... your address, I would send you a postcard.
2. Two millions (not/be) ....................... a large number of money.
3. They (show) .......................... more than fifty films in Hanoi since June.
4. It's already 32oC. It (be) ............... very hot.
5. I get used to (live)........................... in the bigcity.
6. I must remind my students that this grammar point needs (revise)....................
7. We found it very difficult (reach)...................... adecision.
8. The last time he (see)................... in the public he (wear).................. a grey suit.
9. Was she to speak to him like that, he (be) ................................very angry.
V. Put into the blank a suitable preposition.
1. We started our trip...................... ..foot last week.
2. You can't leave the country...........................a passport.
3. New York is famous........................its skyscrapers.
4. Is modern English different .....................old English?
VI. Writing
1. "You had better go to see the doctor immediately," Jone said.
John advised...........................................................................................................
2. The painters painted his house last week.
He ...........................................................................................................................
3. It is not worth asking Ms. Hoa to help.
There's no .................................................................................................................
4. I'm sorry I didn't go to University
I regret......................................................
5. I never intended to go to the meeting.
I never had.............................................................
6. He forgot about the gun until he got home.
Not until............................................................
7.You really should be able to dress yourself by now !
It's high time.................................................................
8. As soon as I put the phone down, it rang again!
No sooner...........................................................................................................
9. If I had known that peter was in hospital, I would have visited him
Had ...........................................................................................................
10. People say that he beats his wife.
He.......................................................................................
VII. There is one mistake in each of the following sentences. Find and correct it.
1. The sick needs to be looked after. So money must be spent on hospitals.
2. The accident looked seriously at first but nobody was injured.
3. All the students are looking forward to spending their free time to enjoy their Tet holiday.
4. My family lived in Hue since 1990 to 1996, but we are now living in Sai Gon.
5. She left her job soon to devote more time into her family.
6. It is not until his father came home which hedid his homework.
7. The children are exciting about the field trip.
8. In spite interruption, she was still able to finish her assignment before class.
9. Her well-known film, that won several awards, was about the life of Lenin.
10. You've seen her new car, haven't you? What does it like?
VIII. Read the following passage carefully, and then choose the best answer.
We know that every year less than 100 people are attacked by sharks and about 5 to 10 of these people die. But, let's look at the other side of the story - How many sharks do people kill? Well, I think you already know this: People kill many more sharks. Every year, people hunt and kill thousands of sharks. One reason people kill sharks is for sport; they hunt them just for fun. Some people started to have contests to see who kill the most sharks or the biggest sharks. Another reason that people kill sharks is for food. In some countries, such as the United States and Great Britain, shark meat is a popular food. In other countries, such as China, people use shark fins to make soup. Because so many people like to eat shark, fishing boats catch a lot of sharks to sell for food. So, for both of these reasons, people are killing many sharks. Some biologists are getting worried that the number of sharks is getting too small. That's why many biologists think we should stop killing so many sharks, and instead try to protect them - or else some day they may all be gone. Some countries have already passed some laws to help protect sharks. The United States, for example, has passed laws that limit the number of sharks that people can kill for food or for sport. So even though some people like to hunt sharks, we do need to protect them.
1. How many sharks are hunted and killed every year?
A. thousandsB. manyC. five to tenD. one hundred
2. People want to kill sharks because________
A. they are afraid of sharks.
B. shark meat is a popular food.
C. they get their enjoyment from killing sharks
D. B and C are correct.
3. The number of sharks in the world is ________
A. not getting worried by some biologists.
B. being killed.
C. getting bigger.
D getting smaller.
--(Nội dung đầy đủ, chi tiết vui lòng xem tại online hoặc đăng nhập để tải về máy)---
4. Đề số 4
I. LISTENING
Part 1: You will hear a tellephone message about a Business Studies course. For each question, fill in the missing information in the numbered space. (1mark)
BUSINESS STUDIES COURSE
Course start date: (1)______________________
Course begins with: (2)______________________ about business
What students mustn’t bring to class: (3)________________________
Visitors’ car park: next to the (4)________________________
Language classes available: Spanish and (5)________________________
Part 2: You will hear a man called Frank, talking on the radio about looking for ships that sank at sea long ago. Supply the blanks with missing details for questions 6-10. Write NO MORE THAN THREE words in each space provided. (1mark)
6) Frank is a teacher, not a full- time ___________________________
7) He is looking for ___________________________from an enormous ship called The Seabird.
8) He used gold which he found on an eighteenth- century sailing ship to make his ___________________________
9) He gave some things from his collection to ______________________
10) He ‘d advise people who enjoy diving to join some excellent diving___________________________
Part 3: You will hear a man telling a group of students about a trip to the theatre. Answer the questions, your answer should be short in the form of notes. (1mark)
11) What is the name of the play by Andrew Mc.Vitie?
_________________________________________
12) Where does he hand out the tickets?
_________________________________________
13) How much do the tickets cost?
_________________________________________
14) Where will they go for an ice cream and a coffee?
_________________________________________
15) Where can the students get off to take the bus home?
_________________________________________
Part 4: Listen to an interview with a woman called Rachel who is talking about the shows she puts on for children and choose the correct answer (A, B, C or D) to questions 16-20. (1 mark).
16. Before the children were born, Rachel worked as
A. an art teacher.
B. a painter.
C. an actor.
D. a doctor.
17. Who first thought of doing a show at a party?
A. Rachel’s husband
B. Rachel’s children
C. Rachel’s parents
D. Rachel’s students
18. Rachel’s neighbour, Lena, helps by
A. making some dolls for the show.
B. performing in the shows.
C. writing the music for the shows.
D. preparing cloths for the shows.
19. When Rachel did a play about a lion
A. the children laughed too much.
B. the children were frightened.
C. the children’s parents complained.
D. the children loved it too much.
20. How do Rachel’s daughters help her?
A. They show new dolls to their school friends.
B. They think of ideas for new stories.
C. They give their opinions on her new plays.
D. They make new dolls for her plays.
II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR
Part 1: Choose the correct answer (A, B, C, D) to each of the following questions and write their answers (A, B, C, D) in the corresponding numbered boxes. (1.2 point)
1. For a family with two children who need full-time childcare, so-called ______________ in which one parent is always at home while the other is at work – saves an average of £11,700 a year.
A. shared parenting B. shift parenting
C. attachment parenting D. filled parenting
2. If you don’t take exercise you__________________the risk of getting ill.
A. stand B. face C. suffer D. run
3.We are all______________ the opinion that hydrocarbons in the atmosphere contribute to global warming.
A. of B. with C. on D. in
4. Can you wait thirty seconds while I________________in to the post office for some stamps?
A. saunter B. brezee C. pop in D. go
5. He bought his car on the _______________ , hy hire-purchase.
A. never-never B. now and now C. up and up D. pay tomorrow
6. The police are_______________an accident which took place this afternoon.
A. inspecting B. searching C. looking out D. investigating
7. The chess players tried very hard to___________ each other with every move in the tournament.
A. outnumber B. outwit C. outcome D. outweigh
8. If you are_____________with this test, perhaps you should attempt an easier one.
A. stumbling B. stressed C. struggling D. straining
9. I am doing badly. I’ll have to pull my_______________up.
A. stockings B. shoes C. socks D. trousers
10. ______________ caculations have shown that the earth’s resources may run out of before the end of the next century.
A. Raw B. Rude C. Crude D. Blunt
11. I dread _________________ what would have happened if there’d been an accident.
A. think B. to think C. to thinking D. the thought
12. His new method of teaching is like _____________ of fresh air to his students.
A. a blow B. a waft C. a wind D. a breath
Part 2: Write the correct form of each bracketed word in the corresponding numbered boxes. (0.8 point)
THE DICTIONARY OF NATIONAL BIOGRAPHY
Just over one hundred years ago, the last volume of a tremendous work of reference entitled The Dictionary of National Biography rolled off the printing presses. (13)...................(ADMIT), this 21-volume shelf-filler may not immediately sound like the most thrilling read in the world. As entertainment, you might imagine it ranks some way below a (14)...................(POLITICS) autobiography. But you would be very, very wrong.
The DNB, like the Oxford English Dictionary, is one of the great monuments to British culture and also a hugely enjoyable work in its own right. It is, quite simply, an (15)...................(ALPHABET) dictionary of potted biographies of all the notable men and women who had lived in Britain since the year dot. It was produced between 1885 and 1900, and it remains (16)...................(EMPHASIS) an achievement of the Victorian period, richly redolent of 19th century confidence and (17)...................(CAPABLE), energy and optimism. It is also a monument to the enormous variety of the British national character, and the dictionary is immeasurably (18)...................(RICH) by this aspect. There are not only great statesmen, generals, writers, but also hundreds of wonderfully colourful characters, who you can discover only by leafing idly through a volume of the DNB on a wet afternoon down at your local library.
The way in which the DNB was produced was very British too: on a shoestring, out of sheer dedication, and with no state (19) ...................(INTERFERE) whatsoever. It was the private endeavour of a group of (20)...................(ENTHUSE), scholars and freelance journalists, as opposed to, for instance, the Austrian equivalent, produced under the oppressive auspices of the imperial Academy of Vienna.
Part 3: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. (0.5 point)
21. The clubs meet on the last Thursday of every month in a dilapidated palace.
A. neglected B. regenerated C. furnished D. renovated
22. Biologists long regarded it as an example of adaptation by natural selection, but for physicists it bordered on the miraculous.
A. adjustment B. agility C. flexibility D. inflexibility
23. The International Organizations are going to be in a temporary way in the country.
A. soak B. permanent C. complicated D. guess
24. The US troops are using much more sophisticated weapons in the Far East.
A. expensive B. complicated
C. simple and easy to use D. difficult to operate
25. There has been no discernible improvement in the noise levels since lorries were banned.
A. clear B. obvious C. thin D. insignificant
Part 4: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is the SAME meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. (0.5 point)
26. My brother is obsessed with online games.
A. consumed by B. disliked C. interested in D. liked
27. The new cow boy-film catches the fancy of the children.
A. attracts B. amuses C. surprises D. satisfies
28. Teenagers are often apathetic to politics.
A. different B. interested C. lackadaisical D. excited
29. His problems in study all stem from his laziness.
A. result B. caused C. effected D. leaded
30. If I were you, I would regard their offer with considerable reservation.
A. carelessness B. incautious C. imprudent D. carefulness
READING
Part 1: Read the following passage, and write the letter A, B, C, or D in your numbered boxes to indicate the correct word or phrase for each of the blanks from 51 to 60. There is an example at the beginning (0). (1 mark)
Once upon a time, people left school or university, joined a company and stayed with it until they retired. The concept of a job for life is now long ……… (0), and nowadays many employees find it hard to stay loyal to their companies for even a relatively short (51) …………of time. According to a recent survey, this is particularly (52) ……………in London, where more than half of those asked said that they constantly (53) ……………on eye on other job opportunities, (54) …………they are fairy happy in their existing jobs. A high number of London workers say that they are always on the (55) ……………, although they are content and motivated in their current position.
Job seekers find that the internet (56) …………them with a quick and easy way to find out what’s available, and 53 per cent said that they had applied for a job or (57) ……………with an employment agency in the past 12 months. This proactive (58) ……………means that people can look for a perfect job match with the (59) ……………of effort. But while this is good job for job hunters, the growing lack of company loyalty could end up being a big problem for employers. Perhaps surprisingly, the (60) ……………factor attracting job seekers was not more money, but challenging and interesting work.
0. A. done B. over C. gone D. finished
51. A. stage B. point C. section D. period
52. A. right B. true C. actual D. real
53. A. hold B. put C. keep D. place
54. A. just as B. as well C. so that D. even if
55. A. lookout B. search C. watch D. pursuit
56. A. serves B. delivers C. provides D. fulfills
57. A. engaged B. registered C. appointed D. recorded
58. A. manner B. approach C. style D. custom
59. A. least B. maximum C. lowest D. minimum
60. A. biggest B. widest C. largest D. highest
Part 2: For questions 61-70, fill each of the following numbered blanks with ONE suitable word and write your answers in the corresponding boxes provided below the passage. There is an example at the beginning (0). (1 mark)
They were all wipes out before science had a chance to discover (0) them , but only the dodo’s name has lived on. However, experts have now been (61) ………………to reconstruct the appearance of dozens of long-extinct birds and animals from the same remote tropical isles (62) ………………the dodo lived.
The islands of Mauritius, Reunion and Podrigues in the Indian Creatures Ocean were home to hundreds of unique and rare creatures before humans first set foot (63) ………………in 1958. In about 150 years, at (64) ………………45 species had been lost forever as a (65) ………………of hunting and the introduction of other species. “(66) ………………happened on these islands is a sad tale,” says Dr Julian Hume, a pale ethnologist who worked on the project.
Now researchers have recreated what the extinct animals and birds would looked (67)………………from fragments of bone, fossils and descriptions made (68) ………………travelers at the time. Following 30 years of research, they have managed to produce detailed pictures of (69) ………………the extinct creatures looked and behaved for a new book (70) ………………The Lost Land Of The Dodo.
Part 3: Read the following passage and answer the questions 71–80.
A. My mum is the team manager for the Olympic diving team and when I was a baby I used to go with her to the pool and jump in and out now I practice diving every day after school and on Saturdays. I’m really too tall to be a great diver and my long legs make it difficult to do somersaults, so I don’t think I’ll ever make it to the top. But nevertheless, I find it exhilarating when I’m diving well. If it’s a complicated dive, I have to concentrate very hard, which is difficult if I feel nervous. My dad’s support is very motivating for me. I take part in about 10 competitions a year, both national and international. The best thing about it is that you make new friends from different countries. I do trampolining for the regional team, which prepares me for diving – the moves are similar but you don’t land in water! The one thing I don’t like about it is that doing my homework takes up my spare time and I don’t have much time to go out with my friends from school.
B. Last year our netball team was promoted to the top league and so the coach became very strict. At that level, every move is scrutinized and discussed, which makes everyone feel very pressured. There’s a lot of competition to get chosen for the team and sometimes I got substituted. When I played last year, I would look at the subs sitting on the sidelines and not really care, but when I started to become one myself I had a whole new perspective on the game. Now I realize that when you’re not the best at a sport it doesn’t seem as much fun as when you’re a top player. I left the team earlier this year, as the pressure of playing in matches was too much; it was becoming a frustration instead of a recreation. I still enjoy playing netball with my friends in gym classes, when I can relax without worrying about impressing my coach all the time.
C. I was good at football and I really enjoyed playing left back in the school team. Then one Saturday when I was 14, I went to watch the local ice hockey team play. It was so exciting and became a real turning point in my life. School football seems so dull in comparison. I discovered that there was a local women’s ice hockey team just being set up. At first, the coach thought I was too young and too inexperienced as I’d only done occasional fun skating on Saturday afternoons. But she agreed to give me a trial and I have been playing for three years now. I’ll really find out what I can do in June when we go to take part in a women’s international ice hockey competition in Prague.
D. I knew I was serious about rugby when I scored a try in my first game. I was named ‘player of the year’ at my club last year and I’m also captain of my school team. My uncle often comes to watch me play. He’s very competitive so that is probably why I am too. Losing makes me feel that I’ve done something wrong. It doesn’t happen very often, though. I’m not normally an aggressive person but, on the rugby pitch, I am. I don’t think girls should play rugby as it’s so aggressive and they could easily get injured. Most of my schoolmates play rugby and all of them are sporty. I can’t really imagine my life without rugby! I’m going to agricultural college when I leave school and eventually will take over my uncle’s farm, but l hope there’ll still be time for lots of rugby. If I have a son, I’ll want to help coach his team and I’d be disappointed if he wasn’t interested in sports. I’ll definitely be a competitive dad!
For questions 71–80 locate the paragraph in which the following information is mentioned. Write the letter of each paragraph in the corresponding boxes.
71. He / She thinks winning is the most important thing
72. He / She feel their sport has both a positive and negative impact on their social life
73. He / She thinks that their sport may be inappropriate for a particular group of people
74. He / She has changed their mind about participating in competitive sport
75. He / She has long-term plans which include continued involvement in their sport
76. He / She is realistic about their chances of being very successful
77. He / She thinks playing their sport changes their character
78. He / She is looking forward to a new challenge
79. He / She has friends locally who share their passion for sport
80. He / She thinks it is easier to perform well in their sport when they are calm.
Part 4: For questions 81-85, choose the correct heading for paragraphs A-G from the list of headings below. Write the correct numbers (i- x) in the corresponding numbered boxes. There is an example at the beginning (0) ( 1 mark)
Tobacco Industry Fumes over Passive Smoking
A America’s tobacco industry has launched a fresh assault in its war against the anti-smoking movement. Six tobacco groups are suing the US Environmental Protection Agency, claiming that its recent report on the dangers of second- hand smoke is based on sloppy science and is unfairly damaging their trade. Anti- smoking groups say the lawsuit is a Canute- like attempt to stem a tide of anti- smoking legislation sweeping the US.
B In January, the EPA released a long- awaited report on passive smoking. It considered more than 30 studies around the world that compared the incidence of lung cancer in non- smoking woman whose husbands smoked with that in those whose husbands did not. The report included that wives of smokers had a higher risk of developing lung cancer, and that the risk increased with the amount of smoke inhaled. Passive smoking causes 3,000 deaths a year from lung cancer in the US alone, it said. On the basic of this and other evidence- for instance, that smoke is clearly carcinogenic when inhaled directly- the EPA added environmental tobacco smoke to its list of known human carcinogens. The report also concluded that second- hand smoke aggravates asthma and causes respiratory illness and ear infections in children.
C The tobacco industry countered that the study was shoddy and misleading, characterized by “ a preference for political correctness over sound science”. The tobacco groups pointed out that the increased incidence of lung cancer was seen only when the statistical test was relaxed from the usual 95 per cent confidence to a less rigorous 90 per cent. They also accused the EPA of ignoring several studies that the contradict the agency’s conclusion.
D On 22 June, the six groups- Philip Morris, R. J. Reynolds Tobacco and four groups representing growers and retailers- jointly sued the EPA to have the study declares null and avoid, and to throw out human carcinogen classification, which they claim goes beyond the EPA’s legal mandate. “ Unfortunately, it is the tobacco farmers, their families and the communities who- if the EPA is not stopped- will have to pay for this misguided actions”, says John Berry, a lawyer for the Council for Burley Tobacco of Lexington, Kentucky.
E The EPA stands by its report. “ We’ve been hearing them for years”, says spokesman Dave Ryan. “ We think the suit is frivolous”. Major medical groups also back the report. “ This lawsuit is just another example of tobacco conglomerates blowing smoke in the faces of American”, says Lonnie Bristow, chair of the American Medical Association’s Board of Trustees. “ An industry that kills 450,000 citizens every year cannot be trusted”.
F The charge of scientific manipulation is unfounded, says Morton Lippmann, a lung expert from New York University who chaired an external review of the EPA report. The 90 per cent confidence limit is reasonable given the difficulties of studying second- hand smoke, he says, as was the omission of some recent studies. “ You could wait forever for this study and the next study”, he says. In fact, the additional studies they’re so anxious to include couldn’t possibly change the conclusion. The omitted study most often cited by the tobacco industry found a 30 per cent increase in the risk of lung cancer in passive smokers exposed to the highest levels of smoke. Lippmann also notes that the EPA report, while the most complete, is not the first study to conclude that passive smoking increases the risk of cancer.
List of headings
i. Danger of passive smoking
ii. EPA’s opinion of the lawsuit
iii. Tobacco industry vs. the EPA
iv. Chances of developing lung cancer
v. Stop the EPA
vi. Importance of cigarette warnings
vii. A groundless report
viii. A report as good as any
0. Paragraph A
81. Paragraph B
82. Paragraph C
83. Paragraph D
84. Paragraph E
85. Paragraph F
Part 5. Read the following passage and answer questions (86- 95).
For questions 86- 95, choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) according to the text. Write your answers (A, B, C, or D) in the corresponding numbered boxes.(1,0 mark)
ARE YOU A MACHINE OF MANY PARTS?
What will future historians remember about the impact of science during the last decade of the 20th century? They will not be much more concerned with many of the marvels that currently preoccupy us, such as the miraculous increase in the power of home computer and the unexpected growth of the Internet. Nor will they dwell much on global warming, the loss of biodiversity and other examples of our penchant for destruction. Instead, the end of the 20th century will be recognized as the time when, for better or worse, science began to bring about the fundamental shift in our perception of ourselves.
It will be the third time that science has force us to re- evaluate who we are. The first time, of course, was the revolution that began with Copernicus in 1543 and continued with Kepler, Galileo and Newton. Despite the Church’s opposition, we came to realize that the Earth does not lie at the centre of the universe. Instead, we gradually found we live on a small planet on the edge of a minor galaxy, circling one star in a universe that contains billions of others. Our unique position in the universe was gone forever.
A few centuries later, we were moved even further from stage centre. The Darwinian revolution removed us from our position as a unique creation of God. Instead, we discovered we were just another part of the animal kingdom proud to have “ a miserable ape for a grandfather”, as Thomas Huxley put it in 1860. We know now just how close to the apes we are- over 90% of our genes are the same as those of the chimpanzee.
Increasing knowledge of our own genetics, is one of the driving force in the third great conceptual shift that will soon take place. Others are the growing knowledge of the way our minds work, our new ability to use knowledge of the nervous system to design drugs that affect specific states of mind and the creation of the sophisticated scanners which enable us to see what is happening inside our brains. In the third revolution, we are taking our own selves to pieces and finding the parts which make up the machine that is us.
Much of the new knowledge from genetics, molecular biology and the neuro- sciences is esoteric. But its cultural impact is already running ahead of science. People begin to see themselves not as wholes with a moral centre but the result of the combined action of parts for which they have little responsibility.
It’s Nobody’s Fault is the title of the popular American book on “ difficult” children. Many different children, the book explains, are not actually difficult but are suffering from Attention Deficit Disorder ( ADD). There is nothing wrong with them or the way they have been brought up. Rather the part of the brain which controls attention is short of a particular neurotransmitter.
ADD is currently the world’s fastest growing psychological problem. In the United States, a survey show that 1.5m children between the ages of five and eighteen were being treated with a drug, Ritalin, for the disorder. Since then the number taking the drug is believed to have doubled.
You might, as many people do, question the way in which the disorder has been diagnosed on such a staggering scale. But that is not the point. The cultural shift is that people are not responsible for the disorders, only for obtaining treatment for t parts of them that have gone wrong.
The more we know about the parts of ourselves, the more cures for our defects will appear. Prozac is one example. The best- selling Listen to Prozac claimed the drug “ can transform pessimists into optimists, turn loners into extroverts”. And Prozac, the book explained, “ was not so much discovered as planfully created, through the efforts of a large pharmaceutical firm… the likely result of this form of research is not medicines that correct particular illnesses but medicines that affect clusters of functions in the human brain.”
Even when a treatment is not to hand, the notion that we are made of “ clusters of functions” remains strong. Genetic analysis supports this view. A gene linked to alcoholism has been located and a Gallup poll has revealed that the great majority of Americans consider alcoholism to be a disease. There are claims of genes too for obesity, homosexuality and even for laziness.
Some claims about genes may be silly. Or you may think that the current conceptual shift is just a re- run of old arguments about the relative roles of nature and nurture. Instead, take one drug, Viagra, as an example of the new way of thinking about ourselves. If you suffer from impotence, it might have a variety of physiological causes. Or you might just be anxious about sexual performance. But Viagra does not make such fine distinctions: it acts at the level of the chemical reactions that control the blood flow needed to maintain an erection.
Once we can dissect ourselves into parts and know how the parts work, it really does not matter what was the initial cause of the problem. If you own a car and the brakes wear out quickly, it is not important whether you’ve been driving the car too hard or you bought cheap brake shoes to begin with. You just need to change the brakes.
The more direct means we have of changing who we are, through changing the parts that we are composed of, the harder becomes the question of who was the person who made the decision to change, before becoming someone else. This will be the real issue for the 21th century: who are we, if we are the sum of our parts and science has given us the power to change those parts?
86. What is the most important scientific progress in the 20th century?
A. The development of computer technology.
B. The birth and growth of the Internet.
C. Mankind’s ability to control global warning.
D. People’s new knowledge of themselves.
87. What did Copernicus discover?
A. The Earth does not lie at the centre of the universe.
B. The Church was wrong about the history of mankind.
C. Human beings live on a small planet.
D. Mankind have a unique position in the universe.
88. What did Darwin discover?
A. Human beings were a unique creation of God.
B. Human beings and apes shared a common ancestor.
C. Human beings were lucky while apes were miserable.
D. Human beings and chimpanzees were nearly identical.
89. Which of the following is NOT “ one of the driving forces in the third great conceptual shift” ? ( paragraph 4).
A. Knowledge of our own genetics.
B. Knowledge of the way our mind works.
C. Knowledge of how to use sophisticated scanners.
D. Knowledge of how to design drugs that effect specific states of mind.
90. Which of the following is likely to be the main idea of the book It’s nobody’s Fault?
A. Many children are suffering from ADD.
B. ADD is the problem for the problematic children.
C. Some people’s brains do not have neurotransmitters.
The way people are brought up determines their behavior.
91. How many people are taking Ritalin in the US?
A. Less than 1.5 million people.
B. 1.5 million of the people aged 5-18.
C. 3 million of the people aged 5- 18.
D. More than 3 million teenagers.
92. Which of the following reflects the cultural shift?
A. More people are diagnosed to be suffering from mental disorders.
B. People do not responsible for the problems they have.
C. More people are seeking mental treatment.
D. People begin t question the accuracy of doctors’ diagnoses.
93. What is Prozac?
A. A book
B. A medicine
C. A type of people
D. A mental disorder.
94. Genetic analysis seem to have confirmed that there is a gene in our body that is responsible for
A. alcoholism
B. obesity
C. homosexuality
D. laziness
95. Which of the following does the drug Viagra illustrate?
A. “Some claims about genes may be silly” (Paragraph 11)
B. We have a “ new way of thinking about ourselves” (Paragraph 11)
C. A physical disorder “ might have a variety of physiological causes”. (Paragraph 11)
D. “People …are….obtaining treatment for the parts of them that have gone wrong.” (Paragraph 8)
WRITING
Part 1: For questions 96- 100, finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it.( 1 point)
96. The bus driver cannot be blamed for the accident in any way.
=> In ...................................................................................................................
97. This button mustn’t be touched under any circumstances.
=> Under no.........................................................................................................
98. She doesn’t get on well with her neighbor any more.
=> She has...........................................................................................................
99. Tom does a very good immitation of the English teacher.
=> Tom takes.......................................................................................................
100. It was necesary for you to go so much trouble on my behalf.
=> You needn’t ...................................................................................................
Part 2: The bar chart below gives information about the percentage of the population living in urban areas in the world and in different continents. (1.5 point)
Write a report (of about 150 words) describing the information in the chart.
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5. Đề số 5
PART II. PHONETICS
Choose the word whose stress pattern is differently from those of the other words. (5 points)
11. A. address B. confusion C. device D. article
12. A. photogenic B. disabled C. exhibition D. volunteer
13. A. announce B. typical C. gradually D. attitude
14. A. understand B. concentrate C. chemical D. access
15. A. nation B. women C. allow D. college
PART III. LEXICO-GRAMMAR
I. Read the sentences carefully and choose the best answers to make complete ones. (10 points)
16. When I was a child, I used to___________ in that house.
A. live B. to live C. living D. to living
17. I am having some days___________ tomorrow. I will visit you.
A. off B. of C. out D. in
18. It___________ better if they would tell everybody in advance.
A. is B. will be C. would be D. were
19. Washing machines, dishwashers and vacuum cleaners are___________.
A. working machines B. useless machines C. sewing machines D. labour-saving machine
20. Do you know the man_________ next to our teacher?
A. standing B. stood C. stand D. to stand
21. Hoa and Quan quarreled_________ each other sometime.
A. in B. at C. with D. by
22. “Where do you live now?” – “I live in Hanoi; my__________.
A. parents too do B. parents do C. parents do, too D. parents also do.
23. A number of students___________ volunteered to the job.
A .having B. has C.to have D. have
24. My classmate told me to watch movies in English___________ learn spoken English better.
A. so as B. so that C. in order that D. in order to
25. Amy, ___________ car had broken down, was in a very bad mood.
A. who B. whom C. whose D. that
II. Fill in each blank with a suitable PREPOSITION or PARTICLE. (10 points)
26. I’m glad to know that you are going___________ a picnic.
27. At the moment, most of the town is being covered___________ snow.
28. In this company, everybody is responsible___________ turning off the lights before leaving.
29. The boy fell___________ the water and was drowned.
30. He suffered___________ constant sleepiness.
31. They have been absent___________ school very often lately.
32. Is she capable___________ using computers?
33. They have made use___________ the house after remodeling it.
34. They stayed___________ home because Andy wasn’t keen___________ going out in the rain.
35. I wrote the letter to complain___________ the good I bought in the shop.
III. Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word. (10 points)
36. He is engrossed in doing (SCIENCE)___________ research.
37. They entered the areas without (PERMIT)___________.
38. He wants (WIDTH)___________ his knowledge of the subject.
39. The giant panda is a(n) (DANGER)___________ species.
40. What makes the computer a (MIRACLE)___________ device?
41. You may be surprised at the large (VARIED)___________ of animals in national parks.
42. The architecture in the downtown area is a successful (COMBINE)___________ of old and new.
43. He came first in the poetry (COMPETED)___________.
44. Street noise is one of the (ADVANTAGE)___________ of living in a big city.
45. The Vietnamese government has done a lot to eliminate hunger and (POOR)___________.
PART IV. READING
I. Read the following text carefully and choose the answer which best fits each space. (10 points)
SPRING
When is the Spring season?
Spring is the season succeeding Winter and preceding Summer. Spring (46)________ to the season as well as to ideas of rebirth, rejuvenation, renewal, resurrection, and regrowth. During Spring an important celebration (47)________: Easter Day. It varies between March 22 and April 25 in Western (48)________, and between April 4 and May 8 in Eastern Christianity.
What happens in spring?
Spring is a time when flowers bloom and trees begin to grow and (49)________. The days grow longer and the temperature in most areas become more (50)________. You can also contemplate the melting of ice and thawing of the ground. The weather during this period becomes much sunnier while hibernating animals begin to (51)___________ of hibernation.
What to do during the Spring Season?
There are so many things to do to enjoy Spring:
Plan a holiday and (52)_________ a trip. Vacations aren't just for summer anymore!
Take a walk in a (53)_________ of flowers.
Meditate: Contemplate and (54)_________ on the beauty of nature. Forget the worries of everyday life and empty the mind. Concentrate on the sounds and the scent of nature.
Spot the things you want to change in your life. Spring is a time for (55)__________.
46. A. takes B. has C. means D. refers
47. A. takes part in B. takes note C. takes into D. takes place
48. A. hope B. interest C. tradition D. belief
49. A. recall B. reproduce C. repeat D. remove
50. A. hot B. scorching C. temperate D. cold
51. A. come into B. come after C. come before D. come out
52. A. make B. take C. have D. get
53. A. plot B. bunch C. field D. pack
54. A. reflect B. describe C. show D. draw
55. A. rebuilding B. rebirth C. reconstruction D. reminder
II. Read the following passage and choose the best answer. (10 points)
These stories of killer bees in the news in recent years have attracted a lot of attention as the bees have made their way from South America. Killer bees are reputed to be extremely aggressive in nature, although experts that their aggression may have been somewhat inflated.
The killer bee is a combination of the very mild European strain of honeybee and the considerably more aggressive African bee, which was created when the African strain was imported into Brazil in 1955. The African bees were brought into Brazil because their aggression was considered an advantage: they were far more productive than their European counterparts in that they spent a higher percentage of their time working and continued working longer in inclement weather than did the European bees.
These killer bees have been known to attack humans and animals, and some fatalities have occurred. Experts point out, however, that the mixed breed known as the killer bee is actually not at all as aggressive as the pure African bee. They also point out that the attacks have a chemical cause. A killer bee stings only when it has been disturbed; it is not aggressive by nature. However, after a disturbed bee stings and flies away; it leaves its stinger embedded in the victim. In the vicera attached to the embedded stinger is the chemical isoamyl acetate, which has an odor that attracts other bees. As other bees approach the victim of the original sting, the victim tends to panic, thus disturbing other bees and causing them to sting. The new stings create more of the chemical isoamyl acetate which attracts more bees and increases the panic level of the victim. Killer bees tend to travel in large clusters or swarms and thus respond in large numbers to the production of isoamyl acetate.
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ĐÁP ÁN
PART I: LISTENING
Section 1. (10pts) 01. A 02. B 03. A 04. B 05.C
Section 2. (10pts) 06. Business plan 07. 3 days 08. book keeping 09. 18th April 10. lila.park@rainbow.com
PART II. PHONETICS
Choose the word whose stress pattern is differently from those of the other words. (5pts)
11. D 12. B 13. A 14. A 15. C
PART III. LEXICO-GRAMMAR
I. Read the sentences carefully and choose the best answers to make complete ones. (10pts)
16. A 17. A 18. B 19. D 20. A 21. C 22. C 23. D 24. D 25. C
II. Fill in each blank with a suitable PREPOSITION. (10pts)
26. on 27. with 28. for 29. into 30. from
31. from 32. of 33. of 34. at – on 35. about
III. Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word. (10pts)
36. scientific 37. permission 38. widen 39. endangered
40. miraculous 41. variety 42. combination 43. competition
44. disadvantages 45. poverty
PART IV. READING
I. Read the following text carefully and choose the answer which best fits each space. (10pts)
46. D 47. D 48. C 49. B 50. C 51. D 52. B 53. C 54. A 55. D
II. Read the following passage and choose the best answer. (10pts)
56. C 57. B 58. B 59. B 60. A 61. C 62. D 63. A 64. B 65. D
PART V. WRITING
I. (10pts)
66. The last time Tom watched a football match was 2 months ago.
67. Kevin advised me to apply for that job.
68. If I had had time, I wouldn’t have been late.
69. It is necessary for the employee to be given a full bonus.
(It is necessary that the employee should be given a full bonus.)
70. I was surprised at what I saw in the football match.
71. He broke the world record in his second attempt.
72. Had it not been for his incompetence, they wouldn’t have been arrested.
73. I’d rather you didn’t smoke in the kitchen.
74. Jean’s mother complimented on her new dress.
75. Much as I don’t really like her, I admire her achievements.
II. (15 points)
Marking scheme: The impression mark given is based on the following scheme:
Content: 50% of total mark: a provision of all main ideas and details as appropriate.
Language: 30% of total mark: a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students.
Presentation: 20% of total mark: coherence, cohesion, and style appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students.
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