HOC247 xin giới thiệu đến quý thầy cô giáo và các em học sinh Bộ 5 đề thi chọn HSG môn Tiếng Anh 10 có đáp án năm 2021 được biên soạn và tổng hợp từ đề thi của Trường THPT Nguyễn Siêu, đề thi gồm có các câu trắc nghiệm với đáp án đi kèm sẽ giúp các em luyện tập, làm quen các dạng đề đồng thời đối chiếu kết quả, đánh giá năng lực bản thân từ đó có kế hoạch học tập phù hợp. Mời các em cùng tham khảo!
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TRƯỜNG THPT NGUYỄN SIÊU |
ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI NĂM HỌC 2020-2021 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 10 (Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề) |
1. Đề số 1
PART I. LISTENING
You are going to hear a talk about security in the UK. Listen to the talk and complete the statements below by writing no more than THREE words in the spaces provide.
You will hear the talk TWICE.
- Don’t carry more (1)________ than you need for daily expenses.
- When you stay at a hotel, ask the (2)_______ to keep your valuables in hotel (3)________.
- Don’t keep a note of the serial (4)________ together with your traveler’s cheques.
- You should carry wallets and purses in an (5)________ pocket or a handbag.
- Your passport, (6) ____________ and other important documents should be taken special care of.
- You can leave your (7) _________ luggage in a luggage office at most large stations and pick it up later.
- It’s necessary to keep the receipt and check the (8) _________ hours when you leave your luggage at the station.
- The (9) _________ Property Office can be found at both (10) __________ and the station.
PART II. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY
I. Complete the following sentences by choosing the correct answer among four options (A, B, C or D).
1. He's really shy _______ girl.
A. by B. at C. for D. with
2. The teacher _______ her to improve her drawing.
A. insisted B. encouraged C. made D. persisted
3. I couldn't quite ______ what they were doing because they were so far away.
A. bear out B. make out C. think out D. try out
4. The meal Mary cooked tastes_______.
A. well B. nice C. good D. worse
5. ______ at the party, we saw Ruth standing alone.
A. Arriving B. We arrived C. Arrived D. We were arriving
6. The people who______ the survey said that they had examined over 1,000 accidents.
A. gave B. proceed C. set D. conducted
7. The judge found him ______ of stealing and sent him to prison.
A. evil B. innocent C. guilty D. wicked
8. The house we have rented is______. So we will have to buy some beds, chairs, tables, etc.
A. unrestored B. unrepaired C. unfurnished D. undecorated
9. He was turned down for the job because he is ________.
A. qualified B. qualifying C. unqualified D. qualification
10. The trouble started only______ the other man came into the room.
A. when B. until C. and then D. too soon
11. _______, the disaster would not have happened.
A. Had you have obeyed the orders B. You had obeyed the orders
C. You obeyed the orders D. Had you obeyed the orders
12. _______ had booked in advance were allowed in.
A. Only who B. Only those who
C. Only who were those D. Only were those who
13. Traveling alone to a jungle is adventurous, ________.
A. if not impossible B. if it not impossible
C. when not impossible D. when it not impossible
14. I ______ the hot weather in the south.
A. use to B. used to C. am use to D. am used to
15. The meat looked very _______ to the dog.
A. invited B. invite C. inviting D. invitingly
II. Use the correct form of each word on the right to complete the numbered spaces provided in the passage. Write your answers on your answer sheet.
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The mysteries of the skies Three hundred and fifty years before the first men looked down on the amazingly beautiful surface of the moon from close quarters, Galileo’s newly built telescope (1) _____________ him to look at the edge of the hitherto mysterious sphere. He saw that the apparently (2) _____________ surface was not divinely smooth and round, but bumpy and imperfect. He realized that although the moon might appear (3) _____________, resembling a still life painted by the hand of a cosmic (4) ____________, it was a real world, perhaps not very different from our own. This amounted to a great (5) _____________ hardly to be expected in his day and age, although nowadays his (6) _____________ may appear to some to be trivial and (7) _____________. Not long after Galileo lunar’s observations, the skies which had previously been so (8) _____________ revealed more of their extraordinary mysteries. Casting around for further wonders, Galileo focused his lens on the (9) _____________ planet of Jupiter. Nestling next to it, he saw four little points of light circling the distant planet. Our moon it appeared, perhaps (10) ____________ in the eyes of those fearful of what the discovery might mean, was not alone! |
1. ABLE
2. LIVE
3. ACT 4. ART 5. ACHIEVE 6. CONCLUDE 7. SIGNIFY
8. ELUDE
9. STRIKE
10. FORTUNE |
III. In the following passage, some numbered lines contain a word that shouldn’t be there. Tick (√) the sentences that are correct and write the words that shouldn’t be there in the numbered space.
KEEPING YOUR DISTANCE
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Personal space is a term that refers to the distance we like to keep between ourselves and other people. When someone we do not know well gets too close that we usually begin to feel uncomfortable. If such a business colleague comes closer than 1.2 meters, the most common response is to move away. Some interesting studies have been done in libraries. If strangers will come too close, many people get up and leave the building, others use to different methods such as turning their back on the intruder. Living in cities has made people to develop new skills for dealing with situations where they are very close to strangers. Most people on so crowded trains try not to look at strangers; they avoid skin contract, and apologize if hands touch by a mistake. People use newspapers as a barrier between themselves and other people, and if they do not have one, they stare into the distance, making sure they are not looking into anyone’s eyes. |
0 ___√___ 00 someone 1________ 2 ________ 3 ________ 4 ________ 5 ________ 6 ________ 7 ________ 8 ________ 9 ________ 10 _______
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PART III. READING
I. Complete the following passage by choosing A, B, C or D to fill in each blank.
In recent years, there has been a remarkable increase into happiness. The researchers have come up a number of factors which contribute to a definition of happiness.
First of all, there is, in some people, a moderate genetic predisposition to be happy, in other words, happiness (1)_______ in families. And happiness seems to correlate quite strongly with the main dimensions of personalities: extroverts are generally happier, neurotics are less so.
Second, people often report good social relations as a reason for their happiness. In particular, friends are a great (2) ______ of joy, partly because of the agreeable things they do together, partly because of the way friends use positive non-verbal (3) ______ such as caressing and touching, to affirm their friendship. Marriage and similar (4) ______ relationships can also form the basis of lasting happiness.
Third, job satisfaction undoubtedly (5) ______ overall satisfaction, and vice versa - perhaps this is why some people are happy in boring jobs: it (6) ______ both ways. Job satisfaction is caused not only by the essential nature of the work, but (7)_____ by social interactions with co-workers. Unemployment, on the contrary, can be a serious cause of unhappiness.
Fourth, leisure is important because it is more under individual (8) ______ than most other causes of happiness. Activities (9) _____ sport and music, and participation in voluntary work and social clubs of various kinds, can give great joy. This is partly because of the (10) ______themselves, but also because of the social support of other group members – it is very strong in the case of religious groups.
1. A. runs B. arrives C. goes D. descends
2. A. source B. origin C. base D. meaning
3. A. movements B. signals C. slogans D. motions
4. A. near B. tight C. close D. heavy
5. A. consists of B. applies to C. counts on D. contributes to
6. A. works B. effects C. makes D. turns
7. A. too B. as well C. also D. plus
8. A. check B. power C. choice D. control
9. A. so B. such C. like D. thus
10. A. facilities B. activities C. exercises D. amenities
II. Read the passage carefully, then choose the correct option (marked A, B, C or D) to answer the questions.
Scientists have established that influenza viruses taken from man can cause disease in animals. In addition, man can catch the disease from animals. In fact, a greater numbers of wild birds seem to carry the virus without showing any evidences of illness. Some scientists conclude that a large family of influenza virus may have evolved in the bird kingdom, a group that has been on earth 100 million years and is able to carry the virus without contracting the disease. There is even convincing evidence to show that virus strain are transmitted from place to place and from continent to continent by migrating birds.
It is known that two influenza viruses can recombine when both are present in an animal at the same time. The result of such recombination is a great variety of strains containing different H and N spikes. This raises the possibility that a human influenza virus can recombine with an influenza virus from a lower animal to produce an entirely new spike. Research is underway to determine if that is the way major new strains come into being. Another possibility is that two animal influenza strains may recombine in a pig, for example, to produce a new strain which is transmitted to man.
1. According to the passage, scientists have discovered that influenza viruses ______.
A. cause ill health in wild animals B. do not always cause symptoms in birds
C. are rarely present in wild birds D. change when transmitted from animals to man
2. What is known about the influenza virus?
A. It was first found in a group of very old birds. B. All the different strains can be found in wild birds.
C. It existed over 100 million years ago. D. It can survive in many different places.
3. According to the passage, a great variety of influenza strains can appear when______.
A. H and N spikes are produced B. animal and bird viruses are combined
C. dissimilar types of viruses recombine D. two viruses of the same type are contracted
4. New strains of viruses are transmitted to man by_______.
A. a type of wild pig B. diseased lower animals
C. a group of migrating birds D. a variety of means
5. It can be inferred from the passage that all of the following are ways of producing new strains of influenza EXCEPT_______.
A. two influenza viruses in the same animal recombining
B. animal viruses recombining with human viruses
C. two animal viruses recombining
D. two animal viruses recombining in a human
III. Read the passage and choose the best answer from the four options marked A, B, C or D in the following questions. Identify your answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
Several hundred million years ago, plants similar to modern ferns covered vast stretches of the land. Some were as large as trees, with giant fronds bunched at the top of trunks as straight as pillars. Others were the size of bushes and formed thickets of undergrowth. Still others lived in the shade of giant club mosses and horsetails along the edges of swampy lagoons where giant amphibians swam.
A great number of these plants were true ferns, reproducing themselves without fruits or seeds. Others had only the appearance of ferns. Their leaves had organs of sexual reproduction and produced seeds. Although their “flowers” did not have corollas, these false ferns (today completely extinct) ushered in the era of flowering plants. Traces of these floras of the earliest times have been preserved in the form of fossils. Such traces are most commonly found in shale and sandstone rocks wedged between coal beds.
Today only tropical forests bear living proof of the ancient greatness of ferns. The species that grow there are no longer those of the Carboniferous period, but their variety and vast numbers, and the great size of some, remind us of the time when ferns ruled the plant kingdom.
1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Plant reproduction B. How to locate fossils
C. An ancient form of plant life D. Tropical plant life
2. The word “Others” refers to _________.
A. plants B. pillars C. trees D. fronds
3. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a characteristic of the plants described in the passage?
A. They once spread over large areas of land.
B. They varied greatly in size.
C. They coexisted with amphibians, mosses, and horsetails.
D. They clung to tree trunks and bushes for support.
4. The word “true” is closest in meaning to which of the following?
A. accurate B. genuine C. straight D. dependable
5. The author states that fossils of early plant life are usually found in rocks located between deposits of _______.
A. coal B. shale C. sandstone D. corollas
IV. Read the passage carefully then fill in the blank a suitable word.
As swimming became a popular recreation in England during the 1860s and 1870s, several (1) ______ sports developed, roughly patterned after land sports. (2) ______ them were water football (or soccer), water rugby, water handball, and water polo, in which players rode on floating barrels, painted to look (3) ______ horses, and struck the ball with a stick.
Water rugby became most popular of these sports, but somehow the water polo name became attached to it, and it's been attached (4) ______ since.
As played in England, the object of the sport was for a player to touch the ball, with both (5) ______, at the goal end of the pool. The goaltender stood on the pool deck, ready to dive on any opponent who was about to score.
Water polo quickly became a very rough sport, filled (6) ______ underwater fights away from the ball, and it wasn't unusual for players to pass out for lack of air.
In 1877, the sport was tamed in Scotland by the addiction of goalposts. The Scots also replaced (7) ______ original small, hard rubber ball with a soccer ball and adopted (8) ______ that prohibited taking the ball under the surface or, "tackling" a player unless he had the ball.
The Scottish game, which emphasized swimming speed, passing, and (9) ______ work, spread to England during the early 1880s, to Hungary in 1889, to Austria and Germany in 1894, to France in 1895, and (10) ______ Belgium in 1900.
Water polo was the first team sport added to the Olympic program, in 1900.
PART IV: WRITING
I. Write the new sentences using the given word. Do not change the word given in any way.
1. They have discovered some interesting new information. (LIGHT)
2. They suspended Jack for the next two matches. (BANNED)
3. I really want to see her again. (DYING)
4. She was so beautiful that I couldn't stop looking at her. (EYES)
5. We are looking forward to watching the program. (WAIT)
II. Rewrite each of the following sentences so that it has a similar meaning to the original one.
1. If you changed your mind, you would be welcomed to join our class.
→ Were you______________________________________________________
2. I'd rather not go out this afternoon.
→ I do not feel____________________________________________________
3. Adeles tries hard, but she doesn't get anywhere.
→ However______________________________________________________
4. It is thought that the boss is considering raising wages.
→ The boss______________________________________________________
5. His disabilities did not prevent him from sailing around the world.
→ Despite the fact_________________________________________________
6. I didn't arrive in time to see her.
→ I wasn't_______________________________________________________
7. I'd prefer you not to smoke.
→ I'd rather______________________________________________________
8. The mother smiled happily. She took the baby in her arms.
→ Smiling________________________________________________________
9. The noise next door did not stop until after midnight.
→ It was not ______________________________________________________
10. You can ring this number whenever there is any difficulty.
→ Should _________________________________________________________
-------------------------------The end---------------------------------
ĐÁP ÁN
PART I. LISTENING (15 pts: 1,5pts/item)
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1. cash |
4. numbers |
7. heavy |
10. the airport |
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2. manager |
5. inside |
8. opening |
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3. safe |
6. travel tickets |
9. Lost |
PART II. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (35pts)
I. (15pts: 1pt/item)
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1. D |
2. B |
3. B |
4. C |
5. A |
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6. D |
7. C |
8. C |
9. C |
10. A |
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11. D |
12. B |
13. A |
14. D |
15. C |
II. (10pts: 0.1pt/item)
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1. enabled |
4. artist |
7. insignificant |
10. unfortunately |
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2. lifeless |
5. achievement |
8. elusive |
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3. inactive |
6. conclusion |
9. striking |
III.(10pts: 1pt/item)
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1. that |
3. √ |
5. to |
7. √ |
9. a |
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2. such |
4. will |
6. to |
8. so |
10. √ |
PART III . READING (30pts)
I. (10pts: 1pt/item)
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1. A |
3. B |
5. D |
7. C |
9. C |
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2. A |
4. C |
6. A |
8. D |
10. B |
II. (5pts: 1pt/item)
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1. B |
2. D |
3. C |
4. D |
5. D |
III. (5pts: 1pt/item)
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1. C |
2. A |
3. D |
4. B |
5. A |
IV. (10pts: 1pt/item)
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1. water |
2. Among |
3. like |
4. ever |
5. hands |
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6. with |
7. the |
8. rules |
9. team |
10. to |
PART IV. WRITING (20pts)
I. (10pt: 2 pts/item)
1. Some interesting new information has come to light.
2. Jack was banned from playing in the next two matches.
3. I'm dying to see her again.
4. She was so beautiful that I couldn't take my eyes off her.
5. We can't wait to watch the program.
II. (10 pts: 1pt/item)
1. Were you to change your mind, you would be welcomed to join our class.
2. I do not feel like going out this afternoon.
3. However hard Adeles tries, she doesn't get anywhere/gets nowhere.
4. The boss is thought to be considering raising wages.
5. Despite the fact that he was disabled, he sailed/managed to sail around the world.
6. I wasn't early enough to see her.
7. I'd rather you didn't smoke.
8. Smiling happily, the mother took the baby in her arms.
9. It was not until after midnight that the noise next door stopped
10. Should there is any difficulty, you can ring this number.
2. Đề số 2
A. LISTENING (15 points)
Part 1. Listen to a conversation between an optometrist and a patient and fill in the form.
Write no more than 3 words or numbers for each blank
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Patient record |
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Time of appointment |
(1)………………………….. |
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Given name |
Simon Anthony |
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Family name |
(2)…………………………. |
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Date of birth |
(3)………………………….., 1989 |
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Address |
(4)………………………….., Adam Terrace, Wellington |
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Name of insurance |
(5)………………………….. company |
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Date of last eye test |
September 2006 |
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Patient’s observations Problems |
seeing the distance |
Part 2:
You are going to hear a travel agent discussing the holiday booking with 2 customers. Listen to their conversation and decide whether the statements are True (T), False (F) or Not given (NG)
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Statements |
T |
F |
NG |
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6. They want to book a holiday for July |
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7. They have decided where to go for the holiday. |
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8. Both customers are free to travel in the first week. |
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9. Last year, both of them visited France |
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10. They would like to go to the mountains for skiing this year |
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11. They don’t want to go to Italy because the dates don’t suit them. |
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12. They don’t like to go to Sweden because there are no beaches |
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13. It would be 385 pounds for them to visit Portugal. |
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14. The customers prefer to visit Portugal by flight from London. |
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15. The flight stops at Manchester on the way to Portugal. |
B. PHONETICS (5 points).
Choose the word that has a different stress pattern from the others.
16. A. community B. developing C. conditioner D. interested
17. A. continue B. importance C. different D. directed
18. A. medicines B. opposite C. pollution D. capable
19. A. preservation B. inspiration C. disposable D. popularity
20. A. exhausted B. atmosphere C. suspect D. computer
C. GRAMMAR- VOCABULARY-LANGUAGE FUNCTIONS
I. Choose the word, phrase or expression which best completes each sentence (15 points).
21. Hoa: “Are you going to buy a new computer or just continue using the old one?”
Mary: “_________”
A. Yes, I am. B. Yes, I’d like one. Thank you.
C. That’s impossible. I can’t afford a new one. D. Neither. I’m going to lease one.
22. Mr. Black: “What a lovely house you have!”
Mr John: “_________”
A. No problem B. Thank you. Hope you will drop in.
C. Of course not, it’s not costly D. I think so.
23. You have never been to Italy, ________?
A. have you B. haven’t you C. did you D. had you
24. You can’t tell what someone is like just from their ________.
A. character B. looking C. appearance D. personality
25. “How is it going?” - “________”
A. By bike B. Not much C. It sounds better D. Mustn’t grumble
26. ________ a dentist, Mike is very concerned about having healthy teeth.
A. Because B. He is C. As D. That he is
27. ________, you need to achieve a score of 60% or more.
A. To pass this test B. For being passed this test
C. In order pass this test D. So that to pass this test
28. As a famous person ________ many children admire, it is important for her to act
responsibly.
A. whose B. whom C. which D. when
29. The brochure says that the hotel has a great ________ of the sea.
A. appearance B. look C. sight D. view
30. Our new coach is popular ________ the whole team.
A. with B. to C. by D. for
31. As soon as you ________ that, I’d like you to go to bed.
A. have done B. did C. will do D. will have done
32. Margaret was slow at school, but she went on ________ Prime Minister.
A. being B. to be C. having been D. to have been
33. In 1870, ________, John D. Rockefeller and others created the Standard Oil Company.
A. in spite of oil prices fluctuated B. despite fluctuating oil prices
C. but the oil prices fluctuated D. oil prices were fluctuating
34. They’re staying in rented accommodation for the time ________.
A. going B. making C. doing D. being
35. “I have an idea. Let’s go for a swim on Sunday afternoon”. - “________”
A. OK, what time? B. You’re kidding C. I know D. I’m sure
II. Give the correct form of the words in brackets (10 points).
36. We found it ____________ (thrill) to your wonderful news.
37. He left the room without any ____________ (explain).
38. He didn’t feel happy because he worked ____________ (success).
39. Many people expressed ____________ (disagree) with the whole idea.
40. There was a ____________ (wide) dissatisfaction with the government’s policies.
41. Her health has ____________ (bad) considerably since we last saw her.
42. A lot of plants and animals could be used as medicines against cancer, AIDS, heart
diseases and other ____________ (sick).
43. He was ____________ (information) of the consequences in advance.
44. I was kept ____________ (wake) last night by the noise from a party in the flat above.
45. This road is so bad that it needs ____________ (surface).
III. Choose the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs correcting (5 points).
46. Last week unless (A) my mother had had (B) enough money (C), she would have bought (D) that toy for me.
47. It often takes (A) me about fifteen minutes (B) to go (C) to work from here by foot (D).
48. Those people say that (A) it is such polluted air (B) that they can’t breath (C), don’t they (D)?
49. It is noisy enough (A) in this room, so (B) I would (C) rather you stop (D) shouting like that.
50. Dr. Roberts, the first woman to be elected president (A) of the university, is (B) intelligent, capable and awareness (C) of the problem to be solved (D).
D. READING
I. There are 5 blanks in the passage below. From the words given in the box, choose the
most suitable for each blank. There are more words than blanks, so you don’t need all of
them. (5 points).
A. terrible B. size C. hope D. wrong E. loose F. problem G. want
Choosing clothes can be difficult. Some people (51)________ to be fashionable, but they don’t want to look exactly like everybody else. Not all clothes are suitable for work or school, perhaps because they are not formal enough, or simply not comfortable. It is easy to buy the (52)_________ size, and find that your trousers are too tight, especially if you are a little bit overweight. Very (53)________ clothes make you feel slim, but when they have shrunk in the washing machine, then you have the same (54)________! If you buy light cotton clothes, then they might not be warm enough for winter. If your shoes are not tight, and if you aren’t dressed for the cold, you might look good, but feel (55)________!
II. Read the following passage and decide which option A, B, C or D best fits each space.
(10 points)
Schools in the United States have not always had a large number of libraries. As (56)________as 1958 about half of the public schools in the United States had no libraries at all. The number of public school libraries increased dramatically (57)_______ the federal government passed the Elementary and Secondary Education Act of 1965, ( 58)_______ provided funds for school districts to improve their education programs and facilities, including their libraries. (59) ________, many educators claim that since the legislation was passed federal spending has not increased sufficiently to meet the rising (60)______ of new library technologies such as computer databases and Internet access.
Because the federal government provides only limited funds to schools, individual school districts (61) _______ on funds from local property taxes to meet the vast majority of public school expenses. Therefore, the libraries of the public schools tend to reflect the (62) ______ capabilities of the communities in which they are located. Districts in wealthy suburbs often have fully staffed libraries (63) _______ abundant resources, spacious facilities, and curricular and instructional support. In (64) ______, school districts in many poor areas house their libraries in ordinary classrooms or in small rooms. The libraries in such areas are generally staffed by volunteers, who organize and (65) ______ books that are often out-of-date, irrelevant, or damaged.
56. A. freshly B. recently C. frequently D. newly
57. A. though B. with C. during D. when
--(Nội dung đầy đủ, chi tiết vui lòng xem tại online hoặc đăng nhập để tải về máy)---
KEY
A. LISTENING: (15 points) (1 point for each correct answer)
Part 1.
1. 10 am 2. Lee
3. June 1 st 4. University Hall 5. Health for Life
Part 2:
6. T 7. F 8. F 9. T 10. NG 11. T 12. NG 13. T 14. F 15. NG
B. PHONETICS: (5 points) (1 point for each correct answer)
16. D 17. C 18. C 19. C 20. B
C. GRAMMAR – VOCABULARY – LANGUAGE FUNCTIONS.
I. Choose the word, phrases or expression which best completes each sentence. (15 points) (1 point for each correct answer)
21. D 22. B 23. A 24. C 25. D 26. A 27. A 28.B
29. D 30.A 31. A 32. B 33. B 34. D 35.A
II. Give the correct form of the words in brackets. (10 points) (1 point for each correct answer)
36. THRILLING
37. EXPLANATION
38. UNSUCCESSFULLY
39. DISAGREEMENTS
40. WIDESPREAD
41. WORSENED
42. SICKNESSES
43. INFORMED
44. AWAKE
45. RESURFACING
III. Choose the underlined word or phrases in each sentence that needs correcting. ( 5
points) (1 point for each correct answer)
46.A 47. D 48. C 49. D 50.C
D. READING:
I. There are 5 blanks in the passage below. From the words given in the box, choose the
most suitable for each blank. There are more words than blanks, so you don’t need all of
them. (5 points) (1 point for each correct answer)
51. G 52.D 53.E 54.F 55.A
II. Read the following passage and decide which option A, B, C or D best fits each space.
(10 points) (1 point for each correct answer)
56. B 57. D 58. C 59. A 60. C
61. C 62. D 63. B 64. C 65. D
III. Read the passage and choose the correct answer. (10 points) (1 point for each correct answer)
66.D 67. A 68. B 69.B 70.C 71.A 72.C 73.B 74.B 75.C
E. WRITING.
I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as
the sentence printed before it. (5 points). (1 point for each correct answer)
76. Since we had nothing else to do, we decided to go for a walk.
Or (Since we didn’t have anything else to do, we decided to go for a walk.)
77. As well as being bad-tempered, she’s very lazy.
78. She flatly refused to apply for that kind of job.
79. This school isn’t as/so good as the one ( that/which) I studied at last year.
Or (This school isn’t as/so good as the one at which/ where I studied last year.)
80. You’ll miss the bus if you don’t leave now.
Or (You’ll miss the bus unless you leave now.)
II. Use the words or phrases suggested to write full sentences to make a letter. (10 points)
Dear Sir or Madam.
81. I am writing to complain about the/a hair drier (0.5)( which/that I) bought in your shop last Saturday(0.5) and the treatment (which/that) I received (0.5)when trying/I tried to return it
a few days later.(0.5)
82. I bought the hair drier(0.5) on Wednesday, November 22 nd .(0.5)
83. The first time I tried to use it,(0.5) the handle became extremely hot (0.5)and within a few
minutes part of the plastic casing began to melt.(0.5)
84. I turned it off immediately (0.5)and returned it with the receipt to your shop on Saturday.(0.5)
85. I explained the situation to one of the/ your assistants (0.5)and asked for my/the money back(0.5) but I was told (that I had) to speak to you.(0.5)
86. Unfortunately, you were not available that day,(0.5) so I am writing instead.(0.5)
87. I enclose the hair drier(0.5) and a/the copy of the original receipt.(0.5)
88. Please send me a full refund (0.5) as soon as possible (0.5)
Yours faithfully.
III. Write a paragraph of about 120 words on the following topic. ( 10p)
1. Form: (paragraph) (1 point)
2. Content: (4 points )
Good topic sentence (0.5 p) and appropriate supporting ideas (3.5 points)
3. Language: (5 pts)
+ Appropriate vocabulary (1.5p)
+ Suitable connectors (0.5)
+ Correct grammar (2.5 p)
+ Punctuating/ Spelling (0.5p)
3. Đề số 3
B. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR: (6 ms)
I. Choose the best option:(2ms)
1. He was offered the job ………….his qualifications were poor
a. although b. in spite of c. because of d. because
2. It’s no use …………. a language if you don’t try to speak it
a. learned b. to learn c. learn d. learning
3. He …………. me to take a lawyer to the court with me
a. advised c. suggested b. threatened d. insisted
4. She came in quietly ……………the baby
a. in order to not wake b. so as not to wake
c. to not wake d. to wake
5. ……………you have no keys, you ‘ll have to get back before I go out
a. If b. Although c. Unless d. As
6. I really prefer just about anything …………..watching TV
a. from b. or c. than d. to
7. Gold ……………..near San Francisco in 1848 and the gold rush started the following year
a. has been discovered b. discovered c. was discovered d. is discovered
8. I regret ……………. you that we can’t approve your application
a. inform b. to inform c. informing d. informed
9. If I had gone to the bank this morning, I …………money from you now
a. would not borrow b. would not have borrowed
c. will not borrow d. will no have borrowed
II. Give the correct from of the words in brackets: (2ms)
1. He is engrossed in doing ( SCIENCE) …………….. research
2. They entered the areas without ( PERMIT) ……………..
3. He wants (WIDTH) ……………… his knowledge of the subject
4. The giant panda is a(n) (DANGER) ……………..species
5. What makes the computer a (MIRACLE). …………device ?
6. You may be surprised at the large (VARIED) ……………..of animals in national parks
7. The architecture in the downtown area is a successful (COMBINE) ………….of old and new
8. He came first in the poetry (COMPETED) ……………..
III. Give the correct tenses of the verbs in brackets (2ms)
Mary (1. have) ……………….to go to New York last week, but she almost (2.miss) ……………the plane. She (3. stand) ………………in the queue at the check-in desk when she suddenly (4. realize) ………….. that she (5. leave) …………….her passport at home. Fortunately, she ( 6.not/ live)………….. very far from the airport so she (7. have)…………..time to go home to get the passport. She (8. get) ……………. back to the airport just in time for her flight
C. READING COMPREHENSION: (6ms)
I. Read the following passage and choose the best answer (1.5ms):
For the last few years, my children have been going to a summer camp in northern Greece called Skouras Camp. They always seem to have a good time. , so if you’ re wondering what to do with the kids for three weeks this summer, you could do worse than send them to this beautiful camp on the shores of the Aegean Sea. If your children, like mine, are keen on adventure, sports and good company, the Skouras Camp will keep them busy all day doing the things they most enjoy. Skouras is an international camp with children from all over the world. My children have made friends with children with of their own age from Poland , China, Denmark and the United States. Naturally they get lots of opportunities to practice their English as this is the only language spoken. The camp is located in one of the most beautiful parts of Chalkidiki. It is huge (120,000 square meters) and is just a stone’s throw away from the clear, blue Aegean Sea. It takes the children just five minutes to walk to the golden sandy beach on foot. The programme is packed with exciting activities such as horse riding and table tennis. Other sports include basketball, volleyball and athletics. The Camps end with a sports contest in the last week which all parents are invited to attend.
1. All the children come to the camp have to ………..
a. be at the same age b. be only keen on adventure
c. speak English d. practice basketball
2. How many kinds of sports can be played in the Camp?
a. 5 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
3. All the statements are true EXCEPT ………………
a. The children will be busy taking part in the Camp’s programmed activities
b. The Camp is quite far from the Aegean Sea
c. The parents can attend their children’s sports contest
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ĐÁP ÁN
B. VOCABUALRY & GRAMMAR: (6 điểm)
I. 2 điểm ( mỗi lựa chọn đúng 0.25 đ)
1. a 5.a
2.d 6.d
3.a 7.c
4.b 8.b
II. 2 điểm (mỗi từ đúng 0.25 đ)
1. scientific 5. miraculous
2. permission 6. variety
3. widen 7. combination
4. endangered 8. competition
III. 2 điểm (mỗi thì chia đúng được 0.25 đ)
1. had 5. had left
2. missed 6. doesn’t live
3. was standing 7. had
4. realized 8. got
C. READING (6 điểm)
I. 1.5 điểm (mỗi lựa chọn đúng o.25 đ)
1. c
2. a
3. b
4. c
5. a
6. c
II. 2.5 điểm (mỗi lựa chọn đúng 0.25đ)
1. d 6. a
2. a 7.b
3. b 8. c
4. a 9. d
5. c 10. a
III. 2 điểm (mỗi từ đúng 0.25đ)
1. where
2. between
3. per
4. least
5. since
6. prevent
7. and
8. protects
D. WRITING: ( 6 điểm)
I. 2 điểm ( mỗi câu đúng 0.25 đ)
1. The art gallery has a large restaurant
2. It’s the first time ( that) I have seen this man here
3. In spite of not speaking Dutch, Bob decided to settle in Amsterdam
4. If the patient hadn’t been given this treatment, he would have died
5. The lions are fed by the keepers at p.m everyday
6. John is interested in astronomy
7. It was not until 1915 that the cinema became an industry
8. She told me that she liked my coat and (she) was looking fro one like it/that herself
II. 2 điểm ( mỗi câu đúng 0.25 đ)
1. √
2. with
3. who
4. √
5. too
6.√
7. a
8. it
4. Đề số 4
A. LISTENING (1 pt)
Part 1. You will hear a tour guide talking to a group of tourists about a coach trip. For each question put a tick in the correct box.
1. What is the change of plan?
A. They will visit two towns.
B. They will look round a university.
C. They will visit a wild life park.
2. Where will they stop for coffee?
A. near a waterfall B. by a lake C. on a mountain
3. The town of Brampton became well known because of its ___________.
A. shops B. university C. museum
4. What animals will they see in the wildlife park?
A. lions B. monkeys C. tigers
5. What time will they arrive back at the hotel?
A. 5.30 B. 6.45 C. 7.15
Part 2. You will hear a woman talking on the radio about a competition. For each question, fill in the missing information in the numbered space.
This month's competition
Prize: a computer and a (6) ………………………….. printer
Write a story
• Length: fewer than (7) ………………………….. words
• Subject: a short (8) ………………………….. story which takes place in the future
Write your name, address, telephone number and (9) ………………………….. at the end.
Story must arrive on or before (10) …………………………..
I. TRẮC NGHIỆM NGÔN NGỮ (3,5 điểm)
PART 1: PHONETICS (0.5 pts - 0.1/ each)
Task 1: Choose the word (A, B, c or D) whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each o f the following questions.
11. A. embarrassed B. blessed C. naked D. adopted
12. A. instead B. breakfast C. already D. breathe
Task 2: Choose the word (A, B, c or D) whose main stress pattern is different from that o f the rest in each of the following questions.
13. A. photographer B. destination C. participant D. professional
14. A. geographical B. biological C. agricutural D. environmental
15. A. campfire B. provide C. destroy D. conserve
PART 2: LANGUAGE FUNCTION (0.5 pts - 0.1/ each)
Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best completes each of the following exchanges.
16. Two friends Diana and Anne are talking about their upcoming exams.
- Diana: “Our midterm exams will start next Tuesday, are you ready?”
- Anne: “___________”
A. I’m half ready. B. God save you.
C. Thank you so much D. Don’t mention it!
17. Lucy is asking for permission to play the guitar at Pete’s home.
- Lucy: “Is it all right if I play the guitar in here while you’re studying?”.
Pete: “______”.
A. Oh, I wish you wouldn’t. B. Well, I’d rather not.
C. Well, actually, I’d prefer it if you didn’t. D. Well, if only you didn’t.
18. Mr Smith is having lunch in a restaurant.
- Mr. Smith: "Could you bring me some water?" - Waiter: "_________."
A. No, thanks. B. Of course you can.
C. I'm afraid not. D. Certainly, sir.
19. Mary and John are talking about John's new house.
- Mary: "What a lovely house you have" - John: "_________."
A. Thanks. Hope you will drop in. B. I think so.
C. No problem. D. Of course, thanks.
20. Lucy is asking for permission to play the guitar at Pete’s home.
- Lucy: “Is it all right if I play the guitar in here while you’re studying?”. - Pete: “______”.
A. Oh, I wish you wouldn’t. B. Well, I’d rather not.
C. Well, actually, I’d prefer it if you didn’t. D. Well, if only you didn’t.
PART 3: SYNONYM AND ANTONYM (0.5 pts - 0.1/ each)
Task 1. Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following sentences.
21. Thanks to the invention of microscope, biologists can now gain insights into the nature of the human cell.
A. deep undersyanding
B. far-sighted views
C. spectacular sightings
D. in-depth studies
22. Laws on military service since 1960 still hold good.
A. remains for good B. is still in good condition
C. stands in life D. remains in effect
23. In rural Midwestern towns of the USA, the decisions that affect most residents are made at general assemblies in schools and churches.
A. concerts B. public libraries C. gatherings D. prayer services
Task 2. Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following sentences.
24. Nutritionists believe that vitamins circumvent diseases.
A. defeat B. nourish C. help D. treat
25. The young are now far more materialistic than their precedents years ago.
A. monetary B. greedy C. spiritual D. object - oriented
PART 4: LEXICO - GRAMMAR (2.0 pts - 0.1/ each)
Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best completes each of the following sentences.
26. The doctor _______ the cut on my knee and said it had completely healed up.
A. examined B. investigated C. researched D. looked into
27. The school was closed for a month because of serious _______ of fever.
A. outcome B. outburst C. outset D. outbreak
28. I agree with most of what you said, but I can't _______ your idea of letting children leave school at the age of 14.
A. go along with B. put up with C. keep up with D. come up with
29. The climate of China is similar in many ways to _______.
A. which of the United States B. that of the United states
C. the United States D. this of the United States
30. He soon received promotion, for his superior realized that he was a man of considerable _______.
A. opportunity B. ability C. possibility D. future
31. These old houses are going to be _______ soon.
A. run down B. knocked out C. pulled down D. laid out
32. The stolen jewels were _______ a lot of money.
A. worth B. priced C. valued D. cost
33. Whether you stay or leave is a matter of total _______to me.
A. disinterest B. importance C. indifference D. interest
34. I’m terribly sorry! I didn’t break that vase on ...............
A. my mind B. time C. purpose D. intention
35. Bill Gates is probably the best known and most successful _______in computer software.
A. pioneer B. navigator C. generator D. volunteer
36. We don’t sell foreign newspapers because there is no _______for them.
A. request B. claim C. requirement D. demand
37. One wonders whether the current political _______ is right for such a move.
A. environment B. climate C. state D. standpoint
38. She _______ modern art. She visits all the local exhibitions.
A. looks down on B. goes in for C. fixes up with D. comes up against
39. The judge _______ the murderer to a lifetime imprisonment.
A. accused B. convicted C. sentenced D. prosecuted
40. She got up early; otherwise she ________ her bus.
A. would have missed B. would miss C. missed D. had missed
41. She believes that all countries should _______ the death penalty as it is inhumane.
A. put down to B. catch up on C. get down to D. do away with
42. What an excellent student she is! She almost has no _________ the exercise.
A. difficult to finish B. difficulty to finish C. difficulty in finishing D. difficult finishing
43. Henry was overweight, so he went on s strict diet and _________ twenty kilos.
A. missed B. lost C. failed D. fell
44. Staying in a hotel costs ______ renting a room in a dormitory for a week.
A. twice as much as B. as much as twice C. twice more than D. twice as
45. In spite of his abilities, Peter has been ______ overlooked for promotion.
A. repeat B. repeatedly C. repetitiveness D. repetitive
II. TỰ LUẬN KIẾN THỨC NGÔN NGỮ (1,5 điểm)
PART 1: WORD FORM (0.5 pts – 0.05/ each)
Give the correct form of the words in brackets to complete the following sentences.
|
46. I hadn't been to the city for 20 years and it was almost …………………………..………... |
recognize |
|
47. His boss told him off because he had behaved ……………………….……………... |
responsible |
|
48. They all cheered ……………………….……………..as their team came out. |
enthusiasm |
|
49. Jim is one of the most ……………………….……………..members of the committee. |
speak |
|
50. The damage caused by the terrible storm two days ago was ………………………….…. by the government. The real figures go up every minute. |
estimate |
|
51. We always have a bed ready in the spare room in case visitors arrive ……………………….……………... |
expect |
|
52. ……………….……..energy sources such as wind and wave power are pollution-free. |
new |
|
53. Barbara is very ……………………….………..about birds. She knows a lot about them. |
know |
|
54. She is one of the greatest ……………………….……………..to appear in this theatre. |
perform |
|
55. I’m sorry for my ……………………….……………..but I hate being kept waiting. |
patient |
PART 2: ERROR CORRECTION (0.5 pts – 0.1/ each)
There are 05 errors in the following passage. Identify the errors, write the line number and correct them. Write your answers in the numbered spaces below. Number (00.) is done as an example.
|
Line |
Passage |
|
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 |
The other day, when I was in London, I ran out an old friend of mine who had been at university with me. Although we hadn’t seen each other since ages and had lost touch, it was just like old times, and he told me all his news. He moved to London after leaving university, and started to train as a accountant. He left after a few months because he didn’t find it very interesting, and he didn’t feel like spending the rest of his life in an office. His parents were very helpful – they didn’t try to make him carrying on training as a chartered accountant, and said they would continue to support him though the fact that he didn’t have a job to go to. He soon found work doing what he really wanted – writing for a TV show. After the first series, the producer let him have his own TV show even though he was relative young, and it turned out to be a great success. |
|
Line |
Error |
Correction |
|
00. out |
à into |
|
|
56. |
à |
|
|
57. |
à |
|
|
58. |
à |
|
|
59. |
à |
|
|
60. |
à |
PART 3: PREPOSITIONS AND PHRASAL VERBS (0.5 pts – 0.05/ each)
Supply each space with a suitable preposition or adverbial particle to complete each of the following sentences.
61. Tom was absent four days at school last month because his grandmother passed.
62. I’ll see you ………………… tomorrow, so I can drive you to the airport.
63. I am too young to settle …………………. I want to travel around the world before I get married.
64. I bought this skirt without trying it …………………. I hope it's OK.
65. Fortunately, Marie getting ………………… with her new co-workers.
66. I really need to go on a diet. I put ………………… weight over the holidays.
67. I just needed a bit of time to think it ………………… before I told him what I had decided.
68. I need to get a new passport. It runs ………………… next month.
69. When I went to the bank to ask for a loan, I had to fill ………………… hundreds of forms.
70. You have to face ………………… your problems rather than avoid them.
KỸ NĂNG NGÔN NGỮ
PART 1: READING (2 pts - 0.1/ each)
Task 1: GUIDED CLOZE TEST
Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best fits each blank in the following passage.
Men are lazy in the home, according to an official survey (71) _______ today. They have about six hours' a week more free time than wives, but play a very little (72) _______ in cooking, cleaning, washing, and ironing, according to the Social Trends Survey by the Central (73) _______ Office.
Nearly three quarters of married women (74) _______ to do all or most of the housework, and among married men the proportion who admitted that their wives did all or most of the housework was only slightly lower. The survey (75) _______ that washing and ironing was the least popular task among men, with only one per cent (76) _______ this duty, compared with 89 per cent of women, and 10 per cent sharing equally.Only 5 per cent of men (77) _______ the evening meal, 3 percent carry out household cleaning duties, 5 per cent do household shopping, and 17 per cent wash the evening dishes.
But when household gadgets break down, (78) _______ are carried out by 82 per cent of husbands. The survey says that, despite our economic problems, the majority of Britons are substantially better (79) _______ than a decade ago. We're healthier, too - eating healthier foods and smoking less.The (80) _______ Briton, not surprisingly, is more widely-traveled than a decade ago. More people are going abroad for holidays, with Spain the favorite destination.
71. A. furnished B. emerged C. published D. edited
72. A. work B. role C. section D. part
73. A. Statistical B. Cardinal C. Ordinal D. Numerical
74. A. emitted B. pronounced C. claimed D. uttered
75. A. pointed B. evolved C. planned D. showed
76. A. burdening B. forming C. performing D. formulating
77. A. prepare B. undertake C. process D. fit
78. A. fittings B. fixings C. amendments D. repairs
79. A. on B. through C. over D. off
80. A. medium B. average C. popular D. normal
Task 2: READING COMPREHENSION
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5. Đề số 5
SECTION A: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (16 POINTS)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. adventure B. future C. mature D. figure
Question 2: A. coughed B. weighed C. laughed D. photographed
Question 3: A. musket B. business C. muscle D. muscular
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 4: A. lyrical B. emotion C. favorite D. classical
Question 5: A. entertain B. atmosphere C. serious D. joyfulness
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions
Question 6:. It was ………….we could not go out .
A. so cold that B. such cold that C. very so cold D. too cold that
Question 7 : I really prefer just about anything …………..watching TV.
A. from B. or C. than D. to
Question 8: We have a party tonight and Daisy is worried about ………..
A. what to wear B. which wearing C.that she wears D. these wearing
Question 9: As a rule, new comers ______ a party at the end of the first month of their stay.
A. was held B. hold C. have held D. will hold
Question 10: The most interesting films _____ for the festival will be shown next week.
A. are chosen B. having chosen C. chosen D. being chosen
Question 11: However _____ about the results, the children still talk merrily.
A. disappointed are they B. disappointing they are
C. disappointment D. disappointed they are
Question 12: A child _____ to talk does not learn by being corrected all the time.
A. learned B. learns C. learning D. to learn
Question13: In most ………. developed countries, up to 50% of ……..population enters higher education at some time in their lives.
A. Ø / Ø B. the / Ø C. Ø / the D. the /
Question 14 : Some businesses use famous cartoon _____ to advertise their products.
A. person B. people C. characters D. samples
Question 15: The first thing you should do when you lose your bank card is to call your bank and ask them to close your ____.
A. account B. house C. loan D. debt
Question 16: “Oh no! I can’t find my credit card!” “ _________.”
A. Thank you for letting me know
B. Don’t worry. They will be back very soon
C. It is a nice surprise. You should be glad about it
D. Chill out. Try to remember when you last used it
Question 17:.I haven’t …………………………..decided where to go on holiday this year.
A. still B. yet C. already D. then
Question 18: How do you speak this fraction: 3/5?
A. Three over fifth B. Three-fifth C. Three-fifths D. Three-fives
Question19 The number of cars on the roads ______ increasing, so we need to build more roads.
A. is B. was C. were D. are
Question 20 : There is no __________ explanation for what happened.
A. scientifically B. scientist C. science D. scientific
Question 21: I can___ what he’s doing; it’s so dark down there.
A. see through B. make out C. look into D. show up
Question 22: Could you be more specific about what is___ in this particular job?
A. enclosed B. concentrated C. presented D. involved
Question 23 : He retired early……..ill – health.
A. on behalf of B. on account of C. believe D. imagine
Question 24 :The person who writes symphonies or concertos is a ……………..
A. composer B. conductor C. pianist D. playwright
IV. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
As the twentieth century began, the importance of formal education in the United States increased. The frontier had mostly disappeared and by 1910 most Americans lived in towns and cities. Industrialization and the bureaucratization of economic life combined with a new emphasis upon credentials and expertise to make schooling increasingly important for economic and social mobility. Increasingly, too, schools were viewed as the most important means of integrating immigrants into American society.
The arrival of a great wave of southern and eastern European immigrants at the turn of the century coincided with and contributed to an enormous expansion of formal schooling. By 1920 schooling to age fourteen or beyond was compulsory in most states, and the school year was greatly lengthened. Kindergartens, vacation schools, extracurricular activities, and vocational education and counseling extended the influence of public schools over the lives of students, many of whom in the larger industrial cities were the children of immigrants. Classes for adult immigrants were sponsored by public schools, corporations, unions, churches, settlement houses, and other agencies.
Reformers early in the twentieth century suggested that education programs should suit the needs of specific populations. Immigrant women were once such population. Schools tried to educate young women so they could occupy productive places in the urban industrial economy, and one place many educators considered appropriate for women was the home.
Although looking after the house and family was familiar to immigrant women, American education gave homemaking a new definition. In pre-industrial economies, homemaking had meant the production as well as the consumption of goods, and it commonly included income-producing activities both inside and outside the home, in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century United States, however, overproduction rather than scarcity was becoming a problem. Thus, the ideal American homemaker was viewed as a consumer rather than a producer. Schools trained women to be consumer homemakers cooking, shopping, decorating, and caring for children "efficiently" in their own homes, or if economic necessity demanded, as employees in the homes of others. Subsequent reforms have made these notions seem quite out-of-date.
Question 25: The paragraph preceding the passage probably discusses _____.
A. the most important means of integrating immigrants into American society in the nineteen century.
B. the urbanization in the United States in the nineteen century.
C. the industrialization and the bureaucratization of economic life the United States in the 19th century
D. the formal schooling in the United States in the nineteen century.
Question 26 : It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that one important factor in the increasing importance of education in the United States was _____.
A. the increased urbanization of the entire country
B. the expanding economic problems of schools
C. the growing number of schools in frontier communities
D. an increase in the number of trained teachers
Question 27 : The word "means" in line 5 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. probability B. qualifications C. advantages D. method
Question 28 : The phrase "coincided with" in line 7 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. ensured the success of B. began to grow rapidly
C. happened at the same time as D. was influenced by
Question 29: According to the passage, one important change in United States education by the 1920's was that _____.
A. most places required children to attend school
B. adults and children studied in the same classes
C. new regulations were imposed on nontraditional education
D. the amount of time spent on formal education was limited
Question 30: “Vacation schools and extracurricular activities” are mentioned in line 9 to illustrate _____.
A. the importance of educational changes
B. alternatives to formal education provided by public schools
C. the increased impact of public schools on students
D. activities that competed to attract new immigrants to their programs.
Question 31: According to the passage, early-twentieth century education reformers believed that _____.
A. different groups needed different kinds of education
B. corporations and other organizations damaged educational progress
C. more women should be involved in education and industry
D. special programs should be set up in frontier communities to modernize them
Question 32: The word "it" in paragraph 4 refers to _____.
A. homemaking B. consumption C. education D. production
Question 33: Women were trained to be consumer homemakers as a result of _____.
A. overproduction in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century United States
B. economic necessity in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century United States
C. scarcity in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century United States
D. income-producing activities in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century United States
Question 34: The word “others” in paragraph 4 means_______.
A. other women B. other homes C. other children D. other employees
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks from 35 to 44
SENSES
All five senses are important to us, but the two most important senses are (35) ________ the sense of sight and the sense of hearing. Blind and deaf people must (36) ________ life difficult because they are unable to do (37) ________ that the rest of us can do naturally. People who (38) ________their sense of taste can not enjoy food as (39) ________as they used to, whilst (40) ________ who have no sense of smell can not realize, for example , when gas is (41) _______ or food has gone (42) _______ . In addition to our physical senses, (43) ________ is a great help in life to have sense of humour, especially when things go wrong, and to have (44) ________ sense, something which can not be learned from books.
Question 35: A. probably B. likely C. certainly D. possibly
Question 36: A. think B. consider C. find D. regard
Question 37:A. things B. everything C. nothing D. what
Question 38 :A. miss B. haven’t C. lack D. lose
Question 39: A. well B. happily C. much D. fully
Question 40: A. persons B. men C. those D.these
Question 41: A. losing B. leaking C. breaking D. flowing
Question 42: A. on B. away C. off D. out
Question 43: A. which B. here C. there D. it
Question 44: A. good B. common C. spirit D. intellect
Choose the word or phrase CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following sentences.
Question 45 :The thieves broke into the tomb to steal the treasures.
A. mummies B. bodies C. materials D. valuable objects
Question 46 :Music can also help you to relax and feel rejuvenated.
A. strengthened B. bettered C. refreshed D. recovered
Question 47 :As the old silent films were being replaced by spoken ones on the screen, a new cinema form appeared, the musical cinema.
A. sounded B. arose C. seemed D. emerged
Choose the word or phrase OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following sentences.
Question 48 :The council demolished it.
A. made B. did C. started D. construct
Question 49 :For example, you can play a ballad, then move on to something more energetic such as rock ’n’ roll.
A. languid B. ill C. slow D. soft
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underline part that needs correcting.
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_____ THE END_____
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41B 42C 43D 44B 45D 46A 47D 48B 49A 50A 51D 52B 53C 54B 55D 56C 57B 58A 59B 60B 61D 62D 63B 64A
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