Mời các em tham khảo nội dung tài liệu chi tiết sau đây: Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG năm 2021-2022 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THPT Hoàng Hoa Thám. Tài liệu này bao gồm 5 đề thi do HOC247 sưu tầm và biên soạn kèm theo đáp án chi tiết. Hi vọng đây sẽ là một tài liệu tham khảo bổ ích giúp các em hoàn thành tốt kì thi THPT Quốc gia quan trọng sắp đến!
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TRƯỜNG THPT HOÀNG HOA THÁM |
ĐỀ THI THPT QUỐC GIA NĂM HỌC 2021-2022 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH (Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút) |
1. Đề số 1
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
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1. A. lived |
B. concerned |
C. decided |
D. studied |
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2. A. funny |
B. rubbish |
C. upper |
D. student |
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
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3. A. believe |
B. provide |
C. decide |
D. enter |
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4. A. disappear |
B. arrangement |
C. opponent |
D. contractual |
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
5. The weather is very cold, __________?
A. is it B. isn’t it C. does it D. doesn’t it
6. Two dozen cookies ______ by Susan for the bake sale.
A. have baked B. bake C. will be baked D. will bake
7. Britain's Prince William arrived_________ Hanoi on Wednesday for his first visit to Vietnam.
A. at B. to C. on D. in
8. ______ you climb, the colder it gets.
A. The higher B. The highest C. Higher D. Highest
9. That old man used to live in a ______ house.
A. nice big brick
B. nice brick big
C. brick nice big
D. big brick nice
10. He found some money when he ______ the cupboards.
A. cleaned B. has cleaned C. was cleaning D. cleans
11. ______ the old age, the woman managed to finish the last round in the marathon.
A. Because B. Because of C. In spite of D. Although
12. I’ll go to sleep ______.
A. as soon as I finish the homework
B. after I had finished the homework
C. While I was finishing the homework
D. before I finished the homework
13. ______ this, Napoleon rode on to meet Marshal Lannes, who, hat in hand, rode up smiling to the Emperor to congratulate him on the victory.
A. To have said B. Having said C. Said D. Being said
14. Travelling to _______ countries in the world enables me to learn many interesting things.
A. differently B. different C. difference D. differ
15. The trouble with James is that he never _______ on time for a meeting.
A. turns up B. takes off C. takes up D. turns down
16. I know he wouldn’t _______ a promise to me, so I try to keep this promise.
A. break B. cut C. lend D. say
17. The _________ of living in some places can be very high. Prices in London are particularly exorbitant.
A. value B. price C. worth D. cost
18. At the ______ level, you can join three-year or four-year colleges.
A. primary B. secondary C. postgraduate D. undergraduate
19. When my brother got angry I told him to keep his _______ on.
A. shoe B. shirt C. coat D. hat
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word in each of the following questions.
20. Decent and quality jobs must be available for all people who are able to work.
A. Inevitable B. Compulsory C. Suitable D. Unreliable
21. In the current financial crisis, the banks must not break with their commitment to society.
A. engagement B. movement C. judgement D. achievement
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
22. Some companies are making strenuous efforts to increase the proportion of women at all levels of employment.
A. decisive B. determined C. continuous D. half-hearted
23. Ben's dreams of a university education went by the board when his father died and he was forced to earn a living.
A. became possible
B. turned into a nightmare
C. got rejected
D. got prolonged
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.
24. Sam is talking to Mai on the first day at school.
- Sam: "How long does it take you to get to school?"- Mai: " _____. "
A. About 2 kilometres
B. 2 years ago
C. About 15 minutes
D. 15 pounds
25. Linda: “I think it’s a good idea to have three or four generations living under one roof. They can help one another. ”
Janet: “ ___________ . Many old aged parents like to lead an independent life in a nursing home”
A. It’s nice to hear that
B. Me, too
C. That’s not true
D. I agree with you completely
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Many parents believe that they should begin to teach their children to read when they are slightly more than toddlers. This is fine if the child shows a real interest but forcing a child could be counterproductive if she isn't ready. Wise parents will have a hopeful attitude and take the lead from their child. What they should provide is a selection of stimulating toys, books and (26)____ activities. Nowadays there is plenty of good material available for young children, and of course, seeing plenty of books in use about the house will also encourage them to read.
Of course, books are no longer the only source of stories and information. There is also a huge range of videos, (27)______ can reinforce and extend the pleasure a child finds in a book and are equally valuable in helping to increase vocabulary and concentration. Television gets a bad review as far as children are concerned, mainly because too many spend too much time watching programmes not intended for their age (28)_____. Too many television programmes induce an incurious, uncritical attitude that is going to make learning much more difficult. (29)______, discriminating viewing of programmes designed for young children can be useful. Just as adults enjoy reading a book after seeing it serialised on television, so children will pounce on books which (30)_____ their favourite television characters, and videos can add a new dimension to a story known from a book.
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26. A. other |
B. others |
C. another |
D. one |
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27. A. who |
B. whom |
C. which |
D. whose |
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28. A. set |
B. band |
C. group |
D. limit |
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29. A. Therefore |
B. However |
C. Consequently |
D. Although |
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30. A. illustrate |
B. extend |
C. feature |
D. possess |
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
As customers choose brands based on how they make them feel, rather than their actual products or services, there is an intrinsic advantage to those organizations that use designed experiences as a weapon to cut through the most competitive of markets. Those that don’t, operate in what we call the “experience gap”, the space between them and their customer’s expectation of them. Make no mistake, in our high paced and digitally connected economies, the experience gap is driving markets, fast.
For example, take Instagram and Twitter. These brands filled the demand for a whole new human experience that did not exist before the evolution of digital technologies enabled that. They were pioneers, and there were no established players to unseat. But we are also seeing a similar dynamic in existing industries. New entrants are coming in and taking the space, also using whole new experiences, purely because the incumbents left the door open.
Closer to home, this can be seen with Australian neobanks who are giving customers a better experience than the incumbents. Robert Bell is the CEO at neobank 86400. He says banking has already become quite complicated and he wanted to make a change. His neobank is working to solve customers problems more holistically. Bell said, “It’s significantly harder work and takes more time to become a bank, but having done that we can have a much better relationship with our customers and we can offer them a lot more products and services. ”
Think about that for a moment. Do you notice how better experiences, leads to better relationships, which is then the stepping stone for more offerings? Many brands still jump straight to modified offerings, without gaining that customer connection and the necessary foundation of trust first.
(Source: https: //which-50. com/)
31. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The importance of experience to competitive advantage.
B. Businesses are unwilling to disrupt themselves.
C. A far-reaching cultural transformation.
D. Knowledge drives behavior, loyalty, satisfaction.
32. The word “who” in paragraph 3 refers to _______.
A. incumbents B. neobanks C. customers D. experiences
33. According to paragraph 2, what is true about Instagram and Twitter in the stated instance?
A. Their reputation famously preceded even the 4th Industrial Revolution.
B. They are the one and only companies providing such revolutionary services.
C. They were the trailblazers for the experience-oriented marketing strategy.
D. Prior to their advent, there were already several competitors in the field.
34. According to paragraph 3, what is the attitude of Robert Bell towards the customers?
A. He sees them as modern slaves to consumerism.
B. He maintains a healthy relationship of give and take.
C. He displays worship in its purest form towards them.
D. He views them as the golden goose for his business.
35. What does the phrase “stepping stone” in paragraph 4 mean?
A. An asset or possession prized as being the best of a group of similar things.
B. A person who travels without settling down for any significant period of time
C. An important clue to understanding something that is challenging or puzzling.
D. An action or event that helps one to make progress towards a specified goal.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Every summer, when the results of university entrance exam come out, many newspaper stories are published about students who are top-scorers across the country. Most portray students as hard-working, studious, smart and, generally, from low-income families. They are often considered heroes or heroines by their families, communes, villages and communities. And they symbolize the efforts made to lift them, and their relatives, out of poverty. The students are often too poor to attend any extra-classes, which make their achievements more illustrious and more newsworthy. While everyone should applaud the students for their admirable efforts, putting too much emphasis on success generates some difficult questions.
If other students look up to them as models, of course it's great. However, in a way, it contributes to society's attitude that getting into university is the only way to succeed. For those who fail, their lives are over. It should be noted that about 1. 3 million high school students take part in the annual university entrance exams and only about 300, 000 of them pass. What's about the hundreds of thousands who fail? Should we demand more stories about those who fail the exam but succeed in life or about those who quit university education at some level and do something else unconventional?
"I personally think that it's not about you scoring top in an entrance exam or get even into Harvard. It's about what you do for the rest of your life, " said Tran Nguyen Le Van, 29. He is the founder of a website, vexere. com, that passengers can use to book bus tickets online and receive tickets via SMS. His business also arranges online tickets via mobile phones and email. Van dropped out of his MBA at the Thunderbird School of Global Management in Arizona in the United States. His story has caught the attention of many newspapers and he believes more coverage should be given to the youngsters who can be role-models in the start-up community. Getting into university, even with honours, is just the beginning. "We applaud them and their efforts and obviously that can give them motivation to do better in life. However, success requires more than just scores, " Van said. Van once told a newspaper that his inspiration also came from among the world's most famous drop-outs, such as Mark Zuckerberg of Facebook or Bill Gates who also dropped out of Harvard University.
Alarming statistics about unemployment continues to plague us. As many as 162, 000 people with some kind of degree cannot find work, according to Labour Ministry's statistics this month. An emphasis on getting into university does not inspire students who want to try alternative options. At the same time, the Ministry of Education and Training is still pondering on how to reform our exam system, which emphasises theories, but offers little to develop critical thinking or practice. Vu Thi Phuong Anh, former head of the Centre for Education Testing and Quality Assessment at Viet Nam National University in HCM City said the media should also monitor student successes after graduation. She agreed there were many success stories about young people, but added that it was imbalanced if students taking unconventional paths were not also encouraged.
Viet Nam is, more than ever, in desperate need of those who think outside the box. Time for us to recognise talent, no matter where it comes from or how.
(Source: http: //vietnamnews. vn)
36. Which of the following best describes the main idea of this passage?
A. Many students consider universities as their only way after school.
B. A good model of being successful in the real life out of school.
C. Not many students are successful after graduating from universities.
D. University is not the only way to success.
37. What is NOT stated in the passage about the top-scorers in the entrance exam?
A. The majority of them are poor but intelligent and eager to learn.
B. They are hoped to find the way to better their families’ lives.
C. Their success is more glorious because they attend more classes than others.
D. The students are admired for the great efforts.
38. The word “unconventional” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by __________.
A. common B. unusual C. well-known D. infamous
39. The author described Tran Nguyen Le Van in the third passage as __________.
A. a good example to achieve success although he didn’t finish his education.
B. a businessman who gains money by selling mobile phones online.
C. a founder whose website was inspired from social networks like Facebook.
D. a top-scorer who books online tickets and confirm through messages.
40. The word “them” in paragraph 3 refers to _________________.
A. honours B. role-models C. the youngsters D. newspapers
41. The word “plague” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ____________.
A. conflict B. afflict C. remind D. bother
42. According to the fourth paragraph, what is TRUE about the modern exam system?
A. It puts too much pressure on students who must get a place in a university.
B. Students are not encouraged to do something different.
C. The government is trying to change the theories of exam.
D. Many stories about successful students cannot inspire those who attend universities.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
43. She doesn’t sleep well last night due to loud music from neighbours
A. doesn’t B. well C. due to D. neighbours
44. At the age of 50, Robby William changed its career after spending his twenty years playing electric guitar.
A. of B. its C. spending D. playing
45. The teacher’s explanation was confused. Most of students didn’t understand it.
A. explanation B. confused C. students D. understand
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
46. She started working as a teacher of English ten years ago.
A. She had worked as a teacher of English for ten years.
B. She had been working as a teacher of English for ten years.
C. She worked as a teacher of English for ten years.
D. She has been working as a teacher of English for ten years.
47. “I’ll call the police if you continually make noise at night”, she said to her neighbour.
A. She enjoyed calling the police if her neighbor continually made noise at night.
B. She promised to call the police if her neighbor continually made noise at night.
C. She threatened to call the police if her neighbor continually made noise at night.
D. She denied calling the police if her neighbor continually made noise at night.
48. My car keys are possibly in the kitchen.
A. My car keys should be put in the kitchen.
B. My car keys cannot be in the kitchen.
C. My car keys might be in the kitchen.
D. My car keys must be in the kitchen.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
49. I was busy yesterday. I couldn’t complete my homework.
A. If only I had more time yesterday, I could complete my homework.
B. As soon as I didn’t have more time yesterday, I couldn’t complete my homework.
C. If I had more time yesterday, I could have completed my homework.
D. I wish I had had more time yesterday, I could have completed my homework.
50. The soccer team knew they lost the match. They soon started to blame each other.
A. Not only did the soccer team lose the match but they blamed each other as well
B. No sooner had the soccer team started to blame each other than they knew they lost the match.
C. As soon as they blamed each other, the soccer team knew they lost the match.
D. Hardly had the soccer team known they lost the match when they started to blame each other.
ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 1
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: Đáp án C
Question 2: Đáp án D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: Đáp án D
Question 4: Đáp án B
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5: Đáp án B
Question 6: Đáp án C
Question 7: Đáp án D
Question 8: Đáp án A
Question 9: Đáp án A
Question 10: Đáp án C
Question 11: Đáp án C
Question 12: Đáp án A
Question 13: Đáp án B
Question 14: Đáp án B
Question 15: Đáp án A
Question 16: Đáp án A
Question 17Đáp án D
Question 18: Đáp án D
Question 19: Đáp án B
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: Đáp án C
Question 21: Đáp án A
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s)OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s)in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Đáp án D
Question 23: Đáp án A
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.
Question 24: Đáp án C
Question 25: Đáp án C
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Question 26: Đáp án A
Question 27: Đáp án D
Question 28: Đáp án D
Question 29: Đáp án B
Question 30: Đáp án C
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Question 31: Đáp án A
Question 32: Đáp án B
Question 33: Đáp án B
Question 34: Đáp án B
Question 35: Đáp án D
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Question 36: Đáp án D
Question 37: Đáp án C
Question 38: Đáp án B
Question 39: Đáp án A
Question 40: Đáp án C
Question 41: Đáp án B
Question 42: Đáp án B
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43: Đáp án A
Question 44: Đáp án B
Question 45: Đáp án B
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46: Đáp án D
Question 47: Đáp án C
Question 48: Đáp án C
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: Đáp án D
Question 50: Đáp án D
2. Đề số 2
ĐỀ THI THPT QG MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT HOÀNG HOA THÁM- ĐỀ 02
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 1: My friend is good at mimicking people. He ______ a great impression of Charlie Chaplin.
A. made B. did C. took D. gave
Question 2: You can ask Matin anything about history. He actually has quite a good _____ for facts.
A. head B. understanding C. knowledge D. ability
Question 3: His jokes seemed to ______ a treat with his audience, if their laughter was any indication.
A. go along B. go by C. go off D. go down
Question 4: It was such a sad film that we all were reduced _______ tears at the end.
A. with B. onto C. to D. into
Question 5: _______ an emergency arise, call 911.
A. Should B. If C. Will D. Were
Question 6: The baby can't even sit up yet, ______ stand and walk!
A. but for B. let alone C. all but D. rather than
Question 7: I don’t think that everyone likes the way he makes fun, ______?
A. don't I B. do I C. don’t they D. do they
Question 8: Unfortunately, the injury may keep him out of football _______. He may never play again.
A. for good
B. now and then
C. once in a while
D. every so often
Question 9: The two cars for sale were in poor condition, so I didn't buy ______.
A. neither of them
B. either of them
C. each of them
D. none of them
Question 10: I used to ______ reading comics, but now I've grown out of it.
A. take a fancy to
B. keep an eye on
C. get a kick out of
D. kick up a fuss about
Question 11: The evidence suggests that single fathers ______ more likely to work than single mothers.
A. should be
B. must be
C. be
D. are
Question 12: Little Deon: “This herb smells horrible, mommy!”
Mommy: “______, it will do you a power of good.”
A. Come what may
B. By the by
C. What is more
D. Be that as it may
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 13: It’s not fair to put all the blame on him. He’s not the only one at fault.
A. He doesn't deserve to be blamed for everything as there were others involved.
B. He deserved to be punished, but the others don’t.
C. It wouldn't be right to punish those who, like him, were not involved.
D. Only the one who were involved should be punished.
Question 14: You will have to tell him about it in the end. The longer you put off doing so, the harder it’s going to be.
A. You can never keep things secret for long, so the best is to tell him about it soon.
B. Surely it’s better to let him know about it now than wait until he finds out for himself.
C. He will have to be notified about it, and the sooner the better.
D. You can’t keep him in the dark about it forever, and telling him will get harder the longer you wait.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 15: A. technique B. gazelle C. canal D. compass
Question 16: A. informative B. preservative C. mandatory D. compulsory
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 17: A. smooth B. sunbath C. youth D. cloth
Question 18: A. rough B. touchy C. southern D. coup
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 19: We had about ten people helping (A) us carry our belongings to a van parking (B) outside when there was a sudden crash which made us turn round (C) to find the big mirror lying in pieces (D) on the ground.
Question 20: You should take out (A) insurance for (B) your house from (C) any possible damage. Earthquakes sometimes occur (D) here.
Question 21: In a famous experiment conducted (A) at University of Chicago (B) in 1983, rats kept (C) from sleeping died after two and a half weeks.(D)
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 22 to 26.
The invention of the mobile phone has undoubtedly revolutionized the way people communicate and influenced every aspect of our lives. The issue is whether this technological innovation has done more harm than good.
In order to (22)______ the question, we must first turn to the type of consumer. Presumably, most parents buy mobile phones for their teenagers to track their whereabouts and ensure their safety. We can also assume that most teenagers want mobile phones to avoid missing out (23)______ social contact. In this context, the advantages are clear. However, we cannot deny the fact that text messages have been used by bullies to intimidate fellow students. There is also (24)______ evidence that texting has affected literacy skills.
The ubiquitous use of the mobile phone has, (25)______ question, affected adult consumers, too. What employee, on the way home from work, would be reluctant to answer a call from their boss? Apparently, only 18% of us, according to a recent survey, are willing to switch off our mobile phones once we’ve left the office.
Admittedly, mobile phones can be intrusive but there are obvious benefits to possessing one. Personally speaking, they are invaluable when it comes to making social or business arrangements at short (26)______. According to a recent survey, they also provide their owners with a sense of security in emergency situations.
In conclusion, mobile phones do have their drawbacks, but these are outweighed by the benefits. I would argue that it is not the tool that chooses its purpose, but the user.
| Question 22: A. answer | B. address | C. remedy | D. put right |
| Question 23: A. in | B. to | C. of | D. on |
| Question 24: A. indisputable | B. arguable | C. doubtless | D. unhesitating |
| Question 25: A. out of | B. without | C. beyond | D. outside |
| Question 26: A. time | B. notice | C. term | D. warning |
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 27: - John: “Oh, I forgot my girlfriend's birthday last week.” - Anne: “______.”
A. Not on your life.
B. So I guess you are in the doghouse again.
C. Sure, knock on wood.
D. You really should get a life.
Question 28: - Porter: “I didn’t do too well on my final exams.” - Mary: “______.”
A. That's a shame!
B. Don’t mention it!
C. What a drag!
D. That will be the day!
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 29: The appeal was rejected by the committee, despite the fact that it had been signed by over 5,000 people.
A. application B. petition
C. permit D. form
Question 30: The children were full of beans today, looking forward to their field trip.
A. eating a lot
B. hyperactive
C. melancholy
D. lively and in high spirits
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
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ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 2
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3. Đề số 3
ĐỀ THI THPT QG MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT HOÀNG HOA THÁM- ĐỀ 03
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 1. Publishing in the UK, the book has won a number of awards in recent regional book fairs.
A. publishing in the
B. has won
C. in
D. book fairs
Question 2. Hardly did he enter the room when all the lights went out.
A. did he enter
B. when
C. the lights
D. went
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 3. After running up the stairs, I was ______ breath.
A. away from
B. without
C. no
D. out of
Question 4. Extinction means a situation _______ a plan, an animal or a way of life etc … stops existing.
A. to which
B. in which
C. on which
D. for which
Question 5. As I was walking along the street, I saw _______ $10 note on _______ pavement.
A. a/the B. the/the C. a/a D. the/a
Question 6. I’ve never really enjoyed going to the ballet or the opera; they’re not really my _______.
A. piece of cake
B. sweets and candy
C. biscuit
D. cup of tea
Question 7. I will stand here and wait for you _______ you come back.
A. because B. though C. so D. until
Question 8. Let’s begin our discussion now, ________?
A. shall we
B. will we
C. don’t we
D. won’t we
Question 9. Of all the factors affecting agricultural yields, weather is the one ________ the most.
A. that influences farmers
B. farmers that is influences
C. why farmers influence it
D. it influences farmers
Question 10. _________, we tried our best to complete it.
A. Thanks to the difficult homework
B. Despite the homework was difficult
C. Difficult as the homework was
D. As though the homework was difficult
Question 11. The twins look so much alike that almost no one can _______ them ________.
A. take/apart
B. tell/away
C. tell/apart
D. take/on
Question 12. Tom looks so frightened and upset. He ________ something terrible.
A. must experience
B. can have experienced
C. should have experienced
D. must have experienced
Question 13. Ann was very surprised to find the door unlocked. She remembered _______ it before she left.
A. to lock
B. having locked
C. to have locked
D. she locks
Question 14. Tom: “Sorry, I forgot to phone you last night”
A. have nothing to tell you.
B. Oh. Poor me!
C. Never mind!
D. You was absent- minded.
Question 15. The players’ protests ________ no difference to the referee’s decision at all.
A. did B. made C. caused D. created
Question 16. In a formal interview, it is essential to maintain good eye ________ with the interviewers.
A. link B. connection C. touch D. contact
Question 17. Grace Kelly was first famous as a Hollywood actress and then _______ Prince Rainier of Monaco.
A. to be the wife of
B. she was the wife of
C. the wife of
D. as the wife of
Question 18. When he came to the counter of pay, he found that he had _______ cash _______ his credit card with him.
A. either/or
B. neither/nor
C. both/and
D. not/neither
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 19. A. crucial B. partial C. material D. financial
Question 20 A. land B. sandy C. many D. candy
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 21. A. familiar B. impatient C. uncertain D. arrogant
Question 22. A. disappear B. arrangement C. opponent D. contractual
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s)in each of the following questions.
Question 23. This speedy and secure service of transferring money can be useful.
A. slow B. rapid C. careful D. hurried
Question 24. Our well- trained staff are always courteous to customers.
A. helpful B. friendly C. rude D. polite
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentences that is CLOSEST in meaning to each of the following question.
Question 25: “ You shouldn’t have leaked our confidential report to the press, Frank!” said Jane.
A. Jane suspected that Frank had leaked their confidential report to the press.
B. Jane criticized Frank for having disclosed their confidential report to the press.
C. Jane accused Frank of having cheated the press with their confidential report.
D. Jane blamed Frank for having flattered the press with their confidential report.
Question 26. “Don’t forget to tidy up the final draft before submission,” the team leaser told us.
A. The team leader ordered us to tidy up the final draft before submission.
B. The team leader reminded us to tidy up the final draft before submission.
C. The team leader asked us to tidy up the final draft before submission.
D. The team leader simply wanted us to tidy up the final draft before submission.
Question 27. “If you don’t pay the ransom, we’ll kill your boy,” the kidnappers told us.
A. The kidnappers ordered to kill our boy if we did not pay the ransom.
B. The kidnappers pledged to kill our boy if we did not pay the ransom.
C. The kidnappers threatened to kill our boy if we did not pay the ransom.
D. The kidnappers promised to kill our boy if we did not pay the ransom.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word in each of the following questions.
Question 28. When the protestor entered the meeting clad only in a beach tower, the audience was dumbfounded.
A. speechless B. excited C. content D. applauding
Question 29. She is always diplomatic when she deals with angry students.
A. strict B. outspoken C. tactful D. firm
Question 30: The dog saw his reflection in the pool of water.
A. imagination B. bone C. leash D. image
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions
Simply being bilingual doesn’t qualify someone to interpret. Interpreting is not only a mechanical process of converting one sentence in language A into the same sentence in language B. Rather, its a complex art in which thoughts and idioms that have no obvious counterparts from tongue to tongue _ or words that have several meanings must be quickly transformed in such a way that the message is clearly and accurately expressed to the listener.
At one international conference, an American speaker said, “You cant make a silk purse out of a sows ear”, which meant nothing to the Spanish audience. The interpretation was, “A monkey in a silk dress is still a monkey” _ an idiom the Spanish understood and that expressed the same idea.
There are 2 kinds of interpreters, simultaneous and consecutive. The former, sitting in a separated booth, usually at a large multilingual conference, speaks to listeners wearing headphones, interpreting what a foreign language speaker says _ actually a sentence behind. Consecutive interpreters are the ones most international negotiations use. They are employed for smaller meetings without sound booths and headphones. Consecutive interpretation also requires two-person teams. A foreign speaker says his piece while the interpreter, using a special shorthand, takes notes and during a pause, tells the client what was said.
---(Để xem tiếp nội dung của đề thi số 3 các em vui lòng xem tại online hoặc đăng nhập vào HỌC247 để tải về máy)---
ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 3
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4. Đề số 4
ĐỀ THI THPT QG MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT HOÀNG HOA THÁM- ĐỀ 04
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 1: She finally admitted that she broke the pot_____________.
A. purposefully B. clumsily C. willingly D. deliberately
Question 2. When Tet holiday comes, Vietnamese people often feel inclined to _________ their houses.
A. do up B. do in C. do through D. do over
Question 3. The strike was ________ owing to a last-minute agreement with the management.
A. called off
B. broken up
C. set back
D. put down
Question 4. It was announced that neither the passengers nor the driver _________ in the crash.
A. are injured
B. was injured
C. were injured
D. have been injured
Question 5. In today’s paper it __________ that we shall have an eclection this year.
A. says B. admits C. expresses D. proposes
Question 6. Peter was ejected after committing five personal _________ in water sport game yesterday.
A. mistakes B. faults C. fouls D. errors
Question 7. Toxic chemicals in the air and land have driven many species to te ________ of extinction.
A. tip B. edge C. verge D. border
Question 8. She ran _________ an interesting articles about fashion while she was reading the newspaper.
A. after B. across C. away D. out
Question 9. It’s a secret. You _________ let anyone know about it.
A. musstn’t B. needn’t C. mightn’t D. may not
Question 10. You should make a(n) __________ to overcome this problem.
A. trial B. imrpression C. effort D. apology
Question 11. Nothing ever seems to bother Colin. No matter what happens, he always seems to remain as cool as _________ .
A. cool feet
B. ice- cream
C. a cucumber
D. as Eskimo
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to indicate the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 12. We had to list the chronology of events in World War II on our test.
A. time sequence
B. discrepancy
C. catastrophe
D. disaster
Question 13. The team wasn’t playing well, so the coach took the bull by the horns and sacked several senior players.
A. made the right decision
B. made the wrong decision
C. made a bold decision
D. made a final decision
Mark the letter A,B , C or D on your answer sheet to showthe underlined part that needs correction.
Question 14. I found my new (A) contact lenses strangely (B) at first, but I got used to (C) them in the end (D).
Question 15. Dreaming, like all (A) other mental processes, it is (B) a product of the brain (C) and its activity (D).
Question 16. Japanese (A) initially used (B) jeweled objects to decorate (C) swords and ceremonial items (D).
Question 17. The grass needs (A) cutting (B), so let (C) us have one of the men to take (D) lawn- mower and do it.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet ton indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 18 to 25.
There are a number of natural disasters that can strike across the globe. Two that are frequently linked to one another are earthquakes and tsunamis. Both of them can cause a great amount of devastation when they hit. However, tsunamis are the direct result of earthquakes and cannot happen without them.
The Earth has three main parts. They are the crust, the mantle, and the core. The crust is the outer layer of the Earth. It is not a single piece of land. Instead, it is comprised of a number of plates. There are a few enormous plates and many smaller ones. These plates essentially rest upon the mantle, which is fluid. As a result, the plates are in constant - yet slow - motion. The plates may move away from or toward other plates. In some cases, they collide violently with the plates adjoining them. The movement of the plates causes tension in the rock. Over a long time, this tension may build up. When it is released, an earthquake happens.
Tens of thousands of earthquakes happen every year. The vast majority are so small that only scientific instruments can perceive them. Others are powerful enough that people can feel them, yet they cause little harm or damage. More powerful earthquakes, however, can cause buildings, bridges, and other structures to collapse. They may additionally injure and kill thousands of people and might even cause the land to change its appearance.
Since most of the Earth’s surface is water, numerous earthquakes happen beneath the planet’s oceans. Underwater earthquakes can cause the seafloor to move. This results in the displacement of water in the ocean . When this occurs , a tsunami may form. This is a wave that forms on the surface and moves in all directions from the place where the earthquake happened. A tsunami moves extremely quickly and can travel thousands of kilometres. As it approaches land, the water near the coast gets sucked out to sea. This causes the tsunami to increase in height. Minutes later, the tsunami arrives. A large tsunami - one more than ten meters in height- can travel far inland. As it does that, it can flood the land, destroy human settlements, and kill large numbers of people.
Question 18. Which of the following is true regarding the crust?
A. It is the smallest of the Earth's three layers.
B. It is thicker on land than it is under the water.
C. There many separate pieces that make it up.
D. The mantle beneath it keeps it from moving too much.
Question 19. The word "perceive" in bold in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to___________.
A. detect
B. comprehend
C. prevent
D. locate
Question 20. What is the passage mainly about?
A. When earthquakes are the most likely to happen.
B. What kind of damage natural disasters
C. How earthquakes and tsunamis occur can cause.
D. Why tsunamis are deadlier than earthquakes.
Question 21. The word "adjoining" in bold in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to___________.
A. residing
B. approaching
C. bordering
D. appearing
Question 22. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 3 about earthquakes?
A. How severe the majority of them are
B. How often powerful ones take place
C. How many people they typically kill
D. What kind of damage they can cause
Question 23. Which of the following statements does paragraph 1 support?
A. A tsunami happens in tandem with an earthquake.
A. Earthquakes cause more destruction than tsunamis.
C. The most severe type of natural disaster is an earthquake.
D. Earthquakes frequently take place after tsunamis do.
Question 24. The word "it" in bold in paragraph 2 refers to___________.
A. The mantle
B. The crust
C. The Earth
D. The core
Question 25. Based on the passage, what is probably true about tsunamis?
A. They are able to move as fast as the speed of sound.
B. They cannot damage ships sailing on the ocean.
C. They can be deadly to people standing near shore.
D. They kill more people each year than earthquakes.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 26. Tom was encouraged by my success. He decided not to quit his work.
A. Encouraged by my success, Tom decided not to quit his work.
B. Encouraging by my success, Tom decided not to quit his work.
C. To be encouraged by my success, Tom decided not to quit his work.
D. That he was encouraged by success, Tom decided not to quit his work.
Question 27. The new restaurant looks good. However, it seems to have few customers.
A. In order to get more business, the new restaurant should improve its appearance.
B. The new restaurantwould have more sustomers if it looked better.
C. If it had a new more customers, the new restaurant would look better.
D. In spite of its appearance, the new restaurant does not appear to attract much business.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to choose the sentence which is closest in meaning to the given one.
Question 28. It is possible that the fire in the ship was started by a bomb.
A. They say that a bomb started the fire in the ship.
B. The fire in the ship might have been started by a bomb.
C. It shall be said the fire in the ship had been started by a bomb.
D. The fire in the ship is known to have been started by a bomb.
Question 29. Had Kathy studied hard, she would have passed the examination.
A. Kathy knew that she would succeed in the examination.
B. But for her hard study, Kathy would have succeeded in the examination.
C. Kathy studied very hard but she did not succeed in the examination.
D. Kathy did not study hard, so she failed.
Question 30. “Would you mind moving the bicycle?” said the janitor. “It’s in the way.”
A. The janitor advised me to move the bicycle and said that it was in the way.
B. The janitor asked if I woul mind moving the bicycle and said to me that it was in the way.
C. The janitor told me to move the bicycle because it was in the way.
D. The janitor suggested moving the bicycle and told that it was in the way.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet ton indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 37.
Archaeological records paintings, drawings, and carvings of humans engaged in activities involving the use of hands indicate that humans have been predominantly right-handed for more than 5,000 years. In ancient Egyptian artwork, for example, the right-hand is depicted as the dominant one in about 90percent of the examples. Fracture or wear patterns on tools also indicate that a majority of ancient people were right-handed.
Cro-Magnon cave paintings some 27,000years old commonly show outlines of human hands made by placing one hand against the cave wall and applying paint with the other. Children today make similar outlines of their hands with crayons on paper. With few exceptions, left hands of Cro-Magnons are displayed on cave walls, indicating that the paintings were usually done by right-handers.
Anthropological evidence pushes the record of handedness in early human ancestors back to at least 1.4 million years ago. One important line of evidence comes from flaking patterns of stone cores used in toolmaking: implements flaked with a clockwise motion (indicating a right-handed toolmaker) can be distinguished from those flaked with a counter-clockwise rotation (indicating a left-handed toolmaker).
Even scratches found on fossil human teeth offer clues. Ancient humans are thought to have cut meat into strips by holding it between their teeth and slicing it with stone knives, as do the present-day Inuit. Occasionally the knives slip and leave scratches on the users` teeth. Scratches made with a left-to- right stroke direction (by right-handers) are more common than scratches in the opposite direction (made by left-handers).
Still other evidence comes from cranial morphology: scientists think that physical differences between the right and left sides of the interior of the skull indicate subtle physical differences between the two sides of the brain. The variation between the hemispheres corresponds to which side of the body is used to perform specific activities. Such studies, as well as studies of tool use, indicate that right- or left-sided dominance is not exclusive to modern Homo sapiens. Populations of Neanderthals, such as Homo erectus and Homo habilis, seem to have been predominantly right-handed, as we are.
---(Để xem tiếp nội dung của đề thi số 4 các em vui lòng xem tại online hoặc đăng nhập vào HỌC247 để tải về máy)---
ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 4
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5. Đề số 5
ĐỀ THI THPT QG MÔN TIẾNG ANH- TRƯỜNG THPT HOÀNG HOA THÁM- ĐỀ 05
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that need correction in each of the following questions
Question 1: Many hundred years ago (A), there were (B) many villages and little (C) towns in (D) England.
Question 2: Alike (A) light waves (B), microwaves may be (C) reflected and concentrated (D) elements.
Question 3: Many successful (A) film directions (B) are former (C) actors who desire to expand (D) their experience in the film industry.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Although the “lie detectors” are being used by governments, police departments, and businesses that all want guaranteed ways of detecting the truth, the results are not always accurate. Lie detectors are properly called emotion detectors, for their aim is to measure bodily changes that contradict what a person says. The polygraph machine records changes in heart rate, breathing, blood pressure, and the electrical activity of the skin (galvanic skin response, or GSR). In the first part of the polygraph test, you are electronically connected to the machine and asked a few neutral questions (“What is your name?”, “Where do you live?”). Your physical reactions serve as the standard (baseline) for evaluating what comes next. Then you are asked a few critical questions among the neutral ones (“When did you rob the bank?”). The assumption is that if you are guilty, your body will reveal the truth, even if you try to deny it. Your heart rate, respiration, and GSR will change abruptly as you respond to the incriminating questions.
That is the theory; but psychologists have found that lie detectors are simply not reliable. Since most physical changes are the same across all emotions, machines cannot tell whether you are feeling guilty, angry, nervous, thrilled, or revved up form an exciting day. Innocent people may be tense and nervous about the whole procedure. They may react physiologically to a certain word (“bank”) not because they robbed it, but because they recently bounced a check. In either case the machine will record a “lie”. The reverse mistake is also common. Some practiced liars can lie without flinching, and others learn to beat the machine by tensing muscles or thinking about an exciting experience during neutral questions.
Question 4: What is the main idea of this passage?
A. Lie detectors distinguish different emotions
B. Physical reaction reveal guilty
C. Lie detectors make innocent people nervous
D. How lie detectors are used and their reliability
Question 5: According to the test, polygraph ________.
A. measure a person’s thoughts
B. always reveal the truth about a person
C. make guilty people angry
D. record a person’s physical reactions
Question 6: According to the passage, what kind of questions is asked on the first part of the polygraph test?
A. incriminating
B. critical
C. emotional
D. unimportant
Question 7: The word “ones” in paragraph 1 refers to ______.
A. questions
B. reactions
C. standards
D. evaluations
Question 8: The word “it” in paragraph 1 refers to ______.
A. the question
B. your body
C. the assumption
D. the truth
Question 9: The word “assumption” in paragraph 1 could best be replaced with _____.
A. belief B. faith
C. statement D. imagining
Question 10: This passage was probably written by a specialist in _____.
A. sociology
B. anthropology
C. criminal psychology
D. mind reading
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to the following questions
Question 11: The 26th Annual Meeting of the Asia-Pacific Parliamentary Forum (APPF) ______ in Hanoi, our beautiful and peaceful capital city, from January 18th to 21st, 2018
A. was held B. is held
C. is being held D. will be held
Question 12: The Meeting of Women Parliamentarians, a part of APPF-26, contributed to strengthening the presence and ______ of women parliamentarians and helping to forge a network connecting them together.
A. influenced
B. influencing
C. influence
D. influential
Question 13: National Assembly Chairwoman Nguyen Thi Kim Ngan said that ______, a large number of women and girls in various areas in the world are being discriminated and subjected to violence.
A. though positive outcomes in gender equality and women empowerment
B. despite of positive outcomes in gender equality and women empowerment
C. in spite positive outcomes in gender equality and women empowerment
D. in spite of positive outcomes in gender equality and women empowerment
Question 14: In the quarter-final showdown with Malaysia, Cho Jae-wan (Korea Republic) wrote himself into the history books when he found the back of the net just 11.35 seconds into the game – the second ______ goal in any AFC tournament.
A. latest
B. worst
C. best
D. fastest
Question 15: Bob was absent; he _____ sick again.
A. shouldn’t have been
B. mustn’t have been
C. must have been
D. should have been
Question 16: Could you ______ me a lift into town?
A. give B. get
C. do D. make
Question 17: The lack of family support and the committee’s concerns around the design of the proposed statue of the former British Prime Minister, Margaret Thatcher, outside UK Parliament were the key determining factors in ________ this application.
A. breaking up
B. turning down
C. taking off
D. putting up
Question 18: I think we’ve come in for a lot of _____ about the impatience of some shop assistants.
A. compliments
B. problems
C. complaints
D. criticism
Question 19: Britain’s Prime Minister Theresa May was the first world leader ______ Trump at the White House after his inauguration last year.
A. visited
B. visiting
C. visit
D. to visit
Question 20: South African anti-apartheid veteran Winnie Madikizela-Mandela, ex-wife of late President Nelson Mandela, _______ in and out of hospital since 2016 for back and knee surgery.
A. has been being
B. has been
C. was
D. had been
Question 21: Vietnam reached the semi-finals of the AFC U23 Championship 2018 with a penalty shootout win _________ Iraq on Saturday, January 20th , 2018.
A. over B. with
C. against D. in
Question 22: He opened the letter without ______ to read the address on the envelope.
A. caring
B. worrying
C. concerning
D. bothering
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Pollution is a threat to many species on Earth, but sometimes it can cause species to thrive. Such is the case with Pfiesteria piscicida. A one-celled creature called a dinoflagellate, Pfiesteria inhabits warm coastal areas and river mouths, especially along the eastern United States. Although scientists have found evidence of Pfiesteria in 3,000-year-old sea floor sediments and dinoflagellates are thought to be one of the oldest life forms on earth, few people took notice of Pfiesteria.
Lately, however, blooms – or huge, dense populations – of Pfiesteria are appearing in coastal waters, and in such large concentrations the dinoflagellates become ruthless killers. The blooms emit powerful toxins that weaken and entrap fish that swim into the area. The toxins eventually cause the fish to develop large bleeding sores through which the tiny creatures attack, feasting on blood and flesh. Often the damage is astounding. During a 1991 fish kill, which was blamed on Pfiesteria on North Carolina’s Neuse River, nearly one billion fish died and bulldozers had to be brought in to clear the remains from the river. Of course, such events can have a devastating effect on commercially important fish, but that is just one way that Pfiesteria causes problems. The toxins it emits affect human skin in much the same way as they affect fish skin. Additionally, fisherman and others who have spent time near Pfiesteria blooms report that the toxins seem to get into the air, where once inhaled they affect the nervous system, causing severe headaches, blurred vision, nausea, breathing difficulty, short-term memory loss and even cognitive impairment.
For a while, it seemed that deadly Pfiesteria blooms were a threat only to North Carolina waters, but the problem seems to be spreading. More and more, conditions along the east coast seem to be favorable for Pfiesteria. Researchers suspect that pollutants such as animal waste from livestock operations, fertilizers washed from farmlands and waste water from mining operations have probably all combined to promote the growth of Pfiesteria in coastal waters.
Question 23: What is true of Pfiesteria?
A. It seems to flourish in the presence of certain pollutants
B. It has been a menace to fish and humans for over 3000 years.
C. It is the oldest life form on earth
D. In large concentrations, it poses a threat to fish but not to humans.
Question 24: What is the main function of the toxins emitted by the dinoflagellates?
A. They are quick-acting poisons that kill fish within minutes.
B. They weaken the fish just long enough for the tiny creatures to attack
C. They damage the nervous system of potential predators.
D. They cause fish to develop wounds on which creatures feed.
Question 25: The word “astounding” in the passage is closest in meaning to _______.
A. continual
B. incredible
C. spectacular
D. apprehensive
Question 26: What were bulldozers used for in the Neuse River?
A. cleaning up the sediment at the bottom of the river
B. excavating holes to bury the dead fish
C. scooping up the vast number of dead fish in the water
D. removing the huge amount of Pfiesteria from the river
Question 27: According to the paragraph 2, what will NOT happen if one breathes the toxic air?
A. vomiting
B. visual impairments
C. circulatory difficulty
D. terrible headaches
Question 28: What is especially worrying about Pfiesteria blooms?
A. Conditions are becoming increasingly favourable for their spread
B. They are fatal to humans who come in contact with them
C. They have devastated the fishing industry in U.S coastal waters
D. Researchers have no idea as to exactly what causes them
Question 29: All of the following are true, according to the passage, EXCEPT _____
A. Pfiesteria caused the death of about one billion fish in the late 1990s
B. animal and chemical waste from farmlands, livestock and mining operations may contribute to the expansion of Pfiesteria
C. Pfiesteria was not commonly noticed despite scientific findings
D. the toxic subtances emitted by Pfiesteria have a similar effect on human and fish skins
Question 30: In which environment would you NOT expect a Pfiesteria bloom to develop?
A. a marsh which absorbs waste water from a nearby pig farm
B. a river located near a rock quarry
C. a cool mountain lake teeming with fish
D. a river that flows through rich farmland
---(Để xem tiếp nội dung của đề thi số 5 các em vui lòng xem tại online hoặc đăng nhập vào HỌC247 để tải về máy)---
ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ SỐ 5
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1 |
2 |
3 |
4 |
5 |
|
C |
A |
B |
D |
D |
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6 |
7 |
8 |
9 |
10 |
|
D |
A |
D |
A |
C |
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11 |
12 |
13 |
14 |
15 |
|
A |
C |
D |
D |
C |
|
16 |
17 |
18 |
19 |
20 |
|
A |
B |
C |
D |
B |
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21 |
22 |
23 |
24 |
25 |
|
A |
D |
A |
B |
B |
|
26 |
27 |
28 |
29 |
30 |
|
C |
C |
A |
A |
C |
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31 |
32 |
33 |
34 |
35 |
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B |
C |
B |
A |
C |
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36 |
37 |
38 |
39 |
40 |
|
A |
C |
A |
B |
D |
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41 |
42 |
43 |
44 |
45 |
|
D |
B |
C |
B |
B |
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46 |
47 |
48 |
49 |
50 |
|
B |
A |
D |
D |
A |
...
Trên đây là một phần trích đoạn nội dung Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG năm 2021-2022 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THPT Hoàng Hoa Thám. Để xem toàn bộ nội dung các em chọn chức năng xem online hoặc đăng nhập vào trang hoc247.net để tải tài liệu về máy tính.
Mời các em tham khảo tài liệu có liên quan:
- Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG năm 2021-2022 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THPT Trần Văn Giàu
- Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG năm 2021-2022 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THPT Phan Đăng Lưu
Hy vọng bộ đề thi này sẽ giúp các em học sinh ôn tập tốt và đạt thành tích cao trong kì thi sắp tới.
