Dưới đây là Đề thi HSG cấp trường môn Tiếng Anh 7 năm 2020 có đáp án trường THCS Định Hòa. Đề thi gồm có các câu hỏi trắc nghiệm và tự luận sẽ giúp các em học sinh lớp 7 ôn tập nắm vững các kiến thức, các dạng bài tập để chuẩn bị cho kỳ thi sắp đến. Các em xem và tải về ở dưới.
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TRƯỜNG THCS ĐỊNH HÒA TỔ KHOA HỌC XÃ HỘI |
ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 7 Năm học: 2020-2021 (Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút) |
PART A: PHONETICS:
I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others. (3 points)
1. A. watches B. misses C. promises D. houses
2 A. daily B. maize C. laid D. dairy
3. A. closed B. stopped C. promised D. booked
II. Choose the words that has a stressed syllable from the others: (2 points)
1. A. happen B. open C. visit D. advise
2. A. police B. remember C. hotel D. lesson
PART B: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR:
I. Choose the correct answer A, B, C or D to complete each of the following sentences.
(24 points)
1. The relationship between fast food and child obesity _______ very close indeed.
A. are B. is C. to be D. were
2. There are only two things that one should do _______ a healthy and fit body: eating sensibly and exercising well.
A. keeping B. to keep C. for keeping D. keep
3. They are hanging their clothes to make them _______.
A. to dry B. dried C. dry D. drying
4. This dress is the _______ expensive of the four dresses.
A. most B. more C. much D. best
5. Dairy products _______ butter, cheese and milk.
A. are including B. included C. includes D. include
6. You shouldn’t eat too much sugar and don’t forget about exercise, _______.
A. too B. so C. either D. neither
7. Are there _______ for me this morning?
A. any letters B. some letters C. any letter D. some letter
8.Solar energy _______ by many countries in the world in the future.
A. will be used B. will use C. will be using D. use
9. He came into the room, _______ the light and _______ the door behind him.
A. turned on / closing B. turning on / closing
C. turned on / closed D. turning on / closed
10. What about _______ to Hue on Sunday?
A. to go B. go C. goes D. going
11. This papaya is green. It is not __________.
A. small B. yellow C. good D. ripe
12. I didn’t go to the cinema yesterday and Lan __________.
A. doesn’t, either B. didn’t, neither C. didn’t, either D. wasn’t, either
13. Would you like to go to the movies tonight? - __________
A. Yes, I do B. Yes, I would C. Yes, I’d love to D. Yes, please
14. Some people play video games at home. __________ play them in arcades.
A. Others B. Other C. Another D. Each other
15. Hoa is reading short stories __________ Jack London.
A. of B. from C. by D. with
16. She was __________ of watching television.
A. interested B. tired C. tiring D. pleased
17. My new shoes don’t __________ me very well. They are too big.
A. suit B. match C. fit D. agree
18. Mary and I are looking forward __________ our old friend.
A. of seeing B. for seeing C. to see D. to seeing
19. There are two churches in the town and __________ of them are extremely old.
A. both B. each C. all D. most
20. I’m going to a wedding on Saturday. __________ is getting married.
A. A friend of me B. A friend of mine C. One my friend D. A friend of I
21.I don’t like doing the _______, especially cleaning the windows.
A. homework B. housework C. job D. occupation
22. Nam and I are looking forward _______ you.
A.to seeing B. of seeing C. for seeing D. to see
23. Mozart was one of the most famous _______ of classical music
A. actors B. composers C. artists D. makers
24. Airmail is much ......................than surface mail.
A. expensive B. very expensive C. more expensive D. most expensive
II. Complete the dialogue with the correct tense of the verbs in brackets. (10 points)
1. I remember (meet)………………………… him somewhere.
2. You look tired. Sit down and I (make)…………………………. you a cup of tea.
3. I’m trying (finish) …………………my work. Please, stop (talk)………………………….
4. She paid for her ticket and (leave)………………………………………….
5. You look worried. What you (think) ………………………..about?
6. Everything (look)…………………………. strange to newcomers.
7. My friend asked me (not tell)………………………. to anyone about it.
8. After (leave)………………….. school, John (find)…………….. it very difficult to get a job.
III. Use the words given in brackets to form a word that fits in the space. (10 points)
1. He tried to learn Chinese but he was ___________. (SUCCESS)
2. He will never forget his happy ___________. (CHILD)
3. How is your grandfather? – He is much ___________ today. (WELL)
4. I watch TV every day because it is very ___________. (INFORM)
5. We must keep our environment ___________. (POLLUTE)
6. They cancelled all the ___________ because of the fog. (FLY)
7. I’m going to the shop for a rice ___________. What brand do you recommend? (COOK)
8. Every ___________ in my neighborhood has at least one TV set. (HOUSE)
9. I can do all of these exercises ___________. (EASY)
10. His ___________ of some words is not correct. (PRONOUNCE)
IV. Fill in each gap in the following sentences with a suitable preposition. (6 points)
1. I couldn’t meet Mary because she was ________.
2. It won’t be very long. I’ll be back ________ ten minutes.
3. Please, translate this article ________ English for me.
4. My brother is much better ________ gardening than me.
5. Sam Son beach is always crowded ________ tourists in the summer.
6. We look ____________________ the new words in the dictionary.
PART C: READING:
I. Read the passage and fill the suitable word in the blank: (5 points)
Luang Prabang is a small city located in north central Laos. In the past, the city (1)_________ the royal capital and seat of government of the Kingdom of Laos. It has been a UNESCO World Heritage Site since 1995. The population of the city is (2)_______ 50,000.
In the recent years, more and more foreign tourists are coming to Luang Prabang. It (3)_________dozens temples and many other religious sites. One of the major landmarks in the city is a large steep hill on which sits Wat Chom Si. Walking is the (4)_______ option to visit these many small restaurants in the city, and (5)_________ is really slow and peaceful in Luang Prabang.
II. Read the following passage and choose the best answer A, B, C or D to fill the blanks (10 points).
In the United States of America, the national language is (1) ________English. Four hundred years ago, some English people came to North America to live and they brought (2) ________ language to this country.
Now in the USA, people speak (3) ________English. Most of the words are the (4) ________ in American and British English, but the American say some English words not as people (5) ________in England. Canada is (6) ________to the North of the United States of America. It is the larger (7) ________the United States. In Canada, many people (8) ________ English because they also came from England many years (9) ________. But in some parts of Canada, people speak (10) ________because they came from France.
1. A. also B. like C. as D. not
2. A. French B. English C. Chinese D. Canadian
3. A. British B. American C. Russian D. Chinese
4. A. various B. similar C. same D. like
5. A. do B. say C. talk D. speak
6. A. lies B. situated C. at D. in
7. A. than B. as C. more D. less
8. A. say B. tell C. talk D. speak
9. A. ago B. later C. there D. here
10. A. France B. French C. Russian D. Italian
III. Read the passage and choose the best answer. (5.0 points)
The elephant is the largest animal to walk on Earth. An elephant can carry a load of 1,200 pounds. They eat 300 pounds of food a day. An elephant baby can weigh 200 pounds at birth. Elephants can live up to 70 years. Elephants can be trained to carry logs with their trunks. They also use their trunks for drinking water, bathing, eating and communicating. There are two kinds of elephants: the African elephant and the Indian elephant. African elephant can be characterized as larger ears. The African elephant grows up to 10 feet and weighs as much as 12,000 pounds. The Indian elephant grows up to 9 feet tall, and weighs up to 800 pounds. This elephant is characterized as smaller ears. Another name for the Indian elephant is the Asian elephant.
1. What is the topic of the passage?
A. African elephant B. Indian elephant C. Elephants D. Elephants' trunks
2. How much does a baby elephant weigh at birth?
A. 70 pounds B. 200 pounds C. 300 pounds D. 1,200 pounds
3. According to the passage, elephants can use their trunks for the following activities,
EXCEPT _______.
A. Bathing B. Communicating C. Sleeping D. Drinking
4. Which kind of elephant is the largest?
A. The Indian elephant B. the African elephant
C. the Asian elephant D. the Indian and Asian elephant
5. An Indian elephant has _______than an African elephant.
A. a longer tail B. a stronger trunk C. smaller ears D. bigger teeth
PART D: WRITING:
I. Find a mistake and correct it (5 points)
1. We left our luggage at the station and go to find something to eat.
2. It is a five- minutes walk from my house to the market.
3. Don’t make Peter to wake up. He is sleeping.
4. She used to walking to school when he was a child.
5. He spends his free time to watch a soccer match on TV.
II. Rewrite each of the following sentence, using the word given, keeping its meaning unchanged .(5 points)
1. We won’t hold the festival. It costs too much money IF
®.......................................................................................................
2.Nam likes playing football more than going to the zoo. PREFER
®................................................................................................................................................
3.The tortoise was running. The hare was sleeping. WHILE
®................................................................................................................................................
4. Can the little boy look after himself when his mother is away? TAKE
®.......................................................................................................
5. It is not necessary for you to finish your assignment this evening. NEED
®.......................................................................................................
III. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one. (5 points)
1. Our grandparents visited Ha Long Bay last summer.
=> Our grandparents paid.............................................................................................................
2. It took Mr. Hoang half an hour to walk to work yesterday.
=> Mr. Hoang spent........................................................................................................................
3. Finding an apartment in a big city is not easy.
=> It is …………………………………....………………….......................................................
4. Because of the bad weather, we couldn’t go to the beach.
=> The bad weather prevented..…………………………............................................................
5. Our summer vacation lasts two months.
=> We have a ……………………………………………..........................................................
IV. Write a passage of about 120- 150 words on the following topic “Why should we learn English?”
(10 points)
ĐÁP ÁN
PART A: PHONETICS:
I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others:
(3 points)
1. D 2. D 3. A
II. Choose the words that has a stressed syllable from the others: (2points)
1. D 2. D
PART B: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR:
I. Choose the correct answer A, B, C or D to complete each of the following sentences: (24points)
1. B 2. B 3. C 4. A 5. D
6. C 7. A 8. A 9. C 10. D
11. D 12. C 13. C 14. A 15. C
16. B 17. C 18. D 19. A 20. B
21. B 22. A 23. B. 24. C
II. Complete the dialogue with the correct tense of the verbs in brackets. (10points)
1. meeting 2. will make 3. to finish/talking 4. left 5. are…thinking
6. looks 7. not to tell 8. leaving/ found
III. Use the words given in brackets to form a word that fits in the space. (10points)
1. UNSUCCESSFUL 2. CHILHOOD 3. BETTER 4. INFORMATIVE
5. UNPOLLUTED 6. FLIGHTS 7. COOKER 8. HOUSEHOLD
9. EASILY 10. PRONUNCIATION
IV. Fill in each gap in the following sentences with a suitable preposition. (5points)
1. out 2. in 3. into 4. at 5. with 6.up
PART C: READING:
I. Read the passage and fill the suitable word in the blank: (5points)
1. was 2. about 3. has 4. best 5. life
II. Read the following passage and choose the best answer A, B, C or D to fill the blanks
(5 points).
1. A 3. B 5. D 7. A 9. A
2. B 4. C 6. B 8. D 10.B
III. Read the following passage and choose the correct answer for each question below. (5points)
1. C 2. B 3. C 4. A 5. B
PART D: WRITING:
I. Find a mistake and correct it (6.0points)
1. go => went
2. five – minutes => five – minute
3. to wake => wake
4. walking => walk
5. to watch => watching
II. Rewrite each of the following sentence, using the word given, keeping its meaning unchanged .(5.0 points)
1. ® We won’t hold the festival if it costs too much money.
2. ® Nam prefers playing football to going to the zoo.
3. ® The tortoise was running while the hare was sleeping.
4. ® Can the little boy take care of himself when his mother is away?
5. ® You don’t need to finish your assignment this evening.
III. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one. (5 points)
1. Our grandparents paid a visit to Ha Long Bay last summer.
2. Mr. Hoang spent half an hour walking to work yesterday.
3. It is not easy to find an apartment in a big city.
4. The bad weather prevented us from going to the beach.
5. We have a two-month vacation.
IV. Write a passage of about 120- 150 words on the following topic “Why should we learn English?” (10 points)
Marking criteria:
- Bài viết có bố cục 3 phần, nội dung tốt: 4.0 points
- Tính chính xác về ngữ pháp và từ vựng, chính tả: 4.0 points
- Tính liên kết giữa câu, đoạn: 2.0 point
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Trên đây là toàn bộ nội dung Đề thi HSG cấp trường môn Tiếng Anh 7 năm 2020 có đáp án trường THCS Định Hòa. Để xem toàn bộ nội dung các em chọn chức năng xem online hoặc đăng nhập vào trang hoc247.net để tải tài liệu về máy tính.
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