Bộ 5 đề thi chọn HSG môn Tiếng Anh 12 có đáp án năm 2021 Trường THPT Lê Lai

TRƯỜNG THPT LÊ LAI

ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI NĂM HỌC 2020-2021 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 12 (Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề)

Part I- Choose the word A, B, C or D whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others in the group from questions 1 to 5.

1. A.  chin            B. chorus         C. aching           D. orchestra

2. A. dinosaur       B. crocodile      C. signature      D. rise

3. A. thus          B. thumb         C. suppose         D. supply

4. A. penalty      B. scenic       C. epidemic      D. level

5. A. kissed        B. washed         C. practiced     D. advertised

Part II- Choose the word A, B, C or D whose main stress is different from the others in the group from questions 6 to 10.

6. A. responsible         B. communicate          C. technology               D. electronic

7. A. difficulty        B. anxiety         C. enormously         D. psychiatry

8. A. general       B. understand           C. popular            D. telephone

9. A. traditional       B. residential      C. expectation         D. competition

10. A. academy     B. environment    C. dictionary            D. photography

Part III- Choose the answer A, B, C or D which best fits the space in each of the following sentences from questions 11 to 25.

11. I have _________ information about her situation to tell you.

A. too few

B. so many

C. so little

D. too little

12. America, as well as Japan, England, and Germany__________.

A. are developed countries

B. are developing countries

C. is a developed country

D. is developing countries 

13. It's no good _________ your father about your failure.

A. to tell

B. tell

C. telling

D. told

14. Since they aren't answering the phone, they __________ .

A. need have left

B. can’t have left

C. must have left    

D. should have left

15. I'd sooner they _________ deliver the new furniture tomorrow.

A. mustn't

B. shouldn't

C. didn't

D. wouldn't

16. If we __________the first bus , we wouldn't be late now.

A. will take

B. took

C. had taken

D. take

17. John:  “Do you think that we should use public transportation to protect our environment?”     

      Laura:  “___________ ”.

A. Yes, it's an absurd idea

B. There's no doubt about it

C. Of course not. You bet

D. Well, that's very surprising

18. A few animals sometimes fool their enemies ___________ to be dead.

A. to be appearing

B. to appear

C. by appearing

D. have been appearing

19. _________ to his brother's graduation party, George wouldn't have met Mary

A. Had he not gone

B. Hadn't he gone

C. If he has not gone

D. If he shouldn't have gone

20. Nowadays children would prefer history _________ in more practical ways.

A. to be taught

B. teach

C. be taught

D. to be teaching

21. I thought you said she was going away the next Sunday,_________ ?

A. wasn't she

B. didn't you

C. didn't I

D. wasn't it

22. We bought some _________ glasses.

A. German lovely old

B. German old lovely

C. lovely old German

D. old lovely German

23. ________appears considerably larger at the horizon than it does overhead is merely an optical illusion.

A. The Moon

B. The Moon which

C. When the Moon

D. That the Moon

24. Jane: “It's going to rain”.            

      Mary:  “___________”.

A. I hope not so

B. I don't hope either

C. I don't hope so

D. I hope not

25. The man __________ to having stolen the car.

A. refused

B. admitted

C. decided

D. apologized

Part IV- Give the correct form of the word in bracket from 26 to 35 to complete the following passage.

_26__ (work) at Shepparton Carpets Ltd voted today to continue with their industrial action. Union leader Elaine Watkins issued a statement saying: “Although we do not envisage an all-out strike at this stage, everyone at the plant will continue to refuse to work __27__ (time) until this dispute is settled. We urge __28__ (manage) to reconsider their proposals.” The industrial action, which began three weeks ago, has affected __29__ (produce) at the factory. Joe Turner. Managing Director of Shepparton Carpets has, however, refused to bow to union demands. “If Shepparton Carpets wants to survive, it has to become more __30__ (compete),” he said. “It’s my responsibility as an __31__ (employ) of over 500 __32__ (employ) to ensure this company continues to make a profit. __33__ (period), we have to make changes to improve efficiency. If we don’t, we’ll all be out of a job. It may be __34__ (please), but it is essential. Some of the working practices at the factory are, frankly, antiquated and totally __35__ (apply) to the modern world. I just wish the unions would work with me on this rather than fighting me every step of the way.”

Part V- For questions 36 -50, read the text below and look carefully at each line. Some of the lines are correct, and some have a word which should not be there. If a line is correct, put a tick ( P) by the number. If a line has a word which should not be there, write the word out. There are three examples at the beginning.

Hibernation syndrome I don’t know about you, but come to the winter months, my body seems to require more sleep than in summer and I’m definitely at my happiest when I’m being curled up in a hedgehog-style ball. “Wanting to sleep more in the winter is not natural and nothing to worry about, unless you are sleeping for more than 12 hours a day,” says sleep expert Dr James B Maas. The reason for we feel drowsy has as much to do with our biochemistry as it does so with wanting to sniggle up line a couch potato indoors. “it’s all to do with  melatonin,” explains Dr Maas, “a hormone with which is secreted by the brain’s pineal gland in response to darkness”. They may feel more sleepy, but as many people find getting to sleep in winter is a problem. It’s hardly surprising. When lounging around indoors drinking mugs of warming up coffee and snacking on chocolate bars doesn’t always prepare you for a good night’s rest. If you do have trouble nodding off. Deepak Chopra has tip. “Try a soothing mix of the sweet and sour essential oils, such as orange, geranium and clove are mixed with almond oil and rubbed it on to your forehead just before bedtime.”

0: ………to……… 0: ………P……… 0: ……  being….. 36:…………………… 37:…………………… 38:…………………… 39:…………………… 40: ………………….. 41:…………………… 42:…………………… 43:…………………… 44:…………………… 45:…………………… 46:…………………… 47:…………………… 48:…………………… 49:…………………… 50:……………………

Part VI- Read the passage carefully then choose the best answer A, B, C or D for each question from 51 to 60.

Bees, classified into over 10,000 species, are insects found in almost every part of the world except the northernmost and southernmost regions. One commonly known species is the honeybee, the only bee that produces honey and wax. Humans use the wax in making candles, lipsticks, and other products, and they use the honey as a substance that people eat to maintain life and growth. While gathering the nectar and pollen with which they make honey, bees are concurrently helping to fertilize the flowers on which they land. Many fruits and vegetables would not survive if bees did not carry the pollen from blossom to blossom.

Bees live in a structured environment and social structure within a hive, which is a nest with storage space for the honey. The different types of bees each perform a distinct function. The worker bee carries nectar to hive in a special stomach called a honey stomach. Other workers make beewax and shape it into a honeycomb, which is a waterproof mass of six-sided compartments, or cells. The queen lays eggs in completed cells. As the workers build more cells, the queen lays more eggs.

All workers, like the queen, are female, but the workers are smaller than the queen. The male honeybees are called drones; they do no work and can not sting. They are developed from unfertilized eggs, and their only job is to impregnate a queen. The queen must be fertilized in order to lay more worker eggs. During the season when less honey is available and the drone is of no further use, the workers block the drones from eating the honey so that they will starve to death.

51. Which of the following is the best title for the reading?

A.  Many Species of Bees

B. The Useless Drone

C. The Honeybee - Its characteristics and Usefulness

D. Making Honey

52. What is the closest meaning of the word "concurrently"?

A. independently

B. hardly

C. variously

D. simultaneously

53. According to the passage, the drone__________.

A.  can be male or female

B. mates with the queen and has no other purpose

C. comes from eggs fertilized by other drones

D. All are correct

54. According to the passage, people use honey __________.

A. to make candles

B. as foods

C. as cosmetics

D. all are correct

55. The author implies that __________.

A.  bees are unnecessary in the food chain

B. drones are completely dispensable

C. the queen can be a worker

D. drones are never females.

56. In what way does the reading imply that bees are useful in nature?

A. They pollinate fruit and vegetable plants

B. They make marvelous creation from max

C. They skill the dangerous drones

D. They create storage spaces

57. The passage implies that bees can be found in each of the following parts of the world except ______.

A. Africa

B. China

C. Europe

D. Antarctica

58. What is the closest meaning of the word " distinct "?

A. seclude

B. unique

C. dependent

D. complex

59. All of the following are characteristics of a honeycomb except__________.

A.  it contains hexagonal sections

B. it is made of honey

C. it is made of wax

D. it is impermeable

60. It can be inferred from the reading that bee wax is _________.

A. absorbent

B. complex in structure

C. easily bent and shaped

D. poisonous

.Part VII- Read the following passage and choose the most suitable answer A, B, C, or D to complete each of the blanks from 61 to 70.

In the western customs (61) _____ hands is the customary form of greeting, but in China a nod of the head or (62) _____ bow is sufficient. Hugging and kissing when greeting are uncommon. Business cards are often (63) _____ and yours should be printed in your own language and in Chinese. Also, it is more respectful to present your card or a gift or any other article using (64) _____ hands. The Chinese are (65) _____ applauders. You may be greeted with group clapping, even by small children. When a person is applauded in this practice it is the custom for that person to return the applause or a "thank you." When walking in public places, direct eye (66) _____ or staring is uncommon in the large cities, especially in those areas accustomed to foreign visitors. (67) _____, in smaller communities, visitors may be the subject of much curiosity and therefore you may notice some stares. (68) _____ speaking, the Chinese are not a touch-oriented society, especially true for visitors. So, avoid (69) _____ or any prolonged form of body contact. Public displays of affection are very rare. On the other hand, you may note people of the same sex walking hand-in-hand, which is simply a gesture of friendship. Do not worry about a bit of pushing and shoving in stores or when groups board public buses or trains. In this case, (70) _____ are either offered or expected. The Chinese will stand much closer than Westerners.

61.  A. taking                                    B. shaking                   C. grasping                  D. hugging

62. A. small                                      B. bit                           C. slight                       D. light

63. A. exchanged                             B. changed                  C. transferred              D. converted

64. A. pair                                        B. couple                     C. double                     D. both

65. A. enthusiast                              B. enthusiastic             C. enthusiasm             D. enthusiastically

66. A. contact                                   B. look                        C. stare                        D. watch

67. A. Moreover                              B. Furthermore           C. However                 D. Whatever

68. A. Generally                              B. Successfully           C. Fortunately             D. Expectedly

69. A. touch                                     B. to touch                  C. touched                   D. touching

70. A. contacts                                 B. apologies                C. gestures                  D. saying goodbye

PART VIII-  Read the passage then choose the best sentences A-K to fill in each gap from 71 to 80. There is one extra sentence which you do not need to use.

BITTER WATER HITS THE BIG TIME

Chocolate, which has its origins in South America, is now part of a multi-million pound worldwide business.

At Easter, British people spend over $230 million on chocolate. A massive eight per cent of all chocolate is bought at this time.

(71)____. Although the large scale industrial production of chocolate began in the last century, the cacao plant was first cultivated by the Aztec, Toltec and Mayan civilizations of Central America over three thousand years ago.

The cacao tree is an evergreen, tropical plant which is found in Africa, South and Central America, the West Indies and South East Asia. The fruit of this tree is melon-sized and contains 20-40 seeds. (72)____. In English – speaking countries, they are called cocoa beans. This is a misspelling from the 17^th century when they were also called cacoa and cocao beans.

The Aztecs used cocoa beans as money. (73)____. This is from the world in the Aztec language, Nahuatl, meaning “bitter water”. (74)____. The Spanish found the drink more palatable mixed with cinnamon and sugar, but the recipe did not spread to the rest of Europe for another century. In the late 17^th century, chocolate houses were set up in Europe’s capital cities, where people gathered to drink chocolate. (75)____. But in 1826, CJ van Houten of the Netherlands invented chocolate powder. (76)____. The age of the chocolate bar as we know it began in 1847 when a Bristol company, Fry and Sons, combined cocoa butter with pure chocolate liquor and sugar to produce a solid block that you could eat. (77)____

At the turn of the century, the British chocolate market was dominated by French companies. In 1879 the English company Cadbury even named their Birmingham factory Bournville (ville is the French word for town) in the hope that a little glamour would rub off. But then came Cadbury’s famous Dairy Milk bar which began life as a Dairymaid in 1905. (78)____.

It seems that, for the time being at least, chocolate intake in Britain has established at about four bars each week. (79)____. The latest market trick is the so-called “extended line”. This is when the humble chocolate bar becomes an ice cream, a soft drink or a dessert, to tempt chocoholics who have grown tired of conventional snacks.

At the other end of the production process, cacao farmers are still feeling the effects of a crash in cocoa bean prices at the end of 1980s. (80)____. Perhaps you could spare a thought for them as you munch your next chocolate bars.

A.	This was made by extracting most of the cocoa butter from the crushed beans.
B.	A Swiss company then introduced milk solids to the process which gave us milk chocolate.
C.	They also used them to make a drink called xocoatl.
D.	Until the last century, the chocolate drink was made from solid blocks of chocolate which had to be melted down in hot water.
E.	When dried they become cacao beans, which can be used to make chocolate.
F.	Clever advertising which associated it with the healthy qualities of milk from the English countryside quickly established the bar as a rival to the more decadent French brands.
G.	British manufacturers include up to 5 per cent vegetable fat in their chocolate, something forbidden elsewhere.
H.	As most cacao farmers operate on a very small scale, many were forced out of business.
I.	This has forced manufacturers to look for new ways to attract customers.
J.	In Aztec times the chocolate drink was flavored with spices and used on ceremonial occasions and for welcoming visitors.
K.	Only at Christmas do people eat more of the cocoa-based foodstuffs.

Part IX- Rewrite each of the following sentences  from 81 to 85 so that its meaning stays the same as the original sentence.

81. The fire was brought under control thanks to the night watchman.

à  If it ………………………………………………………………………

82. I haven’t been to the cinema for two months.

à  The last time …………………………………………………………….

83. Nobody had invited Jean to the party, which annoyed her.

à  As she ……………………………………………………………………

84. "Don't break my doll, John, or I will scream," said Mary.

 à Mary threatened........................................................................................

85. Alice and Charles did not decide to move to a bigger house until after the birth of their second child.

à  Only when Alice …………………………………………………………………

Part X- Complete the second sentence from 86 to 90 so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word given. You mustn’t change the given words in any way.

86. Entry is free if you are under 18 years old. (WITHOUT)

…………………………………………………………………………………

87. In my opinion, classical music is far superior than jazz. (RATHER)

…………………………………………………………………..……………..

88. I suppose it's possible that she didn't understand my message. (MAY)

………………………………………………………………………………….

89. My grandfather was sixty when he learnt to swim. (AGE)

………………………………………………………………………………….

90. The result of the match was a deep disappointment to the fan. (DEEPLY)

…………………………………………………………………………………

Part XI-  Write an essay of about 200 words, giving your opinions on the following problem:

The world is experiencing a dramatic increase in population. This is causing problems not only for    

poor, developing countries, but also for industrialized and developed nations. Describe the problems

that overpopulation causes and suggest possible solutions to stop the world population growth.

 

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ANSWER KEYS

Tổng: 20 điểm, cụ thể như sau:

PART I – (0.5 điểm): 0,1 điểm / câu

1. A

2. C

3. B

4. B

5. D

PART II- (0.5 điểm) : 0,1 điểm / câu

6. D

7. A

8. B

9. A

10. C

PART III - (3.0 điểm) : 0,2 điểm / câu

11. D	12. C	13. C	14. C	15. C
16. C	17. B	18. C	19. A	20. A
21. B	22. C	23. D	24. D	25. B

PART IV- (2.0 điểm) : 0,2 điểm / câu

26. workers	27. overtime	28.   management                  managers	29.   productivity         Production	30. competitive
31. employer	32. employees	33. periodically	34. unpleasant	35. inapplicable

PART V- (3.0 điểm) : 0,2 điểm / câu

36. NOT	37. P	38. FOR	39. SO	40. P
41. WITH	42. P	43. AS	44. WHEN	45. UP
46. P	47. P	48. THE	49. ARE	50. IT

PART VI - (2.0 điểm) : 0,2 điểm / câu

51. C	52. D	53. B	54. B	55. D
56. A	57. D	58. B	59. B	60. C

PART VII - (2.0 điểm) : 0,2 điểm / câu

61. B	62. C	63. A	64. D	65. B
66. A	67. C	68. A	69. D	70. B

PART VIII - (1.0 điểm) : 0,1 điểm / câu

71. K	72. E	73. C	74. J	75. D
76. A	77. B	78. F	79. I	80. H

PART IX- (1.5 điểm) : 0,3 điểm / câu

81. If it had not been for the night watchman, the fire would not have been brought under control.

82. The last time I went to the cinema was two months ago.

83. As she had not been invited to the party, Jean was annoyed.

84. Mary threatened to scream if John broke her doll.

85. Only when Alice and Charles had ( had) their second child, did they decide to move to a bigger house.

Only when  Alice had given/gave birth to the second child, did …………………………….

PART X- (1.5 điểm) : 0,3 điểm / câu

86. You can enter / go in without (paying) money if you are under 18 years old.

87. I’d rather listen to classical music than (listen to) jazz.

88.  She may not have understood my message.

89. My grandfather learnt to swim at the age of sixty.

90. The fan was DEEPLY disappointed by/with the result of the match.

PART XI-  (3.0 điểm) - cụ thể như sau:

- Nội dung (content): 1.5 điểm

- Từ vựng (vocabulary): 0.5 điểm

- Ngữ pháp (grammar): 0.5 điểm

- Tính mạch lạc và trôi chảy (coherence and cohesion) + độ dài (length): 0.5 điểm

- Sai dưới 4 lỗi không trừ điểm.

- Sai trên 4 lỗi, hoặc sai những lỗi nặng trừ 0.5 điểm/1 lỗi.

----------------------------

A. PHONETICS (1.0 point)

Question I. Choose one word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others by circling A, B, C or D. (0.5 p)

1. A. elaborate B. eliminate C. election D. equal

2. A. hasty B. tasty C. wastage D. nasty

3. A. Hand B. Bank C. Sand D. Band

4. A. beloved B. naked C. ploughed D. wicked

5. A. itinerant B. id C. idolize D. fungi

Question II. Choose one word whose stress pattern is different from the others by circling A, B, C or D. (0.5 p)

1. A. investigate B. aborigine C. convenient D. supervisor

2. A. determine B. diversity C. occupation D. miraculous

3. A. suitable B. eliminate C. accent D. cultural

4. A. arithmetic B. composition C. interpreter D. attributable

5. A. hotel B. preview C. annex D. annul

B. GRAMMAR AND STRUCTURES (7 points)

Question I: Choose the best word from A, B, C, and D that fits each blank. (2p)

1. Judy is _______ smarter than the others that she ought to be in a higher grade at school.

A. much B. so much C. too much D. such a

2. They’d never realized ______ kind person their neighbor was until they asked for her help.

A. so B. such a C. how D. what a

3. “I asked Ned which team I should try out for.” – “But he doesn’t know a tennis ball _____ a basketball.”

A. than B. out of C. for D. from

4. “Who can I tell about the new project?” – “Nobody, _______ your family must know about it.”

A. not even B. not only C. much more D. rather than

5. The sales practices of this company will have to be totally _______ if we are to save it.

A. overthrown B. overhauled C. overrun D. overwhelmed

6. Sue admitted that she could not concentrate on her work _______ due to this irritating noise.

A. in all B. the bit least C. in the least D. at the least

7. Sammy was so nervous the night before the exam that he couldn’t ________ a wink of sleep.

A. do B. get C. make D. take

8. A very cheerful and energetic woman, Joyce is ______ when there’s work to be done.

A. first always to sign up B. to sign up always first C. always first to sign up D. first to sign up always

9. We were ________ looking for a manager when the impeccable candidate showed up.

A. in view of B. in the hope of C. with a view towards D. in the process of

10. With a(n) _____ to getting high scores in the final exam, Scott studied as hard as he could.

A. sight B. eye C. vision D. nose

11. If I were you, I’d _____ everything he says with a pinch of salt.

A. make B. admit C. take D. accept

12. You ought to _______ the responsibility to keep everyone in the company informed about the latest news from the top manager.

A. burden B. shoulder C. take with D. hand

13. _________ I’ve told him not to go out with those people, but he wouldn’t listen. Just let him face the music now!

A. Many a time B. Many the time C. Quite a time D. or a time

14. Rumors going round, Mr. Long is ________ Head of the Department.

A. in the proximity of B. in line for C. in adjacent to D. in view of

15. “Why are you so sad?” – “ __________ person I called is busy tonight.”

A. Each and everyone B. Every one C. Every single D. Out of all the

16. Susan got a feeling that Tom liked her, but she soon realized that was just _______.

A. pinky thoughts B. wishful thinking C. blessing thoughts D. imaginary thinking

17. There are ______ words in English having more than one meaning. Pay close attention to this fact.

A. a large many B. quite many C. quite a lot D. a great many

18. If a whale _______ itself, it swims onto the shore and cannot get back in the water.

A. beaches B. seats C. sticks D. shores

19. Your request for greater financial support has to be _______ the claim from other departments.

A. banked on B. broken through C. balanced against D. built up

20. Recently, the company has received a _________ of complaints from the customers about poor products.

A. pack B. barrage C. pool D. bank

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ĐÁP ÁN

A. PHONETICS (1 point)

Question I: Pronunciation(0.5p)

1. D 2. D 3. B 4. C 5. B

Question II: Stress (0.5p)

1. D 2. C 3. B 4. B 5. B

B. GRAMMAR AND STRUCTURES (7points)

Question I: Choose the best answer: (2p)

1. B 2. D 3. D 4. A 5. B 6. C 7. B 8. C 9. D 10. B

11. C 12. B 13. A 14. B 15. C 16. B 17. D 18. A 19. C 20. B

Question II: Give the correct tense and form of the verb (1p)

1. Did, hasn’t been upgraded 6. Will have been waiting

2. Be appointed 7. Be withdrawn

3. Campaigning to do

4. measuring

5. eating, kick

Question III: Supply the correct form of the word in brackets (1pt)

1. Management 2. incalculable 3. inconvenient

4. uselessness 5. affected 6. prescription 7. suspicious

8. admitted 9. domesticity 10. independence.

Question IV: Your answers:

Mistake Correction

1……impact in……………………………….. ………………impact on……………

2………went are………….. ………gone are………

3…………cannot be always……………… ……………cannot always be…………….

4……………have improved………… ………………has improved………..

5…………truth………… ………true………………….

6. are opened are open

7. itself themselves

8. visual visually

9. for the fact for fact

10. so long as as long as

Question V: Put one suitable preposition or particle in the blank of each sentence. (1p)

1. out 2. to 3. to 4. away 5. With/ of

6. out 7. off 8. for 9. back

C. READING (6 points)

Question I: Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. (2p)

1. have 6. taken

2. is 7. researcher

3. between 8. up

4. close 9. protected

5. Whaling 10. near

Question II: Read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each space. (2p)

1. A 2. C 3. D

4. C 5. A 6. B 7. B 8. D

9. A 10. B

Question III: Read the text below and choose the best answer (A, B, C, or D). (2p)

1. A 2. D 3. C 4. D 5. D 6. B 7. C 8. A 9. B 10. A

D. WRITING (5 points)

Question I: Rewrite these sentences so that the new one has a similar meaning as the sentence preceded. (2p)

1. Andrew suggested going for a walk in the park./ Andrew suggested that they should go for a walk in the park

2. He broke the world record at/ on his second attempt.

3. Neither she nor I have been there before./ Neither have she and I been there before.

4. I was particularly impressed by her excellent command of English.

5. At no time was the result of the match in doubt.

6. This will be the first time the orchestra has played/ performed outside London.

7. Although Bill took a taxi, he arrived late at the meeting.

8. The house looks better now that it has been repainted.

9. The concert didn’t come up to our expectations.

10. Malaria is known to be caused by mosquitoes.

Question II: Do not change the given word, use it to write each of the following sentences so that each has a similar meaning as the original one. (2p)

1. Returning from the battle, they didn’t have two pennies/ halfpennies/ beans to rub together.

2. I count myself very lucky to have escaped from that crash.

3. Our boss is intent on not giving us the pay rise.

4. I’d thought about it about some time and decided to give it a go.

5. It was disgraceful that Barbara had turned her back on one of her oldest and closest friends.

6. I give you my word of honour that I will return the money to you.

7. Bruce likened the situation at work to a family argument.

8. When she sold the jewelry at such a low price, she was taken for a ride.

9. They arrived at their destination safe and sound.

10. At this moment, I am preoccupied with my university thesis.

Question III: Composition writing (2 pts)

The mark given to this part is based on the following criteria: Content: (35% of total mark)

a. Providing all main ideas and details as required

b. Communicating intentions sufficiently and effectively

1. Organization & Presentation: (30% of total mark)

a. Ideas are well organized and presented with coherence, cohesion, and clarity

b. The composition is well-structured

2. Language: (30% of total mark)

a. Demonstration of a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students

b. Good use and control of grammatical structures

3. Punctuation, and spelling and handwriting (5% of total mark)

a. Good punctuation and no spelling mistakes

b. Legible handwriting

PART A: PHONETICS (5pts)

Question I: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest in the same line. (2pts)

1. A. famous B. nervous C. favourite D. mountain

2. A. through B. enough C. rough D. tough

Question II: Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three words in each question. (3pts)

3. A. passion B. encourage C. occasion D. depend

4. A. participant B. publicity C. competitive D. Individual

5. A. limitation B. documentary C. government D. interactive

PART B: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (45pts)

Question I: Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence. (15pts)

6. ..............1915 that the cinema really became an industry.

A. It is not until B. It was not until C. Not until D. Until in

7. I really appreciate________ to help me, but I am sure I'll be able to manage by myself.

A. you to offer B. you are offering C. your offering D. that you offer

8. My friend's uncle has been________ MP ( Member of Parliament) for five years.

A. a B. an C. the D. Ø

9. - Daisy: "What a lovely house you have!" - Mary: "............."

A. Lovely, I think so B. No problem

C. Of course not, it's not costly D. Thank you. Hope you will drop in

10. My new glasses cost me _______ the last pair I bought last month.

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ĐÁP ÁN

PART A: PHONETICS (5 điểm – Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)

1.D 2.A 3.A 4.D 5.C

PART B: VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR (45 điểm - Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)

Question I.

6.B 7.C 8.B 9.D 10.B

11.C 12.A 13.C 14.A 15.B

16.A 17.C 18.C 19.B 20.D

Question II.

	WORD	LINE		WORD	LINE
21.	Few	3	26.	much	8
22.	Who	3	27.	any	9
23.	Would	5	28.	will	10
24.	For	6	29.	the	10
25.	It	7	30.	too	11

Question III

31.	will have been killed	36.	having been treated
32.	being sent	37.	had our teacher entered
33.	was reported	38.	has come
34.	to have been caused	39	must be looking
35.	Invited	40.	hadn’t left

Question IV

41.endangered	42.similarities	43.variety	44. applicants	45.disobedient
46.destroyer	47.households	48. powerlessness	49. outlived	50. demoralised/ demoralized

PART C: READING COMPREHENSION (30 pts)

(Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)

Question I

51.D	52.B	53.C	54.D	55.D
56.D	57.C	58.A	59.B	60.C

Question II.

61. danger	62. extinct	63. effort	64. parts	65. alive
66. where	67. land	68. than	69. pollute	70. left

Question III.

71. C	72. A	73. A	74. D	75. A
76. C	77. C	78. B	79. C	80. B

PART D: WRITING (20 pts)

Question I (5 điểm- Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)

81.	- Had it not been for the heavy rain, we could have had our picnic. - Had it not rained heavily, we could have had our picnic.
82.	The smoking of cigarettes is no longer as popular as it used to be.
83.	The moment I decided to get up to dance, the band decided to stop playing.
84.	He is the most likely person to succeed in solving the problem
85.	His reaction came as a shock to us all

Question II (5 điểm- Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)

86.	I left my last job because I didn’t really see eye to eye with my manager.
87.	All the witnesses said that I was to blame for the accident.
88.	He refused to accept my apologies, which was childish of him
89.	What the politician was saying fell on deaf ears last night.
90.	She found it too difficult to come to the class on time.

Question III. Essay: (10 điểm)

Marking criteria:

• Task completion (4 điểm): Tuỳ theo khả năng hoàn thành về bố cục và những yêu cầu nội dung cho mỗi phần ( mở bài,thân bài,kết luận) giám khảo có thể chấm từ 1-4 điểm.
• Grammatical accuracy and spelling 3 điểm: bài viết không có lỗi chính tả và từ ba lỗi ngữ pháp trở xuống được cho 3 điểm tối đa. Cứ 4 lỗi chính tả hoặc ngữ pháp trừ 1 điểm (Trừ không quá 3 điểm).
• Coherence and cohesion (tính mạch lạc và sự liên kết câu, đoạn) – 3 điểm: Tùy mức độ mạch lạc, liên kết câu, liên kết đoạn của bài viết, giám khảo có thể chấm 1-3 điểm.

B- HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM

• Bài thi chấm theo thang điểm: 20
• Điểm bài thi làm tròn đến 0,25

A. LISTENING:

Hướng dẫn làm bài Nghe:

Bài Nghe gồm có 04 phần, mỗi phần thí sinh được nghe 02 lần.

Mở đầu và kết thúc phần nghe có tín hiệu nhạc.

Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) có trong bài.

I. Listen to five short conversations and choose the correct answer to each question (5.0 points).

1. How will they book their flights?

A. on the Internet B. at the travel agent C. on the phone

2. What has the daughter forgotten to bring on holiday?

A. toothpaste B. hairbrush C. shampoo

3. What will the man and the woman do on Sunday?

A. do the housework B.go on a picnic C. watch DVDs and read newspapers

4. Which blouse does the girl decide to buy?

A. a collar, long sleeves B. no collar, short sleeves C. a collar, without sleeves

5. When is the girl having a party?

A. 15th B.14th C. 13th

II. Listen to the recording and choose the correct answer to each question (6.0 points).

1. What made Holly start writing when she was young?

A. keeping a diary each day

B. wanting to remember her dreams

C. completing a homework project

2. Holly tells the story about the starfish to show ______.

A. how to enjoy wildlife without hurting it

B. how to keep wild animals at home

C. how to find the most interesting animals in the wild`

3. What does Holly think is the most interesting thing about nature?

A. that animals live so close to us.

B. that nature is so beautiful.

C. that there is so much to learn.

4. What does Holly say about trees?

A. They have lots of uses.

B. They are often unnoticed.

C. They are everywhere.

5. Holly hopes that her young readers ______.

A. go on to study nature at college or university

B. improve their genneral reading skills

C. learn how to discover nature for themselves

6. What kind of books does Holly enjoy reading in her spare time?

A. classic novels B. cookery books C. field guides

III. Listen to the recording and fill in each blank with NO MORE THAN 3 WORDS/ NUMBERS (5.0 points).

SUNNINGTON SPORTS CAMP Choice of afternoon activity: Sign list outside the (12) ______ Clothes: Wear track suit, but also bring shorts and a T-shirt (13) ______ sports shoes Food: Lunch served in canteen every half-hour bewteen 12.15 and (14) ______ Snack bar sells drinks, chocolate and biscuits Certificate: Marks given for: - Attitude: (15) ______ and team-work - Performance: strength, speeds and skill - Level six certificate to anyone who gets (16) ______ or more.

IV. Listen to the recording and state whether the statements are true (T) or false (F) (4.0 points).

	T	F
17. Maria would like to travel a lot as part of her job.
18. Maria is confident she will be able to work for an airline.
19. Rolf intends to do a job connected with his degree.
20. Maria and Rolf agree it is important to have a good salary

B. GRAMMAR – VOCABULARY – LANGUAGE FUNCTIONS

I. Choose the word, phrase or expression which best completes each sentence (8.0 points).

21. The answer Henry gave was so confusing that his lecturer could hardly make ______ of it at all.

A. sense B. meaning C. interpretation D. intelligibility

22. Considered America’s first great architect, ______.

A. many of the buildings at Harvard University were designed by Henry Hobson Richardson

B. it was Henry Hobson Richardson who designed many of the buildings at Harvard University

C. Henry Hobson Richardson designed many of the buildings at Harvard University

D. Harvard University has many buildings that were designed by Henry Hobson Richardson.

23. “Jack, can you help me push the piano to the corner of the hall to ______ our party?” said the teacher

A. give place to

B.make place for

C. take room for

D. make room for

24. The surrealistic movement in art in the 1920s and 1930s placed ______ is pictured in the unconscious and often incorporated dreamlike images.

A. to emphasize it B. an emphasis on what

C. an emphasis on it D. emphasize what

25. “Frankly, Ms. Adamson works ______ that her figures never need ______,” said the General Manager.

A. such efficiently that/ to check B. so efficient that/ checking

C. such an efficient that/ to be checked D. so efficiently that/ to be checked

26. It is highly recommended that language learners in general and English learners ______ should learn the language in the native community so as to master it.

A. in particular B.on the whole C. in short D. on the other hand

27. Lama:“What’s your greatest phobia, Carolina?

Carolina: “______”

A. I’m afraid not. B. I haven’t made up my mind.

C. What an absurd idea! D. Worms, definitely.

28. Waiter:“How would you like your steak, sir?

Man: “______”

A. Not too bad B.Very good C. Rare, please D. Yes, of course I like it

II. Give the correct form of the words in brackets (5.0 points).

29. The (PREDICT) ______ weather in the mountains can make climbing extremely hazardous.

30. Both sides have shown a distinct lack of (ENTHUSIAST) ______ for discussion.

31. The woman tried to break into a security file for which she was not (AUTHORITY) ______.

32. Life (EXPECT) ______ for both men and women has improved greatly in the past 50 years.

33. Julie Johnson and Mark Thomas, aged 19 and 20 (RESPECT) ______, are taking part in the competition.

III. Choose the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs correcting (3.0 points).

34. The American architect Frank Lloyd developed a theory of architecture stressed the needs of the people who used it. A B C D

35. Children subjected to violence, exploration, abuse, and neglect are in risk of death, poor physical and mental health, A B C

HIV/ AIDS infection, and educational problems. D

36. The works of early American woodcarvers had many artistic qualities, but these craftsmen probably did not think of them A B C D

as artists.

IV. Choose the word that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word in the following sentences (2.0 points).

37. Sarah stood there, looking at his boyfriend without showing any reaction when he told her the news.

A. caringly B. indifferently C.heartlessly D. impersonally

38. Martha decided to remain celibate and devoted her life to helping the homeless and orphans.

A. married B.separated C. single D. divorced

V. Choose the word that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word in the following sentences (2.0 points).

39. Written sources are considered absolutely indispensable for today’s history teaching.

A. unique B.unnecessary C. inexpensive D. affordable

40. The court concluded from the evidence that Mr. Smith was innocent and released him from prison.

A. guilty B.benevolent C. innovative D. naive

C. READING:

I. There are FIVE blanks in the passage below. From the phrases / sentences in the box, choose the most suitable for each blank. There is ONE EXTRA option that you DO NOT need to use (5.0 points)

A. by attracting as many as several hundred thousand international students to their countries B. so are not classed as international students C. as defined by the Immigration Control and Refugee Recognition Act D. in accordance to its own national education system E. preferred by international students are the United States, United Kingdom, Germany, France, Canada and Australia F. by sending hundreds of thousand students to study abroad

The definition of "international student" varies in each country (41) ______. In Australia, international students are defined as those studying onshore only with visa subclasses 570 to 575, excluding students on Australian-funded scholarships or sponsorship or students undertaking study while in possession of other temporary visas. New Zealand citizens do not require a visa to study in Australia, (42) ­______. In Japan, international students are defined as foreign nationals who study at any Japanese university, graduate school, junior college, college of technology, professional training college or university preparatory course on a “college student” visa, (43) ______.

According to the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) in their 2009 World Conference on Higher Education report, over 2.5 million students were studying outside their home country. UNESCO also predicted that the number of international students might rise to approximately 7 million by the year 2020. The main destinations (44) ______. Overall, the number of international students more than doubled to over 2 million between 2000 and 2007.

However, the sharpest percentage increases of international students have occurred in New Zealand, Korea, the Netherlands, Greece, Spain, Italy and Ireland. In recent years, some Asian and Middle East countries have started to attract more international students. These regions have entered the market with declared ambitions to become regional education centers (45) ______.

II. Choose the most suitable heading from the box for each paragraph below. There is ONE EXTRA heading that you DO NOT need to use (5.0 points).

HEADINGS A. The amount that American eat B. Americans even getting fatter C. Changing meal times everywhere D. Why Americans love fast food E. Unhealthy American schools F. How American schools deal with obesity among teenagers

46: ______

In the past year, the adult obesity rate rose in 48 of America’s 52 states. Despite the campaigns to make people aware of the dangers of over-eating, about 119 million, or 64% of US adults are either overweight or obese. Worryingly, this figure is predicted to rise to 73% by the end of this year. What does this mean for America? Already 300,000 deaths each year are caused by obesity (only smoke kills more people), and the annual cost to the country is around $100 billion.

47: ______

Many people blame for the fast food industry, along with sedentary life styles, for the worrying increase. The average American now consumes about three hamburgers and four portions of French fries every week. That’s 90 grams of fat and 2.250 calories (the average person needs about 2.000 calories a day). A recent survey found that every month 90% of America children eat at least one meal in fast food restaurant.

48: ______

Most Americans know that fast food isn’t good for them. It is high in calories, fat, salt and sugar. Yet fast-food restaurants are part of American life. After World War II, higher salaries and productivity, together with technological developments and increased consumerism, made fast food restaurants popular. It presented a modern lifestyle, and is still a popular place for teenagers to get together with friends. The food is cheap, and many say they love the taste. The advertising is often aimed at children, with offers of entertainment and free gifts.

49: ______

Another in fast food sales – not only in the USA, but all over the world – is our increasingly busy lifestyles. In the past, families ate a home-cooked meal together at dinner time. These days, meals can be eaten at any hour of the day, and people rely on easy, instant food – not always nutritious – that is available “24/7”. America invented the “TV dinner”, and it is something most people around the world now enjoy.

50: ______

Finding nutritious food is also difficult in schools, which is often have contracts with fast food supplies and drinks companies. Teenage boys in the US each drink an average of 868 cans of fizzy drinks per year. Exercise in school has become less important too. A recent report showed that half of all US teens aged 12 – 21 got only America’s problem – Europe is also getting faster. It is estimated that over one million children in the UK are obese and this number has trebled over the past 20 years.

III. Read the passage below and decide which option A, B, C or D best fits each space (10 points).

Childhood is the time when there are (51) ______ responsibilities to make life difficult. If a child has good parents, he is fed, looked after and loved, (52) ______ he may do. It is improbable that he will ever again in his life be given so much without having to do anything in return. In (53) ______, life is always presenting new things to the child - things that have lost their interest for older people because they are too well-known. A child finds pleasure playing in the rain, or in the snow. His first visit to the seaside is a marvellous adventure. (54) ______, a child has his pain. He is not so free to do as he wishes as he thinks older people are: he is continually told not to do things, or being punished (55) ______ what he has done wrong. His life is therefore not perfectly happy.

When a young man starts to (56) ______ his own living, he becomes free from the discipline of school and parents, but at the same time he is forced to accept responsibilities. He can no longer expect (57) ______ to pay for his food, his clothes and his room, but he has to work if he wants to live comfortably. If he spends most time playing about in a day he used to as a child, he will be hungry. And if he breaks the laws of society as he used to break the laws of his parents, he may go to prison. If, however, he works hard, keeps out of troubles and has good health, he can have the greatest happiness of seeing himself make steady (58) ______ in his job and of building up for himself his own position in society.

Old age has always been thought of as the worst age to be, but it is not necessary for the old to be unhappy. With old age (59) ______ wisdom and the ability to help others with advice wisely given. The old can have the joy of seeing their children making progress in life: they can watch their grandchildren growing up around them, and perhaps best of all, they can, if their life has been a useful one, feel the happiness of having come (60) ______ the battle of life safely and of having reached a time when they can lie back and rest, leaving others to continue the fight.

51. A. little B. few C. a little D. a few

52. A. whenever B. wherever C. whatever D. whosoever

53. A. short B. term C. reality D. addition

54. A. However B. But C. Therefore D. Moreover

55. A. because B. for C. at D. by

56. A. take B. have C. create D. earn

57. A. other B. another C. others D. someone

58.A. progress B. achievement C. improvements D. accomplishments

59. A. coming B. come C. came D. had come

60. A. out B. across C. through D. back

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ĐÁP ÁN

A. LISTENING:

I. (5.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer:

1. B 2. C 3. B 4. A 5. C

II. (6.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer:

6. A 7. A 8. C 9. B 10. C 11. C

III. (5.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer:

12. changing room 13. Two/ 2 pairs of

14. 1.45 15. effort 16. 180 marks

IV. (4.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer:

17. T 18. F 19. F 20. T

B. GRAMMAR – VOCABULARY – LANGUAGE FUNCTIONS

I. (8.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer:

21. A 22. C 23. D 24. B

25. D 26. A 27. D 28. C

II. (5.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer:

29. UNPREDICTABLE 30. ENTHUSIASM

31. AUTHORIZED/ SED 32. EXPECTANCY 33. RESPECTIVELY

III. (3.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer:

34. C 35. C 36. D

IV. (2.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer:

37. B 38. C

V. (2.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer:

39. B 40. A

B. READING:

I. (5 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer:

41. D 42. B 43. C 44. E 45. A

II. (5 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer:

46. B 47. A 48. D 49. C 50. E

III. (10 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer:

51. B 52. C 53. D 54. A 55. B

56. D 57. C 58. A 59. B 60. C

IV. (10 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer:

61. D 62. D 63. A 64. C 65. A

66. B 67. C 68. C 69. C 70. B

D. WRITING:

I. (5.0 points): 1.0 point for each correct answer:

71. Urgent actions must be taken to help the victims of the earthquake in Mexico.

72. You should not have allowed your 16-year-old son to drive your car.

73. Under no circumstances will / shall I lend John any money.

74. It has been suggested that income tax (should) be abolished.

75. If you had not reminded me about the timetable, I would have missed the last train.

II. (10 points):

1. Form:

- Informal letter (1.0 point)

2. Task fulfillment:

- Task completed with relevant information (2.0 points)

- Well-organized (2.0 point)

3. Language:

- Accurate grammar (2.0 points)

- Appropriate vocabulary (2.0 points)

- Correct spelling and punctuation (1.0 point)

III. (15 points):

Score of 14-15: An essay at this level:

shows very effective writing skills

is very well organized and well developed

uses details clearly and properly to support a thesis or illustrate ideas

displays consistent ability in the use of language

demonstrates variety in sentence structure and proper word choice

Score of 11 - 13: An essay at this level:

shows effective writing skills

is well organized and well developed

uses details clearly and properly to support a thesis or illustrate ideas

displays consistent ability in the use of language

demonstrates variety in sentence structure and proper word choice

Score of 9 - 10: An essay at this level:

may address some parts of the task more effectively than others

is generally well organized and developed

uses details to support a thesis or illustrate an idea

displays ability in the use of the language

shows some variety in sentence structure and range of vocabulary

Score of 7 - 8: An essay at this level:

addresses the writing topic adequately but does not meet all of the goals of the task

is adequately organized and developed

uses some details to support a thesis or illustrate an idea

shows adequate but possibly inconsistent ability with sentence structure

may contain some usage errors that make the meaning unclear

Score of 5 - 6: An essay at this level may reveal one or more of the following weaknesses:

inadequate organization or development

poor choice of details or does not provide enough details to support or illustrate generalizations

a noticeably improper choice of words or word forms

numerous errors in sentence structure and/ or usage

Score of 3 - 4: An essay at this level is seriously flawed by one or more of the following weaknesses:

serious disorganization or underdevelopment

little or no detail, or irrelevant specifics

serious and frequent errors in sentence structure or usage

serious problems with focus

Score of 1- 2: An essay at this level:

may be incoherent

may be undeveloped

may contain severe and persistent writing errors

Score of 0: An essay will be rated 0 if it:

contains no response

merely copies the topic

is off-topic, written in a foreign language or consists only of keystroke characters

I. Choose one word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others. (5 pts)

1. A. Opponent B. Compose C. Podium D. Advocate

2. A. Reserve B. Domestic C. Optimistic D. Nursery

3. A. Both B. Cloth C. Ghost D. Sold

4. A. Examine B. Determine C. Famine D. Dine

5. A. Sacred B. Decided C. Contaminated D. Watered

Your answers: 1. ______ 2. _______ 3. _______ 4. _______ 5. _______

II. Choose one word whose stress pattern is different from the others. (5 pts)

1. A. Counterpart B. Precede C. Nursery D. Compliment

2. A. Bewilder B. Audience C. Benefit D. Dedicate

3. A. Pessimistic B. University C. Epidemic D. Particular

4. A. Tsunami B. Terrorist C. Involvement D. Disaster

5. A. Processor B. Windsurfing C. Semester D. Challenger

Your answers: 1. _______ 2. _______ 3. _______ 4. _______ 5. _______

Section B: Grammar & Vocabulary (40 points)

I. Choose the best answer to complete the sentences. (10 pts)

1. According to the boss, John is the most ­______ for the position of executive secretary.

A. supportive B. caring C. suitable D. comfortable

2. The children went _______ with excitement.

A. wild B. wildly C. wilderness D. wildlife

3. The sudden resignation of the financial director put the company in a very _______ position.

A. weak B. unsteady C. vulnerable D. collapsed

4. David: Would you like fish or meat? Mary: I _______ fish, please.

A. would rather B. would prefer C. suppose D. believe

5. Many teenagers show signs of anxiety and _______ when being asked about their future.

A. depress B. depression C. depressed D. depressing

6. There was a huge decline _______ the number of tigers.

A. in B. for C. of D. out

7. I’d rather you _______ anything about the garden until the weather improves.

A. don’t make B. didn’t do C. don’t do D. didn’t make

8. A part – time job gives me the freedom to _______ my own interests.

A. pursue B. chase C. seek D. catch

9. The new road currently under _______ will solve the traffic problems in the town.

A. design B. progress C. construction D. work

10. - Daisy: “What a lovely house you have!” - Mary: “______.”

A. Lovely, I think so B. Thank you. Hope you will drop in
C. Of course not, it’s not costly D. No problem

Your answers: 1. _______ 2. _______ 3. _______ 4. _______ 5. ________

6. _______ 7. _______ 8. _______ 9. _______ 10. _______

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ĐÁP ÁN

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM

(Tổng điểm: 100 điểm)

Section a: Phonetics (10 points)

I. 5 pts: (Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)

1. D 2. A 3. B 4. D 5. D

II. 5 pts: (Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)

1. B 2. A 3. D 4. B 5. C

Section B: Grammar & Vocabulary (40 points)

I. 10 pts: (Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)

1. C 2. A 3. C 4. B 5. B

6. A 7. B 8. A 9. C 10. B

II. 10 pts: (Mỗi động từ chia đúng 1 điểm)

1. has come 2. has been done

3. (should) be 4. has finished

5. was founded 6. is dedicated

7. had our teacher entered 8. will be waiting

9. has created 10. couldn’t have been imagined

III. 10 pts (Mỗi từ đúng 1 điểm)

1. stability 2. economically

3. endangered 4. terrorist

5. destruction 6. variety

7. indefensible 8. disobedient

9. attractiveness 10. unpredictable

IV. 10 pts (Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)

1. C 2. D 3. B 4. C 5. D

6. C 7. C 8. B 9. D 10. B

Section C: reading (30 points)

I. 10 pts: (Mỗi từ điền đúng cho 1 điểm)

1. from 2. of 3. attack 4. who 5. as 6. place

7. following/ next 8. On 9.body 10. birthday

II. 10 pts: (Mỗi câu chọn đúng cho 1 điểm)

1. B 2. C 3. D 4. D 5. C 6. B 7. A 8. C

9. B 10. B 11. C 12. A 13. C 14. A 15. B

III. 10 pts: (Mỗi câu chọn đúng cho 1 điểm)

1. B 2. A 3. A 4. D 5. D

Section D: writing (20 points)

I. 10 pts: (Mỗi câu viết đúng cho 1 điểm)

1. Only after/ when all the guests had gone (home) could we/ were we able to relax.

2. There has been a sharp increase/ rise in (the) house prices this year.

3. Had it not been for the attendance / presence/ appearance of a famous film star the party would not have been a success/would have been a failure.

4. I’d rather you didn’t smoke in my house.

5. He broke the world record at/ on his second attempt.

6. Hardly a day passes/ goes by without me/ my writing to him/ but I write to him/ when I don’t write to him.

7. All dogs are thought to have evolved from wolves.

8. Make sure you finish (typing) all these letters before going/ you go to lunch.

9. The annual rainfall in/ for the northwest of Britain is higher/ greater than (that in) the southeast.

The annual rainfall in/ for the southeast of Britain is lower/ less than (that in) the northwest.

10. Henry wishes (that) he hadn’t bought the second - hand car.

II. (5pts): (Mỗi câu viết đúng cho 1 điểm)

1. The two theories (appear to) have (got) nothing in common.

2. I can’t/ won’t put up with his rude behaviour.

3. I have (considerable) difficulty (in) reading his hand writing

4. He has neither money nor time to go on holiday.

5. A quiet holiday would do you good.

5. A quiet holiday would do you good.

III. 5 pts: (Mỗi câu viết đúng cho 1 điểm)

1. My mother takes the responsibility for running the household.

2. ASEAN has a population of 575.5 million, accounting for (about) 8.7 % of the world’s population.

3. It was not until Einstein was eight that he could speak.

4. Defensive players aren’t allowed to interfere with the opponent’s movements unless the (that) player is holding the ball.

5. Never stop trying until/ till you get the right solution to the problem.

Trên đây là một phần trích đoạn nội dung Bộ 5 đề thi chọn HSG môn Tiếng Anh 12 có đáp án năm 2021 Trường THPT Lê Lai. Để xem thêm nhiều tài liệu tham khảo hữu ích khác các em chọn chức năng xem online hoặc đăng nhập vào trang hoc247.net để tải tài liệu về máy tính.

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