Bộ 5 đề thi chọn HSG môn Tiếng Anh 10 có đáp án năm 2021 Trường THPT Tô Hiến Thành

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ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI NĂM HỌC 2020-2021 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 10 (Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề)

SECTION A – PHONETICS

I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.

1.         A. adventure             B. future                    C. mature                   D. figure

2.         A. increase               B. widespread           C. death                    D. residential

3.         A. coughed               B. weighed               C. laughed                D. photographed

4.         A. realize               B. teacher                  C. reason              D. feature

5.         A. treated               B. asked                     C. sacred              D. suggested

II.        Identify the word whose stressed pattern is different from that of the others.

6.       A. impossibly       B. especially             C. naturally               D. importantly

7.       A. damage               B. pollute                  C. defense             D. erode

8.       A. recognize         B. enemy                  C. yesterday              D. responding

9.         A. electrician            B. comfortable         C. manufacture         D. accidental

10.       A. comedy                 B. collection             C. comical                 D. calculate

SECTION B – VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR

I.          Choose the best answer from A, B, C or D.

11.       Hurry up! They’ve only got _______ seats left.

            A. a little                  B. a few                    C. a lot of                  D. plenty of

12. The technological and economic changes of the 19^th century had a marked________ on workers

            A. cause                     B. effect                     C. impact                   D. consequence

13. Using the computer competently is an important________ to help one get a good job.

            A. reason                   B. aspect                    C. factor                     D. issue                     

14.       The children _______ to the zoo.

            A. were enjoyed taken                     B. enjoyed being taken

C.  were enjoyed taking                  D. enjoyed taking

15.       I'd rather you _______ anyone what I said.

            A. don't tell               B. won't tell                  C. didn't tell                     D. not to tell

16.       We were so late that we ______ had time to catch the train.

            A. nearly                    B. almost                   C. hardly                    D. simply

17. Frank's wallet is lying on the coffee table. He _______ it here last night.

A. must have left      B. should have left   C. must be leaving    D. needn't leave

18. Don’t try too hard. Don’t________ off more than you can________.

            A. eat/chew               B. bite/swallow         C. bite/chew              D. eat/swallow

19.       Before the meeting finished, they had arranged when________ next.

            A. they met                B. they to meet          C. to meet                  D. should they meet

20.       Washing machines, dishwashers and vacuum cleaners are _______.

            A. working machines            B. useless machines 

C. sewing machines             D. labour-saving machines

21. I got up late. I’ve spent all day making up________ the lost time.

            A. on                           B.to                             C. for                          D. with

22.       Both she and her husband are________ work.

            A. out of                    B. for                          C. on                           D. in

23.       Tom is having someone________ the newspaper to her.

            A. bring                      B. to bring                 C. bringing                D. who brings

24.       They were just________ us about Anna's new boyfriend.

            A. talking                   B. saying                    C. speaking               D. telling

25. Your dress is really nice! Who made it for you?

            A. - Oh. It was to the beg                            B. - Oh. It was on the beg

            C. - Oh. It was of the beg                            D. - Oh. It was off the beg

II.        There is one mistake in each of the following sentences. Find and correct it.

26.       The sick needs to be looked after. So money must be spent on hospitals.

27.       The accident looked seriously at first but nobody was injured.

28.       All the students are looking forward to spending their free time to enjoy their Tet holiday.

29.       My family lived in Hue since 1990 to 1996, but we are now living in Sai Gon.

30.       She left her job soon to devote more time into her family.

31.       We won't mind your being late. Beside, it's hardly your mistake.

32.       Congratulations! You’ve gained the first prize in the competitions!

33.      Her well-known film, that won several awards, was about the life of Lenin.

34.       Mr. Tam, who has a lot teaching skills at junior level, will be joining our school in August.

35.       You've seen her new car, haven't you? What does it like?

III. Fill in the each gap with the most correct forms of the block word on the right.

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ĐÁP ÁN

SECTION A – PHONETICS

I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.

1C; 2A; 3B; 4A; 5B

II. Identify the word whose stressed pattern is different from that of the others.

6C; 7A; 8D; 9B; 10B

SECTION B – VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR

I.         Choose the best answer from A, B, C or D.

11.B	12.C	13.C	14.B	15.C
16.C	17.A	18.C	19.C	20.D
21.C	22.A	23.A	24.D	25.D

II.        There is one mistake in each of the following sentences. Find and correct it.

	Mistake	Correction		Mistake	Correction
26.	needs	need	31.	Beside	Besides
27.	seriously	serious	32.	competitions	competition
28.	to enjoy	enjoying	33.	that	which
29.	lived	Had been living	34.	A lot	A lot of
30.	into	to	35.	like	Look like

III. Fill in theeach gap with the most correct forms of the block word on the right.   

36. unattended	37. broaden	38. decision	39. invited	40. economical
41. personal	42. effectively	43. variety	44. encouragements	45. belief

SECTION C – READING

I. Read the following passage, and fill in the numbered gaps with the correct options (from A, B, C , D and E below) to make a meaningful reading:

46. D

47. E

48. B

49. A

50. C

II. Fill in each numbered gap with one suitable word.

51. pyramid	52. tomb	53. Although	54. construction	55. wonders
56. sides	57. scientific	58. these	59. events	60. far

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D :

61.C	62.B	63.D	64.A	65.B
66. C	67. A	68. D	69. B	70.D

SECTION D – WRITING

I. Complete the second sentence so that it has similar meaning to the first one.

71. He ....had his house painted last week.

72. Joan eats very little because …..she doesn’t want to put on weight.

73. Although .......it rained heavily, Andrew went to the supermarket.

74. He was .......made to wait for two hours.

75. When I arrived, .......David had gone home.

76. He has no ……intention of stopping campaign for his son’s freedom.

77. Taking .........exams always makes me nervous.

78. But for ......the heavy rain, we wouldn’t have been late.

79. There’s no ......need asking H to help.

80. The ......faster people drive, the more dangerous it is.

II. Make right sentences using the following suggestions.

81. Mike was offered an opportunity to study abroad  yesterday.

82. They used changes of scene and camera positions to tell a story, with actors playing character parts.

83. Many species of plants and animals are in danger of extinction.

84. Plants and animals of the sea, however small or oversized, all contribute to its biodiversity.

85. Nairobi National Park is Kenya’s smallest park, but you may be surprised at the large variety of animals that live there.

I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others.

1.	A. sun	B. sure	C. succeed	D. sort
2.	A. measles	B. tease	C. please	D. measure
3.	A. new	B. sew	C. few	D. nephew
4.	A. thus	B. with	C. smooth	D. maths
5.	A. worked	B. stopped	C. forced	D. wanted
Choose the word whose the primary stress differs from the other.
6.	A. important	B. headmaster	C. interested	D. motorbike
7.	A. disappearance	B. confusion	C. acceptable	D. impossible
8.	A. polite	B. accept	C. custom	D. provide
9.	A. career	B. about	C. receive	D. passage
10.	A. kitchen	B. enter	C. behind	D. people

II. Choose the most suitable word or phrase A, B, C or D to complete each sentence.

1. __________ he has never borrowed any money from me.

A. Last week

B. Up to now

C. Since

D. A week ago

2. ‘Go on, finish the food. It needs __________ up because it won’t stay fresh until tomorrow.

A. eat

B. eating

C. to eat

D. eaten

3. Before he left on his trip to America, the young man promised __________to his parents regularly.

A. writing

B. will write

C. to write

D. wrote

4. I'm on a(n) __________. I want to lose some weight.

A. excursion

B. exercise

C. diet

D. duet

5. Andrew couldn’t __________ himself laughing at the expression on Maggie’s face.

A. help

B. stop

C. escape

D. avoid

 6. It looks like they're going to succeed __________ their present difficulties.

A. despite

B. because of

C. even though

D. yet

7. This motorbike is very economical.

A. is inexpensive

C. doesn't pollute the air

B. uses little petrol

D. is powerful

8. You must make them __________their homework.

A. do

B. did

C. to do

D. doing

9. No one in my neighborhood knew who the __________ man was.

A. dies

B. dead 

C. died

D. death

10. Nam Cao devoted most of his time __________

A. in writing

B. to write

C. to writing

D. to have written

11. My brother sang __________ of all the pupils of the group.

A. more beautifully

B. the most beautifully

C. less beautifully

D. most beautifully

12. If you__________ to my advice in the first place, you wouldn't be in this mess right now.

A. listen

B. will listen

C. had listened

D. listened

13. His government insisted that he __________ until he finished his task.

A. should

B. shall stay

C. stay           

D. stayed

14. In Buckingham Palace two men work __________ to look after the 300 clocks.

A. fully

B. full-time

C. round-clock

D. full o'clock

15. My father still hasn’t really recovered from the death of my mother.

A. looked after

B. taken after

C. gone off

D. got over

16. I've been trying to __________ him all day.

A. fall in love with

B. take track of

C. take advantage of

D. keep in touch with

17. When the tenants failed to pay their bill, the authorities decided to _____ the gas supply to the flat.

A. cut down

B. cut out

C. cut off

D. cut up

18. She didn't mind __________ going with her .

A. she

B. his

C. he

D. himself

19. She told him to shut up and get out.

A. stand up

B. clear up

C. be prepared         

D. stop talking

20. Mexico was a Spanish colony.

A. a large coffee farm

C. an international company

B. a farming area

D. a place or a country that belongs to another country

III. Error identification:

1. Light can travels from the Sun to the Earth in eight minutes and twenty seconds.

A. Light

B. travels

C. in

D. seconds

2. How did you manage getting here so quickly?

A. How

B. did

C. getting

D. so

3. Ms Baker , she spent her life working with the health and welfare of the families of workers, is an successful woman in the world.

A. she

B. her life

C. welfare

D. the

4. My family lived in Hue since 1990 to 1996, but we are now living in Sai Gon.

A. lived

B. since

C. but

D. in

5. You've seen her new car, haven't you? How is it like?

A. seen

B. have

C. How

D. like

6. Her well-known film, that won several awards, was about the life of Lenin.

A. well-known

B. that

C. about

D. of

7. Mr. Tam, who has a lot teaching skills at junior level, will be joining our school in August.

A. who

B. a lot

C. be joining

D. in

8. It is not until his father came home which he did his homework.

A. not until

B. came

C. which

D. did

9. The children are exciting about the field trip.

A. The

B. are

C. exciting

D. about

10. If I didn’t liked you, I wouldn’t invite you to my house.

A. If

B. didn't liked

C. wouldn't invite

D. to

IV. Read the text below and decide which answer A, B, C, or D, best fits each space.

Everyone wants to reduce pollution. But the pollution problem is (1)______ complicated as it is serious. It is complicated (2)______ much pollution is caused by things that benefit people. (3)______, exhaust from automobiles causes a large percentage of air pollution. But the automobile (4)______ transportation for millions of people. Factories discharge much (5)______ the material that pollutes the air and water, but factories give employment to a large number of people.

Thus, to end (6)_______ greatly reduce pollution immediately, people would have to (7)______ using many things that benefit them. Most of the people do not want to do that, of course. But pollution can be (8)______ reduced in several ways. Scientists and engineers can work to find ways to lessen the (9)______ of pollution that such things as automobiles and factories cause. Governments can pass and enforce laws that (10)______ businesses and traffic to stop, or to cut down on certain polluting activities.

1. A. as            B. more          C. less          D. like

2. A. so          B. while          C. though          D. because

3. A. Specific          B. For example          C. Such as          D. Like

4. A. takes          B. affords          C. carries          D. provides

5. A. about          B. for          C. of            D. with

6. A. or          B. and          C. as well          D. then

7. A. start          B. continue          C. stop          D. go on

8. A. carefully          B. unexpectedly          C. gradually          D. little

9. A. way          B. figure          C. number          D. amount

10. A. forbid          B. prevent          C. request          D. require

V. Read the passage and choose the correct answer A, B, C, or D for each question.

Aspirin's origins go back at least as early as 1758. In that year, Englishman Edward Stone noticed a distinctive bitter flavor in the bark of the willow tree. To Stone, this particular bark seemed to have much in common with "Peruvian Bark", which had been used medicinally since the 1640s to bring down fevers and to treat malaria. Stone decided to test the effectiveness of the willow bark. He obtained some, pulverized it into tiny pieces, and conducted experiments on its properties. His tests demonstrated that this pulverized willow bark was effective both in reducing high temperatures and in relieving aches and pains. In 1763, Stone presented his findings to the British Royal Society.

Several decades later, further studies in the medicinal value of the willow bark were being conducted by two Italian scientists. These chemists, Brugnatelli and Fontana, determined that the active chemical that was responsible for the medicinal characteristics in the willow bark was the chemical salicin, which is the active ingredient of today's aspirin.

The name "aspirin" is the trade name of the drug based on the chemical salicin, properly known as acetylsalicylic acid. The trade name "aspirin" was invented for the drug in the 1890s by the Bayer Drug Company in Germany. The first bottles of aspirin actually went on sale to the public just prior to the turn of the century, in 1899.

1. According to the passage, aspirin originated

A. no later than 1758                                   B. sometime after 1785

C. definitely sometimes in 1758                D. no earlier than 1758

2. It can be inferred from the passage that Peruvian Bark

A. caused fevers                   B. was ineffective in treating malaria

C. was described to the British Royal Society by Stone D. was in use prior to aspirin

3. The pronoun "it" in line 5 refers to

A. malaria                  B. willow bark         

C. effectiveness        D. The British Royal Society

4. The word "properties" in line 5 could best be replaced by

5. What did the willow bark look like after Stone prepared it for his experiments?

A. It was in large chunks                                        B. It was a thick liquid

C. It was a rough powder                                        D. It was in strips of bark

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ANSWER KEYS

Tổng: 20 điểm, cụ thể như sau:

CÂU I: (2 điểm) - Mỗi câu đúng được 0,2 điểm:

1. B	2. D	3. B	4. D	5. D
6. A	7. A	8. C	9. D	10. C

CÂU II: (4 điểm) - Mỗi câu đúng được 0,2điểm:

1. B	2. B	3. C	4. C	5. A
6. A	7. B	8.  A	9. B	10  C
11. B	12. C	13. C	14. B	15. D
16. D	17. C	18. B	19. D	20. D

III: (2 điểm) - Mỗi câu đúng được 0,2 điểm:

1. B	2. C	3. A	4. B	5. C
6. B	7. B	8. C	9. C	10. B

CÂU IV: (2 điểm) - Mỗi câu đúng được 0,2 điểm:

1. A	2. D	3. B	4. D	5. C
6. A	7. C	8. C	9. D	10. D

CÂU V: (2 điểm) - Mỗi câu đúng được 0,2 điểm:

1. A	2. D	3. B	4. C	5. C
6. D	7. C	8. B	9. C	10. D

CÂU VI: (2 điểm) - Mỗi câu đúng được 0,2 điểm:

1. ago	2. already	3. for	4. in	5. where
6. salary	7. very	8. a/per	9. situation	10. about

CÂU VII: (3 điểm) - Mỗi câu đúng được 0,3 điểm:

1.   I'm going to have my car repaired tomorrow.  

2.   It was such an interesting trip that we couldn't forget it.

3.   No sooner had they arrived than things went wrong

4.   The faster people drive, the more dangerous it is.

5.   We were (greatly/very) shocked to hear/when we heard that an earthquake had occurred

6.   John is interested in astronomy.

7.   Were we to take effective actions now, we could still save the rainforests.

8.   These pictures are the most beautiful (that) I've ever seen

9.   He reminded me/her/us/them to go to the supermarket after work.

10. I shouldn’t have parked outside the police station.

CÂU VIII: (3 điểm)

Yêu cầu:

+ Viết đúng bố cục của một bài luận.

+ Trình bày rõ ràng, sạch sẽ.

+ Không phạm nhiều lỗi về chính tả và ngữ pháp

Part A. PRONUNCIATION AND VOCABULARY

I. Phonetics: Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently from the rest (1point).

1. A. explored	B. delighted	C. composed	D. fastened
2. A. emotions	B. fines	C. crops	D. features
3. A. serene	B. solemn	C. jellyfish	D. endanger

Pick out a word which is stressed on different position from the others.

4. A. powerful	B. comedy	C. variety	D. stimulate
5. A. ordinary	B. solemn	C. altitude	D. communicate

II. Vocabulary. Choose the best answer among A, B, C or D to complete each sentence: (1points).

6. Van Mieu was representative of Confucian ways of thought and behavior.

A. traditional

B. typical

C. memorial

D. cultural

7. The stone stelae were_______ with the name of the doctor laureates.

A. written

B. cut

C. designed

D. engraved

8. The collection has been sold to the British Museum where it will be_______ for the nation.

A. conserved

B. existed

C. preserved

D. impressed

9. She felt intense fear mingled_______ excitement.

A. in

B. to

C. of

D. with

10. Hoi An is famous tourist attraction with many_______ sites.

A. royal

B. natural

C. cultural

D. attractive

III/Complete the passage with appropriate words from the box. (1point).

short,    short,     comic,     character,       moustache,       terrifying

PART B: LEXICO- GRAMMAR

IV/Choose the word or phrase A, B, C, or D that best completes that best the sentences or substitutes for the underlined word or phrase. (3points).

16. These plants_______ in a damp climate.

A. root

B. found

C. exist

D. flourish

17. New York is_______ by its hundreds of tall offices and apartment buildings.

A. symbolized

B. characterized

C. realized

D. famous

18. Washington State is famous_______ its apples.

A. with

B. to

C. on

D. for

19. About 90 percent of all the people_______ New Jersey live_______ cities.

A. in/ in

B. on/ in

C. in/ at

D. in/ on

20. The match has been_______ from Wednesday night to Friday night because of the bad weather.

A. cancelled

B. competed

C. postponed

D. watched

21. _______ been diverted, they would have arrived early.

A. Hadn’t the plane              B. Had the plane not

C. The plane had not        D. The plane not had

22. I won’t lend you this money_______ to pay it.

A. in case you promise        B. if you promise

C. if you didn’t promise   D. unless you promise

23. The door was locked_______.

A. a five minutes ago by Ann                               B. with Ann five minutes ago

C. by Ann five minutes ago                                  D. in five minutes ago by Ann

24. This park is the orphanage where lots of orphaned and abandoned animals are taken care of.

A. look after                B. involved in                C. dealt with                D. moved in

25. Many people come to the national parks to see the work being done to protect endangered species.

A. plants or animals that may be dangerous to people

B. plants or animals that disappeared from the world

C. plants or animals that are about to die

D. planets and animals that may soon become extinct

26. When the wastes are poured into the atmosphere, the air become contaminated and unpleasant to breath.

A. dense                        B. dirty                           C. pure                         D. spoiled

27. The cattle drank from a river polluted with toxic chemical.

A. waste                        B. lived                           C. hurt                            D. poisonous

28. “Should we turn left or go straight?”             “Hmm. I’m not sure which way_______”.

A. do we turn              B. to turn                        C. should we turn      D. it turned

29. “Why don’t you join us for the coffee, Don?”           After the movie, we asked Don_______.

A. Would he join us for coffee                     B. why he didn’t join us for the coffee

C. to join us for coffee                                        D. join us for coffee

30. Somebody forgot this hat. I wonder_______.

A. whose this hat      B. whose hat this is      C. whose hat is          D. is this whose hat

V/ Complete the following sentences with the correct forms of the given words. (1point).

31. All the newspaper praised the_______ of the firemen.                                BRAVE

32. Saucepans are sold in the_______ good department.                                   HOUSE

33. The group called” Friends of the Earth” is concerned about the_______ of the natural environment.                                                                                                             CONSERVE

34. The thief replaced the diamond with a_______ stone.                                 WORTH

35. _______ about the company” s future meant that few people wanted to invest money in it.  CERTAIN

VI/Choose the best answer A, B, C or D. (2points).

36. Elderly people often belong to a_______ group.

A. low- fat                    

B. poor- quality               

C. high- tech                 

D. low-income

37. Reporters took_______ every word of his speech.

A. in                              

B. down                           

C. out                             

D. after

38. I didn’t buy oranges; she gave them to me_______ nothing.

A. as                             

B. for                                

C. in addition to             

D. due to.

39. All his plans for starting his own business fell_______.

A. in                              

B. through                         

C. down                         

D. away

40. Frank_______ when he noticed a large packing case lying on the floor.

A. has about to leave 

B. had about to leave

C. is about to leave                                           

D. was about to leave

41. Rosa suggested_______ a suit and tie when he went for the interview.

A. him to wear             

B. he must wear              

C. he wear

D. that he wear

42. Hello! Aviation Electronics? Could I speak to Mr. Jones on_______ 8183, please.

A. branch                      

B. extension                   

C. system                      

D. exchange

43. _______ the book, please return it to me.

A. Should you find                                           

B. Will be finding

C. Will you find                                              

D. Will you have found

44. The tests in this book are arranged, _______.

A. in order of difficult

B. in order of difficulty

C. in orderly difficult                                       

D. in the order of difficulty

45.The increase from5 million to 350 speakers of English has not_______ because of any special merits in the language itself.

A. come to                

B. come up                 

C. come about              

D. come forward 

Part C: READING:

VII/Read the following passage and choose the options that best complete the blanks. (2points).

   A new threat to our health seems to have arisen in our midst, confusion and stress caused by technology. All you need to do to (46)_______ this to yourself is to telephone a large company; a recorded voice will offer you a be wildering list of choices, and when you have finished answering its questions, you will probably be (47)_______ to several minutes of piped music before you eventually make (48)_______ with a human being. But the stress you undergo as a result is negligible compared to the impression on the telegraph (49)_______ on people 150 years ago. Until then, message could only travel as fast as a messenger could carry them. But now they could be sent great distances in seconds. Before long, submarine cables were (50)_______ across the oceans, and thirty years later, the network reached 20,000 towns around the world. When the first transatlantic able was completed in 1858, the Queen and the President exchanged messages, preachers found (51)_______ for it in the Bible, and the New York jewelers, Tiffany’s, bought unused pieces of the cable and sold them as souvenirs. But then, as now, everyone was not (52)_______ of the technological advantages.

   Information arrived so quickly, often (53)_______ what had previously been transmitted, that businessmen had to work much harder to (54)_______ up with developments. They arrived home tired and stressed. If we find difficulty with the Internet, which is technological evolution, not revolution, our (55)_______ had afar harder task in getting used to the invention in the first place.

46. A. confirm            B. prove        C. show        D. test

47. A. oppressed        B. subdued        C. subjected        D. submitted

48. A. collision        B. connection        C. communication        D. contact

49. A. did        B. got        C. made        D. worked

50. A. said        B. lain        C. put        D. set

51. A. apology        B. argument        C. excuse        D. justification

52. A. believed        B. convinced        C. pleased        D. satisfied

53. A. contradicting        B. differing        C. disagreeing        D. objecting

54. A. keep        B. maintain        C. remain        D. stay

55. A. ancestors        B. elders        C. fathers        D. forerunner

VIII/Read and answer the questions. (1point).

   From the beginning, Philadelphia was a prosperous settlement. At the time of the American Revolution, a hundred years later, it was a political center and one of the large American cities as it is today.

  Philadelphia contains so many buildings of historical interest. On July 4, 1776, the Declaration of Independence was signed in the famous Independence Hall now. There we can also see the Liberty Bell, which was rung on that memorable occasion, and the room where the Constitution of the United States was adopted. The City was once the headquarter of Revolution, and from 1790 to 1800 it was the capital of the new republic.

Answer the questions.

56. Was the Philadelphia a prosperous from the beginning?

57. What did it become at the time of the American Revolution?

58. When and where was the Declaration of Independence signed?

59. What can we also see there?

60. When was it rung?

IX/ Read the passage carefully, then choose the correct answers. (2points).

   Situated in the central mountains of Alaska, a peak named Denali rises 20,320 feet above sea level. It is the highest peak in North America and the central of Denali National park. One of America’s greatest Wilderness area, the park has had limited access to visitors in 1990. The increasing popularity of this park is prompting serious discussions about the future use of Denali as well as how to preserve wilderness areas in general.

   One important issue of land use arises when parts of National Parks are owned by individuals. In Denali, though most of land in this vast tract of more than a million acres is owned as mining tracts. These mining tracts in Denali were once abundant source of gold, but they were sources of heavy metals such as arsenic and lead that polluted rivers and streams. Environmentalists are successful in getting the government to require mining companies to submit statements showing the potential impact of a mining project before they are allowed to begin mining. Because of this requirement, many individuals closed their mines and some sold their land to the National Park Service. Some land owners, however, are wondering if it is better to sell their land to the government or keep it for possible future use. Tourism in this previously remote area is bound to rise, as more roads are built to provide easier access to the park. This increase in the number of visitors creates a demand for hotels and other real estate development. The economic implications of this are of interest to the land owners, but are dismaying to those interested in preserving the wilderness.

61. What is the primary focus of this passage?

A. controversies over land use in Denali.

B. miners selling their property in Denali

C. Alaska building more roads to Denali

D. limiting tourist access to Denali

62. The word “wilderness” could be replaced by the word_________.

A. dangerous                 

B. natural                     

C. rural                  

D. pastoral

63. Which of the following is the most similar to the word “abundant”?

A. plentiful                   

B. sparse                     

C. hopeful              

D. absolute

64. According to the passage, which of the following are pollutants in the Denali area?

A. gold                          

B. pesticides              

C. human waste      

D. arsenic

65. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the phrase “potential impact”?

A. approximate cost

B. expected value      

C. proposed size

D. possible effects

66. The word “preserve” is similar to_________. 

A. protect                      

B. enclose                  

C. investigate           

D. foster

67. The word “tract” is similar to_________.

A. trail                         

B. resort                      

C. frontier                 

D. expanse

68. The author infers that some mine owners might hesitate to sell their land to the Park Service for which of the following reasons?

A. There may be increasing demand for the ore in the mines

B. They might want to move the towns.

C. They might receive more money selling their land to developers.

D. They might want to build a house on their property.

69. What is the author’s purpose in writing this passage?

A. to demonstrate the changes in Denali National Park

B. to use Denali as an example of common park issues

C. to introduce the wonders of the wilderness area of Denali

D. to explain the problems occurring in Denali Park

70. Which of the following would most likely be the topic of the next paragraph in this passage?

A. conflict between land owners and environmentalist

B. the role of the National Park Service in development

C. tourist needs in Denali Park

D. wildlife in the park

PART D: WRITING

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ANSWER KEYS

Part A. PRONUNCIATION AND VOCABULARY

I/ Phonetics: Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently from the rest (1point).

1. B               2. C                 3. A

Pick out a word which is stressed on different position from the others.

4. C                 5. D    

II/ Vocabulary. Choose the best answer among A, B, C or D to complete each sentence: (1points).

6. B                 7. D                 8. C                 9. D                 10. C

III/Complete the passage with appropriate words from the box. (1point).

11. comic,       12. character,      13. moustache,       14.short,         15. terrifying

PART B: LEXICO- GRAMMAR

IV/Choose the word or phrase A, B, C, or D that best completes that best the sentences or substitutes for the underlined word or phrase. (3points).

16. D   17. B  18. D   19. A   20. C   21. B   22. D   23. C   24. A   25. D   26. B   27. D   28. B   29. C   30. B.

V/ Complete the following sentences with the correct forms of the given words. (1point).

31. BRAVERY,    32. HOUSEHOLD,     33. CONSERVATION,       34. WORTHLESS  35. UNCERTAINLY

VI/Choose the best answer A, B, C or D. (2points).

36. D   37. B   38. B   39. A 40. D   41. C   42. B   43. A   44. D   45. C              

Part C: READING:

VII/Read the following passage and choose the options that best complete the blanks. (2points).

46. B   47. C   48. D   49. C   50. A   51. D   52. B   53. A   54. A   55. A  

VIII/Read and answer the questions. (1point).

56. Yes, it was.

57. It became a political center and one of the large American cities as it to day.

58. The Declaration of Independence was signed on July 4, 1776 in the famous Independence Hall in Philadelphia.

59. We can also see the Liberty Bell.

60. It was rung on that memorable occasion.

IX/ Read the passage carefully, then choose the correct answers. (2points).

61. A   62. B   63. A   64. D   65. D   66. A   67. D   68. C   69. B   70. A              

PART D: WRITING

Finish the second sentence so that it means the same as the first sentence

(2,4 points).

71. We’re going to have the house painted at the weekend.

72. There was too much noisy for me to concentrate

73. There are more than a thousand employees in the factory where (in which) I work

74. By the age of twenty Mackenzie had written four best -sellers.

75. It is two years since she left university.

76. Jenny used to play tennis better than she does now.

77. Nothing but the complete story would satisfy Jim (Nothing but the complete story was enough for him.)

78. Not until twenty – five years later did Michael return to his hometown.

79. You should have called the doctor at once.

80. So long as arrive before eleven, I can meet you.

81. She can’t have done it on purpose.

82. However experienced you are, driving fast is dangerous.

Circle the letter of the underlined portion which is not correct.

83. B – WHEN                                              84. A – BECAUSE             85. B – WILL HAVE

86. B – WOULD SPEND                87. C – WAS WORKING.

X/ Write a description of a city or town in Vietnam you know well, (about 150- 200 words) (2,6 points).

B. LEXICO – GRAMMAR

PART IV. Choose the answer A, B, C or D which best fits the space in each of the following sentences.

1.  _________ saying was so important that I asked everyone to stop talking and listen.

A. What the woman was                                         B. That the woman was

C. The woman was                                                  D. When was the woman

2. -“Do  you mind if I take a seat?”         -  “_____________.”

A. Yes, I don’t mind                                                B. No, do as you please

C. No I mind                                                            D. Yes, do as you please

3. As the two teams left the football ground, the 100,000 _________ gave them a standing ovation.

A. bystanders                  B. spectators                    C. viewers                        D. audiences

4  My parents lent me the money. _________, I couldn’t have afforded the trip.

A. However                     B. Therefore                    C. Only if                        D. Otherwise

5. It is interesting to take _________ a new hobby such as collecting stamps or going fishing.

A. over                             B. on                                C. in                                 D. up

6. Jack made me _________ him next week.

A. promise calling           B. to promise calling       C. to promise to call        D. promise to call

7.   “I passed the TOEFL test, Mom.”                   - “ _________.”

A. All right                      B. Thank you                   C. Well done                   D. Good luck

8. The bad weather caused serious damage to the crop. If only it _______ warmer.

A. was                             B. were                            C. has been                      D. had been

9. - “Eric is really upset about losing his job.”     - “ Well, ____once myself, I can understand.”

A. Having been fired          B. Fired                               C. Having fired                   D. Being fired

10.    ________ you, I’d think twice about that decision. I could be a bad move.

A. Were I                         B. Should I be                  C. If I am                         D. If I had been

11. The teacher asked a difficult question, but finally Ted _________ a good answer.

      A. put up with                B. keep pace with                    C. made way for                              D. came up with              

12. Not only ________ to speak to him, but she also vowed never to see him again.

A. she refused                 B. did she refuse              C. she did refuse              D. when she refused

13. The judge ________ the pedestrian for the accident.

A. accused                       B. charged                       C. caught                            D. blamed

14. She had to borrow her sister’s car because hers was _________.

A. out of work                 B. out of order                 C. on duty                       D. off work

15. We should participate in the movement _________ to conserve the natural environment.

A. to organize                  B. organizing                   C. which organized         D. organized

16. His brother refuses to even listen to anyone else’s point of view. He is very_________.

     A. open-minded                B. kind-hearted              C. narrow-minded               D. absent-minded

17. There is _________  in my bedroom.

     A. a square wooden old table                                   B. an old square wooden table

     C. a wooden old square table                                                 D. an old wooden square table

18. “I am sorry. I broke the vase”.         -  “ _________.”

     A. OK. Go ahead                                                                    B. Yes, certainly                 

     C. Don’t worry. Things break                                                 D. I’d rather not.

19. One’s fingerprints are _________ other person.

     A. different from                                                         B. different from any

     C. differ from any                                                       D. different from those of any

20. He is very happy because he passed his exam with __________ colours.

A. flying                            B. failing                            C. imagining                  D.  changing

PART V. From four underlined parts, choose the one that needs correction then correct it.

 For example :  The teacher did not allow the students discussing the take-home exam with each other.

                           discussing →  to discuss

1. A Geiger counter is an electronic instrument is used to measure the presence and intensity of radiation.

2. A dolphin locates underwater objects in their path by making a series of clicking and whistling sounds.

3. In spite of its small size, Europe had a great impact on world history than other continents.

4. Before she moved here, Alene has been president of the organization for four years.

5. That Marta's been chosen as the most outstanding student on her campus make her parents very happy.

6. My cousin composes not only the music, but also sings the songs for the major Broadway musicals.

7. Our civilization is so commonplace to us that rarely we stop to think about its complexity.

8. Ever since the world began, nations have difficulty in keeping peace with their neighbors.

9. Those of us who have a family history of heart disease should do yearly appointments with our doctors.

10. If one had thought about the alternatives, he would not have chosen such difficult a topic for a term paper.

PART VI.  Fill in each space in the following sentences with the most suitable prepositions.

1. I'm afraid Tom's _______  work. But Jack's in. Would you like to speak to him?

2. Have you been to the theatre recently?  ~  Yes, I was _______ the Old Vie last night.

3. At first I found the work very tiring, but _______ a few weeks I got used to it.

4.  _______ the daytime the streets are crowded but at night they are quite deserted.

5. I saw Tom at the bus stop this morning but couldn't speak to him because we were standing _____ a queue.

6. He is always in a hurry. He drives _______ a tremendous speed.

7. Write ________ ink and put your name on the top of the page.

8.  The man with the pipe and red hair is the brother of the girl ________ blue.

9.  He sits at his desk all day with his head in his hands. It gets ________ my nerves.

10. The children hastily changed _______ bathing things and jumped into the river with shouts of delight.

PART VII.  Give the correct form of the word in bracket to complete the passage.

	Your answers:
The __1__ (say) “never judge a book by its cover” could not be more true for Ridiculous Rules by Marjorie Allen. The cover is completely  blank, whereas the book is crammed full of wonderful examples and anecdotes. Allen is an __2__ (speak) critic of what is taught to native and non-native speakers of English, and has issued a __3__ (declare) of war against textbooks and style books which tell lies. Take the ridiculous and __4__ (mean) rule of never ending a sentence with a preposition. The lovely - if famous – story goes, that Winston Churchill, well-known for his numerous __5__ (write) as well as for being British Prime Minister during the Second World War, received a manuscript back from an ignorant __6__ (edit), who had told him rather rudely that he had to __7__ (phrase) a sentence which ended with a preposition. Churchill responded by making the simple yet forceful __8__ (state) in the margin: “This is an impertinence up with which I will not put.” – the __9__ (imply) being that not to end a sentence with a preposition often sounds ridiculous in English, Sadly, Allen informs us that the story is probably mere __10__ (hear), and that Churchill may have actually only written “rubbish!” in the margin.	1. ...........................................2. ........................................... 3. ........................................... 4............................................. 5............................................. 6. ........................................... 7. ........................................... 8. ........................................... 9. ........................................... 10. .........................................

C. READING

PART VIII.  Read the passage and choose the best answer A, B, C, or D to each of the questions

Large animals that inhabit the desert have evolved a number of adaptations for reducing the effects of extreme heat. One adaptation is to be light in color, and to reflect rather than absorb the Sun's rays. Desert mammals also depart from the normal mammalian practice of maintaining a constant body temperature. Instead of trying to keep down the body temperature deep inside the body, which would involve the expenditure of water and energy, desert mammals allow their temperatures to rise to what would normally be fever height, and temperatures as high as 46 degrees Celsius have been measured in Grant's gazelles. The overheated body then cools down during the cold desert night, and indeed the temperature may fall unusually low by dawn, as low as 34 degrees Celsius in the camel. This is an advantage since the heat of the first few hours of daylight is absorbed in warming up the body, and an excessive buildup of heat does not begin until well into the day.

Another strategy of large desert animals is to tolerate the loss of body water to a point that would be fatal for non-adapted animals. The camel can lose up to 30 percent of its body weight as water without harm to itself, whereas human beings die after losing only 12 to 13 percent of their body weight. An equally important adaptation is the ability to replenish this water loss at one drink. Desert animals can drink prodigious volumes in a short time, and camels have been known to imbibe over 100 liters in a few minutes. A very dehydrated person, on the other hand, cannot drink enough water to dehydrate at one session, because the human stomach is not sufficiently big and because a too rapid dilution of the body fluids causes death from water intoxication.

The tolerance of water loss is of obvious advantage in the desert, as animals do not have to remain near a water hole but can obtain food from grazing sparse and far-flung pastures. Desert-adapted mammals have the further ability to feed normally when extremely dehydrated, it is a common experience in people that appetite is lost even under conditions of moderate thirst.

1. What is the main topic of the passage?

A. Weather variations in the desert                             B. Adaptations of desert animals

C. Diseased of desert animals                                      D. Human use of desert animals.

2. According to the passage, why is light coloring an advantage to large desert animals?

A. It helps them hide from predators.

B. It does not absorb sunlight as much as dark colors.

C. It helps them see their young at night

D. It keeps them cool at night.

3. The word "maintaining" is closest in meaning to ___________.

A. measuring                          B. inheriting                  C. preserving                 D. delaying

4. The author uses of Grant's gazelle as an example of ___________.

A. an animal with a low average temperature

B. an animal that is not as well adapted as the camel

C. a desert animal that can withstand high body temperatures

D. a desert animal with a constant body temperature

5. When is the internal temperature of a large desert mammal lower?

A. Just before sunrise                                                   B. In the middle of the day

C. Just after sunset                                                       D. Just after drinking

6. The word "tolerate" is closest in meaning to ___________.

A. endure                               B. replace                      C. compensate              D. reduce

7. What causes water intoxication?

A. Drinking too much water very quickly                   B. Drinking polluted water

C. Bacteria in water                                                     D. Lack of water.

8. What does the author imply about desert-adapted mammals?

A. They do not need to eat much food.                       B. They can eat large quantities quickly

C. They easily lose their appetites.                              D. They can travel long distances looking for food.

9. Why does the author mention humans in the second paragraph?

A. To show how they use camels.                               B. To contrast them to desert mammals.

C. To give instructions about desert survival.             D. To show how they have adapted to desert life.

10. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as an adaptation of large desert animals?

A. Variation in body temperatures                              B. Eating while dehydrated

C. Drinking water quickly      D. Being active at night.

Your answers:

1.	2.	3.	4.	5.
6.	7.	8.	9.	10.

PART IX.  Read the text below and decide which answer A, B, C or D best fits each space.

When you read something in a foreign language, you frequently (1)______ across words you do not fully understand. Sometimes you check the meaning in a dictionary and sometimes you (2)______. The strategy you adopt depends very much upon the (3)______ of accuracy you require and the time at your disposal.

If you are the sort of person who tends to turn to the dictionary frequently, it is worth remembering that every dictionary has its (4)______. Each definition is only an approximation and one builds up an accurate picture of the meaning of a word only after meeting it in a (5)______ of contexts. It is also important to recognize the special dangers of dictionaries that translate from English into your native language and vice versa. If you must use a dictionary, it is usually far safer to (6)______ an English-English dictionary.

In most exams you are not permitted to use a dictionary. (7)______ you are allowed to use one, it is very time-consuming to look up words, and time in exams is usually limited. You are, (8)______ , forced to guess the meaning of unfamiliar words.

When you find unknown words in an exam text, it is very easy to panic. However, if you develop efficient techniques for guessing the meaning, you will (9)______ a number of possible problems and help yourself to understand far more of the text than you at first thought likely.

Two strategies which may help you guess the meaning of a word are: using contextual clues, both within the sentence and outside, and making use of clues (10)______ from the formation of the word.

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ANSWER KEYS

 Tổng: 20 điểm, cụ thể như sau:

A. LISTENING – 3 ĐIỂM

PART I:  1,5 điểm = 0,15/ 1 câu đúng

1. twenty-three/ 23	2. blonde / blond	3. blue	4. average	5. computer programmer
6. music	7.( watching ) TV	8. outgoing	9. music/ sports	10. sports/ music

PART II: 0,7 điểm = 0,1/ 1 câu đúng

1. F

2. F

3. F

4. T

5. F

6. T

7. T

8.F

PART III:  0,8 điểm = 0,1/ 1 câu đúng

1. C

2. C

3. B

4. A

5. C

6. D

7. B

B. LEXICO – GRAMMAR – 8 ĐIỂM

PART IV: 4 điểm =  0,2 / 1 câu đúng

1. A	2. B	3. B	4. D	5. D
6. D	7. C	8. D	9. A	10.A
11. D	12. B	13. D	14. B	15. D
16. C	17. B	18. C	19. D	20. A

PART V: 2 điểm =  0,1 / 1 câu đúng

1. is used →  used	6. composes not only →   not only composes
2. their path → its path	7. rarely we stop →  rarely do we stop
3. great impact →  greater impact	8. have difficulty →    have had difficulty
4. has been →  had been	9. do yearly →    make yearly
5. make →  makes/made	10. such difficult →   so difficult

PART VI: 1 điểm =  0,1 / 1 câu đúng                                                    

1. at	2. at	3. for	4. in	5. in
6. at	7. in	8. in	9. on	10. into

PART VII: 1 điểm =  0,1 / 1 câu đúng

1. saying	2. outspoken	3. declaration	4. meaningless	5. writings
6. editor	7. rephrase	8. statement	9. implication	10. hearsay

C. READING – 4 ĐIỂM

PART VIII:  2 điểm =  0,2 / 1 câu đúng

1. B	2. B	3. C	4. C	5. A
6. A	7. A	8. D	9. B	10. D

PART  IX: 2 điểm =   0,2 / 1 câu đúng

1. D	2. B	3. C	4. C	5. B
6. B	7. D	8. B	9. D	10. A

D. WRITING – 5 ĐIỂM

Part IX: 2 điểm =  0,2 / 1 câu đúng

1.	This will be the first time		my student has performed in Canada.
			my student has given the performance in Canada.
2.	In six months time we will have completed this course.
3.	More people understand him than he expected./ has expected/ expects.
4.	The moment he finishes she'll have to make her presentation.
5.	Once Sharon finishes her exams, she will have more free time
6.	Neither Mary nor Peter prefers classical music to jazz.
7.	I had my car repaired at the garage in town.
8.	I will not/never speak to you (again).Bottom of Form
9.	I'd rather stay in than go out.
10.	If	the questions hadn’t been easy,		they wouldn’t have passed the driving test.
		the questions had been (more) difficult,		they would have failed the driving test.
		It hadn’t been for the easy questions,

Part X: 3 điểm

- Nội dung (content): 1.5 điểm

- Từ vựng (vocabulary): 0.5 điểm

- Ngữ pháp (grammar): 0.5 điểm

- Tính mạch lạc và trôi chảy (coherence and cohesion) + độ dài (length): 0.5 điểm

SECTION A: LISTENING (15 pts)

PART I. Listen to passage. Choose the best answer for each question below. (5ps)

1. How many percents do graduate schools in the United States increase in applications from international students this year?

A. seven percents     B. eight percents      C. nine percents        D. ten percents

2. When is the increase the same as?

A. two years ago       B. three years ago     C. four years ago      D. five years ago      

3. Which countries showed the biggest increases in applications to enter master’s and doctoral programs this fall?

A. China                                                        B. China, Mexico    

C. Mexico and Brazil                                   D. China, Mexico and Brazil

4. Which is the top area of study for international students?

A. Engineering          B. Business                C. Physical                D. Earth sciences

5. Who made the survey?

A. South Korea                                             B. The Council of Graduate Schools        

C. India                                                          D. Brazil

PART II. You'll hear a conversation between two people. Listen and fill in the blanks. (10pts)

This is the VOA Special English Agriculture Report.

Some (6)_________ in the Netherlands are spending (7)_________  hundred thirty thousand dollars on a (8)_________ The people are scientists at the University of Maastricht. They want to (9)_________ that they can make a hamburger that tastes good and does not require an animal to be (10)_________

Researcher Mark Post and his team have been growing muscle-tissue cells in a laboratory with muscle taken from (11)_________

MARK POST: “We have committed ourselves to make a couple of thousand of these small tissues and then assemble them (12)_________  a hamburger.” Several teams around the world are trying to (13)_________ meat without killing animals. So far the Dutch team appears to have (14)_________ the most progress.

Mr. Post says he wants to show that the world’s growing demand for meat could be (15) ______ more efficiently and with less harm to the environment.

SECTION B: PHONETICS (5 pts)

Question I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest in the same line. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (3pts)

16. A. seat                             B. heat                        C. bread                     D. leave

17. A. crooked                      B. involved               C. requested              D. needed

18. A. flood                           B. good                      C. foot                        D. look

Question II. Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three  words in each question. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (2pts)         

19.  A. pollution                       B. accident             C. relation                 D. agreement

20.  A. picture                         B. number              C. water                    D. canal

SECTION C:  VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (30 pts)

Question I. Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (10 pts)

21. 1. Even if you are rich, you should save some money for a __________day.

A. rainy               B. foggy                     C. snowy                    D. windy

22. He managed to finish his thesis under the _____ of his tutor.        

A. guidance        B. help                      C. aid                        D. assistance

23. A:  Congratulation! You did great.            B: __________

A. That’s okay                                     B. It’s my pleasure

C. You’ve welcome                              D. It’s nice of you to say so          

24. “You . __________have cooked so many dishes. There are only three of us for lunch.”

A. wouldn’t         B. oughtn’t                C. needn’t                  D. couldn’t   

25. The trouble started only__________the other man came into the room.

A. when               B. until                       C. and then                D. too soon

26. You’ll have to __________a better idea  than that if you want to win .  

A. come in for    B. get down to          C. bring out             D. come up with

27. The curriculum at the public school is as  good__________of any private school.

A. or better than                                     B.  as or better than that    

C. as or better that                                  D. as or better than those

28.Taxis don't follow any schedule: they come and go ________.

A. chronologically         B. punctually                         C. in sequence          D. at random

29. Samuel Clemens, __________under the pen name Mark Twain, created characters that reflected  purely American traits and habits.

A. wrote             B. who wrote              C. and he wrote         D. he wrote

30.They received __________advice from their parents that they became successful.

A. so good           B. such a good            C. so good an             D. such good

Question II. Put each verb in brackets into an appropriate form. Write the answers on your answer sheet .(8 pts)

31. The police are stopping all the cars. They (look)_________ for the escaped prison.

32. The woman said she (live) ______________ in this village for over fifty years.

33. The envelop (lie)  ____________ on the table has no stamp on it.

34. Peter along with his parents (watch)   _________  TV at the moment.

35. It’s a great pity you didn’t come to Brighton with us last Saturday. As you have never seen the sea before, it (be) _________ a new experience for you.

36. Don’t make the children (come)___________with us if they don’t want to.

37. If you want to see us, come to Tom’s on Sunday. We (wait)  _________ for you there at midday.

38. (Do) ________________ his homework, Nam went to bed late last night.

Question III. Put each word in brackets into an appropriate form. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (7pts)

39. They used to be _________ enemies, but now they have managed to bury the hatchet for the sake of mutual benefits. (RECONCILE)

40. List the problems facing poor and  _________ countries.                           (POPULATE)

41. I think most of the local ________ around here are very friendly.            (INHABIT)

42. It is ________ for beginning students to make mistakes in English.          (AVOID)

43. Both Nam and Hoa are stamp _______They share the same hobby   (COLLECT)

44. Their plan seemed to be _________ possible.                                            (THEORY)

45. Air ______is a big problem in many cities in the world.                 (POLLUTE)    

Question IV. The passage below contains 5 mistakes ( from 46 to 50 ). Recognize the mistakes and write their correct forms in your answer sheet. (5 pts)

Personal space is a term that refers to the distance we like to kept between ourselves and other people. When someone we do not know well gets too close we usually begin to feel comfortable. If a business colleague comes closer than 1.2 meters, the most common response is to move away. Some interesting studies have done in libraries. If strangers  come too close, many people get up and leave the building, others use  different methods such as turning their back on the intruder. Live in cities has made people  develop new skills for dealing with situations where they are very close to strangers. Most people on so crowd trains try not to look at strangers; they avoid skin contract, and apologize if hands touch by  mistake. People using newspapers as a barrier between themselves and other people, and if they do not have one, they stare into the distance, making sure they are not looking into anyone’s eyes..

Example: Line 1: kept→ keep

SECTION D: READING COMPREHENSION (30 pts)

Question I. Fill in each gap with ONE suitable word to complete the text below. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (10 points)

     The birthday cake is traditionally highly decorated,and typically covered(51)______ lit candles when presented; the number of candles often equals the(52)________of the person.The person (53)_______birthday it is makes a silent wish and then (54)____out the candles;if done in one breath,the wish is supposed to come (55)______,but only if the person keeps the wish to himself(or herself). It is also common for the "birthday boy" or" birthday girl" to cut the initial (56)______of the cake as a newlywed couple might with a wedding cake.Birthday cakes have been a tradition dating back as (57)_______as the Middle Ages when the English would conceal symbolic items (58)_______as gold coins,rings and thimbles inside their cakes.Each item was associated with a prediction.For example, a person (59)_______a gold coin in a birthday cake would supposedly (60)_______wealthy. 

Question II. Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word or phrase for each space. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (10pts)

                                     YOU CAN’T ESCAPE THE INTERNET                                   

  Over the last few years, the use of the Internet has increased dramatically in French schools, offices, and homes and this trend continues to grow. Who could have imagined, even in the last decade, that we would be able to (61) _______our friends, colleagues and clients around the world simply through the (62) _______ of a mouse and a modem? There is no doubt, like any invention, that the Internet can be used for good or bad but it is here to stay and has (63) _______ the way we communicate.

       In the world of business, no corporation can be competitive unless it has (64) _______to the Internet. It has become essential to advertise your product and service in this way and an increasing number of companies are using this opportunity to reach a greater number of (65) _______ consumers. Indeed, the bigger the website, (66) _______ professional the company seems to be.

       Similarly in education, the opportunities that the Internet can (67) _______are vast. More and more students are (68) _______ on the Internet for their research; for instance, a physics undergraduate in Paris can download information from a university library in the States in minutes. From the latest research in scientific and linguistic fields to new theories in psychology and history; all this may be published on the world-wide web.

       What will be the future for the Internet in France? It has been (69) _______ that 60% of homes and 50% of business will have access to the Internet within five years. Children, students and professionals will be able to (70) _______and explore the world as they have never done before.

61.  A. contact                             B. keep touch      C. stay in touch        D. talk

62.  A. tick                                   B. running            C. clap                       D. click

63.  A. modified                          B. been changed C. adapted                 D. revolutionized

64.  A. access                               B. use                   C. approach              D. downloading

65.  A. future                               B. competent       C. potential              D. would-be

66.  A. more and more                B. the more          C. more                     D. the most

67.  A. take                                   B. provide            C. support                 D. miss

68.  A. relying                              B. surfing             C. working                D. downloading

69.  A. established                     B. announced      C. claimed                D. calculated

70.  A. log on                               B. take on             C. log off                  D. switch on

Question III. Read the passage and choose the best answers to questions below. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (10 pts)

            Millions of people are using cell phones today. In many places, it is actually considered unusual not to use one. In many countries, cell phones are very popular with young people. They find that the phones are more than a means of communication - having a mobile phone shows that they are cool and connected.

            The explosion in mobile phone use around the world has made some health professionals worried. Some doctors are concerned that in the future many people may suffer health problems from the use of mobile phones. In England, there has been a serious debate about this issue. Mobile phone companies are worried about the negative publicity of such ideas. They say that there is no proof that mobile phones are bad for your health.

            On the other hand, medical studies have shown changes in the brain cells of some people who use mobile phones. Signs of change in the tissues of the brain and head can be detected with modern scanning equipment. In one case, a traveling salesman had to retire at young age because of serious memory loss. He couldn't remember even simple tasks. He would often forget the name of his own son. This man used to talk on his mobile phone for about six hours a day, every day of his working week, for a couple of years. His family doctor blamed his mobile phone use, but his employer's doctor didn't agree.

            What is it that makes mobile phones potentially harmful? The answer is radiation. High-tech machines can detect very small amounts of radiation from mobile phones. Mobile phone companies agree that there is some radiation, but they say the amount is too small to worry about.

            As the discussion about their safety continues, it appears that it's best to use mobile phones less often. Use your regular phone if you want to talk for a long time. Use your mobile phone only when you really need it. Mobile phones can be very useful and convenient, especially in emergencies. In the future, mobile phones may have a warning label that says they are bad for your health. So for now, it's wise not to use your mobile phone too often       

71. According to the passage, cell phones are especially popular with young people because __________ .

    A. they make them look more stylish. 

    B. they keep the users alert all the time.

    C. they cannot be replaced by regular phones.            

    D. they are indispensable in everyday communications.

72.  The word "means" in the passage most closely means ________ .

   A. meanings             B. expression                     C. transmission         D. method

73.  Doctors have tentatively concluded that cell phones may _________ .

   A. cause some mental malfunction                   B. change their users’ temperament.

   C. change their users’ social behaviours.          D. damage their users’ emotions.

74.  "Negative publicity" in the passage most likely means _________ .

   A. information on the lethal effects of cell phones.           

   B. widespread opinion about bad effects of cell phones

   C. the negative public use of cell phones.                       

   D. poor ideas about the effects of cell phones.

75.  The changes possibly caused by the cell phones are mainly concerned with ______ .

   A. the resident memory.                                    B. the mobility of the mind and the body.

   C. the smallest units of the brain.                      D. the arteries of the brain.

--(Nội dung đầy đủ, chi tiết vui lòng xem tại online hoặc đăng nhập để tải về máy)---

ĐÁP ÁN

SECTION A: LISTENING (15 pts)

PART I. For questions 1-5, tick (ü) A, B or C. (5pts)

1. C

2. A

3. D

4. A

5. B

PART II. You will hear a conversation between two people. Listen and complete questions 6-10. (10pts)

6.people	7. three	8. hamburger	9. prove	10.killed
11. cow	12. into	13. produce	14. made	15. satisfied

SECTION B: PHONETICS (5 pts)       

Question I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest in the same line. Write the answers on your answer sheet (3pts)

16.C

17.B

18.A

Question II. Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three  words in each question. Write the answers on your answer sheet (2pts)

19.B

20.D

SECTION C:  VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (30 pts)

Question I. Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence. (10 pts)

21.A	22.A	23.D	24.C	25.A
26.D	27.B	28.	29.B	30.D

Question II. Put each verb in brackets into an appropriate form. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (8 pts)

31. must be looking	35. would have been
32. had been living/had lived	36. come
33. lying	37. will be waiting
34. is watching	38. Having done

Question III. Put each word in brackets into an appropriate form. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (7pts)

39. irreconcilable                                                     43. collectors

40. overpopulated                                                    44. theoretically

41. inhabitants                                                          45. polluion

42. unavoidable

Question IV. The passage below contains 5 mistakes (from 31 to 36). Recognise the mistakes and write their correct forms in your answer sheet. (5 pts)

46. Line 3: comfortable                   → uncomfortable

47. Line 4: have done                    → have been done

48. Line 6: Live                              → Living

49. Line 8: crowd                            → crowded

50. Line 9: using                              → use

SECTION D: READING COMPREHENSION (30 pts)

Question I. Fill in each gap with ONE suitable word to complete the text below. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (10 pts)

51. with	52. age	53. whose	54. blow	55. true
56. piece	57. far	58. such	59. finding	60. become

Question II. Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word or phrase for each space. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (10pts)

61. A	62. A	63. D	64. A	65. C
66. B	67. B	68. A	69. D	70. A

Question III. Read the passage and choose the best answers to questions below. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (10 pts)

71. A	72. D	73. A	74. B	75. C
76. A	77. B	78. D	79. D	80. C

SECTION E: WRITING (20 pts)

Question I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it. (5 pts)

81. My grandfather didn’t have any recollection of phoning me last night.

82. Not until he came back to the office did he remember his mobile phone.

83. No sooner had he been appointed to the post than the new editor fell ill.

84. So long as you promise not to do anything wrong, you are allowed to play in my garden.

85. Were you to change your mind, you would be welcomed to join our class.

Question II. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it but using the word given. Do not change the form of the given word. (5pts)

86. It doesn’t make any/ much difference to me whether we go to the seaside or not this year.

87. I would rather you did not phone me at work.

88. He has no intention to stop campaigning for his son’s freedom.

89. I told him that there was no point in worrying about the past.

90. No matter how hard I tried, I couldn’t get the money.

Question III. Essay writing (10 pts)

Marking scheme:   The impression mark should be based on the following scheme

1. Format: 2 pts (coherence, cohesion, style)

The essay should include 3 parts:

a. Introduction:  should be put in one paragraph in which students’ points of view are expressed clearly

b. Body: should consist of from two to three paragraphs. Each paragraph must have a topic sentence, reasonings and examples. 

c. Conclusion (summary of the main reasons, students’ comment)

2. Content: 5pts

A provision of main ideas and details as appropriate to support the argument.

3. Language: 3pts (grammatical accuracy, a wide range of vocabulary and structures)

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