Nội dung tài liệu Bộ 5 đề thi chọn HSG môn Tiếng Anh 11 có đáp án năm 2021 Trường THPT Nguyễn Khuyến được HỌC247 biên soạn và tổng hợp dưới đây sẽ hệ thống tất cả các bài tập trắc nghiệm và tự luận có đáp án nhằm giúp bạn đọc củng cố kiến thức lý thuyết và rèn luyện kỹ năng giải bài tập môn Tiếng Anh 11. Mời các bạn cùng tham khảo.
|
TRƯỜNG THPT NGUYỄN KHUYẾN |
ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI NĂM HỌC 2020-2021 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 11 (Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề) |
1. Đề số 1
I. LISTENING (2.0 pts)
PART 1: Questions 1-5 (1.0 pt)
You will hear a woman and a man talking about their work at the library. Complete the information below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. You will hear the conversation twice.
CITY LIBRARY
Head Librarian: Mrs. Phillips
Hours: (1) __________________________to 4:30
Books
Ground floor: (2) ______________________________
Second floor: Adult collection
Third floor: (3) ______________________________
Book carts
Brown cart: books to re-shelve
Black cart: books to (4) _________________________
White cart: books to (5) ________________________
PART 2: Questions 6-10 (1.0 pt)
You will hear part of a radio interview with Martin Middleton, who makes wildlife programmes for television. For questions 6-10, choose the best answer (A, B or C). You will hear the conversation twice.
6. When he visited Borneo, Martin __________________________________________
A. made a programme about life on the river.
B. had no fixed expectations.
C. became more interested in filming old buildings.
7. Since the early 1960s, wildlife filming has become ____________________________
A. more organised. B. more relaxed. C. more creative.
8. When he takes a holiday, Martin prefers to ___________________________________
A. relax by the sea.
B. travel for a particular reason.
C. stay in comfortable surroundings.
9. Martin thought that the holiday-makers he saw in the Dominican Republic were_______
A. risking their health. B. wasting opportunities. C. lacking entertainment.
10. According to Martin, tourism _____________________________________________
A. should be discouraged. B. is well managed. C. can be a good thing.
II. LEXICO- GRAMMAR (3.0 pts)
For questions 11- 40, choose the option (A, B, C or D) that best completes each of the following sentences.
11. The chemical _______ from cars and factories make the air, water and soil dangerously dirty.
A. pollution B. polluted C. pollute D. pollutants
12. Mr Evans has _______ a valuable contribution to the development of the school.
A. done B. created C. caused D. made
13. Most psychologists agree that the basic structure of an individual’s personality is ______.
A. by the age of five it is quite well established
B. well established quite by the age of five
C. by the age of five and quite well established
D. quite well established by the age of five
14. The dogs next door keep barking. It’s really _______.
A. annoying B. annoyed C. annoyance D. annoy
15. The flood resulted ________ many thousands of deaths.
A. about B. from C. in D. on
16. Two students, Bill and Bob, are talking about their teacher, Ms Young. Choose the most suitable response to fill in the blank in the following exchange.
Bill: “Ms Young always grades fairly.”
Bob: “_______”
A. I can’t say that it does. B. Actually, she is the second best.
C. Really? How could that be? D. I couldn’t agree with you more.
17. The public library _______ to all readers who are interested in reading and doing research.
A. is opening B. is open C. is opened D. is being opened
18. _______ better working conditions.
A. What’s interesting the workers most is B. What interests the workers most is
C. What interest the workers most is D. What’s interested the workers most is
19. Does anyone know _______ that jacket might be?
A. whose B. who C. whom D. why
20. Drinking water _______ excessive amounts of flourides may leave a stained or mottled effect on the enamel of teeth.
A. containing B. in which containing C. contains D. contained
21. The football match was so dull that most of the _______ left at half time.
A. viewers B. audience C. lookers D. spectators
22. Daisy: Is swimming under water very difficult?
Tom: No, it’s just a matter _______ able to control your breathing. A. to be B. that you are C. of being D. being
23. Linda and Maya are talking to each other. Choose the most suitable response to fill in the blank in the following exchange.
- Linda: Do you mind the window being open?
- Maya: _______. It’s much too cold.
A. I’m afraid I don’t B. No, I don’t C. Yes, please D. Yes, I do mind
24. The school was closed for a month because of serious _______ of fever.
A. outbreak B. outcome C. outburst D. outset
25. Declared an endangered species in the United States, _______.
A. the ginseng root has been gathered almost to the point of extinction
B. people have gathered the ginseng root almost to the point of extinction
C. the near extinction of the ginseng root is due to excessive gathering
D. gathering the ginseng root almost to the point of extinction
26. Many newer cars have a much lower fuel _______.
A. consuming B. consumer C. consummation D. consumption
27. John: I _______ about buying a new car recently.
Peter: Really? What sort of car?
A. thought B. have been thinking
C. have thought D. had been thinking
28. Before you sign the contract, _______ in mind that you won’t be able to change anything later.
A. hold B. retain C. bear D. reserve
29. Europe’s share of the world population has sharply _______ from 21.7 to 12.8 percent.
A. declined B. reached C. increased D. maintained
30. There was an accident at the crossroads _______ midnight last night.
A. on B. at C. for D. in
31. ______ had the van turned the corner than the wheel came off.
A. No longer B. No sooner C. Hardly D. Scarcely
32. _______ James wanted to show his wife that he bought her a very expensive diamond ring.
A. How love B. It is how the love
C. How much love D. It was how much love
33. Determining the mineral content of soil samples is an exacting process; _______ experts must perform detailed tests to analyze soil specimens.
A. therefore B. so that C. however D. afterward
34. One man _______ outside his country is tipped to become the new president.
A. little knowing B. little known C. to know little D. to be little known
35. _______ further riot to occur, the government would be forced to use its emergency powers.
A. Should B. Were C. Did D. Had
36. _______ of transportation has given someone the idea for a new type of toy.
A. Mostly forms B. Most every form C. Almost forms D. Almost every form
For questions 37 - 38, choose the option (A, B, C or D) to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
37. There was not total agreement, but by and large, the members agreed that the new rules were necessary.
A. fortunately B. generally C. sadly D. coincidentally
38. The National Institute of Mental Health is conducting far-reaching reseach to determine the psychological effects of using drugs.
A. refined B. prevalent C. extensive D. tentative
For questions 39 - 40, choose the option (A, B, C or D) to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
39. Pure water is often a fairly rare commodity that requires significant energy to produce.
A. sanitary B. contaminated C. flawless D. clean
40. He had never experienced such discourtesy towards the president as it occured at the annual meeting in May.
A. rudeness B. politeness C. encouragement D. measurement
III. READING (3.0 pts)
PART 1: For questions from 41- 50, read the text below and decide which option (A, B, C, or D) best fits each of the numbered gaps. (1.0 pt)
THE EARLY DAYS OF FOOTBALL
Football became the game we know today during the reign of Queen Victoria in the nineteenth century. So many different (41) _______ of the game were being played in Britain at that time, that in 1863 the Football Association was formed in order to draw up and agree the (42) _______ of the game.
Throughout the country new football (43) ______ were built and the development of the railways (44) ______ that football teams and their fans could travel to the matches. In 1888, the Football League was (45) _______ up with twelve clubs, and football became a national sport, (46) _______ to rugby by many people as the more popular game of the two.
Sometimes people played the game in just a field. In one town, Burnley, in the north of England, the field had a river (47) ______ along the side of it in which players took baths after matches. People stood on banks made from earth and it was not until the early 1900s that (48) ______ stands were built. The players would have had two wooden (49) ______ for the goal with tapes across the top instead of a crossbar, and nets were not (50) ______ until 1891.
41. A. methods B. conditions C. ways D. forms
42. A. techniques B. rules C. laws D. lines
43. A. places B. lands C. grounds D. courses
44. A. meant B. helped C. intended D. said
45. A. put B. got C. made D. set
46. A. wanted B. favoured C. preferred D. liked
47. A. running B. lying C. moving D. causing
48. A. accurate B. right C. proper D. correct
49. A. pins B. nails C. points D. posts
50. A. composed B. invented C. completed D. presented
PART 2. For questions 51 - 60, read the following passage and decide which option A, B, C, or D best fits each of the questions. (1.0 pt)
SURFACE WATER AND GROUND WATER
Ensuring the reliability and purity of the water supply is one of the more significant challenges facing an ever growing world population. Unfortunately, only about 3% of the
world’s total water supply is fresh; the rest is sea water and is unusable for most of our purposes. Furthermore, of that 3%, three fourths are largely inaccessible because it exists as frozen ice locked in the polar ice caps or as glaciers high in mountains. The remaining percentage of fresh water that is available for human use exists in two forms: surface water and ground water.
Surface water is found in rivers, lakes, and man-made reservoirs fad by either rainfall or snowmelt. Surface water makes up nearly 80% of all the water utilized by humans, primarily due to its accessibility. Nearly every river or lake in the world contains one or more pumping stations to divert a portion of its flow to nearby population centers. However, surface water supplies present several disadvantages. First, surface water is easily polluted. Chemical pollution from the air enters surface water in the form of rain, and ground pollution is either dumped directly into lakes and rivers or washed into them by rainwater. In addition, biological pollution caused by the dumping of raw sewage into a water source, can lead to dangerous levels of bacteria. Another problem is relying on surface water is that its supply is highly variable. Water levels in lakes and rivers can fall drastically in periods of severe drought. In places that are prone to extended dry periods, such as Australia or much of California, some rivers are even known to occasionally run dry due to a combination of drought and overuse.
The other primary source of fresh water is ground water. Although ground water is estimated to be as much as 50 times more abundant than surface water, it constitutes only 20% of all the fresh water used by humans, and much of this usage occurs in rural areas. This is a reflection of the relative difficulty in obtaining ground water. Ground water exists in underground deposits known as aquifers, layers of porous rock in the Earth. As rainwater sinks into the ground it eventually reaches the aquifer where it is absorbed, much as a kitchen sponge absorbs water.
To obtain ground water, a well must be drilled down to the level of the aquifer, and then the water must be pumped to the surface. Aquifers occur at different depths in different areas, and the deeper the aquifer, the more difficult and more expensive it is to extract its water. Furthermore, if water is taken from an aquifer at a higher rate than it is recharged naturally, its level will drop, necessitating ever deeper wells. This also creates problems with ground stability. As water is drained out of an aquifer, the ground naturally tends to sink and compress, leading to greater risk of subsidence and landslides. Since aquifers are fed through a slow acting system of drainage, they have much slower recharge rates than surface water resources and are easily overtaxed. Therefore, ground water is generally only used when surface water is unavailable, even though ground water is far more abundant.
Like surface water, ground water can also become polluted, although not as easily. The soil that water sinks through before reaching the aquifer acts as a natural filter, leaching out some of the pollutants. Furthermore, the lack of oxygen in the aquifer generally restricts the growth of bacteria, so most ground water can be utilized safely without treatment. However, pollution can enter an aquifer when pollution sources are buried underground, such as they are in landfills. In other areas, the presence of heavy metal, nearly all of which are highly toxic in the human body, may render ground water undrinkable.
51. According to paragraph 1, all of the following are true of fresh water EXCEPT:
A. It makes up a minute proportion of the world’s total water supply.
B. Its supply is endangered by the melting of the ice caps.
C. Much of it is unavailable for human use.
D. Its reliable supply is a growing problem in the world.
52. What is the source of most surface water?
A. Melting glaciers.B. Underground springs. C. Precipitation. D. Filtration of seawater.
53. Based on the information in paragraph 2, what can be inferred about most population center?
A. They have grown to sixes unsustainable by current water resources.
B. They always contribute to great levels of pollution in surface water.
C. They generally can be found in close proximity to a source of surface.
D. They are unable to cope with rising levels of bacteria in surface water.
54. The word prone in the passage is closest meaning to __________.
A. inclined B. experienced C. recognized D. associated
55. According to paragraph 2, what causes increases in bacteria in surface water?
A. The dumping of human and animal waste.
B. Increased industrial pollution.
C. Overexploitation of a surface water source.
D. Drops in the overall level of a surface water source.
56. The word porous in the passage is closest meaning to __________.
A. sodden B. permeable C. absorptive D. submerged
57. In paragraph 3, the author mentions the abundance of the ground water in order to ______
A. suggest that it may offer a solution to the world’s water needs.
B. explain the lack of surface water in many areas.
C. explain why it is only used in rural areas.
D. contrast with its relatively low usage by humans.
58. According to paragraph 4, increased danger of subsidence is caused by __________
A. the holes created by large numbers of wells.
B. the compression of water in an aquifer.
C. excessive drops in the level of an aquifer.
D. landsides beneath an aquifer.
59. According to paragraph 5, bacteria are generally not a concern in ground water because _____
A. heavy metals prevent their growth.
B. there is not enough air to support them.
C. they are filtered out before they reach the aquifer.
D. bacteria would make the water undrinkable.
60. Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 5 about heavy metals?
A. They are generally water soluble. B. They cannot be filtered out of water.
C. They only occur in aquifers. D. They can be detected by their foul taste.
PART 3. For questions 61 - 70, read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, or C on your answer sheet to identify whether the statements are true, false or not given. (1.0 pt)
People appear to be born to compute. The numeral skills of children develop so early and so inexorably that it is easy to imagine an internal clock of mathematic maturity guiding their growth. Not long after learning to walk and talk, they can set the table with impressive
accuracy - one plate, one knife, one spoon, one fork, for each of the five chairs. Soon they are capable of noting that have placed five knives, spoons, and forks on the table and a bit later, that this amounts to fifteen pieces of silverware. Having thus mastered addition, they move on to subtraction. It seems almost reasonable to expect that if a child were secluded on a desert island at birth and retrieved seven years later, he or she could enter a second-grade mathematics class without any serious problems of intellectual adjustment.
Of course, the truth is not so simple. This century, the work of cognitive psychologists has illuminated the subtle forms of daily learning on which intellectual progress depends. Children were observed as they slowly grasped - or, as the case might be, bumped into-concepts that adults take for granted, as they refused, for instance, to concede that quantity is unchanged as water pours from a short stout glass into a thin one. Psychologists have since demonstrated that young children, asked to count the pencils in a pile, readily report the number of blue or red pencils, but must be coaxed into finding the total. Such studies have suggested that the rudiments of mathematics are mastered gradually and with effort. They have also suggested that the very concept of abstract numbers- the idea of a oneness, a twoness, a threeness that applies to any class of objects and is a prerequisite for doing anything more mathematically demanding than setting a table- is itself far from innate.
61. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The development of mathematical ability in children
B. Trends in teaching mathematics to children
C. The use of mathematics in child psychology.
D. The fundamental concepts of mathematics that children must learn.
62. It can be inferred from the passage that children normally learn simple counting _______.
A. soon after they learn to talk B. by looking at the clock
C. when they begin to be mathematically mature D. after they reach second grade in school
63. The word illuminated in paragraph 2 is closet in meaning to __________.
A. illustrated B. clarified C. accepted D. lighted
64. The author implies that most small children believe that the quantity of water changes when it is transfered to a container of a different __________.
A. color B. quality C. shape D. weight
65. According to the passage, when small children were asked to count a pile of red and blue pencils, they __________.
A. counted the number of pencils of each color
B. guessed at the total number of pencils
C. counted only the pencils of their favorite colors.
D. subtracted the number of red pencils from the number of blue pencils
66. The word They in bold in paragraph 2 refers to __________.
A. studies B. mathematicians C. children D. pencils
67. The word prerequisite in bold in paragraph 2 is closet in meaning to __________.
A. reason B. theory C. requirement D. technique
68. The word itself in bold in paragraph 2 refers to __________.
A. the concept of abstract numbers B. the total
C. any class of objects D. setting a table
69. With which of the following statements would the author be LEAST likely to agree?
A. Children learn to add before they learn to subtract.
B. Children naturally and easily learn mathematics.
C. Most people follow the same pattern of mathematical development.
D. Mathematical development is subtle and gradual.
70. Where in the passage does the author give an example of a hypothetical experiment?
A. Line 3-7 B. Line 7-9 C. Line 11-14 D. Line 17-20
IV. WRITING (2.0 pts)
PART 1: Questions 71-80, finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it. There is an example at the beginning (0). (1.0 pt)
0. The last time I saw my sister was three years ago.
It's three years since I last saw my sister.
71. Thanks to Laura’s support, I was able to finish the project.
Had it_____________________________________________________________.
72. It might be a good idea to use honey instead of sugar.
Why _____________________________________________________________?
73. Experts think that all dogs evolved from wolves.
All dogs___________________________________________________________.
74. When I was young, I read a lot of comic books.
I used ____________________________________________________________.
75. Driving at that speed is dangerous, whether you are an experienced driver or not.
However__________________________________________________________.
76. I find his handwriting very hard to read.
I have ____________________________________________________________.
77. The only way to eliminate world terrorism is by untied opposition.
Only by__________________________________________________________.
78. Using public transport saves energy as well as reduces pollution.
Not only__________________________________________________________.
79. Vietnamese people celebrate Tet as the greatest occasion in a year.
It is Tet___________________________________________________________.
80. When you lie, some gestures can show you are lying.
Some gestures _____________________________________________________.
PART 2: Questions 81-90, combine given sentences as directed to make meaningful ones. There is an example at the beginning (0). (1.0 pt)
0. The film was very boring. I fell asleep. (so...that)
=> The film was so boring that I fell asleep.
81. Lucy paid a visit to the local orphanage. She then decided to donate part of her savings to the children there. (Using perfect participle)
______________________________________.
82. Everyone was surprised that the singer had very little money when he died. (Using relative pronoun which)
___________________________________________.
83. Although it rained torrentially all day, we all enjoyed the excursion. (Using despite)
__________________________________________.
84. "Shall I carry your suitcase, Lan?” said Nam. (Using reported speech with "to infinitive")
___________________________________________.
85. They didn’t look after the children properly. (Using cleft sentence in passive voice)
_____________________________________________.
86. The reading table is in the corner of the room. I put my books on it. (Using relative clause with preposition)
_________________________________________.
87. If you work harder now, you won't have to do so much later. (Using double comparison)
______________________________________________.
88. She didn’t have breakfast. She feels hungry now. (Using conditional sentence)
__________________________________________________.
89. Only a few of the movies are suitable for the children. The movies are shown on Channel. (Using a reduced relative clause)
_______________________________________.
90. Whether or not Tom speaks Spanish, I think he should still visit Madrid. (Using even if)
______________________________________________.
___________THE END___________
ĐÁP ÁN
LISTENING (2.0 pts)
Part 1: Questions 1-5 (5 câu x 0,2đ)
Questions 1- 5:
1. 8:30 2. reference books 3. children’s books 4. be repaired/ repair 5. be sold/ sell
Part 2: Questions 6-10. (5 câu x 0,2đ)
6.B 7.A 8.B 9.B 10.C
LEXICO- GRAMMAR (3.0 pts)
Questions 11-40 (30 câu x 0,1đ)
11D 12D 13D 14A 15C 16D 17B 18B 19A 20A 21D 22C 23D 24A 25A
26D 27B 28C 29A 30B 31B 32D 33A 34B 35B 36D 37B 38C 39B 40B
READING (3.0 pts)
Part 1. (10 câu x 0.1đ)
41D 42B 43C 44A 45D 46C 47A 48C 49D 50B
Part 2. (10 câu x 0,1 đ)
51B 52C 53C 54A 55A 56C 57D 58C 59B 60A
Part 3. ( 10 câu x 0,1 đ)
61A 62A 63B 64C 65A 66A 67C 68A 69B 70B
SECTION IV: WRITING (2.0 pts)
Part 1. (10 câu x 0,1đ)
71. Had it not been for Laura’s support, I would not have been able to finish the project.
or: Had it not been for Laura’s support, I could not have finished the project.
72. Why don't you/we try using honey instead of sugar?
or: Why don't you/we use honey instead of sugar?
73. All dogs are thought to have evolved from wolves.
74. I used to read a lot of comic books (when I was young).
75. However experienced a driver you are/ may be, driving at that speed is dangerous.
76. I have difficulty (in) reading his handwriting.
77. Only by united opposition can/will/could we eliminate world terrorism.
or: Only by united opposition can/will/could world terrorism be eliminated.
78. Not only does using public transport save energy but it also reduces pollution.
79. It is Tet that Vietnamese people celebrate as the greatest occasion in a year.
or: It is Tet that is celebrated as the greatest occasion in a year.
80. Some gestures can give you away when you lie.
81. Having paid a visit to the local orphanage, Lucy decided to donate part of her savings to the children there.
82. The singer had very little money when he died, which surprised everyone.
83. Despite the torrential rain all day, we all enjoyed the excursion.
84. Nam offered to carry Lan's suitcase/ the suitcase for Lan.
85. It was the children that/ who weren't looked after properly.
86. The reading table on which I put my books is in the corner of the room.
87. The harder you work now, the less you will have to do later.
or: The harder you work now, the more you won't have to do later.
88. If she had had breakfast, she wouldn’t feel hungry now.
89. Only a few of the movies shown on Channel are suitable for the children.
90. Even if Tom doesn't speak Spanish, I think he should still visit Madrid.
Thank you for your cooperation!
2. Đề số 2
PART A. LISTENING. (Each recording will be played TWICE)
Section 1.
Questions 1-4: Listen and select the correct answer from the choices given. Write A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet.
1. Where is Mr. Garcia living?
A. Private accommodation B. With friends
C. Self-catering university accommodation D. Catered university accommodation
2. Why doesn’t he like his accommodation?
A. The food is not good. B. The meals are at inconvenient times.
C. He doesn’t like his cohabitants. D. It’s on the university campus.
3. Where are Mr. Garcia and his friends from?
A. Costa Rica, Spain, Bolivia B. Ecuador, Spain, Mexico
C. Mexico, Columbia, Spain D. Spain, Brazil, Argentina
4. What kind of place are they hoping to find?
A. A house with a garden next to the university
B. A flat or a house next to the university
C. A house not too near to the university
D. A flat or a house not too near to the university
Questions 5-7: Listen and complete the details below using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/ OR NUMBERS.
|
Name: Manuel Garcia Current address: (5) ___________________ Telephone number: 0453672348 Email address: (6) ___________________ Age: 19 Gender: Male Smoker? No Budgeted monthly rent: (7) ___________________ |
Questions 8-10: Listen and select the correct answer from the choices given. Write A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet.
8. Why can Mr. Garcia expect a small reduction in rent?
A. The salesman like him. B. There is no contract.
C. July is a good month to move in. D. He and his friends will stay all year.
9. How much is the accommodation agency’s fee for Mr. Garcia?
A. ½ month’s rent B. 1 month’s rent C. 1 ½ month’s rent D. There’s no fee
10. Which items does Mr. Garcia consider necessary?
A. Kitchen utensils, washing machine, Internet connection
B. Washing machine, Internet connection, TV
C. DVD player, TV, Internet connection
D. Shower, TV, washing machine
Section 2.
Questions 11-14: Listen and complete the sentences below using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND / OR A NUMBER.
11. “Canadian Clean Air Day” will be held on __________.
12. Air pollution may be responsible for __________ deaths every year in Canada.
13. The sector most responsible for smog- producing pollutants is __________.
14. Scientists now know that even __________ of pollutants can be harmful.
Questions 15-20: Listen and complete the notes below using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS.
|
Reducing Air Pollution Individual action
Government action
|
PART B. PHONETICS.
Pick out the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the other words. Identify your answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
1. A. terrific B. childbearing C. tsunami D. enthusiast
2. A. advertise B. difficulty C. history D. introduce
3. A. ancestor B. admirable C. comparable D. interpret
4. A. colleague B. degree C. language D. subject
5. A. delicacy B. internship C. inventory D. interrupt
PART C. LEXICO - GRAMMAR.
Section 1. Complete the following sentences by choosing the correct answer (A, B, C or D).
1. It's surprising how few people can_________ between margarine and butter.
A. diagnose B. distinguish C. separate D. estimate
2. The scheme sounds excellent in theory, but it's totally_________ in a country like this.
A. inaccessible B. impracticable C. insoluble D. impassable
3. This evidence should prove ________ that he was telling the truth.
A. once and for all B. now and then
C. over and above D. from time to time
4. In China’s largest psychiatric facility, there is a serious lack of resources but the staff try hard to _________ this in their treatment of the patients.
A. make up for B. go in for C. put up with D. set in for
5. Of all the factors affecting agricultural yields, the weather is the one_________ the most.
A. that influences farmers B. farmers that is influences
C. why farmers influence it D. it influences farmers
6. It is necessary that he _________ of his old parents.
A. takes care B. to take care C. take care D. took care
7. Mrs. Smith: “There's someone at the door.” - Mary: “_________ it.”
A. I answer B. I'm answering C. I answered D. I'll answer
8. Alex: “John has found a new girlfriend.” - Jan: “________”
A. So has he B. Oh, so he has C. Well, so does he D. He has so
9. It is still a good idea to know how to type. _________ many technological advances in typewriters and word processors, a skilled operator remains indispensable.
A. In spite of B. Because of C. In case of D. In addition to
10. They ________ the play last night as they went to a football match instead.
A. couldn’t see B. might have seen
C. mustn’t have seen D. can’t have seen
Section 2. Supply the correct form of the words in brackets.
FLAMENCO DANCE
The essence of flamenco is song, often accompanied by the guitar and improvised dance. Music and dance can be placed into specific groups. These categories are usually located across a continuum with subjects dealing with the profound to those that are light-hearted. ___________ (1. TYPE), the themes of death, anguish and despair, in contrast to love, gaiety and the countryside are __________ (2. DRAMA). In flamenco dance, the men’s steps are intricate, with toe and heel clicking. Footwork in women’s dancing is of less importance, with the ___________ (3. GRACE) use of hands and body taking ___________ (4. PRECEDE). In the dance, the arm, hand and foot movements closely resemble those of classical Hindu dance. Essential to traditional flamenco is the performer’s interpretation of the dance ____________ (5. HINDER) by the emotion of the music. Performances are often accompanied by rapid hand clapping, finger snapping and ___________ (6. ENCOURAGE) shouts. The dancers themselves frequently employ finger snapping in complex rhythms including the use of castanets. This dance form was __________ (7. PROFESSION) in the 19th century, when Romany people first began to perform in cafes. In this environment, _________ (8. DEPART) from the traditional form occurred. Unfortunately, the pressures of the ___________ (9. COMMERCE) stage meant that rehearsed routines replaced the __________ (10. SPONTANEOUS) of the original flamenco performances.
Section 3. The following passage contains 5 errors. Identify and correct them.
--(Nội dung đầy đủ, chi tiết vui lòng xem tại online hoặc đăng nhập để tải về máy)---
-----THE END-----
ĐÁP ÁN
PART A. LISTENING. (4 pts: 0.2 p/each correct answer)
Section 1. (2 pts: 0.2 p/each correct answer)
|
1. D |
2. B |
3. C |
4. C |
5. 35c Campus Lane |
|
6. garcianuk@email.uk |
7. £ 200-250/ 200 to 250 pounds |
8. D |
9. A |
10. B |
Section 2. (2 pts: 0.2 p/each correct answer)
|
11. June 6th |
12. 5,000 |
13. transportation |
14. low levels |
15. Commuter |
|
16. plant trees |
17. upgrade |
18. border |
19. clean(er) fuels |
20. factories |
PART B. PHONETICS. (1 pt: 0.2p/each correct answer)
|
1. B |
2. D |
3. D |
4. B |
5. D |
PART C. LEXICO - GRAMMAR. (5 pts: 0.2 p/each correct answer)
Section 1: (2 pts: 0.2p/each correct answer)
|
1. B |
2. B |
3. A |
4. A |
5. A |
|
6. C |
7. D |
8. B |
9. A |
10. D |
Section 2 (2 pts: 0.2 /each correct answer)
|
1. Typically |
2. dramatized |
3. graceful |
4. precedence |
5. unhindered |
|
6. encouraging |
7. professionalized |
8. departure |
9. commercial |
10. spontaneity |
Section 3 (1 pt: 0.2 /each correct answer)
|
No |
Line |
Mistake |
Correction |
|
1 |
1 |
make |
do |
|
2 |
3 |
studies |
learns |
|
3 |
4 |
possible |
able |
|
4 |
6 |
which |
where |
|
5 |
7 |
or |
and |
PART D. READING. (6 pts: 0.2 p/each correct answer)
Section 1 (2 pts: 0.2 /each correct answer)
|
1. C |
2. D |
3. B |
4. B |
5. A |
6. C |
7. D |
8. C |
9. B |
10. A |
Section 2 (2 pts: 0.2 /each correct answer)
|
1. inhabiting |
2. whose |
3. their |
4. it |
5. one |
|
6. too |
7. on |
8. is |
9. at |
10. fully |
Section 3 (2 pts: 0.2 /each correct answer)
|
1. D |
2.A |
3.B |
4.B |
5.A |
6.D |
7.A |
8.A |
9.D |
10.B |
PART E. WRITING. (4 pts)
Section 1. (1 pt: 0.2p/each correct answer)
1. The director was not on good terms with the chief accountant.
2. There is an absence of animals in a vast area after the forest fire.
3. Under no circumstances shall/will I lend Robert any money.
4. What annoyed me was his refusal to listen to reason.
5. Nothing can be compared with her sacrifice.
Section 2. Essay Writing (3.0 pts)
|
The mark is based on the following criteria: 1. Content (1,2 pts) a. Providing all main ideas and details as required. b. Communicating intentions sufficiently and effectively. 2. Organization and presentation (0,7 pt) a. Ideas are well-organized and presented with coherence, cohesion, and clarity. b. The essay is well-structured. 3. Language (0,7 pt) a. Demonstration of a variety of vocabulary and structure appropriate to level of English language of gifted students. b. Good use and control of grammatical structures. 4. Punctuation, spelling and handwriting (0,4 pt) a. Good punctuation and no spelling mistakes. b. Legible handwriting. |
1,2 pts
0,7 pt
0,7 pt
0,4 pt |
------------------- THE END-------------------
3. Đề số 3
PART 1: LISTENING
I. Questions 01 – 10. You are going to hear somebody giving their opinion about the media and its influence on society. For questions 01 – 10, complete the sentences with a word or short phrase.
|
II. Questions 11 – 14. Complete the summary below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.
After high school some people travel, find a(n) (11) ________________ or take on temporary work to save money for further education.
If you decide to go straight on to more study, to start with you should think about your (12) __________________. You’ll also need to consider whether your (13) ________________ will help you eventually get a good job. After course selection, you should decide on study goals: how many papers to take and what (14) _________________ you want to achieve.
Questions 15 – 20. Where would you go for information or resources?
Write the correct letter A, B, or C next to questions 15 – 20.
|
A. from an Internet website B. in the form of personal advice or guidance C. on the availability of financial assistance |
15. Higher Education Providers 16. Apprenticeship Scheme
17. School Careers Advisor 18. Career Services
19. Student Support Association 20. Libraries
PART 2: LEXICO-GRAMMAR
I. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
01. How long have you been looking for_________?
A. employee B. employer C. employment D. employ
02. To_________ photography professionally requires a lot of skills.
A. do B. make C. commit D. carry
03. We made her an excellent offer, but she_________ it.
A. turned B. rejected C. accepted D. denied
04. It must have been painful to him to stand there and watch his efforts going_________.
A. down the drain B. off the peg C. on the shelf D. off the old block
05. That old building is going to be_________ and a new library will be built in its place.
A. pushed off B. pulled down C. pushed in D. pull through
06. You are not allowed to bring coffee into the examination room, _________?
A. do you? B. aren’t you? C. don’t you? D. are you?
07. When we met that day in Paris, I didn’t know that he was married_________ Barbara.
A. with B. to C. in D. of
08. He looked me_________ in the eye as though he hoped to draw something out of me.
A. long B. longly D. lengthy D. lengthily
09. He has decided to buy a_________ for his son on the boy’s twenty-first birthday.
A. German sports posh B. posh German sports
D. posh sports German D. German posh sports
10. It is cheaper to travel by air in_________.
A. second hand B. style C. savings account D. economy class
11. Members of the rock group were asked to modify their behavior_________ leave the hotel.
A. or else B. unless C. lest D. in case
12. The stage design was _________, but unfortunately the acting wasn’t so impressive.
A. out of this world B. out of mind C. out of the blue D. out of sight
13. Richard has invited Ann to his study group tonight, but she has refused. What would Richard be most likely to say in response to Ann’s refusal?
Ann: “I’m afraid I can’t go tonight. I’m just not in the mood for it!”
Richard: “_______________!”
A. Off you go B. You are out C. Suit yourself D. Good for you
14. _________ to the Senate than he began to face some of the realities of being a U.S. senator: the heavy work load; maintaining two households, being away from his family.
A. No sooner had Obama been elected B. No sooner Obama had been elected
C. No sooner had Obama elected D. No sooner Obama had elected
15. Richard is asking Ann about quantum physics, but Ann doesn’t know the answer to his question. What would Ann be most likely to say?
Richard: “So, Ann, do the electrons in a pair spin in two opposite directions or not?”
Ann: “_______________!”
A. Mind your own business B. Whatever floats your boats
C. This is way below me D. Search me
16. Vietnam’s renowned rocker Tran Lap, _________ died of cancer on 17 March 2016, will be honored with a posthumous medal for his contribution to the country’s music industry.
A. that B. who C. whom D. whose
17. The Vietnamese Fisheries Association has issued a_________ of China’s illegal ban on fishing in the East Sea.
A. declamation B. defamation C. denunciation D. devaluation
18. _________ growing concern about unsafe food, many foreign and local firms are exploring opportunities to produce safe food in the country.
A. Amid B. Despite C. Regardless of D. According to
19. Hue locals consider Buddha’s birthday to be an important local holiday and will take time_________ from their daily schedules for pagoda trips and prayer.
A. out B. away C. off D. down
20. Through generations, despite many _________, some Huong Canh families have successfully preserved their traditional job of clay pot and tile making.
A. out and about B. odds and ends C. ins and outs D. ups and downs
II. Find one mistake in each of the following sentences by choosing A, B, C or D. Write your answers on your answer sheet.
21. The issue was so controversial, but they were able to settle it in the end of the discussion.
A. was B. but C. able D. in the end
22. It cost him fortune to divorce her but at the end of the day he was more than happy because he made the right choice.
A. fortune B. at the end C. was more than D. made
23. Studies by B.F. Skinner indicate that reward positively reinforces behavior and makes that behavior likely more to recur.
A. Studies by B. reinforces C. and D. likely more
24. A food additive is any chemical that food manufacturers intentional add to their products.
A. additive B. that C. intentional D. products
25. Although the old fisherman was exhausted, but he managed to reel the giant marlin in by nightfall.
A. fisherman B. but C. to reel D. nightfall
III. Complete the following passage with the correct form of the word given in CAPITALS to the right of each line.
ĐÁP ÁN
A. Hướng dẫn chung khi chấm thi:
- Tổng điểm bài thi theo thang điểm 20.
- Giám khảo chấm đúng theo đáp án này đối với các phần PART 1, PART 2, và PART 3.
- Phần PART 4. I. giám khảo liên hệ người ra đề để thống nhất nếu thí sinh có đáp án khác với đáp án đã cho mà giám khảo vẫn muốn công nhận điểm cho thí sinh.
- Phần PART 4. II. giám khảo vận dụng hướng dẫn để chấm.
B. Đáp án cụ thể:
PART 1: LISTENING (4 points; 0.2 point/ 1 correct answer)
I. 2 points (0.2 point/ 1 correct answer)01. newspapers 02. campaigns 03. public eye 04. 4% 05. TV 06. images/ pictures 07. fiction/ lies 08. £1,000,000 09. apology 10. tabloids
II. 2 points (0.2 point/ 1 correct answer) 11. job 12. career goals 13. qualification(s) 14. grades 15. A16. C 17. B 18. A 19. B 20. C
PART 2: LEXICO-GRAMMAR (5 points)
I. 3 points (0.15 point/ 1 correct answer) 01. C 02. A 03. B 04. A 05. B 06. D 07. B 08. A 09. B 10. D 11. A 12. A 13. C 14. A 15. D 16. B 17. C 18. A 19. C 20. D
II. 0.5 point (0.1 point/ 1 correct answer)
21. D 22. A 23. D 24. C 25. B
III. 1.5 points (0.15 point/ 1 correct answer) (không phân biệt chữ in hoa hay in thường)
|
26. RECENTLY |
27. DISCOVERY |
28. INTEREST |
29. TRADITIONALLY |
30. BURIAL |
|
31. UNKNOWN |
32. SCIENTISTS |
33. DESCENDANT |
34. ORIGINALLY |
36. CRIMINAL |
PART 3: READING (6 points; 0.2 point/ 1 correct answer)
I. 2 points (0.2 point/ 1 correct answer) 01. B 02. A 03. A 04. D 05. D 06. A 07. C 08. B 09. C 10. A
II. 2 points (0.2 point/ 1 correct answer) 11. B 12. C 13. A 14. B 15. D 16. A 17. D 18. D 19. B 20. B
III. 2 points (0.2 point/ 1 correct answer)
|
21. around |
22. communication |
23. used |
24. births |
25. unpleasant |
|
26. warnings |
27. of |
28. commonly |
29. take |
30. celebration |
PART 4: WRITING (5 points)
I. Rewriting (2 points; 0.4 point/ 1 correct answer)
01. → Celine has always had a taste for classical music.
02. → Since they are under age, they cannot watch this film.
03. → If only you had asked us to spend more time with you.
04. → The deadline for your essays is the 30th of June.
05. → Little has she spoken since the day she met the President.
II. Essay writing (3 points)
- Contents: good, clear, logic and coherent: 2 points
- Good grammar structures, vocabs: 0.5 point
- Good spelling and correct form: 0.5 point
4. Đề số 4
Part 1: Circle the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others in each group. Circle A, B, C or D to indicate your answer. (5 pts)
1. A. arrow B. loud C. moldy D. poultry
2. A. basilisk B. bison C. basic D. basin
3. A. subtlety B. indebtedness C. bombard D. combing
4. A. benevolent B. content C. molecules D. technique
5. A. conscience B. bronchitis C. shuttle D. chauffeur
Part 2: Choose the word whose syllable is stressed differently from that of the others in each line. Circle A, B, C or D to indicate your answer. (5 pts)
6. A. comic B. clementine C. climax D. thermonuclear
7. A. diligent B. dimension C. action D. innate
8. A. characterize B. absence C. datum D. charcoal
9. A. solicitor B. separately C. spacious D. sequence
10. A. parachute B. armchair C. accent D. accidentally
II. LEXICO – GRAMMAR
Part 1: Choose the word or phrase that best completes each sentence. Circle A, B, C or D to indicate your answer. (20 pts)
11. Assembly lines are useful for producing a large _____ of identical products.
A. quality B. quantity C. quandary D. qualification
12. Only the _____ of the building is going to be remodeled.
A. insides B. interior C. indoors D. inner
13. Whether the sports club survives is a matter of complete _____ to me.
A. indifference B. disinterest C. importance D. interest
14. After years of neglect there was a huge _____ program to return the city to its former glory.
A. restoration B. preservation C. conservation D. refurbishment
15. The assistant suggested _____ the next day when the manager would be there.
A. we are coming back B. to come back
C. we will come back D. we came back
16. I never get a _____ of sleep after watching a horror film.
A. wink B. blink C. night D. ounce
17. As it was Christmas, the _____ at church was much larger than usual.
A. audience B. convention C. congregation D. grouping
18. The sheep were huddled into a _____ to protect them from overnight frosts.
A. cage B. kennel C. hutch D. pen
19. The jury _____ the defendant “not guilty”.
A. gave B. returned C. subscribed D. found
20. Many _____ crafts such as weaving are now being revived.
A. customary B. habitual C. traditional D. ordinary
21. He managed to finish his thesis under the _____ of his tutor.
A. guidance B. help C. aid D. assistance
22. Mr. Henry was given a medal in _____ of his service to his country.
A. gratitude B. knowledge C. recognition D. response
23. Everyone knows about pollution problems, but not many people have _____ any solutions.
A. thought over B. come up with C. looked into D. got round to
24. You _____ as well seek for a fish in the tree as try to do that.
A. must B. would C. should D. might
25. _____ calculations have shown that the earth’s resources may run out before the end of the next century.
A. Raw B. Rude C. Crude D. Blunt
26. By the time you receive this letter, I _____ for China.
A. will have left B. have left C. would have left D. will leave
27. Prizes are awarded _____ the number of points scored.
A. resulting from B. adding up C. presented to D. according to
28. The needs of gifted children in schools have long been _____ neglected.
A. dolefully B. woefully C. idly D. pathetically
29. I must take this watch to be repaired; it _____ over 20 minutes a day.
A. increases B. gains C. accelerates D. progresses
30. It had been a trying afternoon, _____ at about six o’clock in the television breaking down.
A. culminating B. leading C. arriving D. finalizing
Part 2: Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word in the numbered space provided in the column on the right. (0) has been done as an example. (10 pts)
According to some (0) _____ (SCIENCE), high-risk sports can be particularly (31) _____ (VALUE) for certain types of people. Such activities help them to learn that being (32) _____ (FRIGHT) doesn’t mean that they have to lose control. The recent fashion for jumping from bridges attached to a (33) _____ (LONG) of elastic rope, known as “bungee jumping”, has now been tried by over one million people (34) _____ (WORLD) and interest in it is continuing to grow.
Before the special elastic rope (35) _____ (TIGHT) around them, jumpers reach speeds of nearly 160kph. First-timers are usually too (36) _____ (TERROR) to open their mouths, and when they are finally (37) _____ (LOW) safely to the ground, they walk around with broad smiles on their faces, saying (38) _____ (REPEAT) how amazing it was. However, for some people, it is only the (39) _____ (EMBARRASS) of refusing to jump at the last minute that finally persuades them to conquer their fear of (40) _____ (HIGH) and push themselves off into space.
--(Nội dung đầy đủ, chi tiết vui lòng xem tại online hoặc đăng nhập để tải về máy)---
ĐÁP ÁN
I. PHONETICS: 1/20 points
Part 1: (5 x 0.1 = 0.5)
1. B 2. A 3. C 4. C 5. B
Part 2: (5 x 0.1 = 0.5)
6. D 7. B 8. A 9. A 10. D
II. LEXICO – GRAMMAR: 6/20 points
Part 1: (20 x 0.05 = 1)
11. B 12. B 13. A 14. A 15. D 16. A 17. C 18. D 19. D 20. C
21. A 22. C 23. B 24. D 25. C 26. A 27. D 28. B 29. B 30. A
Part 2: (10 x 0.1 = 1)
31. value → valuable 36. terror → terrified
32. fright → frightened 37. low → lowered
33. long → length 38. repeat → repeatedly
34. world – worldwide 39. embarrass → embarrassment
35. tight → tightened 40. high → heights
Part 3: (10 x 0.1 = 1)
41. acquiring → acquired 46. vocation → vocational
42. explicitness → explicitly 47. like → as
43. few → a few 48. assumption → assume
44. and → to 49. certainly → certain
45. but → to 50. intention → intended
Part 4: (10 x 0.1 = 1)
51. up 52. in 53. out 54. off 55. in
56. on 57. against 58. in 59. out 60. up
Part 5: (10 x 0.1 = 1)
61. get by 62. going through 63. take after 64. slip up 65. turned down
66. put out 67. carry on 68. get down 69. try out 70. look up
Part 6: (10 x 0.1 = 1)
71. a 72. the 73. a 74. the 75. the 76. a 77. an 78. a 79. the 80. Ø
III. READING COMPREHENSION: 4/20 points
Part 1: (10 x 0.1 = 1)
81. B 82. C 83. C 84. A 85. D 86. C 87. D 88. B 89. A 90. D
Part 2: (10 x 0.1 = 1)
91. whether 92. put 93. in 94. union 95. free 96. but 97. enable 98. most 99. make 100. of
Part 3: (10 x 0.2 = 2)
101. A 102. B 103. C 104. D 105. C 106. A 107. C 108. B 109. D 110. B
IV. WRITING: 6/20 points
Part 1: (5 x 0.2 = 1)
111. An increased number of travellers is being stopped by customs officials this week.
112. Rather than disturb the meeting, I left without saying goodbye.
113. The moment I decided to get up to dance, the band decided to stop playing.
114. At no time did he suspect that the bicycle had been stolen.
115. Other than to offer to lend her some money, how could I help?
Part 2: (5 x 0.2 = 1)
116. his achievements are unsurpassed.
117. pulled a face as he swallowed.
118. will take longer than originally planned, which is.
119. whetted my appetite for the rest of.
120. not to drive for fear of.
5. Đề số 5
PART A. Phonetics: (5.0 point)
Question I: Circle one letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose main stress pattern is different from the others. (2.0 point)
1. A. Perform B. Campus C. Mountain D. Equal
2. A. Information B. Contaminate C. Mathematics D. Politician
Question II: Circle one letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others. (3.0 point)
3. A. Closure B. Pleasure C. Conclusion D. Pressure
4. A. Walked B. Threatened C. Passed D. Forced
5. A. Streets B. Phones C. Books D. Makes
PART B. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (45.0points)
Question I: Circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. (15.0 points).
1.. ………… the time you get to the theatre, the play will have finished.
A. Until B. In C. By D. On
2. They are going to make …………… excursion next month.
A. a two-week B. two-weeks C. two weeks' D. a two-week
3. He refused to give up work , …………… he had won a million pounds.
A. despite B. however C. even though D. as though
4. The new system didn’t …………... expectations.
A. catch up with B. bring about C. come across D. come up to
5. The newspaper report contained …………… important information.
A. many B. another C. an D. a lot of
6. You …………… better be careful not to miss the train.
A. would B. should C. had D. did
7. Helen asked me …………… the film called “Stars Wars”.
A. have I seen B. have you seen C. If I had seen D. if had I seen
8. She had no ………… of selling the clock. It had belonged to her grand mother.
A. intention B. meaning C. interest D. opinion
9. I’m really looking forward …………… to university.
A. to go B. go C. going D. to going
10. Let’s go dancing, ……………?” - “Yes, let’s”
A. will we B. do we C. don’t we D. shall we
11. I don’t want much sugar in my coffee. Just……., please.
A. few B. a few C. little D. a little.
12. They are very happy to have received a(n) ....... of 500 dollars from a foreign company.
A. charity B. donation C. hospital D. organisation
13. were so late that we …………… had time to catch the train.
A. nearly B. almost C. hardly D. mostly
14. Many species of animals have become …… due to the irresponsible activities of people.
A. endanger B. dangerous C. danger D. endangered
15.- “Would you like to have noodles, spaghetti or something different?” - “………….”
A. Anything will do B. Yes, please C. Never mind D. I don’t mind
Question II: Fill in the blanks with the correct form of the words in capital letters. (10.0 point)
1. Earth Hour is a ...................event organized to raise people’s awareness about the need to take action on climate change. (WORLD)
2. Solar energy, wind power and water power are ...................sources of energy. (ALTERNATE)
3. This organization is very concerned about the……..............of the rain forests. (DESTROY)
4. In Western countries, electricity, gas, and water are not luxuries but ................ . (NECESSARY)
5. Two…….......from the group “Friends of the Earth" are talking to the students. (REPRESENT)
6. What does it mean to say “ the world is ……… ? (OVERPOPULATE)
7. Seven ………countries have arrangements to deliver EMS items. (ADD)
8.Petroleum is the most ………used energy source, supplying about 40% of the planet’s energy. (COMMON)
9. My farther is very good at………people singing with his guitar and I admire him very much. (ACCOMPANY)
10. Mother’day occurs ……… on the second Sundy in May. (ANNUAL)
--(Nội dung đầy đủ, chi tiết vui lòng xem tại online hoặc đăng nhập để tải về máy)---
A- ĐÁP ÁN:
PART A: PHONETICS (5 điểm – Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
|
1. A |
2. A |
3. D |
4. B |
5. B |
PART B: VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR (45 điểm)
Question I.( 15 điểm – Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
|
1. C |
2. A |
3. C |
4. D |
5. D |
|
6. C |
7. C |
8. A |
9. D |
10. D |
|
11. D |
12. B |
13. C |
14. D |
15. A |
Question II. (10 điểm – Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
|
1. worldwide |
2. alternative |
3. destruction |
4. necessities |
5. representatives |
|
6. overpopulated |
7. additional |
8. commonly |
9. accompanying |
10. annually |
Question III; (10 điểm – Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm - nếu tìm được lỗi mà sửa không đúng thì cho 0.5 điểm)
|
MISTAKES |
CORRECTIONS |
MISTAKES |
CORRECTIONS |
||
|
1. |
particular |
particularly |
6. |
suitable |
unsuitable |
|
2. |
with |
than |
7. |
of |
between/ among |
|
3. |
date |
dating/ to date |
8. |
mobile |
mobility |
|
4. |
almost |
most |
9. |
as |
than |
|
5. |
for |
of |
10. |
one |
once |
Question IV: ( 10 điểm - Mỗi câu đúng 2 điểm)
|
1. |
Don’t you see/ does it say |
4. |
should been done |
|
2. |
Was always trying |
5. |
Could have been killed |
|
3. |
haven’t been listening |
PART C: READING COMPREHENSION (30 pts)
Question I: ( 10điểm - Mỗi câu đúng 2 điểm)
|
1.about |
2.index |
3.without |
4.wasted |
5.form |
Question II. ( 10 điểm - Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
|
1. B |
2.C |
3.C |
4.A |
5.A |
|
6. B |
7.D |
8.D |
9. B |
10.D |
Question III. ( 10 điểm -Mỗi câu đúng 2 điểm)
|
1.B |
2.C |
3.B |
4.D |
5.B |
PART D: WRITING (20 pts)
Question I (5 điểm - Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
|
1. |
Jim apologised for breaking the glass. |
|
2. |
It is high time you took some exercises. |
|
3. |
The sooner we can solve the problem, the better it will be for all concerned. |
|
4. |
So great was the demand that they had to reprint the book immediately |
|
5. |
I’d rather go out for a meal than stay at home. |
Question II (5 điểm- Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
|
1. |
Some interesting new information has come to light |
|
2. |
Jack was banned from playing in the next two matches. |
|
3. |
I'm dying to see her again. |
|
4. |
She was so beautiful that I couldn't take my eyes off her. |
|
5. |
We can't wait to watch the program. |
Question III. Essay: (10 điểm)
Marking criteria:
+ Task completion (4 điểm)
Tuỳ theo khả năng hoàn thành về bố cục và những yêu cầu nội dung cho mỗi phần ( mở bài,thân bài,kết luận) giám khảo có thể chấm từ 1-4 điểm.
+ Grammatical accuracy and spelling 3 điểm: bài viết không có lỗi chính tả và từ ba lỗi ngữ pháp trở xuống được cho 3 điểm tối đa. Cứ 4 lỗi chính tả hoặc ngữ pháp trừ 1 điểm (Trừ không quá 3 điểm).
- Coherence and cohesion (tính mạch lạc và sự liên kết câu, đoạn) – 3 điểm:
Tùy mức độ mạch lạc, liên kết câu, liên kết đoạn của bài viết, giám khảo có thể chấm 1-3 điểm.
Trên đây là một phần trích đoạn nội dung Bộ 5 đề thi chọn HSG môn Tiếng Anh 11 có đáp án năm 2021 Trường THPT Nguyễn Khuyến. Để xem thêm nhiều tài liệu tham khảo hữu ích khác các em chọn chức năng xem online hoặc đăng nhập vào trang hoc247.net để tải tài liệu về máy tính.
Hy vọng tài liệu này sẽ giúp các em học sinh ôn tập tốt và đạt thành tích cao trong học tập.
Mời các em tham khảo các tài liệu có liên quan:
Chúc các em học tập tốt!
