Dưới đây là Đề thi HSG cấp trường môn Tiếng Anh 6 năm 2020 có đáp án trường THCS Ngô Quyền. Đề thi gồm có các câu hỏi trắc nghiệm và tự luận sẽ giúp các em học sinh ôn tập nắm vững các kiến thức, các dạng bài tập để chuẩn bị cho kỳ thi chọn học sinh giỏi sắp đến. Các em xem và tải về ở dưới.
|
TRƯỜNG THCS NGÔ QUYỀN TỔ KHOA HỌC XÃ HỘI |
ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 6 Năm học: 2020-2021 (Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút) |
PART ONE: LISTENING (3.0 pts)
Listen and fill in the gaps: (15 0.2 = 3.0 pts)
Subjects
There are many subjects that you can (1) ..................................... at school.
My favorite subject is music. I like to (2) ..................................... and to play the clarinet.
I also like art. I am quite good at drawing and (3) ......................................
History is a good subject. I like (4) ..................................... about the past.
Geography is very interesting. We look at many (5) ..................................... in geography.
We learn where there are (6) ..................................... and mountains.
I know the (7) ..................................... of all the continents and all the oceans.
Mathematics is my (8) ..................................... favorite subject.
I am not very good with numbers. I am good at (9) ..................................... and subtraction,
but I am not good at division and multiplication.
In my school we learn to speak (10) ......................................
We learn French (11) ..................................... Canada has French and English-speaking citizens. English literature is a good (12) ......................................
I enjoy reading books. I also like to (13) ..................................... compositions and poetry.
Science is my brother's favorite subject. He is interested in (14) ....................................., and he likes to do experiments. We also take drama at my school.
I (15) ..................................... to act. I got the lead role in the school play.
PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts)
I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)
16. A. energy B. pagoda C. programme D. goggles
17. A. charity B. exchange C. character D. peach blossom
18. A. design B. serious C. president D. overseas
19. A. languages B. dresses C. watches D. becomes
20. A. symbol B. robot C. popular D. remote
II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others.
(5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)
21. A. about B. common C. weather D. building
22. A. landmark B. creature C. channel D. around
23. A. terrible B. equipment C. remember D. exhausted
24. A. newsreader B. furniture C. continent D. marathon
25. A. waterfall B. educate C. appearance D. beautiful
PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.0 pts)
I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)
26. We ............................ the cartoon “Tom and Jerry” many times.
A. see B. saw C. are seeing D. have seen
27. My brother likes going to the cinema............................ I like watching TV at home.
A. but B. and C. or D. because
28. My sister, Thuy Linh, is the ............................ girl in her school.
A. as beautiful B. more beautiful C. beautifullest D. most beautiful
29. What............................ you ............................ yesterday evening? – I stayed at home.
A. do - do B. will - do C. did - do D. can - do
30. I like this programme because it is both entertaining ............................ educational.
A. or B. and C. so D. but
31. My younger sister ............................ home for school yet.
A. didn’t leave B. don’t leave C. hasn’t left D. isn’t leaving
32. ............................ people go to the movies now than ten years ago.
A. Few B. Fewer C. Less D. Lesser
33. Which animals are............................, dogs or dolphins?
A. intelligence B. intelligent C. more intelligent D. most intelligent
34. People in many countries often wear their............................. clothes on the New Year day.
A. ordinary B. summer C. tradition D. traditional
35. The father told her children: “............................ swim in this river. It’s a dangerous place.”
A. Do B. Don’t C. Not D. Can’t
II. Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences. (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)
36. Nobody in our class is...................................at Math than my cousin, Bao. GOOD
37. We held the Mid-Autumn festivals in the ...................................house. CULTURE
38. Ba had an accident last week because he drove ................................... CARE
39. Living in a city is ...................................than living in the countryside. INTERESTING
40. Nam is very................................... He always has a lot of new ideas. CREATE
41. When you open a newspaper, you’ll find.................................about games. INFORM
42. Many cars in the future will run on................................... ELECTRIC
43. I did many sports last week and was................................... EXSHAUST
44. What is the correct..................................of this word, Lan? - I don’t know. PRONOUCE
0. 45. ...................................is a very big problem in many countries. POLLUTE
III. Supply the correct forms of the verbs in brackets: (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt)
46. Your father (buy) ..........................a ticket for the soccer match last week?
47. My future house will be on the ocean, it’ll (surround).......................... by blue sea.
48. It is not raining now. The sun (shine) ..........................and the sky is blue.
49. There are lots of gray clouds in the sky. It (rain) ..........................
50. If I lend you some money, when you (repay) ..........................me?
PART FOUR: READING COMPREHENSION: (5.0 pts)
I. Choose the word or phrase that best fits each gap of the passage: (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)
These days it is important (51).......................... a newspaper without reading about the damage we are doing to the environment. Our earth is being threatened (52).......................... our future looks bad. (53).......................... can each of us do?
We cannot (54).......................... up our polluted rivers and seas overnight. Nor can we stop the (55).......................... of plants and animals. But we can stop adding to the problem while scientists look (56) .......................... answers.
I think that it may not be easy to change our lifestyle (57).......................... but some steps are easy for us to take: Cut down the amount of driving we do, or use as little plastic as possible. It is also easy to save (58) .........................., which also reduces household bills. We must all make a personal (59).......................... to work for the future of our planet if we want to ensure a better (60).......................... for our grandchildren.
51. A. to open B. opened C. opening D. to open
52. A. so B. however C. and D. moreover
53. A. What B. When C. Why D. Where
54. A. clean B. cleaned C. to clean D. cleaning
55. A. appear B. appearance C. disappear D. disappearance
56. A. for B. up C. after D. with
57. A. complete B. completeness C. completed D. completely
58. A. water B. money C. energy D. health
59. A. decide B. decisive C. deciding D. decision
60. A. city B. country C. continent D. world
II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)
comedies rest programmes 7 o’clock news writers
national relax game shows educational viewers
Television is available everywhere now and VTV1 is a (61) …………… television channel in Viet Nam. It attracts millions of (62) …………… because it offers many different interesting programmes. The (63) …………… tells people what is happening in Viet Nam and the (64) …………… of the world. (65) …………… bring a lot of laughter and help people (66) …………… after a hard working day. The most exciting programmes are (67).…………… They can be both entertaining and (68). ……………
Many people work hard every day to produce quality (69) …………… for television. Some of them are programme designers, (70) …………… and reporters.
III. Read the text then make questions and answer them: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)
A lovely house
My best friend, Mary, lives in a house near the sea. It is an old house, about over one hundred years old and it is very small. There are two bed rooms upstairs but no bathroom. The only bathroom is downstairs, next to the kitchen and there is a living room where there is a lovely old fireplace. There is a garden in front of the house. The garden goes down to the beach and in spring and summer there are a lot of beautiful flowers everywhere. Mary likes alone with his dog, Rack, but they have a lot of visitors. Their city friends often come and stay with them.
Mary loves her house for many reasons: the beautiful garden, the flowers in summer, the fire in winter, but the best thing is the view from her bedroom window. Mary is now thinking of a new house in the future with the help of Robots.
71. How/ old/ Mary/ house/ ?/
-> ………………………………..…………………………………………….……..……
………………………………………………………………..………….….……..……
72. Where/ bathroom/ ?/
-> …………………..………………………………………………………….……..……
………………………………………………………………..………….….……..……
73. When/ there/lot/ beautiful/ flowers/ ?/
-> ……………………………………………………………………………..……..……
……………………………………………………………………………..……..……
74. Who/ often/ come/stay/them/ ?/
-> ……………………………………………………………………………..……..……
..………………………………………………………………………..…..….…..……
75. What/ reasons/ Mary/ love/ house/ for/ ?/
-> ……………………….…………………………………………………….……..……
………………………………………………………………………..…….……..……
PART FIVE: WRITING: (5.0 pts)
I. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning. Use the given words:
(5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)
76. Learning how to use a computer is quite easy for my eldest brother.
-> It..................................................................................................................................?
77. No house in my village is more beautiful than Mr. Hoang’s house.
-> Mr. Hoang’s house.......................................................................................................
78. Mr. Tung’s children like watching cartoons very much. (Use “interested”)
->.......................................................................................................................................
79. The boys tried their best to play well. They didn’t win the soccer match.
-> ……………………….................although………….….…...........…………….…....
80. No planet in the Solar System is as big as Jupiter.
-> Jupiter ………..………………………………………...……………………………
II. Use the following words and phrases to write complete and meaningful sentences. Make all the necessary changes and additions if necessary. (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)
81. How often/ you/ practise/ play/ table tennis/ ?/
-> ……………………………………………………………………………………….
82. You/ visit/ your grandparents/ the countryside/ last Sunday/ ?/
-> ……………………………………………………………………………………….
83. There/ might not/meeting/ Friday/ because/ director/ ill/ ./
-> ……………………………………………………………………………………….
84. Little girl/ often/ feel/ unhappy/ when/ get/ bad marks/ . /
-> ……………………………………………………………………………………….
85. I/ not/ like/ that programme/ because/ so boring/ ./
-> ……………………………………………………………………………………….
III. Write a paragraph (about 120 words) to describe how you and your family preparation for Tet: (3.0 pts) (The essay must have the title and three parts: Opening – Body and Conclusion. Don’t show your proper names/ school/ village…)
ĐÁP ÁN
PART ONE: LISTENING (3.0 pts)
Listen and fill in the gaps: (15 0.2 = 3.0 pts)
1. take 2. sing 3. painting 4. learning 5. maps
6. deserts 7. names 8. least 9. addition 10. French
11. because 12. subject 13. write 14. plants 15. like
PART TWO: PHONETICS: (2.0 pts)
I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently: (50.2=1.0 pt)
16. A. energy 17. C. character 18. B. serious 19. D. becomes 20. C. popular
II. Choose the word whose main stress pattern is not the same as that of the others.
(5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)
21. A. about 22. D. arround 23. A. terrible 24. A. newsreader 25. C. appearance
PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES: (5.0 pts)
I. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)
26. D. have seen 27. A. but 28. D. most beautiful 29. C. did - do 30. B. and
31. C. hasn’t left 32. B. Fewer 33. C. more intelligent 34. D. traditional 35. B. Don’t
II. Give the correct form of the words given to complete the sentences. (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)
36. better 37. cultural 38. carelessly 39. more interesting 40. creative
41. information 42. electricity 43. exhausted 44. pronunciation 45. pollution
III. Supply the correct forms of the verbs in brackets: (5 x 0.2 = 1.0 pt)
46. Did...buy 47. be surrounded 48. is shining 49. is going to rain 50. will...repay
PART FOUR: READING COMPREHENSION: (5.0 pts)
I. Choose the word or phrase that best fits each gap of the passage: (10 0.2 = 2.0 pts)
51. D. to open 52. C. and 53. A. What 54. A. clean 55. D. disappearance
56. A. for 57. D. completely 58. C. energy 59. D. decision 60. D. world
II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. (100.2 =2.0 pts)
61. national 62. viewers 63. 7 o`clock news 64. rest 65. Comedies
66. relax 67. game shows 68. educational 69. programmes 70. writers
III. Read the text then make questions and answer them: (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)
71. How old is Mary’s house?
-> It is about over one hundred years old.
72. Where is the bathroom?
-> The bathroom is downstairs, next to the kitchen.
73. When are there a lot of beautiful flowers?
-> (There are a lot of beautiful flowers) In spring and summer.
74. Who often come and stay with them?
-> Their city friends often come and stay with them.
75. What reasons does Mary love her house for?
-> Mary loves her house for many reasons: the beautiful garden, the flowers in summer, the fire in winter, but the best thing is the view from her bedroom window.
PART FIVE: WRITING: (5.0 pts)
I. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning. Use the given words:
(5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)
76. It is quite easy for my eldest brother to learn how to use a computer.
77. Mr. Hoang’s house is the most beautiful house in my village.
78. Mr. Tung’s children are very interested in watching cartoons.
79. The boys didn’t win the soccer match although they tried their best to play well.
80. Jupiter is the biggest planet in the Solar System.
II. Use the following words and phrases to write complete and meaningful sentences. Make all the necessary changes and additions if necessary. (5 0.2 = 1.0 pt)
81. How often do you practise playing table tennis?
82. Did you visit your grandparents in the countryside last Sunday?
83. There might not be a meeting on Friday because the director is ill.
84. The little girl often feels unhappy when she gets bad marks.
85. I didn’t like that programme because it was so boring.
III. Write a paragraph (about 120 words) to describe how you and your family preparation for Tet: (3.0 pts) (The essay must have the title and three parts: Opening – Body and Conclusion. Don’t show your proper names/ school/ village…)
- The opening: The essay must write something relating to the topic “How the family prepare for Tet.”. (0.5 pt)
- The body: Write about at least three reasons explaining about what you and your family do in general and in details before Tet holiday…, the sentences must contain connectors and link words... (2,0 pts)
- The conclusion: Write about the writers' ideas. (0.5 pt)
* Note: The essay that has 3.0 points must have:
- Long enough (At least 200 words or maybe more).
- Correct vocabulary and structures.
- Don't tell the proper names (The school, the student's/ teacher’s name/ ...).
---
Trên đây là toàn bộ nội dung Đề thi HSG cấp trường môn Tiếng Anh 6 năm 2020 có đáp án trường THCS Ngô Quyền. Để xem thêm nhiều tài liệu tham khảo hữu ích khác các em chọn chức năng xem online hoặc đăng nhập vào trang hoc247.net để tải tài liệu về máy tính.
Hy vọng tài liệu này sẽ giúp các em học sinh ôn tập tốt và đạt thành tích cao trong kì thi chọn học sinh giỏi sắp đến.
Chúc các em học tốt!
Các em học sinh quan tâm có thể tham khảo tài liệu cùng chuyên mục:
