Bộ 5 đề thi chọn HSG môn Tiếng Anh 11 có đáp án năm 2021 Trường THPT Phan Bội Châu

TRƯỜNG THPT PHAN BỘI CHÂU

ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI NĂM HỌC 2020-2021 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 11 (Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề)

I. LISTENING

HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU.

Bài nghe gồm 3 phần, mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần, mỗi lần cách nhau 15 giây, mở đầu và kết thúc mỗi phần nghe có tín hiệu.

Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng Tiếng Anh)  đã có trong bài nghe.

Part 1: For questions 1-10, listen to a conversation and fill in the blank with the missing information. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS and /or A NUMBER for each answer in the spaces provided.

Silver Owl Campsite, Booking Form

Reference:    (1) ______________________

Name of school:  (2) ______________________ High School

Number in Group:  22

Arrival: Friday, 22nd  (3) ______________________

Accommodation:   (4)  5 x 5-person ______________________

Facilities:    (5) ______________________ and pool

Equipment:   5 bicycles

                     5 space hoppers

                    (6) 10 ______________________

Contact name: Sarah (7) ______________________

Phone number: (mobile) (8) ______________________

Phone number: (eve) 02380 482 652

Email address: sonia@helpdesk.ac.uk

Address: 76-78 (9) ______________________ Terrace, Southampton

Method of payment: school credit card

 Card number (if applicable): (10) ______________________

Part 2: For questions 1-5, listen to a news reporter called Angela Bond, talking on the radio about her job and choose the best answer(A, B or C) according to what you hear. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.

1. Where is Angela working at the moment?

A. Britain

B. the USA

C. Asia

2. Angela likes her job because she ___________

A. loves being in dangerous situations.

B. never knows where she'll go next.

C. enjoys watching important events happen.

3. What did Angela bring home from Hong Kong?

A. pictures

B. carpets

C. furniture

4. Where did Angela meet her boy friend?

A. at her sister's house

B. at university

C. in Hong Kong

5. What does Angela do to relax?

A. She cooks a meal

B. She goes sailing

C. She goes shopping

Your answers:

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Part 3: For questions 1-10, listen to an interview with a woman called Grace Conolly who is talking about her travel experiences in New Zealand and fill in the blank with the missing information. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer in the spaces provided.

New Zealand Journey

Grave travelled around south Island on something called (1) _______________________

The first part of Grace's journey took her along the (2) ________________________ coast of the island.

When Grace took a day trip to a place called Kaikoura, she particularly wanted to see (3) ____________________

Grace has kept in touch with a friend from (4)________________________ since she returned home.

Grace took her own (5)_______________________ to New Zealand, so didn't need to hire one.

The best part of the trip for grace was jet-boating on the Buller River with a company called (6) ___________________.

Grace had to visit a hospital because she injured her (7)  __________________________.

At a market, Grace bought a (8)  __________________________ to take home.

The name of the hostel that Grace particularly recommends is the (9)  ___________________________.

Grace plans to go (10)  ___________________________ with friends when she next visits North Island.

II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR

Part 1:  Choose the word or phrase that best completes each sentence. Write your answer A, B, C or D in the numbered boxes.

1. ___________ the weather forecast, it will rain heavily later this morning.

A. On account of

B. According to

C. Because of

D. Due to

2. I read the contract again and again __________ avoiding making spelling mistakes.

A. in view of

B. in terms of

C. with a view to

D. by means of

3. It's a shame they didn't pick you up, but it doesn't _______ out the possibility that you might get a job in a different department.

A. strike

B. cancel

C. draw

D. rule

4. I reckon Mark is ________ of a nervous breakdown.

A. in charge

B. under suspicion

C. on the verge

D. indicative

5. Many local authorities realize there is a need to make _______ for disabled people in their housing programmes.

A. assitance

B. conditions

C. admittance

D. provision

6. It turned out that we _________ rushed to the airport as the plane was delayed by several hours.

A. hadn't

B. should have

C. mustn't have

D. needn't have

7. All three TV channels provide extensive _________ of sporting events.

A. coverage

B. vision

C. broadcast

D. network

8. No matter how angry he was, he would never ________ to violence.

A. resolve

B. recourse

C. exert

D. resort

9. ________ as a masterpiece, a work of art must transcend the ideals of the period in which it was created.

A. Ranking

B. To be ranked

C. Being ranked

D. In order to be ranking

10. _________,  the people who come to this club are in their twenties and thirties.

A. By and large

B. All together

C. To a degree

D. Virtually

11. I am afraid that you have _________ the deadline, so we can't take your application into account.

A. missed

B. met

C. delayed

D. put off

12. The main aim of the campaign is to raise _______ of the issues involved.

A. knowledge

B. awareness

C. attention

D. acquaintance

13. After so many years, it is great to see him _________ his ambitions.

A. get

B. realise

C. possess

D. deserve

14. It was confirmed that the accident was caused by human ________.

A. error

B. slip

C. fault

D. blunder

15. The roadworks made ________ to the hotel from the main road difficult.

A. entrance

B. approach

C. access

D. ways in

Your answers:

1.	2.	3.	4.	5.
6.	7.	8.	9.	10.
11.	12.	13.	14.	15.

Part 2: Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word in the numbered space provided in the column on the right. (0) has been done as an example.

 

The origins of Halloween Halloween is celebrated in many parts of the (0)________ (WEST) world, and is a time when people dress up as witches or ghosts, and go "trick-or treating". It is (1) _________ (DOUBT) one of the most popular traditions in the United States and Britain. The celebration (2) _________(ORIGIN) about two thousand years ago with the Celts. These people were the (3) ________ (INHABIT) of an area that includes Britain, Ireland and Brittany. They relied on the land for their (4) _______ (LIVE),  and this meant that they were at the mercy of (5) ________ (PREDICT) weather conditions, especially during the winter. The Celtic new year began on 1st November, which also marked the beginning of winter, a period (6) _________ (TRADITION) associated with death. On the eve of the new year, it was believed that the barriers between the worlds of the living and the dead were (7) ________ (TEMPORARY) withdrawn, and it was possible to communicate with spirits. The Celts believed that the spirits offered them (8) ________ (GUIDE) and protection, and the Druids (Celtic priests) were (9) _________ (REPUTE) able to predict the future on this point. When the Roman completed their (10) ________ (CONQUER) of Celtic lands, they added their own flavour to this festival. The advent of Christianity brought about yet other changes.

0.____ western _____ 1. _________________ 2. _________________ 3. _________________ 4. _________________ 5. _________________ 6. _________________ 7. _________________ 8. _________________ 9. _________________ 10. ________________

 

Part 3: The passage below contains 10 mistakes. UNDERLINE the mistake and WRITE THEIR CORECT FORMS in the space provided in the column on the right. (0) has been done as an example.

The horse and carriage is a thing of the past,  but love and marriage are still with us and still closely interrelating. Most American marriages, particular first marriages uniting young people, are the result of mutual attraction and affection rather with practical considerations. In the United States, parents do not arrange marriages for their children. Teenagers begin date in high school and usually find mates through their own academic and social contacts. Though young people feel free to choose their friends from different groups, almost choose a mate of similar background. This is due partly to parental guidance. Parents cannot select spouses for their children, but they can usually influence choices by voicing disapproval for someone they consider suitable. However, marriages of members of different groups (interclass, interfaith, and interracial marriages) are increasing, probably because of the greater mobile of today's youth and the fact that they are restricted by fewer prejudices as their parents. Many young people leave their hometowns to attend college, serve in armed forces, or pursue a career in a bigger city. One away from home and family, they are more likely to date and marry outside their own social group.

0. __ interrelated ____ 1. ________________ 2. _________________ 3. _________________ 4.__________________ 5. _________________ 6. _________________ 7. _________________ 8. _________________ 9. _________________ 10._________________

Part 4: Fill in the gaps in the following sentences with suitable particles. Write your answers in the

corresponding numbered boxes. (0) has been done as an example.

0. Could you deal ________ this problem. I'm rather busy.

1. The Minister is also implicated __________ the scandal.

2. Irrespective _________ the poor weather conditions the search for the missing child was continued.

3. I have been using her computer ever since she placed it __________ my disposal.

4. I met him at the party and he asked __________ you.

5. You can't miss him. That haircut makes him stand ___________ in a crowd.

Your answers:

 

0. with	1.	2.
3.	4.	5.

Part 5: Complete each sentence with a correct phrasal verb from the box. Write your answers in the numbered boxes. Each phrasal verb is used only once.

put down	come out	see off	set about	work out
stand for	step up	track down	turn down	make up for

1. The managing director __________ the company's poor performance to high interest rates.

2. The police were able to __________ the car thieves using satellite technology.

3. This is a sensitive matter, and we have to __________ dealing with it very carefully.

4. David's new album is expected to ___________ at the end of the year.

5. I hope this award will ____________  your disappointment at not winning the first prize.

6. The company has decided to ___________ production of cars at its factory in Hull.

7. You might need a calculator to __________ this problem.

8. Claire decided to __________ the job, because it would have meant more travelling.

9. Our maths teacher simply won't _________ any talking in class.

10. Helen is going to the airport to _________ some friends.

Your answers:

1.	2.	3.	4.	5.
6.	7.	8.	9.	10.

III. READING

Part 1: Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap. Write your answer in the numbered boxes.

The Mysterious Isle

In the early morning of 23 January, 2009, the most powerful storm for a decade hit western France. With wind speeds in (1) ________ of 120 miles per hour, it flattened forests, (2) ________ down power lines and caused massive destruction to buildings and roads. But it also left behind an extraordinary creation. Seven miles out to sea at the (3) ________ where the Atlantic Ocean meets the estuary of the River Gironde, a small island had (4) _________ out of water. Locals soon gave it the name The Mysterious Isle. What was so remarkable, (5) ________ its sudden apparition, was the fact that the island (6) _________ intact in what is often quite a hostile sea environment. It could well become a permanent feature.

Scientists (7) ________ realised that the island's appearance (8) ________ a unique opportunity to study the creation and development of a new ecosystem. Within months, it had been colonised by seabirds, insects and vegetation. Unfortunately, however, they were not alone in (9) ________ the island attractive. It became increasingly difficult to (10) ________ the site from human visitors. In its first year, day trippers came in powered dinghies, a parachute club used it as a landing strip, a rave party was even held there one night.

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ĐÁP ÁN

I. LISTENING (3 điểm)

Part 1: (10 câu x 0,15 = 1,5 điểm)

1. RHS3977X	2. Radcliffe	3. August	4. caravan(s)	5. showers
6. tennis rackets	7. Winter	8.  07892 334821	9. London	10.  5438900 67521

Part 2:(5 câu x 0,1 = 0,5 điểm)

1. A

2. C

3. C

4. A

5. B

Part 3:(10 câu x 0,1 = 1 điểm)

1. (the) green bus	2. west	3. (the) dolphins	4. Japan	5. bike / bicycle
6. Adventure Tours	7. foot	8. (wooden) mask	9. Lakeside	10. walking

II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR. (7,5 điểm)

Part 1.(15 câu x 0,15 = 2,25 điểm)

1. B	2. C	3. D	4. C	5. D
6. D	7. A	8. D	9. B	10. A
11. A	12. B	13. B	14. A	15. C

Part 2: ( 10 câu x 0,15 = 1,5 điểm)

1. undoubtedly	2. originated	3. inhabitants	4. livelihood	5. unpredictable
6. traditionally	7. temporarily	8. guidance	9. reputedly	10. conquest

Part 3: ( 10 câu x 0,15 = 1,5 điểm)

The horse and carriage is a thing of the past,  but love and marriage are still with us and still closely interrelating. Most American marriages, particular first marriages uniting young people, are the result of mutual attraction and affection rather with practical considerations. In the United States, parents do not arrange marriages for their children. Teenagers begin date in high school and usually find mates through their own academic and social contacts. Though young people feel free to choose their friends from different groups, almost choose a mate of similar background. This is due partly to parental guidance. Parents cannot select spouses for their children, but they can usually influence choices by voicing disapproval for someone they consider suitable. However, marriages of members of different groups (interclass, interfaith, and interracial marriages) are increasing, probably because of the greater mobile of today's youth and the fact that they are restricted by fewer prejudices as their parents. Many young people leave their hometowns to attend college, serve in armed forces, or pursue a career in a bigger city. One away from home and family, they are more likely to date and marry outside their own social group.

0. interrelated 1. particularly 2. than 3. dating/ to date 4. most 5.  of 6. unsuitable 7. between / among 8. mobility 9 . than 10. once

Part  4: (5 câu x 0,15 = 0,75)

1. in

2. of

3. at

4. after

5. out

Part 5:(10 câu x 0,15 = 1,5 điểm)

1. put down	2. track down	3. set about	4. come out	5. make up for
6. step up	7. work out	8. turn down	9. stand for	10. see off

III. READING (4,5 điểm)

Part 1:(10 câu x 0,15 = 1,5 điểm)

1. C	2. B	3. D	4. A	5. C
6. B	7. A	8. D	9. B	10. C

Part 2: (10 câu x 0,15 = 1,5 điểm)

1. stress	2. in / during	3. Even	4. instead	5. who / that
6. themselves	7. at	8. how	9. suffer	10. the

Part 3:(10 câu x 0,15 = 1,5 điểm)

1. D	2. C	3. D	4. D	5. A
6. NOT GIVEN	7. NO	8. YES	9. NOT GIVEN	10. YES

IV. WRITING. ( 5 điểm)

Part 1: (5 câu x 0,2 = 1 điểm)

1. Exhausted as / though Mary was / might be, she agreed to join the activity.

2. The minute / moment we have received the information , we'll let you know.

3. Only by using it ( a language) regularly, can you really master a language (it).

4. Nobody is to blame for the match cancellation / the match's cancellation / the cancellation of the match / the fact that the match was cancelled.

5. I have no intention of apologising / apologizing to either of them.

Part 2:(5 câu x 0,2 = 1 điểm)

1. As long as he could see, it made no difference to Kevin where he sat in the stadium.

2. We should have been informed of / about the change of the date.

3. Jane was talked into entering the competition by her family.

4. It never occurred to us that Julian might be planning to resign from his job.

5. Sally was on the point of leaving the office when her boss asked her to type up a report.

Part 2: (3 điểm)     Giám khảo tự quyết định dựa vào các yêu cầu sau:

- Task fulfillment (idea/content): 30%

- Essay organization (coherence, cohesion); 30%

- Vocabulary/structures (variety, accuracy, appropriacy): 30%

- Handwriting, essay layout ... : 10%

I. LISTENING

Hướng dẫn phần thi nghe hiểu:

• Bài nghe gồm 2 phần, mỗi phần được ghi âm 2 lần. Giữa 2 lần ghi âm của mỗi phần và giữa các phần có một khoảng trống thời gian chờ.
• Mọi hướng dẫn làm bài cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe.

Part 1. Listen to the story on the tape and decide whether the statements are True (T) or False (F). (5 pts)

1. The books belonged to five different libraries.                               ……………….

2. Mr. Barush’s bond was $ 2,000.                                                     ……………….

3. Books are like family to Mr. Barush.                                             ……………….

4. Mr. Barush trusts kids around books.                                             ……………….

5. Mr. Barush dusted the books with a soft clean cloth.                     ……………….

Part 2. Fill in the following blanks according to what you hear. (10 pts)

            American condemnation of acts of terrorism in Iran is not unprecedented.  But the U.S. (6) ................... to Thursday's attack was at an unusually high level, with both President Obama and Secretary of State Hillary Clinton issuing written statements expressing (7) ................... to the families of victims and calling for the attackers to be held accountable.

            Iranian officials say at least 27 people were killed and some (8) ................... wounded in twin suicide bomb attacks at a mosque in Zahedan in Sistan-Baluchistan province, where worshippers had (9) ................... to mark the birthday of the Prophet Muhammad's grandson, Imam Hussein. The victims included members of Iran's Revolutionary Guards Corps.  Responsibility was claimed by the Sunni Muslim (10) ................... group Jundallah, which said it staged the attacks to avenge the execution in June of the group's leader for terrorism.

            Iran has accused the United States and Britain of funding Jundallah, which it says is based in Pakistan, but all three countries (11) ................... aiding the group. In his statement, President Obama said the terrorist attacks were outrageous and said the United States (12) ................... with the families of the victims and with the (13) ................... of Iran in the face of what he termed "this injustice."

            Secretary Clinton called the bombings "appalling acts" and said they, along with other recent attacks in Uganda, Pakistan, Afghanistan, Iraq and Algeria underscore the world community's (14) ................... to work together to combat terrorist organizations. State Department Spokesman P.J. Crowley said the statements show the United States condemns all forms of terrorist and sectarian-driven (15) ................... wherever it occurs.

II. PHONETICS

Pick out the word (A, B, C or D) whose underlined part is pronounced differently from those of the other words. (5 pts)

16.       A. decided                  B. hatred                     C. warned                    D. sacred

17.       A. legal                        B. petal                        C. pedal                       D. level

18.       A. devise                     B. promise                   C. surprise                   D. realize

19.       A. ghost                       B. hostage                   C. lost                          D. frosty

20.       A. debate                     B. depute                     C. depress                    D. deputy 

III. LEXICO-GRAMMAR

Part 1. Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best completes each sentence. (10 pts)

21. Does anyone know ............. that jacket might be?

            A. who                         B. whom                     C. whose                     D. which

22. The cheetah runs 70 miles ............. hour. It’s the fastest animal in the world.

            A. each                        B. per                         C. a                              D. one

23. Joe seemed to be in a good mood, ......... he snapped at me angrily when I asked him to join us.

A. yet                          B. so                            C. for                           D. and

24. There are several means of mass communication. The newspaper is one. Television is .............

            A. the another             B. the other                 C. other                       D. another

25. I read in one paper that they are ............. married.

            A. getting                    B. got                          C. being                       D. having

26. There was hardly ............. food left in the fridge.

            A. more                       B. any                          C. no                           D. some

27. We spent the ............. days on the beach.

            A. few last sunny        B. last sunny few        C. last few sunny        D. few sunny last

28. ............. not fallen over, the athlete would have won the gold medal.

            A. If he                        B. If not                      C. Unless he had         D. Had he

29. Rarely............. to work on his own.

            A. he is seen                B. does he seen           C. is he seen                D. does he

30. “We’re going to the seaside”. - “Can............. ?”

            A. I come as well        B. also I come             C. I too come               D. I as well come

Part 2. Complete each sentence with a suitable form of one of the phrasal verbs in the box. Use each one once only. (5 pts)

catch on                     go up               let down              take up                   settle down

31. Why do prices keep .............    ............. ?

32. This new game is really.............    ............. . Everyone is playing it.      

33. It’s time your brother .............     ............. and started a family.

34. When she retired, she .............    ............. gardening so she wouldn’t get bored.           

35. I’m sorry to ............. you ............. but I can’t take you to the airport after all. 

Part 3. Complete the following sentences with appropriate form of the word in block capitals. (5 pts)  

36. ACT                      There is a saying in English: “ ............. speak louder than words.”

37. QUALIFY            He won the discus event at the Olympic Games but was later ............. when a medical check proved that he had been taking drugs.

38. NATION              Do you have a ............. costume in your country?

39. LAND                  The plane had to make a crash ............. in a field.

40. TROULE              Traveling in big cities is becoming more ............. everyday.

Part 4. Put the verbs given in the brackets into the appropriate tenses or forms. (10 pts)

41. “You were late for your dental appointment.”

     “I know. I (not/ stay) .................. so long at the library.”

42. It is necessary that everyone (be) .................. calm in times of danger.

43. If you want to see us, come to Tom’s on Sunday. We (wait) .................. for you there at

      midday.

44. It was a fine day and the roads were crowded because a lot of people (rush) ..................

       to the seaside.

45. Those were the highest words of praise they ever (hear) .................. from the old man.

46. Our little children enjoy (take) .................. to the water park every Sunday.

47. I don’t feel good. I (stay) .................. home from work tomorrow.

48. It won’t be safe to use these stairs until they (repair) .................. .

49. The city is now crowded with the people who (seek) .................. employment.

50. The old man is said (leave) .................... all his money to an old people’s home when he

     died.

Part 5. In each of the following sentences, the 4 words or phrases are marked A, B, C or D. Identify the one underlined expression that is not correct and correct it. (5 pts)

51.  Almost American Indian cultures have been agricultural societies since 2000 BC.

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 ĐÁP ÁN

Tống số điểm toàn bài: 100 điểm

- Làm đúng mỗi câu, cho 1,0 điểm. Bài luận cho tối đa 10,0 điểm.

- Sau khi cộng toàn bộ số điểm, giám khảo quy về hệ điểm 10, không làm tròn số.

I. LISTENING

Part 1. (5 points)

            1. T                  2. F                  3. T                  4. F                  5. T

Part 2. (10 points)

            6. reaction       7. sympathy     8. 270              9. gathered      10. militant

            11. deny          12. stands       13. people         14. need          15. violence                            

II. PHONETICS (5 points)

            16. C               17. A               18. B               19. A               20. D

III. LEXICO - GRAMMAR

Part 1. (10 points)

            21. C               22. B               23. A               24. D               25. A             

26. B               27. C               28. D               29. C               30. A

Part 2. (5 points)

            31. going up                            32. catching on                        33. settled down        

34. took up                              35. let you down

Part 3. (5 points)

            36. Actions                              37. disqualified                       38. national

            39. landing                              40. troublesome                      

Part 4. (10 points)

            41. shouldn’t have stayed       42. be/ should be                     43. shall/ will be waiting        44. were rushing                        45. had ever heard                 46. being taken

            47. am staying/am going to stay                                             48. have been repaired            49. are seeking                        50. to have left

Part 5: (5 points) (chọn đúng 50%, sửa đúng 50%)

51. A.             Almost            à        Most

52. C.             for                   à        to                     

53. A.             The violence   à        Violence

54. C.             are                   à        is

55. D.             attended          à        unattended

IV. READING COMPREHENSION

Part 1: (10 points)                

56. A              57.  C               58. B                59. D               60. A     

61. C                62.  B               63.A            64. D               65.  C

Part 2: (10 points)

66. one            67. before        68. as             69. question   70. made         71. how           72. take             73. happened/ chanced          74. loss           75. long

Part 3: (5 points)

76. A               77. B               78. D               79. D               80. A

V. WRITING

Part 1: (5 points)

81. The only thing I am interested in is why he did it.

82. There has been a dramatic rise (increase) in house prices this year.

83. This new computer works in the way I can’t understand.

84. Her uncle didn’t leave her anything in his will.

85. Not until he came into light did I recognize him.

Part 2: (5 points)

            86.  is said to have been 

            87.  to avoid getting/being caught

            88.  should have been told

            89.  was traditionally brought up/ was brought up traditionally.

            90.  how thankful I

Part 3: (10 points)                        

The mark given to part 3 is based on the following scheme:

- Content: (50% of the total mark);

- Organization and presentation: (20% of the total mark);

- Language: (20% of the total mark);

- Handwriting, punctuation and spelling: (10% of the total mark).

------THE END -----

PART ONE. LISTENING (20p.)

Question 1 (10p.)

Listen and complete the notes below. WRITE NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer. Write your answers in the space provided. Be careful as you can listen only ONCE.

TOTAL INSURANCE INCIDENT REPORT

Example                                Answer Name                                      Michael Alexander Address                                  24 Manly Street 1._____________________Sydney Shipping agent                      2. _____________________ Place of origin                      China Date of arrival                      28 November Reference number                3. _____________________

 

Item	Damage	Cost to repair or replace
Television	The 4. ______________ needs to be replaced	Not known
The bathroom cabinet	The 5. ______________ of the cabinets is damaged	$140.
6. ______________	A 7. ______________ is split	8. $_____________
Set of China	Six plates were 9. ______________.	About 10. $_____________ in total

Questions 2. Listen and choose the correct letter A, B or C. Write your answers in the space provided. You are going to listen TWICE. (10p.)

1.         The Counselling Service may contact tutors if ______.

            A. they are too slow in making assignments                   

B. they give students a lot of work

            C. they don’t inform students about their progress

2.         Stress may be caused by ______. 

            A. new teachers                   

B. time pressure                              

C. unfamiliar subject matter

3.         International students may find stress difficult to handle because ______.

            A. they lack support from family and friends                 

B. they don’t have time to make new friends

            C. they find it difficult to socialize

4.         A personal crisis may be caused by ______.

            A. studying for too long overseas                         

B. business problems in the student’s own country

            C. disruptions to personal relationships   

5.         Students may lose self-esteem if ______.

            A. they have to change courses

B. they don’t complete a course

C. their family puts too much pressure on them

6.         Students should consult Glenda Roberts if ______.    

            A. their general health is poor       

B. their diet is too strict      

C. they can’t eat the local food

7.         Students in financial difficulties can receive ______. 

            A. assistance to buy books 

B. a loan to pay their course fees  

C. a no-interest loan to cover study expenses

8.         Loans are also available to students who ______.

            A. can’t pay their rent                     

B. need to buy furniture     

C. can’t cover their living expenses

9.         The number of students counselled by the service last year was ______.

            A. 214                                    B. 240                                    C. 2,600

10.       The speaker thinks the Counselling Service______.   

A. has been effective in spite of staff shortages                          

B. is under-used by students

C. has suffered badly because of staff cuts

Your answers:

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

PART TWO. LEXICO – GRAMMAR (30p.)

Question 1. Choose the word or phrase which best completes each sentence. Write your answers (A, B, C, or D) in the space provided under this part. (10p.)

1. The ______ of two houses prove such a financial burden that they were forced to sell one

A. upshot                   B. upkeep                  C. uproar                   D. upsurge

2. In his student days, he was as poor as a church ______

A. beggar                   B. miser                     C. mouse                    D. pauper

3. Harry doesn’t ______ to great fame and fortune, he just wants to make a decent living.

A. crave                     B. hanker                   C. yearn                     D. aspire

4. I wrote to them a fortnight ago but ______ I haven’t had a reply

A. as yet                     B. these days             C. so long                  D. just now

5. I couldn’t stop myself from ______ with boredom during the lecture.

A. sighing                  B. gasping                  C. panting                  D. blowing

6. She didn’t show even a ______ of emotion when the court found her guilty.

A. gleam                    B. wink                      C. flicker                   D. flash

7. It’s not surprising that he became a writer because he always longed to see his name______.

A. in type                   B. in print                  C. in letters                D. in edition

8. The police are looking into new ways of ______ major crime.

A. contending           B. wrestling               C. combating             D. striving

9. The technological and economic changes of the 19^th century had a marked ______ on workers.

A. cause                     B. effect                     C. impact                   D. consequence

10. The first sign of vitamin A disorder is night ______.

A. loss of sight          B. lack of vision       C. invisibility            D. blindness

11. The ______ are against her winning a fourth consecutive gold medal.

A. chances                 B. bets                        C. prospects              D. odds

12. References can have a considerable ______ on employment prospects.

A. cause                     B. decision                C. weight                   D. bearing

13. The prospects of picking up any survivors are now ______.

A. thin                        B. narrow                   C. slim                        D. restricted

14. From time to time he ______ himself to a weekend in a five-star hotel.

A. craves                    B. indulges                C. treats                      D. benefits

15. Men still expect their jobs to take ______.

A. superiority           B. imposition             C. priority                  D. seniority

16. The police have been ordered not to ______ if the students attack them.

A. combat                  B. rebuff                    C. retaliate                 D. challenge

17. Meg had a ______ escape when she was hang-gliding yesterday.

A. slender                  B. close                      C. near                        D. narrow

18. I can’t tell you the exact amount, but I can give you a ______ estimate.

A. smooth                  B. tidy                        C. rough                     D. similar

19. Marge walked away from the discussion. Otherwise, she ______ something she would regret later.

A. will say                                                     B. said                       

C. might say                                                 D. might have said

20. You are not supposed to park on the hard ______ except in an emergency.

A. lane                        B. shoulder                C. leg                          D. area

Your answers

1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
11.	12.	13.	14.	15.	16.	17.	18.	19.	20.

Question 2. There are TEN mistakes in this paragraph. Write them down & give the correction. Write your answers in the space provided. (5p.)

Line 1  2  3  4  5  6  7  8  9  10  11  12  13  14  15 16 17

Skiing is one of the most popular sports in the world. According to recent estimation, about one hundred million of people ski regularly or occasionally. Sliding across the snow on skis is also one of the most ancient methods of transport known to the man. It has demonstrated that men were already traveling across the snow by means of primitive skis before the invention of the wheel. In the Asiatic region of Altai and in Scandinavia, for example, the remains of skis have been found which dated back to 4,000 BC. Further evidence is supplied by ancient cave paintings which depict people skiing, and a Norwegian saga which tells the story of an invasion of its territory 8,000 years ago by a tribe of skiers who came from the north. Nowadays, skiing, apart from a sport, has become a big industry and a notable feature of leisure culture. Ski resorts and all the activity that they generate is the main source of wealth in many mountain regions, which were previously remote and inaccessible. And far from its once elitist image, skiing is now enjoyed by an increasingly broader spectra of society.

--(Nội dung đầy đủ, chi tiết vui lòng xem tại online hoặc đăng nhập để tải về máy)---

ĐÁP ÁN

PART ONE. LISTENING (20p.)

Questions 1 (10p.) 1p for each correct answer

1. Milperra

2. First class movers

3. 601 ACK

4. Screen

5. Door

6. Dining room table

7. Leg

8. broken

9. 200

10. 60

Questions 11 – 20 (10p.) 1p for each correct answer

11. C

12. B

13. A

14. C

15. B

16. C

17. A

18. B

19. B

20. A

PART TWO. LEXICO – GRAMMAR (30p.)

Question 1. Choose the word or phrase which best completes each sentence. Write your answers (A, B, C, or D) in the space provided under this part. (10p.) 0.5p for each correct answer.

1. B	2. C	3. D	4. A	5. A	6. C	7. B	8. C	9. C	10. D
11. D	12. D	13. C	14.C	15. C	16. C	17. D	18. C	19. D	20. B

Question 2. There are TEN mistakes in this paragraph. Write them down & give the correction. Write your answers in the space provided. (5p.) 0.5p for each correct answer.

	Line	Mistake	Correction
1.	2	estimation	estimates
2.	2	one hundred million of people	one hundred million people
3.	5	the man	man
4.	5	has demonstrated	has been demonstrated
5.	6	dated	date
6.	10	Norway	Norwegian
7.	13	from a sport	from being a sport
8.	15	is	are
9.	16	accessible	inaccessible
10	17	spectra	spectrum

Question 3. Complete each of the following sentences with the correct form of one verb from the box and a suitable particle. (5p.) 0.5p for each correct answer.

1. turned up	6. work it out
2. lag behind	7. lie on
3. jump at	8. ticked off
4. am jotting down	9. brought on
5. get by	10. fallen out

Question 4. Use the correct form of each bracketed word in the numbered space. Write your answers in the space provided. (5 p.) 0.5p for each correct answer.

1. graceful                                                     6. breakthroughs

2. regularity                                                   7. spectacular

3. justice                                                        8. awesome

4. repeatedly                                                 9. innumerable

5. unravel                                                      10. disclose

Question 5. Read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each gap. (10 p.) 1p for each correct answer.

1. D

2.A

3.B

4.B

5.A

6.D

7.A

8.A

9.D

10.B

PART THREE: READING (30p.)

Question 1. Read the following passage and choose the best answer A, B, C or D for each question. (10p.) 1p for each correct answer.

1. A

2. D

3. C

4. D

5. D

6. B

7. C

8. A

9. B

10. A

 

Question 2. There are five extracts which have been removed from the following passage. Put an extract from A-G in the correct gap 1-5 to complete the passage. (5p.) 1p for each correct answer.

1. D

2. A

3. B

4. G

5. F

Question 3. Match each of the following headings with its suitable paragraph. (5p.) 1p for each correct answer.

1. D

2. A

3. B

4. F

5. E

Question 4. Fill each of the numbered blanks in the following passage with one suitable word. (10p.)  1p for each correct answer.

1. using/ analysing	6. pay
2. came	7. nor
3. extracts/ sounds/ utterances	8. make
4. faced/ tackled/ considered/ solved	9. switch
5. those	10. being

PART IV: WRITING (20p.)

Question 1: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it. (5p.) 1p for each correct answer.

1. It was only when the journalists arrived at the venue that they heard about the changes to the wedding plans.

2. It was at your insistence that we came to this restaurant.

3. It won’t do you any good to argue with her.

4. The thief almost certainly came in through the window.

5. The sheer expense/ cost was what put me off the idea.

Question 2. For each of the sentence below, write a new sentence as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence but using the word given. This word must not be altered in any way. (5p.) 1p for each correct answer.

1. She has set her heart on becoming a doctor.

2. She just went through the motions of welcoming him, then quickly left the waiting room.

3. It cannot be guaranteed that the venture will succeed.

4. We have no alternative but to pay them the whole amount before the end of the month.

5. Our company has got monopoly of importation.

Question 3. Essay writing

Do you agree or disagree with the following statement?

Face-to-face communication is better than other types of communication such as letters, e-mail, or telephone calls.

Use specific reasons and details to support your answer.

The impression mark í based on the following scheme:

1. Content: (4p.) a provision of all main ideas and details as appropriate.

2. Language: (3p.) a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students

3. Presentation: (3p.) coherence, cohesion, and style appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students

I. LISTENING

Hướng dẫn phần thi nghe hiểu:

•           Bài nghe gồm 2 phần, mỗi phần được ghi âm 2 lần. Giữa 2 lần ghi âm của mỗi phần và giữa các phần có một khoảng trống thời gian chờ.

•           Mọi hướng dẫn làm bài cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe.

Part 1. Listen to the story on the tape and decide whether the statements are True (T) or False (F). (5 pts)

1. The books belonged to five different libraries.                                   ……………….

2. Mr. Barush’s bond was $ 2,000.                                                           ……………….

3. Books are like family to Mr. Barush.                                        ……………….

4. Mr. Barush trusts kids around books.                                      ……………….

5. Mr. Barush dusted the books with a soft clean cloth.                        ……………….

Part 2. Fill in the following blanks according to what you hear. (10 pts)

            American condemnation of acts of terrorism in Iran is not unprecedented.  But the U.S. (6) ................... to Thursday's attack was at an unusually high level, with both President Obama and Secretary of State Hillary Clinton issuing written statements expressing (7) ................... to the families of victims and calling for the attackers to be held accountable.

            Iranian officials say at least 27 people were killed and some (8) ................... wounded in twin suicide bomb attacks at a mosque in Zahedan in Sistan-Baluchistan province, where worshippers had (9) ................... to mark the birthday of the Prophet Muhammad's grandson, Imam Hussein. The victims included members of Iran's Revolutionary Guards Corps.  Responsibility was claimed by the Sunni Muslim (10) ................... group Jundallah, which said it staged the attacks to avenge the execution in June of the group's leader for terrorism.

            Iran has accused the United States and Britain of funding Jundallah, which it says is based in Pakistan, but all three countries (11) ................... aiding the group. In his statement, President Obama said the terrorist attacks were outrageous and said the United States (12) ................... with the families of the victims and with the (13) ................... of Iran in the face of what he termed "this injustice."

            Secretary Clinton called the bombings "appalling acts" and said they, along with other recent attacks in Uganda, Pakistan, Afghanistan, Iraq and Algeria underscore the world community's (14) ................... to work together to combat terrorist organizations. State Department Spokesman P.J. Crowley said the statements show the United States condemns all forms of terrorist and sectarian-driven (15) ................... wherever it occurs.

II. PHONETICS

Pick out the word (A, B, C or D) whose underlined part is pronounced differently from those of the other words. (5 pts)

16.       A. decided                 B. hatred                    C. warned                  D. sacred

17.       A. legal                      B. petal                      C. pedal                     D. level

18.      A. devise                   B. promise                 C. surprise                 D. realize

19.      A. ghost                     B. hostage                 C. lost                         D. frosty

20.       A. debate                   B. depute                   C. depress                 D. deputy 

III. LEXICO-GRAMMAR

Part 1. Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) that best completes each sentence. (10 pts)

21. Does anyone know ............. that jacket might be?

            A. who                                   B. whom                    C. whose                   D. which

22. The cheetah runs 70 miles ............. hour. It’s the fastest animal in the world.

            A. each                      B. per                         C. a                             D. one

23. Joe seemed to be in a good mood, ......... he snapped at me angrily when I asked him to join us.

A. yet                          B. so                           C. for                          D. and

24. There are several means of mass communication. The newspaper is one. Television is .............

            A. the another                       B. the other               C. other                      D. another

25. I read in one paper that they are ............. married.

            A. getting                   B. got                          C. being                     D. having

26. There was hardly ............. food left in the fridge.

            A. more                      B. any                        C. no                          D. some

27. We spent the ............. days on the beach.

            A. few last sunny     B. last sunny few     C. last few sunny     D. few sunny last

28. ............. not fallen over, the athlete would have won the gold medal.

            A. If he                       B. If not                      C. Unless he had     D. Had he

29. Rarely............. to work on his own.

            A. he is seen             B. does he seen       C. is he seen            D. does he

30. “We’re going to the seaside”. - “Can............. ?”

            A. I come as well     B. also I come                       C. I too come            D. I as well come

Part 2. Complete each sentence with a suitable form of one of the phrasal verbs in the box. Use each one once only. (5 pts)

31. Why do prices keep .............    ............. ?

32. This new game is really.............    ............. . Everyone is playing it.       

33. It’s time your brother .............     ............. and started a family.

34. When she retired, she .............    ............. gardening so she wouldn’t get bored.        

35. I’m sorry to ............. you ............. but I can’t take you to the airport after all. 

Part 3. Complete the following sentences with appropriate form of the word in block capitals. (5 pts)  

36. ACT                     There is a saying in English: “ ............. speak louder than words.”

37. QUALIFY            He won the discus event at the Olympic Games but was later ............. when a medical check proved that he had been taking drugs.

38. NATION              Do you have a ............. costume in your country?

39. LAND                  The plane had to make a crash ............. in a field.

40. TROULE             Traveling in big cities is becoming more ............. everyday.

Part 4. Put the verbs given in the brackets into the appropriate tenses or forms. (10 pts)

41. “You were late for your dental appointment.”

     “I know. I (not/ stay) .................. so long at the library.”

42. It is necessary that everyone (be) .................. calm in times of danger.

43. If you want to see us, come to Tom’s on Sunday. We (wait) .................. for you there at

      midday.

44. It was a fine day and the roads were crowded because a lot of people (rush) ..................

       to the seaside.

45. Those were the highest words of praise they ever (hear) .................. from the old man.

46. Our little children enjoy (take) .................. to the water park every Sunday.

47. I don’t feel good. I (stay) .................. home from work tomorrow.

48. It won’t be safe to use these stairs until they (repair) .................. .

49. The city is now crowded with the people who (seek) .................. employment.

50. The old man is said (leave) .................... all his money to an old people’s home when he

     died.

Part 5. In each of the following sentences, the 4 words or phrases are marked A, B, C or D. Identify the one underlined expression that is not correct and correct it. (5 pts)

51.  Almost American Indian cultures have been agricultural societies since 2000 BC.

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ĐÁP ÁN

I. LISTENING

Part 1. (5 points)

            1. T                 2. F                 3. T                 4. F                 5. T

Part 2. (10 points)

            6. reaction     7. sympathy  8. 270             9. gathered    10. militant

            11. deny        12. stands       13. people   14. need        15. violence                         

II. PHONETICS (5 points)

            16. C              17. A               18. B               19. A               20. D

 

III. LEXICO - GRAMMAR

Part 1. (10 points)

            21. C              22. B               23. A               24. D              25. A              

26. B               27. C              28. D              29. C              30. A

Part 2. (5 points)

            31. going up                          32. catching on                    33. settled down     

34. took up                            35. let you down

Part 3. (5 points)

            36. Actions                            37. disqualified                     38. national

            39. landing                            40. troublesome                  

Part 4. (10 points)

            41. shouldn’t have stayed  42. be/ should be                 43. shall/ will be waiting      44. were rushing                      45. had ever heard             46. being taken

            47. am staying/am going to stay                                        48. have been repaired       49. are seeking                      50. to have left

Part 5: (5 points) (chọn đúng 50%, sửa đúng 50%)

51. A.              Almost                       à        Most

52. C.             for                   à        to                     

53. A.              The violence à        Violence

54. C.             are                  à        is

55. D.             attended        à        unattended

IV. READING COMPREHENSION

Part 1: (10 points)               

56. A               57.  C             58. B               59. D              60. A     

61. C              62.  B              63.A                64. D              65.  C

Part 2: (10 points)

66. one           67. before      68. as                         69. question 70. made       71. how          72. take             73. happened/ chanced      74. loss          75. long

Part 3: (5 points)

76. A               77. B               78. D              79. D              80. A

V. WRITING

Part 1: (5 points)

81. The only thing I am interested in is why he did it.

82. There has been a dramatic rise (increase) in house prices this year.

83. This new computer works in the way I can’t understand.

84. Her uncle didn’t leave her anything in his will.

85. Not until he came into light did I recognize him.

Part 2: (5 points)

            86.  is said to have been 

            87.  to avoid getting/being caught

            88.  should have been told

            89.  was traditionally brought up/ was brought up traditionally.

            90.  how thankful I

Part 3: (10 points)                       

The mark given to part 3 is based on the following scheme:

- Content: (50% of the total mark);

- Organization and presentation: (20% of the total mark);

- Language: (20% of the total mark);

- Handwriting, punctuation and spelling: (10% of the total mark).

------THE END -----

PART A. LISTENING (4.0 points)

Hướng dẫn phần thi nghe hiểu:

- Nội dung nghe gồm 02 phần, mỗi phần thí sinh được nghe 2 lần, đĩa CD tự chạy 2 lần.

I- You will hear a radio announcer talking about Plymouth Sea Life Centre. For each question, fill in the missing information in the blanks.

PLYMOUTH SEA LIFE CENTRE

COST

Adults (1) …………………………….. pounds, children 2.00 pounds.

Special prices for over sixties and school groups.

OPENING TIMES

Every day except 25 and 26 December.

FOR CHILDREN - (special quiz)

Animals are fed every (2) …………………….. from 9.30 am.

Slide and (3) ………………………. shows from 10.00 am.

GROUPS

Guided tours available - ask at the (4) ……………………….. .

NEW ATTRACTION

Walk through the big (5) ………………………………. made of glass.

REFRESHMENTS

Family area sells (6)……………………………… , cold drinks, ice creams.

FOR MORE INFORMATION TELEPHONE 01743 564219

II- You will hear an interview with a student called Sarah Mercer, who is planning to become a weather forecaster. For each question, choose the correct answer A, B or C.

1- Why did Sarah first become interested in the weather?

A. She studied weather in school science lessons.

B. She had experience of bad weather where she lived.

C. She saw programmes about weather on TV.

2- Who encouraged Sarah’s interest in the weather at home?

A. her mother

B. her father

C. her grandfather

3- Pupils at Sarah’s school club

A. produced a book about the weather.

B. provided information to the school for projects.

C. set up equipment for studying the weather.

4- What mistake did Sarah’s family make during a sailing trip?

A. They didn’t recognise signs of bad weather coming.

B. They hadn’t made preparations for bad weather.

C. They failed to check weather forecasts regularly.

5- Sarah thinks in future she’d like to

A. work in the area of sport.

B. be on TV weather programmes.

C. travel abroad for her job.

6- What kind of weather does Sarah like best?

A. when the sun is shining

B. when it’s raining hard

C. when there’s fog

PART B. PHONETICS ((1.0 point))

I. Circle one letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose main stress pattern is different from the others. (0.5 point)

1.         A. perform     B. campus     C. mountain  D. equal

2.         A. distinguish B. appliance C. opinion     D. politics

3.         A. information           A. contaminate         C. mathematics        D. politician

4.   A. understanding           B. anniversary          C. experience           D. celebration

5.   A. referee            B. dedicate    C. volunteer  D. understand

II. Circle one letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others. (0.5 point)

1. A. closure                          B. pleasure                           C. conclusion                       D. pressure

2. A. enough                         B. rough                                C. tough                     D. though

3. A. walked                          B. threatened                                    C. passed                  D. forced

4. A.  picture                                     B. temperature                                  C. failure                    D. mixture

5. A. streets                           B. phones                              C. books                    D. makes

PART C. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (5.0 points)

I. Circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. (4.0 points).

1. ……………  the time you get to the theatre, the play will have finished.

            A. Until                       B. In                            C. By                                      D. On

2. They are going to make ……………  excursion next month.

A. a two-week           B. two-weeks            C. two weeks'                                  D. a two-week's

3. He refused to give up work , …………… he had won a million pounds.

            A. despite                  B. however                C. even though                    D. as though

4. The new system didn’t …………... expectations.

A. catch up with       B. bring about          C. come across                   D. come up to

5. The newspaper report contained …………… important information.

            A. many                     B. another                 C. an                                      D. a lot of

6. You ……………  better be careful not to miss the train.

            A. would                    B. should                   C. had                                    D. did

7. Helen asked me ……………  the film called “Stars Wars”.

            A. have I seen          B. have you seen                 C. If I had seen                     D. if had I seen

8. She had no . ……………  of selling the clock. It had belonged to her grandmother.

            A. intention               B. meaning               C. interest                              D. opinion

9. The noise ……………  from the boat engine might disturb sea animals.

A. comes                   B. came                     C. coming                              D. has come

10. I’m really looking forward ……………  to university.

            A. to go                      B. go                           C. going                                 D. to going

11.       “Let’s go dancing, ……………?”   -  “Yes, let’s”

            A. will we                   B. do we                    C. don’t we                            D. shall we

12.       I don’t want much sugar in my coffee. Just……., please.

            A. few                                     B. a few                     C. little                                    D. a little.

13.       As the drug took ……………, the patient got better.

            A. force                      B. influence              C. action                                D. take effect

14. Secondary schools offer a wide ……………  of subjects.

A. field                      B. scope                   C. list                        D. range

15.       We are very  happy to have received a(n) ....... of 500 dollars from a foreign company.

            A. charity                   B. donation               C. hospital                            D. organization

16.       How many ……………   are there in the competition?

A. participants                      B. participations       C. participative                      D. participates

17.       Young volunteers often help the sick or the aged to clean ……………  their houses.

            A. on                          B. off                      C. up                                      D. in

18.       Jim . ……………  her on passing the final exams.

            A. thanked                B. prevented             C. congratulated                  D. warned

19.       The party..................... I was the guest of honors was extremely enjoyable.

            A. by which               B. at which                C. for which                          D. to which

20.       We don't allow ……………  in the classrooms.

            A. people smoke                 B. smoke                              C. people to smoke                         D. to smoking

21.       A wedding is a wonderful opportunity for ……………  off new clothes.

            A. wearing                 B. carrying                 C. showing                            D. putting

22.       It’s a good idea to see your doctor regularly for ……………

            A. a revision              B. a control                C. an investigation              D. a check-up

23. He said that the plane had already left and that I  ……………  arrived an hour earlier.

                 A. must have                     B. had to                      C. should have                        D. was supposed to

24. Yuri Gagarin was the first person . ……………  into space.

A. flew            B. to fly           C. flown                     D. fly

25.       Many parents do not let their children make a decision ……………  their future career.

              A. in                        B. about                     C. on                          D. out

26.       Anne: “Make yourself at home”.    - John: “……………”

A. Yes, can I help you         B. Not at all. Don’t mention it

            C. Thanks! Same to you     D. That’s very kind. Thank you

27.       ……………   saying was so important that I asked everyone to stop talking and listen.

            A. What the woman was                B. The woman was    

            C. That the woman was      D. What was the woman

28. We were so late that we ……………  had time to catch the train.

            A. nearly                                B. almost                              C. hardly                  D. simply

29. Many species of animals have become …… due to the irresponsible activities of people.

            A. endanger              B. dangerous            C. danger                  D. endangered

30. In 1870, ……………, John D. Rockefeller and others created the Standard Oil Company.

            A. in spite of oil prices fluctuated                          B. despite fluctuating oil prices   

            C. but the oil prices fluctuated                   D. oil prices were fluctuating

31. - “Would you like to have noodles, spaghetti or something different?”       - “………….”

            A. Anything will do   B. Yes, please                      C. Never mind                      D. I don’t mind

32. He had an excellent grade in his examination …………… the fact that he hadn't worked particularly hard.

            A. despite                  B. although               C. because of                       D. on account of

33. Opposite our house there is a large park, ………  there are beautiful trees and flowers.

            A. where                                B. in that        C. which                    D. that

34. ……………  earlier, I would have done it for you.

            A. Had I known        B. If I knew                C. Should I know     D. Were I to know

35. Only when you grow up …………… the truth.

           A. you will know       B. you know  C. do you know        D. will you know

36. We delayed our departure ……………  the weather condition.

            A. in spite of              B. on account of       C. instead of             D. on behalf of

37. During the rush hour the traffic ……………  in the city centre is terrible.

            A. condensation       B. accumulation       C. concentration      D. congestion

38. Don’t be silly! That ……………  possibly be Madonna!

            A. mustn’t                  B. shouldn’t               C. won’t                     D. can’t

39. Mike is not feeling well so we gave him ……………  to do than you.

            A. fewer                     B. little work              C. less work              D. least works

40. Our friends won a big prize when he took part in the ……………  on TV last week.

            A. game show                      B. news                     C. music program     D. weather forecast

II. Each of the following sentences has 4 underlined parts. Circle A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part of the sentence that needs corrections. (0.5 point)

1. Scientists and economists believe that human beings can never use away all the mineral

resources on Earth.

2. Plants and animals live in the sea sank to the sea bed when they died.

3. Learning a foreign language enables a student develop an understanding of another

culture.

4. Mrs. Stevens, along with her cousins from New Mexico, are planning to attend the

festivities.

5. In a laboratory experiment, an investigator often begins by work out different conditions

for two groups of subjects. 

III. Fill in the blanks with the correct form of the words in capital letters. (0.5 point)

1. Earth Hour is a ........................................... event organized to raise people’s awareness about the need to take action on climate change. (WORLD)

2. Solar energy, wind power and water power are ........................................ sources of energy. (ALTERNATE)

3. This organization is very concerned about the……................................. of the rain forests. (DESTROY).

4. In Western countries, electricity, gas, and water are not luxuries but ...................................   (NECESSARY)

5. Two…….................................... from the group “Friends of the Earth" are talking to the students.  (REPRESENT)

PART D. READING (5.0 points)

I. Read the passage and circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. (2.0  points )

     Basic to any understanding of Canada in the 20 years after the Second World War is the country's impressive population growth. For every three Canadians in 1945, there were over five in 1966. In September 1966 Canada's population passed the 20 million mark. Most of this surging growth came from natural increase. The depression of the 1930's and the war had held back marriages, and the catching-up process began after 1945. The baby boom continued through the decade of the1950's, producing a population increase of nearly fifteen percent in the five years from 1951 to 1956. This rate of increase had been exceeded only once before in Canada's history, in the decade before 1911 when the prairies were being settled. Undoubtedly, the good economic conditions of the 1950's supported a growth in the population, but the expansion also derived from a trend toward earlier marriages and an increase in the average size of families. In 1957 the Canadian birth rate stood at 28 per thousand, one of the highest in the world.

     After the peak year of 1957, the birth rate in Canada began to decline. It continued falling until in 1966 it stood at the lowest level in 25 years. Partly this decline reflected the low level of births during the depression and the war, but it was also caused by changes in Canadian society. Young people were staying at school longer; more women were working; young married couples were buying automobiles or houses before starting families; rising living standards were cutting down the size of families. It appeared that Canada was once more falling in step with the trend toward smaller families that had occurred all through the Western world since the time of the Industrial Revolution.

     Although the growth in Canada's population had slowed down by 1966 (the increase in the first half of the 1960's was only nine percent), another large population wave was coming over the horizon. It would be composed of the children who were born during the period of the high birth rate prior to 1957.

1. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. Educational changes in Canadian society                  B. Canada during the Second World War

C. Population trends in postwar Canada                         D. Standards of living in Canada

2. According to the passage, when did Canada's baby boom begin?

            A. In the decade after 1911                                                            B. After 1945

            C. During the depression of the 1930's                            D. In 1966

3. The word "five" in line 2 refers to

            A. Canadians                        B. years                     C. decades                            D. marriages

4. The word "surging" in line 3 is closest in meaning to

            A. new                        B. extra                                  C. accelerating                      D. surprising

5. The author suggests that in Canada during the1950's

            A. the urban population decreased rapidly                                  B. fewer people married

            C. economic conditions were poor                                                D. the birth rate was very high

6. The word "trend" in line 9 is closest in meaning to

            A. tendency               B. aim                                                 C. growt       D. directive

7. The word "peak" in line 12 is closest in meaning to

            A. pointed                              B. dismal                    C. mountain                          D. maximum

8. When was the birth rate in Canada at its lowest postwar level?

            A. 1966                      B. 1957                                  C. 1956                                  D. 1951

9. The author mentions all of the following as causes of declines in population growth after 1957 EXCEPT

A. people being better educated               B. people getting married earlier

            C. better standards of living                                   D. couples buying houses

10. It can be inferred from the passage that before the Industrial Revolution

            A. families were larger                                B. population statistics were unreliable

            C. the population grew steadily                 D. economic conditions were bad

II. Read the passage and circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the  questions  (2.0 points )

     Large animals that inhabit the desert have evolved a number of adaptations for reducing the effects of extreme heat. One adaptation is to be light in color, and to reflect rather than absorb the Sun's rays. Desert mammals also depart from the normal mammalian practice of maintaining a constant body temperature. Instead of trying to keep down the body temperature deep inside the body, which would involve the expenditure of water and energy, desert mammals allow their temperatures to rise to what would normally be fever height, and temperatures as high as 46 degrees Celsius have been measured in Grant's gazelles. The overheated body then cools down during the cold desert night, and indeed the temperature may fall unusually low by dawn, as low as 34 degrees Celsius in the camel. This is an advantage since the heat of the first few hours of daylight is absorbed in warming up the body, and an excessive build-up of heat does not begin until well into the day.

     Another strategy of large desert animals is to tolerate the loss of body water to a point that would be fatal for non-adapted animals. The camel can lose up to 30 percent of its body weight as water without harm to itself, whereas human beings die after losing only 12 to 13 percent of their body weight. An equally important adaptation is the ability to replenish this water loss at one drink. Desert animals can drink prodigious volumes in a short time, and camels have been known to imbibe over 100 liters in a few minutes. A very dehydrated person, on the other hand, cannot drink enough water to rehydrate at one session, because the human stomach is not sufficiently big and because a too rapid dilution of the body fluids causes death from water intoxication.

     The tolerance of water loss is of obvious advantage in the desert, as animals do not have to remain near a water hole but can obtain food from grazing sparse and far-flung pastures. Desert-adapted mammals have the further ability to feed normally when extremely dehydrated, it is a common experience in people that appetite is lost even under conditions of moderate thirst.

1. What is the main topic of the passage?

            A. Weather variations in the desert                      B. Adaptations of desert animals

            C. Diseased of desert animals                  D. Human use of desert animals.

2. According to the passage, why is light coloring an advantage to large desert animals?

A. It helps them hide from predators.          B. It does not absorb sunlight as much as dark colors.

C. It helps them see their young at night                D. It keeps them cool at night.

3. The word "maintaining" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to

            A. measuring                        B. inheriting              C. preserving                        D. delaying

4. The author uses of Grant's gazelle as an example of

            A. an animal with a low average temperature    

            B. an animal that is not as well adapted as the camel

            C. a desert animal that can withstand high body temperatures

            D. a desert animal with a constant body temperature

5. When is the internal temperature of a large desert mammal lower?

            A. Just before sunrise                                 B. In the middle of the day

            C. Just after sunset                         D. Just after drinking

6. The word "tolerate" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to

            A. endure                  B. replace                  C. compensate         D. reduce

7. What causes water intoxication?

            A. Drinking too much water very quickly              B. Drinking polluted water

            C. Bacteria in water                                                             D. Lack of water.

8. What does the author imply about desert-adapted mammals?

            A. They do not need to eat much food.    B. They can eat large quantities quickly

            C. They easily lose their appetites.                       D. They can travel long distances looking for food.

9. Why does the author mention humans in the second paragraph? 

A. To show how they use camels.           

B. To contrast them to desert mammals.

C. To give instructions about desert survival.    

D. To show how they have adapted to desert life.

10. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as an adaptation of large desert animals?

            A. Variation in body temperatures                                                B. Eating while dehydrated

            C. Drinking water quickly                                                    D. Being active at night.

III. Read the following passage and circle the most suitable answer (A,B,C or D) for each space: (1.0 point)

--(Nội dung đầy đủ, chi tiết vui lòng xem tại online hoặc đăng nhập để tải về máy)---

ĐÁP ÁN

PART A. LISTENING (4.0 points)

SECTION 1. Questions 1-6 (2.0 points)

0.3 point for each correct answer:

1.-3.70hour                           2. hour                       3-videos            

4-information desk                 5-tunnel                6-snacks                 

SECTION 2. Questions 1-6 (2.0 points).

0.3 point for each correct answer:

1-         B       2-A                             3-A                   4-C              5-C                   6-B

PART B . PHONETICS ((1.0 point))

I. Circle one letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose main stress pattern is different from the others. (0.5 point)

0.1 point for each correct answer:

1. A                 2. D                 3. A                 4. C                 5. B

II. Circle one letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others. (0.5 point)

0.1 point for each correct answer:

1. D                 2. D                 3. B                 4. C                 5. B

PART C. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (5.0 points)

I. Circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. (4.0 points).

0.1 point for each correct answer:

1. C                 2. A                 3. C                 4. D                 5. D    

6. C                 7. C                 8. A                 9. C                 10. D

11. D              12. D              13. D              14. D              15. B  

16. A               17. C              18. C              19. B               20. C

21. C              22. D              23. C              24. B               25. C 

26. D              27. A               28. C              29. D              30. B

31. A               32. A               33. A               34. A               35. D 

36. B               37. D              38. D              39. C              40. A

II. Each of the following sentences has 4 underlined parts. Circle A, B,C or D to indicate the underlined part of the sentence that needs corrections . (0.5 point)

0.1 point for each correct answer:

41. C              42.B                43.C                44.C                45. B              

III. Fill in the blanks with the correct form of the words in capital letters. (0.5 point)

0.2 point for each correct answer:

1. Worldwide                                     2. Alternative                                     3. Destruction             

4. Necessities                                   5. Representatives

PART D. READING (5.0 points)

I. Read the passage and circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the  questions . (2.0  points)

0.2 point for each correct answer:

1. C                 2. B                 3. A                 4. C                 5. D    

6. A                 7. D                 8. A                 9. B                 10. A

II. Read the passage and circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the  questions . (2.0  points)

0.2 point for each correct answer:

1. B                 2. B                 3. C                 4. C                 5. A    

6. A                 7. A                 8. D                 9. B                 10. D

III. Read the following passage and circle the most suitable answer (A,B,C or D) for each space: (1.0 point)

0.1 point for each correct answer:

1.B                  2.C                  3.C                  4.A                  5.A     

6.B                  7.D                  8.D                  9.B                  10.D

PART E. WRITING (5.0 points)

I. Finish each second sentence so that it has similar meaning to the first sentence, using the clues at the beginning of each sentence. (0). (2.0  points)

0.2 point for each correct answer:

1. Jim apologised for breaking the glass.

2. It is high time you took some exercises

3. No sooner had he returned from his walk than he got down to writing the letter.

4. The sooner we (can) solve the problem, the better it will be for all concerned.

5. So great was the demand that they had to reprint the book immediately.

6. I’d rather go out for a meal than stay at home. 

7. There has been a considerable fall/decrease in the value of these goods in the past week.

8. Despite my strong disapproval of your behavior/ the fact that I strongly disapprove of your behavior, I will help you this time.

9. Mary suggested (John and her) going to Paris for the weekend. 

10. The accident is thought to have been caused by human error.

II. Finish each second sentence so that it has similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word  given in the brackets. (1.0 point)

0.2 point for each correct answer:

1. She turned down my offer of help.

2. I would rather you did not phone me at work.

3. He has no intention to stop campaigning for his son’s freedom.

4. I told him that there was no point in worrying about the past.

5. No matter how hard I tried, I couldn’t get the money.

III. Write an essay (about 230 words) on the following topic: (2.0 points)

Marking scheme:

1. Format. (0.2 point) - The composition has three parts: The introduction, the body, the conclusion.

2. Content. (1.0 point) a provision of main ideas and details as appropriate.

3. Language. (0.5point) a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of upper secondary gifted students.

4. Presentation. (0.3point) coherence, cohesion and style appropriate to the level of upper secondary gifted students.

----- THE END -----

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