Dưới đây là Đề thi HSG cấp huyện môn Tiếng Anh 6 năm 2020 có đáp án Phòng GD & ĐT huyện Hoài Nhơn. Đề thi gồm có các câu hỏi trắc nghiệm và tự luận sẽ giúp các em học sinh ôn tập nắm vững các kiến thức, các dạng bài tập để chuẩn bị cho kỳ thi chọn học sinh giỏi sắp đến. Các em xem và tải về ở dưới.
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PHÒNG GD & ĐT HUYỆN HOÀI NHƠN |
ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 6 Năm học: 2020-2021 (Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút) |
SECTION 1: LISTENING.
Part I. Listen to a conversation and decide if the statements are true (T) or false (F).
1. Sarah is a teacher.
2. She usually arrives at work at nine o’clock.
3. Sarah always brings a sandwich from home.
4. She often has work to do in the evening.
5 She never goes out during the week.
Part II. Listen and fill in the gaps in the table. (10 points)
Student 1:
Name: Celine (0) Poulain
Nationality: French
Age: 25
Job:(1) ___________
Student 2:
Name: Manuel Garcia
Nationality: (2) ___________
Age: 32
Job: Engineer
Student 3:
Name: Eva (3) ___________
Nationality: Finnish
Age: (4) ___________
Job: (5) ___________
SECTION 2: PHONETICS.
III. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C or D. (10 points)
1. A. album B. use C. amusement D. united
2. A. minority B. gramophone C. robbery D. monument
3. A. attraction B. battle C. veteran D. character
4. A. invention B. depend C. resort D. defeat
5. A. hoped B. looked C. opened D. washed
IV. Choose the word with different stress pattern. Write A, B, C or D in the space provided (10points)
1. A. surprise B. sugar C. profession D. success
2. A. advance B. around C. industry D. imperial
3. A. natural B. national C. literature D. suggestion
4. A. charming B. champagne C. children D. charity
5. A. decide B. around C. popular D. enjoy
SECTION 3: VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR.
V. Choose the best answer to complete each sentence, identify your answer by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C, or D. )(50 points)
1. We always need more players. Why don’t you come___________?
A. on B. along C. with D. after
2. Will you be home …………..dinner tonight?
A. to B. for C. at D. on
3. Giving a book report before the class is an interesting ___________
A. act B. action C. activity D. deed
4. Do you go out ___________?
A. in the afternoon on Fridays B. on Fridays in the afternoon
C. on afternoons Friday D. on Friday afternoons
5. …………….lives in a very big house
A. A Queen of England B. Queen of England
C. The Queen of the England D. the Queen of England
6. On Sunday mornings I stay in bed ___________8 o’clock.
A. until B. at C. from D. to
7. I often ___________in winter.
A. go playing skiing B. go skiing
C. play skiing D. go to ski
8. Some young people are working ___________hospital volunteers.
A. to be B. such as C. like D. as
9. We shouldn’t cross the street outside the ___________
A. pavement B. foot lane C. sidewalk D. zebra crossing
10. They ___________healthy after the summer vacation.
A. looked B. were seeming C. were looking D. were appearing
11. They meet their friends and ___________some fun.
A. take B. have C. do D. enjoy
12. You should pay more ___________in class.
A. part B. care C. notice D. attention
13. He and his friends usually get ___________and talk about their stamps.
A. together B. themselves C. each other D. one another
14. He likes stamps. He is a stamp ___________
A. collect B. collecting C. collector D. collects
15. Some students say they are ___________have no time for pastime.
A. hurry B. busy C. full D. hard
16. It’s difficult to cross this street because there is too much ___________
A. crowd B. traffic C. people D. transport
17. There aren’t any good movies ___________at the moment.
A. going on B. being on C. performing D. showing
18. Sorry I can’t come but thanks ___________
A. any ways B. any way C. anyway D. in anyway
19. Look at ___________.girl over there.
A. one B. this C. that D. a
20. Would you like to come to my house for lunch?
A. Yes, I do B. I’d love to C. Yes, I like D. OK. I’d like
21. Linda: “Do you live in the country or in the city?” ~ Daisy: “___________”
A. Yes, I do B. I live in the city C. No, I don’t D. I live on the city
22. Tom: “___________________”~ Jake: “She is kind.”
A. What does your teacher like? B. What would your teacher like?
C. What does your teacher look like D. What is your teacher like?
23. Bill: “Are you John?” John: “___________”
A. All right B. Turn right C. That’s right D. You right
24 . She is studying hard. She is going to be___________ student in my class.
A. the best B. best C. the better D. better
25. Nam can wait hours for his friends without getting angry. He is a ___________boy.
A. hard-working B. free C. patient D. active
VI. Supply the correct tense or form of the verbs in brackets. (5 points)
1. Tom (1) ( not come ) _______________ here tomorrow
2. Trees (2) ( plant ) _____________ since it (3) ( stop ) ___________ raining
3. My sister always (4)( wear)___________ nice clothes for work. Today she (5) (wear)___________ a blue jacket and shirt.
VII. Give the correct form of the words in capital to complete the sentences. (10 points)
1. It is ____________to go hiking in this area. (DANGER)
2. Ha Long Bay is number one ____________ wonder in Vietnam. (NATURE)
3. Mary is the ____________ of the English speaking club in my class. (LEAD)
4. Big cities in Vietnam are too busy and ___________ (POLLUTE)
5. Hoi An is a _____city with a lot of old houses, shops and buildings. (HISTORY)
6. My trip to Phong Nha Ke Bang is ___________ experience. (FORGET)
7. There are many ______________ festivals in Vietnam. (TRADITION)
8. We should eat less fast food or junk food because they are _____ (HEALTH)
9. Visitors come to Hue because there are many tourist __________ (ATTRACT)
10. Thousands of people were made ________by the earthquake in Indonesia. (HOME)
VIII. Circle the letter A,B,C or D before the mistake in each sentence. then correct them (5 points)
1. If you are interesting in history, you can visit many ancient monuments.
A B C D
2. Sports and games make our body strength, prevent us from getting too fat.
A B C D
3. An English friend of me, Mary, usually sends me American stamps.
A B C D
4. Does it make a long time to go from Hue to Ha Noi by train?
A B C D
5. There are less TV programs for teenagers than there are for adults.
A B C D
SECTION 4: READING.
IX. Read the passage. Then choose one suitable word to fill in the gaps. (20 points)
The rockies
The rockies Mountain run almost the length (0)______ North American. They start in the North- West, but lie only a (1)______ hundred miles from the centre in more southern areas. Although the Rockies are smaller (2)______ the Alps, they are no less wonderful. There are many roads across the Rockies, (3)______ the best way to see them is to (4)______ by train. You start from Vancouver, (5)______ most attractive of Canada’s big cities. Standing with its feet in the water and its head in the mountains, this city (6)______ its residents to ski on slopes just 15 minutes by car from the city (7)______ .Thirty passenger trains a day used to (8)______ off from Vancouver on the cross- continent railway. Now there are just three a week, but the ride is still a great adventure. You sleep on board, (9)______ is fun, but travel through some of the best (10)______ at night.
0 A. in B. down C. of D. through
1 A. many B. lot C. few D. couple
2 A. from B. to C. as D. than
3 A. but B. because C. unless D. since
4 A. drive B. travel C. ride D. pass
5 A. a B. one C. the D. Its
6 A. lest B. allows C. offers D. gives
7 A. centre B. circle C. middle D. heart
8 A. leave B. get C. take D. set
9 A. when B. which C. who D. where
10 A. scenery B. view C. site D. beauty
X. Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. (20 points)
In the USA, students (1)_____________their secondary education at the age of 11. First they (2)_____________to Middle School for three years. Then they go for High School for four years, from the age 14 to 18. Some students (3)_____________ school when they are 16 and (4)_______________ jobs. But most students (5)_____________at High School still they are 18. Then they (6) _____________ exams and they get “High School Diploma”. There aren’t any national exams.
All students at secondary school in the USA (7)_____________English, maths, science, and P.E., but students (8)_______________other subjects, so they don’t all study the same subjects.
About 90% of (9)___________ in the USA go to state school. About 10% go to (10)______________ schools. Most of the private schools are religious schools.
XI. Read the following passage, then answer the questions by circling A, B, C or D. (10 pts)
CRICKET
Cricket is an English game. People from most other countries think it is very, very slow, but the English think it is exciting.
There are two teams with eleven players on each team in a cricket match. They play outdoors on a field. They play around two wickets. A wicket is three sticks in the ground with two sticks across them at the top. The wickets are twenty meters apart.
One player is a bowler. He stands by one wicket and throws a ball at the other wicket. He tries to hit one of the top sticks and make it fall to the ground.
Another player is a batsman. He holds a stick called a bat. He stands behind the second wicket. He tries to hit the ball before it hits the sticks. If he hits the ball, he runs to the other wicket. Sometimes he can run from one wicket to the other several times until a player in the field catches the ball and throws it back to the wickets.
An important match can continue for 4 or 5 days. The players make hundreds of runs.
Cricket began in England in the 1300s. It became a major sport in the 1700s. Englishmen taught the game to people in their colonies. Today cricket is still popular in most of those countries.
1. __________people play cricket at one time.
A. Two B. Six C. Eleven D. Twenty-two
2. A player tries to hit the ball with__________ .
A. a bat B. a wicket C. his foot D. his head
3. The bowler tries to__________ .
A. hit the bat B. hit the wicket C. run to the wicket D. run into the field
4. If the batsman hits the ball with his bat, he__________.
A. runs into the field B. runs to the other wicket
C. tries to hit the wicket D. tries to hit the bowler
5. Cricket became popular in England in the __________ century.
A. eleventh B. fourteenth C. eighteenth D. twentieth
SECTION 5: WRITING
XII. Rewrite each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the first one. (20 points)
1. Nobody plays this piece of music as beautifully as he does.
→ He plays this…………………………………………………
2. We spent five hours getting to London.
→ It took ........................................................................................
3. Listening to music gives him pleasure.
→ He enjoys...................................................................................
4. She is more beautiful than her younger sister.
→ Her ...........................................................................................
5. They began studying English in 2015.
→ They .........................................................................................
6. You ought to go to school now.
→ It’s time ....................................................................................
7. We couldn’t keep on cleaning the streets because of the heavy rain.
→ Because it……………………………………………………………….
8. We can’t afford to buy the car.
→ The car is ...................................................................................
9. People say that he wins the first prize.
→ He is said to ...............................................................................
10. She bought that house in 1990.
→ She has ......................................................................................
XIII. Use the words and phrases given to write meaningful sentences. You can add or change anything necessary. (10 points)
1. There / good restaurant/ that/ street/so / my friends / I/ eat/ there/./
..........................................................................................................................................
2. My sister/ enjoy/ go/ the cinema/ her/ friends /./
.........................................................................................................................................
3. Which/ activity/ use/ more/ calories/ walking/ or/ riding/ bicycle/?/
..........................................................................................................................................
4. You/ better / eat /too / candies /because /they / not good /your teeth /./
.......................................................................................................................................................
5. performance/ she/ give/ last night/ marvellous /./
................................................................................................................................................
XIV. Write a paragraph (about 80 – 100 words ) to tell about a person you love or admire (10 points)
ĐÁP ÁN
SECTION 1: LISTENING. (20 points)
I. Part I. Listen to a conversation and decide if the statements are true (T) or false (F).
(10 points) 5 x 2 = 10 points
1. T 2 F 3. F 4. T 5. F
Part II. Listen to a school secretary talking to one of the teachers and fill in the gaps in the table. (10 points) 5 x 2 = 10 points
1. doctor 2. Mexican 3. Lipponen 4. twenty-one / 24 5. Artist
SECTION 2: PHONETICS. (20 points)
III. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest by circling the corresponding letter A, B, C or D. (10 point) . (2 x 5 = 10pts)
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. A 5. C
VI. Choose the word with different stress pattern. Write A, B, C or D in the space provided
( 2 x 5 = 10 pt)
1. B 2. C 3. D 4. B 5. C
...
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Trên đây là một phần trích đoạn nội dung Đề thi HSG cấp huyện môn Tiếng Anh 6 năm 2020 có đáp án Phòng GD & ĐT huyện Hoài Nhơn. Để xem toàn bộ nội dung các em chọn chức năng xem online hoặc đăng nhập vào trang hoc247.net để tải tài liệu về máy tính.
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