Bộ 3 đề thi giữa HK1 môn Tiếng Anh 11 năm 2020 có đáp án trường THPT Lương Định Của

TRƯỜNG THPT LƯƠNG ĐỊNH CỦA TỔ KHOA HỌC XÃ HỘI

KIỂM TRA GIỮA HỌC KÌ 1 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 11 Năm học: 2020-2021 (Thời gian làm bài: 45 phút)

ĐỀ SỐ 1

I. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. athlete                B. capital                C. stalk                  D. talent

Question 2: A. emblem              B. member              C. regret                D. theme

Question 3: A. August               B. gerund                C. purpose             D. suggest

Question 4: A. dream                 B. mean                  C. peace                D. steady

Question 5:  A. consist               B. disable                C. suggest             D. vision

II.  Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 6: The government's interference in the strike has been widely criticised.

A. disapproval     B. intervention

C. limitation        D. postponement

Question 7: The emblem of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations was designed basing on rice - the most important crop for the Southeast Asian people.

A. banner      B. logo

C. motto       D. slogan

Question 8: The scholarship is renewed annually and may be stopped if the students have poor academic records or bad behaviours.

A. every day        B. every month

C. every week     D. every year

Question 9: In Thailand, it's against the law to litter on the pavement. If you are caught, you can be fined up to $2000 Baht.

A. evil              B. illegal

C. immoral     D. wrong

Question 10: The beautiful sights in Sa Pa, Mui Ne and Ha Noi all contribute to the country's magic charm. 

A. beauty     B. fame

C. image      D. value

III. Mark the letter A. B. C. or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 11: It is no use ____ a girl that she doesn't need to lose any weight.

A. convince         B. convincing

C. to convince     D. to convincing

Question 12: I have much homework that I ought ____.

A. do          B. to doing

C. doing     D. to do

Question 13: She did a funny little curtsy which Josh and Silver couldn't help ____ at.

A. laugh          B. laughing

C. to laugh     D. to laughing

Question 14: We are looking forward ____ out at the weekend.

A. go.        B. going

C. to go     D. to going

Question 15: You should give up ____ your sister.

A. being bullied    B. bullied

C. bullying            D. to bully

IV. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges.

Question 16: “It's so stuffy in here." – “____”

A. Do I have to open the window?

B. Must I open the window?

C. Shall I open the window?

D. Would you like to open the window?

Question 17: “Merry Christmas!" – “____”

A. Happy Christmas to you!      B. Same for you!

C. The same to you!                  D. You are the same!

Question 18: "I will pick you up around 7:30. The movie starts at 8:00." – “____”

A. No, you don't

B. OK. See you then.

C. I don't like waiting.

D. Thanks, no big deal.

Question 19: "____ going on a picnic this weekend?" - "That's great!"

A. How about          B. Let's

C. Why don't we     D. Would you like

Question 20: "Mr Green had an accident. He's been in hospital for a week.” – “____”

A. How terrific     B. Oh, is he?

C. Poor it.             D. Poor him.

V. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

The 22nd Southeast Asian Games were held in Viet Nam from the 5th to 13th December, 2003. Although it was the first time Viet Nam hosted such a big sports event, the Games were a great success. The Games really became a festival that impressed sports enthusiasts with its spirit: solidarity, co-operation for peace and development.

Athletes from 11 participating countries competed in 32 sports, and 444 gold medals were won. Some teams such as table tennis, badminton, karate, volleyball, basketball and wrestling were composed of top competitors in the region. Many Games records were close to international levels. Viet Nam won 158 gold medals to finish at the top of the Southeast Asian Games medal standings. Thailand ranked second with 90 golds, and Indonesia was third with only 55 golds. Singapore and Viet Nam were the two nations which had participants who were presented with the Most Outstanding Athlete titles in the Swimming and Shooting events. The Vietnamese Women's Football team successfully defended the SEA Games title. Viet Nam and Thailand played in the Men's Football Final. The Thai Team won the gold medal. In other sports such as karate, athletics, bodybuilding and wushu, the young and energetic Vietnamese athletes performed excellently and won a lot of gold medals.

Viet Nam's first place finish was not surprising. Firstly, to prepare for the 22nd SEA Games, Viet Nam carried out an intensive programme for its athletes, which included training in facilities, both home and abroad. Secondly, with the strong support of their countrymen, the Vietnamese athletes competed in high spirits. The country's success has proved that Viet Nam can organise sporting events on an international level. A plan has been proposed for Viet Nam to host the Asia Sports Games at some point in the future.

Question 21: It can be inferred from the passage that ____.

A. Viet Nam can organise sporting events better than other countries

B. Viet Nam had already planned for the next Sea Games in the future

C. Viet Nam prepared its athletes well for the 22nd SEA Games

D. Viet Nam protected its first place in SEA Games competition

Question 22: The word "title" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ____.

A. power         B. label

C. headline     D. trophy

Question 23: According to the passage, what is NOT true about the 22nd Southeast Asian Games?

A. There were 11 countries participating in.

B. Many athletes had broken the world records.

C. Indonesia ranked higher than Singapore.

D. Vietnamese Women's Football team won gold medal.

Question 24: The word "intensive” in paragraph 3 has OPPOSITE meaning to ____.

A. delicate       B. flexible

C. sensitive     D. vigorous

Question 25: What is the writer's main purpose in writing this passage?

A. To explain the reasons why 22nd Sea Games was organised in Viet Nam.

B. To express the writer's love and how much he is proud of the country's success.

C. To introduce top competitors in the region and their ranking in the Games.

D. To show Vietnamese's ability in organising international sporting events.

VI. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 26: I said that she should see a doctor.

A. I advised her seeing a doctor.

B. I advised her should see a doctor.

C. I advised her to see a doctor.

D. I advised to see a doctor.

Question 27: Ireland doesn't allow people to smoke in bars.

A. Ireland doesn't enjoy smoking in bars.

B. Ireland hates smoking in bars.

C. Smoking in bars is banned in Ireland.

D. You should not smoke in bars in Ireland.

Question 28: Working on the computer is not what she feels like.

A. She doesn't feel like work on the computer.

B. She doesn't feel like working on the computer.

C. She doesn't feel like to work on the computer.

D. She doesn't feel like to working on the computer.

Question 29: California doesn't permit people to fish without a fishing license.

A. California can't stand fishing without a fishing license.

B. California doesn't allow fishing without a fishing license.

C. California doesn't encourage fishing without a fishing license.

D. California doesn't mind fishing without a fishing license.

Question 30: “Why don't we go for a walk?" Mary said.

A. Mary advised to go for a walk.

B. Mary asked going for a walk.

C. Mary suggested going for a walk.

D. Mary would like going for a walk.

ĐỀ SỐ 2

I. Choose the answer among A, B, C, D to complete each of the sentences below.

Question 1: Many lists of “Wonders of the World” ________ during the Midle Ages.

A. are said to have existed

C. said to exist

B. said to be existed

D. are said to exist

Question 2: If she _________ her husband, he couldn’t have finished his project.

A. Doesn’t help     B. hasn’t helped

C. won’t help        D. hadn’t helped

Question 3: Jane is a final year student and _________ her attempt to win a place at university.

A. In     B. on

C. at     D. with

Question 4: Vietnam was _______ nation to host SEA Games 22.

A. The     B. some

C. a         D. 0

Question 5: It gets ________ when the winter is coming.

A. Cold and cold

C. more and more cold

B. The coldest and coldest

D. colder and colder

Question 6: Who is going to look _________ the children while you’re away?

A. At         B. up

C. after     D. over

Question 7: Hoi An is a famous tourist ________.

A. Attractive     B. attract

C. attracted     D. attraction

Question 8: On her lastest trip to Europe, she bought __________.

A. a Swiss beautiful brand-new watch

C. a brand-new beautiful Swiss watch

B. a Swiss brand-new beautiful watch

D. a beautiful brand-new Swiss watch

Question 9: It is our responsibility to _________ to bettering our own lives.

A. Devote      B. contribute

C. support     D. promote

Question 10: Terry is a very imaginative boy. He always __________ interesting ideas.

A. Runs out of         B. puts up with

C. comes up with    D. stands in for

Question 11: If you don’t _______ to the rules, you will be asked to leave.

A. Obey       B. follow

C. accept     D. conform

Question 12: The teacher punished the students __________ was naughty.

A. Whom     B. who

C. which      D. whose

II. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning.

Question 13: The noise next door did not stop until after midnight.

A. Not until after midnight the noise next door stopped.

B. It was not until after midnight that the noise next door stopped.

C. The noise stopped at the midnight.

D. It was midnight and the noise next door stopped.

Question 14: “Let’s go shopping” she said.

A. She suggested going shopping.

C. She said we can go shopping.

B. She allowed us to go shopping.

D. she agreed to go shopping with him.

Question 15: I am sure it wasn’t Maike you saw because he’s in London.

A. It couldn’t be Mike you saw because he’s in London.

B. You mustn’t have seen Mike because he’s in London.

C. It can’t have been Mike you saw because he’s in London.

D. Mike is in London, so you might have seen him.

Question 16: We started out for California. It started to rain right after that.

A. No sooner did we start out for California than it started to rain.

B. Hardly had we started out for California than it started to rain.

C. Scarely had it started to rain when we started out for California.

D. No sooner had we started out for California than it started to rain.

Question 17: The coffee was not strong. It didn’t keep us awake.

A. The coffee was too strong, but it couldn’t keep us awake.

B. The coffee was not strong enough to keep us awake.

C. The coffee was good enough for us to keep us awake.

D. We were kept awake although the coffee was not strong.

III. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from others.

Question 18: A. followed    B. exploited     C. packaged     D. reserved

Question 19: A. gather     B. average     C. language     D. space

III. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to identify the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the other words in the same group.

Question 20: A. cattle           B. country             C. collect      D. cover

Question 21: A. investigate   B.    conditional    C. society     D. underground

IV. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 22: My mother-in-law (A) prefers staying (B) at home than (C) going out (D) for dinner.

Question 23: Manufacturers may use food additives (A) for preserving (B), to color, or (C) to flavor foods (D).

Question 24: Found (A) in the 12th century, Oxford University ranks (B) among (C) the world’s oldest universities (D).

V. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 25: – Cindy: “I thought your tennis game was a lot better today, Peter.” – Peter: “_______.”

A. It’s alright.

C. My pleasure.

B. Never mind.

D. You’ve got to be kidding.

Question 26: – Mike: “Would you mind getting me a cup of coffee?” – Cathy: “___________.”

A. No, I’d be glad to.

C. Yes, I’d love to, thanks.

B. Cream and sugar, please.

D. I never drink coffee.

VII. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.

Question 27: The situation seems to be changing minute by minute.

A. again and again     B. time after time

C. very rapidly            D. from time to time

Question 28: The competition will commence just after the opening ceremony.

A. begin       B. attract

C. restrict     D. finish

VIII. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 29: If he gets to university, his parents will be walking on air.

A. Disgusted     B. promising

C. upset     D. hopeful

Question 30: Lack of water and nutrients has impeded the growth of these cherry tomato plants.

A. Prevented     B. assisted

C. promoted     D. realized

IX. Read the passage and choose the best option to complete each blank.

Education is more important today than ever before. It helps people acquire the skills they need for such everyday (31)________ as reading a newspaper or managing their money. Its also gives them the specialized training they may need to prepare for a job or career. For example, a person must meet certain educational requirements and obtain a license or certificate before he can practise law or medicine. Many fields, such as computer operation or police work, (32)_________ satisfactory completion of special training courses.

Education is also important (33)_______ it helps people get more out of life. It increases their knowledge and understanding of the world. It helps them acquire the skills that make life more interesting and enjoyable, such as the skills needed to participate in a sport, paint a picture, or play a musical instrument. Such education becomes (34)________ important as people gain more and more leisure time.

Education also helps people adjust to change. This habit has become necessary because social changes today take place with increasing speed and affect the lives of more and more people. Education can help a person understand these changes and provide him (35)_____ the skills for adjusting to them.

Question 31: A. works         B. jobs            C. actions        D. activities

Question 32: A. requires     B. requiring     C. require        D. to require

Question 33: A. therefore    B. despite        C. although     D. because

Question 34: A. increaed    B. increasing    C. increase     D. increasingly

Question 35: A. with           B. for                C. in                D. to

ĐỀ SỐ 3

I. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. Epidemic    B. Illegal    C. Education     D. Competitor

Question 2: A. Compose    B. Opponent     C. Wholesale     D. Colony

II. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3: A. Discuss      B. Waving       C. Airport         D. Often

Question 4: A. Interview    B. Difficulty     C. Simplicity     D. Beautiful

III. Mark the letter A, B C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions

Question 5: The skin receives nearly (A) the (B) third of the blood pumped out (C) by (D) the heart.

Question 6: I had (A) my motorbike repair (B) yesterday but now (C) it still doesn’t work (D).

Question 7: If you are working with (A) young children in a primary (B) school, you will find (C) teaching lively songs and rhymes are (D) very popular.

IV. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 8: The next meeting _________ in May.

A. will hold               B. will be held

C. will be holding     D. will have held

Question 9: The librarian told us not _________ reference books out of the library.

A. taking     B. to take

C. take       D. took

Question 10: My responsibility is to _________ my little brothers.

A. take care of     B. join hands

C. take over        D. work together

Question 11: In Vietnam, two or more ________ may live in a home.

A. generations     B. generous

C. generation       D. generators

Question 12: __________ candidates are likely to succeed in job interviews.

A. Nervous     B. Self-conscious

C. Self-doubt     D. Self-confident

Question 13: A good essay must __________contain enough interesting ideas and specific exam but also have good organization.

A. in addition     B. either

C. not only     D. as well

Question 14: The ground is wet. It ________ rained last night.

A. must     B. must have

C. may have     D. might have

Question 15: There are several means of mass communication. The newspaper is one. Television is ______.

A. another           B. other

C. the another     D. the other.

...

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