Bài tập Unit 6 - Unit 8 Tiếng Anh 11 có đáp án

BÀI TẬP UNIT 6 - UNIT 8 TIẾNG ANH 11 CÓ ĐÁP ÁN

UNIT 6: COMPETITIONS

I. PRONUNCIATION

Choose the word that has main stress placed differently from the others.

1. a. contest	b. sponsor	c. observe	d. complete
2. a. stimulate	b. competition	c. disappointed	d. opportunity
3. a. recite	b. organize	c. apologize	d. participate
4. a. knowledge	b. maximum	c. athletics	d. marathon
5. a. encourage	b. compete	c. award	d. represent

II. LANGUAGE FOCUS

A. Choose the word or phrase - a, b, c, or d - that best completes the sentence or substitutes for the underlined word or phrase.

6. He apologized _______ not being able to complete the poem.

a. in b. on c. of d. for

7. Time was _______, and the judges announced the results.

a. out b. up c. off d. down

8. He's been teaching music for years, but he hasn't any _______.

a. examinations b. experiences c. experience d. qualifications

9. Most students find English Competitions _______.

a. enjoying b. enjoyment c. enjoyed d. do enjoyable

10. I am pleased to _______ the winner of the final competition. It's Group B.

a. recite b. announce c. explain d. appoint

11. After convincing myself that the result didn't matter, I felt oddly _______ when we lost.

a. encouraged b. stimulated c. disadvantaged d. disappointed

12. With three teams finishing on 40 points, there was no outright _______.

a. win b. winning c. winner d. winnings

13. For work to flow _______, proper preparations must be made.

a. smoothly b. freely c. constantly d. naturally

14. The contestants are eliminated one by one until the last _______ in a head-to-head contest.

a. sponsor b. support c. compete d. enter

15. The winner of the contest was given a(n) _______ for her excellent performance.

a. bonus b. reward c. fine d. award

B. Choose the word or - phrase - a, b, c, or d - that best completes the sentence.

16. My teachers always encourage _______ hard at school.

a. to work b. us to work c. working d. that we work

17. Six months after the accident, he still has difficulty _______.

a. to walk b. walking c. walked d. to walking

18. I really hate _______ away from home so much.

a. you have to be b. you having to be

c. your have to be d. your having to be

19. Staff say that the new computer system _______ to greater levels of stress in their work.

a. led b. would lead c. has led d. had led

20. He apologized _______ able to finish the project on time.

a. his colleagues not being b. his colleagues for not being

c. his colleagues not to be d. to his colleagues for not being

21. It's a pity we didn't visit Tom when we had the chance. I _______ him before he left the country.

a. would like to see b. should like to see

c. would like having seen d. would like to have seen

22. His doctor suggested that he _______ a short leave of absence.

a. will take b. take c. would take d. took

23. It is no use _______ to school if you _______ to work hard.

a. going - do not ready b. to go - do not ready

c. going - are not ready d. go - are not ready

24. Mary's father approved of _______ in the United States for another year in order to work toward her M. A.

a. her to stay b. she to say c. she staying d. her staying

25. Nowadays, young men with a technical education _______ because of the great demand for highly skilled workmen.

a. is well paid b. should pay well c. are well paid d. could pay well

C. Identify the one underlined word or phrase A, B, C or D - that must be changed for the sentence to be correct.

26. Richard said (A) the play was very entertaining (B) and he recommended (C) to see (D) it.

27. Some of (A) my friends have (B) considered not going (C) to college because (D) the cost.

28. It is difficult to imagine (A) him accepting (B) the decision without (C) any objection (D)

29. The highway patrol advises to take (A) the old route through (B) the city because the interstate highway is under (C) major repairs (D).

30. Joyce thanked us inviting (A) them to dinner (B) and said (C) that they wanted to have us over (D) for dinner next week.

III. READING

A. Choose the word or phrase - a, b, c or d - that best fits the blank space in the following passage.

A beauty contest, or beauty pageant, is a competition between people, (31) _______ largely on the beauty of their physical appearance. The modern beauty pageant can (32) _______ its origin to the Miss America pageant, first held in Atlantic City, New Jersey, in 1921, under the title 'Inter-City Beauty' contest. The following year the title was (33) _______ as Miss America. Other contests include the yearly Miss World competition and Miss Universe, which are the two largest and most famous (34) _______ beauty contests. Women from around the world (35) _______ in the competition for these titles. To be selected as Miss World or Miss Universe, a contestant must be (36) _______ or single. If a Miss WorId fails to live up to people's expectations, she may, be (37) _______. The organizers of the major beauty contests represent their contests (38) _______ being events of world importance. (39) _______ many other people consider beauty contests to be (40) _______ entertainment event of no great importance.

31. a. set b. based c. regarded d. used

32. a. trace b. explain c. pass d. share

33. a. renewed b. removed c. renamed d. retained

34. a. nation b. national c. internationale d. international

35. a. interest b. participate c. excite d. involve

36. a. celibate b. faithful c. impressive d. attractive

37. a. dismissed b. declared c. disqualified d. dispensed

38. a. of b. to c. for d. as

39. a. Besides b. However c. Therefore d. Furthermore

40. a. mass b. popular c. agreeable d. remarkable.

B. Read the passage carefully, then choose the correct answers.

THE OLYMPIC GAMES

During the Olympic games, people from all over the world come together in peace and friendship. Some of these people compete for medals. Several million people attend the games, and millions of other people watch them on television.

Why do we have the Olympic games? How did they begin? The first Olympic Games that we have records of were in Greece in 776 B. C. The games lasted one day. The only event in the first thirteen Olympic Games was a race. Men ran the length of the stadium (about 192 meters). Then, longer running races were added. Through the years, a few other kinds of events, like the long jump, were also added. During this time, the games were for men only, and women could not even watch them. In the year 393, a Roman emperor ended the Olympic Games because the quality of the games became very low. The Olympics did not take place again for 1500 years!

In 1894, Pierre de Courbertin of France helped form the International Olympic Committee, and the modern Olympic Games began. In 1896 the games were held again in Athens, Greece. The Greeks built a new stadium for the competition. Three hundred and eleven athletes from thirteen countries competed in many events. The winners became national heroes.

After 1896, the games were held every four years during the summer in different cities around the world. In 1900, the Olympics were in Paris, France, and women competed for the first time. In 1908, in London, England, the first gold medals were given to winning athletes. Before that time, the winners received only silver and bronze. medals.

The Olympic flag was first introduced in 1920 in Antwerp, Belgium. The flag has five rings on it. The rings represent the continents of Africa, Asia, Australia, Europe, and North and South America. Each ring is a different colorblue, yellow, black, green, or red - because the flag of each of the countries that compete in the games has at least one of these colors in it.

The Olympic Winter Games began in 1924 in Chamois, France. Athletes competed in winter events such as skiing, ice skating, and ice hockey. Today, the Winter Games take place every four years. The Summer Games also take place every four years, but not. in the same year as the winter events. Both the Summer Games and the Winter Games must have at least fifteen events, and they cannot last more than sixteen days.

Until recently, Olympic competitors could not be professional athletes. All of the athletes in the Olympic Games were amateurs. Today, however, many of the Olympic athletes are professionals who play their sports for money during the year. Some people disagree with this idea. They believe that the Olympic Games are for amateur athletes, not paid professionals. Other people think that anyone can play in the Olympic Games. No matter who the athletes are, millions of people throughout the world enjoy watching the greatest athletic competitions, the Summer games and the Winter Games of the Olympics.

41. Which of the following is not true of the first 13 Olympic Games in Greece?

a. They lasted only one day.

b. The men competed while the women watched.

c. They consisted of only one event, which was race running.

d. They were for men only.

42. Pierre de Coubertin _____________.

a. was the first athlete from France to take part in the modern Olympic Games

b. helped the Greeks build a new stadium for the modern Games.

c. helped to revive the Games.

d. became a national hero of France.

43. The International Olympic Committee was set up _____________.

a. with Pierre de Coubertin as chairman

b. according the wish of a Roman emperor

c. every four years starting from 1894

d. two years before the modern Olympic Games were held

44. Women first competed in the Games _____________.

a. in 1908 in London, England

b. in the Paris Olympics of 1900

c. as soon as the Olympic Games were resumed

d. in 1896 at Pierre de Coubertin's suggestion

45. What was special about the 1920 Olympics?

a. The Olympic flag was introduced.

b. Gold medals were given to winning athletes for the first time.

c. Women were allowed to compete for the first time.

d. The Ofympic Winter Games were held.

46. Which of the following is not true?

a. There is an interval between the Summer and the Winter Games.

b. The games can't last longer than 16 days.

c. The Summer Games have more sporting events than the Winter Games.

d. The Olympic flag has five rings of five different colors on it.

47. Professional athletes _____________.

a. joined the Olympic Games only recently.

b. have been allowed to compete in the Games since the Olympic flag was introduced

c. get paid for taking part in the Olympic Games

d. have won more gold medals than amateurs have

48. According to the passage, _____________.

a. the participation of professionals has made the Olympic Games less enjoyable

b. no matter who athletes are, the games are ,still great to watch for millions of people

c. professional athletes will soon be banned from the Games

d. everyone is opposed to allowing professionals to take part

IV. WRITING

Choose the answer - a, b, c, or d - that best reports what was said.

49. 'You're always making terrible mistakes,' said the teacher.

a. The teacher complained about his students making terrible mistakes.

b. The teacher asked his students why they always made terrible mistakes.

c. The teacher realized that his students always made terrible mistakes.

d. The teacher made his students not always make terrible mistakes.

50. Each of you may have one piece of candy,' Mrs. Jones said to the children.

a. Mrs. Jones advised the children to have one piece of candy.

b. Mrs. Jones asked each of the children to have one piece of candy.

c. Mrs. Jones allowed each of the children to have one piece of candy.

d. Mrs. Jones reminded the children to have one piece of candy.

51. 'Would you mind if I brought a friend to the party?' said Peter.

a. Peter wanted me to bring my friend to his party.

b. Peter encouraged me to bring my friend to the party.

c. Peter asked for permission to bring his friend to the party.

d. Peter promised to bring a friend to the party.

52. 'Don't be so disappointed Jane. You can take the driving test again,' said Helen.

a. Helen told Jane not to be disappointed and take the driving test again.

b. Helen asked Jane not to be disappointed and offered her another driving test.

c. Helen warned Jane not to be di3appointed' in order to take the driving test again.

d. Helen encouraged Jane to take the driving test again.

53. 'Let's break for lunch,' said Mathew.

a. Mathew wanted to break for lunch.

b. Mathew insisted on breaking for lunch.

c. Mathew suggested breaking for lunch.

d. Mathew offered us a break for lunch.

54. 'Would you like some coffee, Mike?'

a. Jane asked Mike to make her some coffee.

b. Jane wanted to know whether Mike like coffee.

c. Jane offered to make some coffee for Mike.

d. Jane suggested drinking coffee.

55. 'Could you please wait here until your name is called?'

a. She asked me to wait there until my name was called.

b. She wanted to know if I could wait there until my name was called.

c. She advised me to wait there until my name was called.

d. She reminded me to wait here until my name was called.

ĐÁP ÁN

I. PRONUNCIATION

Choose the word that has main stress placed differently from the others.

1 - b; 2 - a; 3 - b; 4 - c; 5 - d;

II. LANGUAGE FOCUS

A. Choose the word or phrase -a, b, c, or d - that best completes the sentence or substitutes for the underlined word or phrase.

6 - d; 7 - b; 8 - c; 9 - d; 10 - b;

11 - d; 12 - c; 13 - a; 14 - c; 15 - d;

B. Choose the word or-phrase - a, b, c, or d - that best completes the sentence.

16 - b; 17 - b; 18 - d; 19 - c; 20 - d;

21 - d; 22 - b; 23 - c; 24 - d; 25 - c;

C. Identify the one underlined word or phrase A, B, C or D - that must be changed for the sentence to be correct.

26 - D (seeing); 27 - D (because of); 28 - B (his accepting);

29 - A (taking); 30 - A (us for inviting)

III. READING

A. Choose the word or phrase- a, b, c or d - that best fits the blank space in the following passage.

31 - b; 32 - a; 33 - c; 34 - d; 35 - b;

36 - a; 37 - c; 38 - d; 39 - b; 40 - c;

B. Read the passage carefully, then choose the correct answers.

41 - b; 42 - c; 43 - d; 44 - b; 45 - a;

46 - c; 47 - A; 48 - B;

IV. WRITING

Choose the answer - a, b, c, or d - that best reports what was said.

49 - a; 50 - c; 51 - c; 52 - d; 53 - c; 54 - c; 55 - a;

UNIT 7: WORLD POPULATION

I. PRONUNCIATION

Choose the word that has main stress placed differently from the others.

1. a. population b. available c. university d. education

2. a. support b. repeat c. increase d. expect.

3. a. punishment b. government c. journalism d. organization

4. a. resource b. average c. decrease d. method

5. a. expert b. control c. limit d. injury

II. LANGUAGE FOCUS

A. Choose the one word or phrase - a, b, c, or d - that best completes the sentences.

6. People are not aware ______ the problem of overpopulation.

a. for b. of c. at d. in

7. Scientists say that the main reason ______ population explosion is an increase in birth rates.

a. of b. to c. for d. in

8. The second solution is to provide safe, ______ birth-control methods.

a. expensive b. inexpensive c. expensively d. inexpensively

9. Some scientists say that there are enough resources to ______ 8 billion people.

a. provide b. distribute c. raise d. support

10. ______ the flood has receded, people can move back into their homes.

a. Now that b. Due to c. Although d. So that

11. If the level of VAT is ______this year, small businesses will be affected.

a. raised b. risen c. arisen d. raising

12. The world's population is ______ to be over 7 billion by 2010.

a. claimed b. blamed c. expected d. reached

13. ______ millions of women want to limit the size of their families, they know of no safe way to have fewer children.

a. Because b. When c. Despite d. Although

14. Most of the fresh water is ______ at the North and South Poles.

a. boiled b. frozen c. run d. flowed.

15. China is one of the most ______ populated areas in the world.

a. wastefully b. perfectly c. densely d. completely

B. Choose the one word or phrase - a, b, c, or d - that best completes the sentences.

16. ______ more information, please telephone our main office.

a. If you will need b. Should you need

c. You should need d. If you needed

17. It's time governments ______ something to limit population growth.

a. do b. did c. have done d. will do

18. I'd really like to do accounting. If only I ______ so poor at maths.

a. am not b. weren't c. hadn't been d. wouldn't be

19. She wouldn't have gone to university ______.

a. if her parents had insisted b. were her parents not insisted

c. unless her parents had insisted d. only if her parents hadn't insisted

20. John said if he ______ any money he me a drink.

a. has - will buy b. had - would have bought

c. has had - would buy d. had had - would have bought

21. If it ______ more humid in the desert of the Southwest, the hot temperature would be unbearable.

a. is b. would be c. were d. had been

22. If it keeps on raining, the basketball game ought ______.

a. to postpone b. to be postponed c. postpone d. be postponed

23. Only if you get the theater early ______ a chance to get a ticket for tonight's performance.

a. you will have b. have c. you have d. will you have

24. If she ______ sick, she would have gone out with me to the party.

a. hasn't been b. wasn't c. weren't d. hadn't been

25. ______ been diverted, they would have arrived early.

a. Had the plane not b. Hadn't the plane

c. The plane had not d. The plane not had

C. Identify the one underlined word or phrase - A, B, C or D - that must be changed for the sentence to be correct.

26. Mainly because of (A) the recent health scares involving (B) beef and chicken, the number of vegetarians are expected (C) to rise dramatically (D) in the next five years.

27. Rita asked (A) me why didn't I (B) ask for my money back if I was (C) unhappy with (D) my new car.

28. Do you have any view (A) on whether (B) young children should give (C) homework from school?

29. If Rudy would have studied (A) German in college (B), he would not have found the scientific (C) terminology so difficult to understand (D).

30. The United States has (A) a younger population as (B) most other (C) major industrial countries (D).

III. READING

A. Choose the word or phrase - a, b, c or d - that best fits the blank space in the following passage.

Mexico City is growing quickly. In 1970, the city had about 9 million people. Now it has over 17 million. All these people are causing (31) ______ for the city. There are not (32) ______ jobs. Also, there is' not enough housing. Large families have to live together in small homes. Many homes do not have water. They also do not have bathrooms or electricity. The Mexican government is (33) ______ about all these problems. It is working hard to make (34) ______ better in the city.

Why is Mexico City growing so (35) ______? Where are all these people coming from? They are coming to the city from the country. Life is hard on the farms in Mexico. Most people on farms have to live a very simple life. They have no (36) ____ money for modern things. People think life in the city must be (37) ______. So they leave their farms and move to Mexico City.

All around the world, large cities have the same problems. One of them is air (38) ______. Mexico City has pad air. It is dirty and (39) ______. Cars are one reason for the dirty air. Many Mexicans now own their own cars and drive in the city. The factories in the area also cause air pollution. These factories put a lot of (40) ______ into the air. It is not easy to clean up the air in a large city. The government has to make new laws, and everyone has to help.

31. a. problems b. matters c. things d. news

32. a. much b. lack c. enough d. many

33. a. worried b. interested c. discussed d. known

34. a. duration b. circle c. live d. life

35. a. normal b. fast c. slow d. average

36. a. bonus b. extra c. added d. given

37. a. bad b. good c. better d. best

38. a. pollution b. matter c. complaint d. comment

39. a. noisy b. tidy c. clear d. unhealthy

40. a. dirt b. smoke c. noise d. pollution

B. Read the passage carefully, then choose the correct answers.

The dramatic growth of the world's population in the twentieth century was on a scale without parallel in human history. Most of this growth had occurred since 1950 and was known as the population 'explosion'. Between 1950 and 1980 the world population increased from 2.5 to over 4 billion, and by the end of the twenty century the figure had risen to about 6.6 billion. Growth of this size cannot continue indefinitely. Recent forecasts suggest that the total population will level out at between 10 and 15 billion in the mid twenty first century. Already there are encouraging signs that the rate of increase in many less developed countries is beginning to slow down.

- scale: quy mo - without parallel: khong co gi sanh duoc

41. According to the passage, at no period inhuman history has there

been ______.

a. a population explosion of the magnitude as the one in the twenty century

b. a universal fear about the future of man

c. as comprehensive a study of population problems as the one envisaged now

d. so much consensus among nations concerning the population of the world

42. In 2000, the world's population was about ______.

a. four billion

b. six billion

c. ten billion

d. fifteen billion

43. It is pointed out in the passage that the increase in the world population ______.

a. is expected to continue even faster until 2050

b. will not continue into the next century

c. has been going on noticeably since 1950

d. has been much faster in the industrialized countries

44. The phrasal verb 'level out' in line 8 means ______.

a. to make something equal

b. to make amounts be of higher level

c. to stop moving up or down

d. to stay at a steady level

45. It has been forecast that, by the middle of the twenty-first century _____.

a. various measures will have been taken to encourage population growth

b. the world population will be stabilized at around 10 to 15 billion

c. the population growth rate in less developed countries will be much higher

d. the rate of population increase will have doubled the 1950 rate

IV. WRITING

A. Choose the answer - a, b, c, or d - that is nearest in meaning to the sentence printed before.

46. If I'd known about Josie's illness, I wouldn't have missed seeing her.

a. I saw Josie, and I knew she was ill.

b. I didn't know Josie was ill, so T saw her.

c. I didn't know Josie was ill, and I didn't see her.

d. I didn't see Josie although I knew she was 'ill.

47. Hardly are appeals allowed against the council's decisions.

a. The council rarely allows appeals against its decisions

b. It's too hard for the council to allow appeals against its decisions.

c. The council always allows appeals against its decisions.

d. Allowing appeals against its decisions is not good.

48. We are planning on spending the weekend in the country as long as the weather stays fine.

a. We're planning on spending the weekend in the country despite the bad weather.

b. If the weather is fine, we will spend the weekend in the country.

c. If the weather is finer, we would spend the weekend in the country.

d. If the country is nice, we will spend the weekend there.

49. Were it not for the money, this job wouldn't be worth while.

a. This job is not rewarding at all.

b. The only thing that makes this job worthwhile is the money.

c. Although the salary is poor, the job is worthwhile.

d. This job offers a poor salary.

50. She said she would go to the police unless she was given her money back.

a. She went to the police because she hadn't got her money back.

b. She hasn't yet got her money back or gone to the police.

c. She wasn't given her money back because she had gone to the police.

d. She was given her money back and then went to the police.

B. Choose the best sentence - a, b, c, or d – made from the given cues.

51. He/ rather/ spend/ holidays/ a farm/ seaside.

a. He'd rather spend his holidays on a farm than at the seaside.

b. He'd rather spend his holidays on a farm at the seaside.

c. He'd rather to spend his holidays on a farm than at the seaside

d. He'd rather spend his holidays on a farm than on the seaside.

52. We/ survive/ unless/ start/ work/ cleaner/ safer/ sources/ energy.

a. We won't survive unless we start working cleaner, safer sources of energy.

b. We won't survive unless we start work on cleaner, safer sources of energy.

c. We will survive unless we start to work cleaner, safer sources of energy.

d. We won't survive unless we start working on cleaner, safer sources of energy.

53. Heavy rain/ cause/ widespread flooding/ this/ region/ lately.

a. Heavy rain caused widespread flooding in this region lately.

b. Heavy rain has caused widespread flooding in this region lately.

c. Heavy rain had caused widespread flooding in this region lately.

d. Heavy rain was caused widespread flooding in this region lately.

54. man/ sentence/ 15 years/ prison/ he prove/ guilty.

a. The man will get a sentence for himself to 15 years in prison if he proves himself guilty.

b. The man was sentenced about 15 years in prison and proved himself guilty.

c. The man was sentenced to 15 years in prison because he had been proved guilty.

d. The man should make his final sentence after 15 years in prison as he proved himself guilty.

55. If/ you/ not help/ II not meet/ her/ last week. .

a. If you don't help me, I couldn't meet her last week.

b. If you' didn't help me, I couldn't meet her last week.

c. If you hadn't helped me, I couldn't meet her last week.

d. If you hadn't helped me, I couldn't have met her last week.

ĐÁP ÁN

I. PRONUNCIATION

Choose the word that has main stress placed differently from the others.

1 - b; 2 - c; 3 - d; 4 - a; 5 - b;

II. LANGUAGE FOCUS

A. Choose the one word or phrase - a, b, c, or d - that best completes the sentences.

6 - b; 7 - c; 8 - b; 9 - d; 10 - a;

11 - a; 12 - c; 13 - d; 14 - b; 15 - c;

B. Choose the one word or phrase - a, b, c, or d - that best completes the sentences.

16 - b; 17 - b; 18 - b; 19 - c; 20 - d;

21 - c; 22 - b; 23 - d; 24 - d; 25 - a;

C. Identify the one underlined word or phrase - A, B, C or D - that must be changed for the sentence to be correct.

26 - C - is expected; 27 - B - I didn't; 28 - C - be given;

29 - A - had studied; 30 - B - than;

III. READING

A. Choose the word or phrase - a, b, c or d - that best fits the blank space in the following passage.

31 - a; 32 - c; 33 - a; 34 - d; 35 - b;

36 - b; 37 - c; 38 - a; 39 - d; 40 - b;

B. Read the passage carefully, then choose the correct answers.

41 - a; 42 - b; 43 - c; 44 - d; 45 - b;

IV. WRITING

A. Choose the answer - a, b, c, or d - that is nearest in meaning to the sentence printed before.

46 - c; 47 - a; 48 - b; 49 - b; 50 - b;

B. Choose the best sentence - a, b, c, or d – made from the given cues.

51 - a; 52 - d; 53 - b; 54 - c; 55 - d;

UNIT 8: CELEBRATIONS

I. Fill in each blank of the sentences with one word from the box.

preparations decorate celebrate excited popular

wrapped represent influence traditional exchange

1. How do people celebrate New Year in your country?

2. On the first days of Tet, people often visit relatives and friends to exchange New Year wishes.

3. Japanese usually decorate their houses with some small pine trees, which represent constancy and longevity.

4. People believe that what they do on the first day of the year will influence their luck during the whole year.

5. People usually make preparations for Tet severals weeks beforehand.

6. Tet is also the time for children to receive lucky money wrapped in red envelopes.

7. Besides the traditional flowers for Tet such as peach flowers and apricot flowers, the kumquat trees are also popular throughout the country.

8. Children are always excited about the Tet holiday.

II. If appropriate, replace the underlined words or phrases with one or ones. If it's not possible or unlikely, write No after the sentence.

1. I answer most of the questions, but had to miss out some very difficult questions. ones

2. The female violinists in the orchestra outnumber the male violinists by about three to one. ones

3. Traffic is light in most of the city, but there is heavy traffic near the football stadium. No

4. The issue discussed at the meeting was an extremely complicated issue. one

5. If you're making a cup of coffee, could you make a cup of coffee for me? No

6. If you're buying a newspaper from the shop, could you get a newspaper for me? one

7. He used to work for a finance company, but he moved to an insurance company. No

8. 'Was it these earrings you wanted?' 'No, the earrings on the left of those, please?' ones

9. Many people are happy about the new road being built, but there are some angry people, too. No

10. Dave is really good at taking photos of old buildings. There's an excellent photo of a local church in his office. one

11. On one channel was a war film and on the other was a horror film, so I turned the TV off. No

12. ‘Are these your shoes?' 'No, the blue shoes are mine.' ones

13. There are a lot of gloves here. Are these your gloves? No

14. The damage to the car was a problem, of course, but an easily solved problem. one

15. “I’ll just clean my shoes before we go out.' 'Can you do my shoes, too, please?' No

III. Complete these sentences with someone, something, anyone, anything, no one, nothing, everyone, everything.

1. We arranged the meeting, but no one came.

2. Janet Jones is someone I rarely see these days.

3. She valued friendship more than anything in the world.

4. I always get to work before anyone else.

5. While you are making dinner, I'll get on with something else.

6. Nothing has changed. Everything is the same as it was.

7. I hope everyone will be comfortable here. We try to make each guest feel at home.

8. We don't think there's anything wrong with her reading ability,

9. Hardly anyone turn up to the meeting.

10. I am not going to the party because I've got nothing to wear.

11. I thought I heard someone knocking at the door.

12. Everyone calls her Maggie, but her real name's Margaret.

13. The earthquake destroyed everything within a 25-mile radius.

14. There was complete silence in the room. No one said anything

15. Sarah was upset about something and refused to talk to anyone

IV. Find the mistakes in these sentences and correct them.

1. Has everyone seen Lucy recently? I haven't seen her every day. (anyone)

2. He didn't want something to do with the arrangements for the party. (anything)

3. Normally I don't like wearing a scarf, but it was so cold I put it on. (one)

4. I couldn't fit all the boxes in the car, so I have to leave ones behind and pick it up later. (one)

5. If anyone calls, tell them I'm not at home. (calls)

6. There was hardly no one on the beach. It was almost deserted. (anyone)

7. Sarah is invited to lots of parties and she goes to everyone. (everyone)

8. Have everybody remembered to bring pen and notebook? (Has)

9. If anybody wants a ticket for the concert, he can get it from my office. (they)

10. The material felt softer than everything she had ever touched before. (anything)

V. Complete the sentences with the correct form or tense of the verbs in brackets.

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Trên đây là toàn bộ nội dung Bài tập Unit 6 - Unit 8 Tiếng Anh 11 có đáp án. Để xem toàn bộ nội dung các em chọn chức năng xem online hoặc đăng nhập vào trang hoc247.net để tải tài liệu về máy tính.

Mời các em tham khảo các tài liệu có liên quan:

• Phân loại Liên từ trong Tiếng Anh
• Bài tập ôn tập tổng hợp Unit 1, 2, 3 Tiếng Anh 11 có đáp án
• Cấu trúc As if và As though

Hy vọng tài liệu này sẽ giúp các em học sinh ôn tập tốt và đạt thành tích cao trong kì thi sắp tới.