Dưới đây là Đề thi HSG cấp tỉnh môn Tiếng Anh 9 năm 2020 có đáp án Bộ GD & ĐT tỉnh Nghệ An. Đề thi gồm có các câu hỏi trắc nghiệm và tự luận sẽ giúp các em học sinh ôn tập nắm vững các kiến thức, các dạng bài tập để chuẩn bị cho kỳ thi sắp đến. Các em xem và tải về ở dưới.
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BỘ GD & ĐT TỈNH NGHỆ AN |
ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 9 Năm học: 2020-2021 (Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút) |
SECTION A. LISTENING
Part 1 (20 points). Listen to the talk and fill in the gaps. Write ONLY ONE WORD OR A NUMBER for each answer.
John Frank Kennedy and Abraham Lincoln lived in different times. Kennedy was born in (1) …………, whereas Lincoln was born more than 100 years earlier. As for their family backgrounds, Kennedy came from a rich family. He was able to attend (2) …………private schools. He graduated from (3) …………University. Lincoln had only one year of formal schooling. In spite of his lack of formal schooling, he became a well-known (4) …………. He was a self-educated man. In spite of these differences in their backgrounds, some interesting (5) …………between the two men are evident. For example, take their political careers. Both of them began their political careers as a (6) …………. They went to the Congress just one hundred years apart. Another interesting coincidence is that each man was elected President of the United States in a year (7) …………with the number 60. Furthermore, both men were presidents during the years of civil unrest in the country. Both of them were assassinated while in (8) …………. They were (9) …………while they were sitting next to their (10) ………….
Part 2 (20 points). Listen to the talk and indicate whether the following statements are true or false by writing T for true and F for false in the boxes below.
1. Sports play an important part in British life.
2. Sailing and rowing are more popular in winter.
3. Squash can be played all year round on outdoor courts.
4. All colleges have their own impressive sports facilities.
5. The most popular outdoor sports are football and tennis.
6. Motor racing is one of the popular sports in Britain.
7. There are many English idioms coming from the world of sports.
8. "That's not cricket" means "to be fair".
9. The most popular sport in Britain is football.
10. People support their local clubs on Sunday afternoons.
Part 3 (10 points).
Questions 1 - 4
You will hear a woman talking to some students about her job. Complete the notes with words from the recording. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.
Job: (1) …………for five years.
Studied (2) …………at university.
Interested in (3) …………side, not theory.
Accepted for (4) …………after graduating.
Questions 5 - 7
Now you will hear the next part of the talk. Choose THREE answers from A - F.
What does the speaker think are the disadvantages of police work?
A. danger of being attacked
B. protecting the public
C. not being available for family celebrations
D. special training in avoiding trouble
E. working difficult hours
F. working with the public
Questions 8 - 10
Listen to the last part of the talk and answer the questions. Write no more than TWO WORDS.
8. What does the speaker think about the financial rewards of police work?
9. What kind of people do the police sometimes have to protect?
10. What does the speaker want to be in the future?
SECTION B: VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR
Part 1 (15 points). Choose the correct answer from A, B, C or D to complete each of the following sentences. Write it in ‘Your answers’ part.
1. It says in the program that the show ……………..at 7:30.
A. starts B. has started C. will start D. started
2. Two students ……………..at a bus-stop were kidnapped yesterday.
A. wait B. waited C. waiting D. were waiting
3. ……………..anything suspicious arise, please phone me immediately.
A. Should B. If C. Would D. Could
4. Most American people don’t object ……………..them by their first names.
A. that I call B. that I am called C. for calling D. to my calling
5. In my opinion, young ……………..must be punished, but education is the best cure.
A. crime B. criminals C. crimes D. criminality
6. A cooperative program between two companies building a famous ancient city into a(n) ……………..city has proceeded smoothly since it started in September last year.
A. friendly ecology B. ecology-friendly
C. friendly-ecological D. ecological-friendly
7. Mr. Henry was given a medal in …………….. of his service to his country.
A. gratitude B. knowledge C. recognition D. response
8. Jane: “It was really kind of you to give me a lift home.” Peter: “……………..”
A. Oh, don’t mention it. I was coming past your house anyway.
B. I’m not pleased.
C. Oh, don’t do that. I was coming past your house anyway.
D. As a matter of fact, you’re pretty nice.
9. Choose the best option A, B, C or D to indicate the phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in the following sentence.
I knew he was only flattering me because he wanted to borrow some money from me.
A. making me impatient B. praising me too much
C. making me feel worse D. elevating me
10. Choose the best option A, B, C or D to indicate the word OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in the following sentence.
I think we ought to give him a free hand and let him carry out the scheme as he thinks best without any interference from us.
A. permit B. support C. control D. forbid
11. You need to be more …………….. if you want to become a novelist.
A. imaginary B. imagination C. imaginative D. imaginatively
12. A person who is concerned only ……………..his own interests cannot be a true friend.
A. about B. in C. for D. with
13. Patient: “Excuse me! Could you tell me when Dr. Smith has office hours?”
Nurse: “……………...”
A. Yes, I could B. Not really, but there’s a sign on the door I think
C. By no means D. When he’s not busy
14. “…………….. bad weather we are having this summer!”, said the woman.
A. What a B. How C. How this D. What
15. The reporters thought that the football coach would be depressed by his dismissal, but he just ……………...
A. ran it down B. called it off C. laughed it off D. turned it down
Part 2 (10 points). There are 10 mistakes in the following passage. Identify the mistakes and write the corrections in the corresponding numbered boxes. (0) has been done as an example.
Example: Line (0): the => a
0. Stress is often called the 21st century illness, but it has always
1. been with us perhaps with different names. Those days we often
2. consider stress is a necessary evil of modern life. However, stress is
3. not negative and without it we will certainly not enjoy some of the
4. highpoints in life just as the anticipation before a date or the
5. tension leading up to an important match. All these situations
6. produce stress, but if you can control it and not the other
7. way round you will feel stimulated, not worn out. Like these
8. situations, which are generally positive but easier to deal with,
9. sitting in a train that is late, being stuck in a traffic jam, working
10. to a tight deadline is much harder to manage and control. Stress
11. is now recognized as a medical problem and as a significant
12. factor in causing coronary heart disease, high blooded pressure
13. and high cholesterol count. The fact is that patients are often willing to
14. admit to stress problems because they feel they are a form of
15. society failure and it is important that symptoms should be identified in
16. order to avoid unnecessary sufferings. So why should we be
17. looking out for as danger signals? Some common signs of stress are
18. increased tiredness, irritability and the inability to solve certain situations.
SECTION C. READING COMPREHENSION
Part 1 (15 points). Read the passage below and decide which answer (from A, B, C or D) best fits each gap. Write your answers in ‘Your answers’ part.
SMOKING
Smoking is harmful to health. This is known to many people worldwide. But men and women who began to smoke some thirty years ago or so did not have much research on how smoking can (1) ……………..the body and threaten health. It was known that smoking could (2) ……………..the teeth and fingers, dull the appetite, and be a very expensive (3) ……………..to maintain. But people who began to smoke did not know that smoking, (4) ……………..cigarette smoking, could be extremely (5) ……………..to their health.
Medical studies have shown that smoking is a great health hazard because of its effects on the body. These studies show that the (6) ……………..life expectancy of a smoker is three to four years less than (7) ……………..of a nonsmoker. The life expectancy of a person who smokes two or more (8) ……………..of cigarettes a day may be as much as eight years (9) ……………..than that of a nonsmoker. In addition, research has shown that people who smoke are more (10) ……………..to develop lung cancer and other serious diseases than nonsmokers.
(11) ……………..warnings that cigarettes are a health hazard, smoking gains (12) ……………..among youth. Frequently, young people tend to ignore the warnings about smoking because they plan to stop in five years or so. “I can always (13) ……………..before real damage is done” is the reason they give. But recent experiments prove that damage (14) ……………..starts to smoke. the lungs becomes measurable almost (15) ……………..a person
1. A. afford B. effect C. affect D. effort
2. A. discolor B. disorder C. disable D. disqualify
3. A. custom B. way C. rule D. habit
4. A. especially B. fundamentally C. principally D. generally
5. A. bitter B. dangerous C. harsh D. hard
6. A. frequent B. average C. common D. constant
7. A. these B. this C. those D. that
8. A. boxes B. cases C. packs D. plates
9. A. fewer B. shorter C. narrower D. smaller
10. A. possible B. probable C. likely D. feasible
11. A. Despite B. Though C. With respect to D. In case of
12. A. reputation B. popularity C. respect D. prosperity
13. A. dismiss B. rid C. drop D. quit
14. A. for B. to C. of D. with
15. A. as soon as B. as far as C. as long as D. as much as
Part 2 (15 points). You are going to read an article in which four people describe their best teacher. For questions 1-15, choose from the people (A – D). The people may be chosen more than once.
Which person had a teacher who…
taught more than one member of the same family? 1………………
might have wished their pupils to choose a different career? 2. ………………
was popular with all the pupils? 3. ………………
had to overcome a disadvantage when teaching? 4. ………………
made contact after their pupils left school? 5. ………………
taught in an unusual physical position? 6. ………………
changed their pupils’ behavior? 7. ………………
became their teacher as a result of a personal contact? 8. ………………
developed their pupils’ physical and mental skills? 9. ………………
pointed their pupils in the direction of a successful career? 10. ………………
demonstrated a sense of humor? 11. ………………
decided what to teach by responding to their pupils’ interests? 12. ………………
showed what was necessary instead of talking about it? 13. ………………
was also doing another job? 14. ………………
put an emphasis on what pupils expressed, not the way they expressed it? 15. ………………
MY BEST TEACHER
A. Sandy Ross
Brian Earle, my English teacher was a very intense man with thick glasses, and the fact that he taught a lot of his classes standing on his head was also seen as extremely peculiar. He taught me for just one year and it was probably one of the most creative years of my life. He didn’t believe in giving marks for grammar or punctuation; he implied that the mechanics of writing were not important if you had something to say. When I wrote a short story for him called ‘Army’, he simply wrote across the bottom: 'You’ve just got to keep on writing.’ Those few words of support had a fantastic effect on me in terms of wanting to write and be involved in writing. Brian Earle had a love for teaching and his subject.
B. Rajah Ishtiak
My mother was an editor of Pakistan’s largest newspaper and she knew and liked its librarian, Atif Burkhi. Atif was well-educated and when I was about 12, my mother decided I should learn more about the region’s history and she chose Atif as my tutor. It turned out to be an inspiring move. He would come to our house once a week to teach me, from the end of school until supper. He took me through a lot of history, but after a few lessons I got bored. ‘I know you’re being paid by my parents to teach me this stuff,’ I said, ‘but there are other things in the world.’ He burst out laughing as he so often did and asked: ‘What do you want to talk about then?’ And so we would discuss global issues and world literature.
C. Jennifer Pitt
Everyone loved Miss Young. She taught me between the ages of 13 and 17 and was instrumental in my becoming an actress. She knew I was interested in acting, but it just wasn’t an option in my world. My father was a driving examiner and I wasn’t exposed to acting as a career. It was Miss Young who told me about the National Youth Theatre, which was an organization I was unaware of. She suggested I look into it and think about going there. About ten years after I left school, when I was with the Royal Shakespeare Company and playing fairly high-profile parts, I got a letter from Miss Young saying she was following my career with interest, but as far as I know, she never came to see me perform. She certainly never came to see me backstage.
D. Sarah Parker
Tae Kwon Do is a martial art which has become popular as a sporting activity in recent years. I started learning it in the Ivory Coast in Africa when I was about 13, and later became the country’s first black belt. My teacher, Park Min Ho, had been sent by the Tae Kwon Do federation in Korea to open a club. It was very successful. When he arrived he didn’t know a word of French, so he used to demonstrate rather than explain. At the time my brother and I started learning Tae Kwon Do, we were fighting like mad. But we quickly understood we had to stop fighting because we realized that fighting was about self-defense, not aggression. Tae Kwon Do teaches you to control your anger and control your body. It is very good for your memory, co- ordination and self-discipline. And you are acquiring a philosophy. Later on, Park opened a restaurant and then moved back to Korea. We had a very friendly relationship, but somehow I feel like I was a disappointment to him. He thought I had a future in the sport. But when I was 17, I decided it was not what I wanted to do.
Part 3 (10 points). Read the following passage and choose the best answer to each question.
Madison Square Garden, a world-famous sporting venue in New York City, has actually been a series of buildings in varied locations rather than a single building in one spot. In 1873, P.T. Barnum built Barnum’s Monster Classical and Geological Hippodrome at the corner of Madison Avenue and 26th Street, across from Madison Square Park. Two years later, the bandleader Patrick Gilmore bought the property, added statues and fountains, and renamed it Gilmore’s Gardens. When Cornelius Vanderbilt bought the property in 1879, it was renamed Madison Square Garden.
A second very lavish Madison Square Garden was built at the same location in 1890, with a ballroom, a restaurant, a theater, a rooftop garden, and a main arena with seating for 15,000. However, this elaborate Madison Square Garden lasted until 1924 when it was torn down to make way for a forty-storey skyscraper.
When the second Madison Square Garden had been replaced in its location across from Madison Square Park, the boxing promoter Tex Rickard raised six million dollars to build a new Madison Square Garden. This new Madison Square Garden was constructed in a different location, on 8th Avenue and 50th
Street and quite some distance from Madison Square Park and Madison Avenue. Rickard’s Madison Square Garden served primarily as an arena for boxing prize fights and circus events until it outgrew its usefulness by the late 1950s.
A new location was found for a fourth for Madison Square Garden, a top Pennsylvania Railroad Station, and plans were announced for its construction in 1960. This current edifice, which includes a huge sports arena, a bowling center, a 5,000-seat amphitheater, and a twenty-nine-storey office building, does retain the traditional name Madison Square Garden. However, the name is actually quite a misnomer. The building is not located near Madison Square, nor does it have the flowery gardens that contributed to the original name.
1. The main point of this passage is that Madison Square Garden .
A. has had a varied history in various locations
B. was P.T. Barnum’s major accomplishment
C. is home to many different sporting events
D. was named after and adjacent park
2. Which paragraph discusses the third location of Madison Square Garden?
A. The third paragraph. B. The second paragraph.
C. The first paragraph. D. The last paragraph.
3. According to the passage, Patrick Gilmore did all of the following EXCEPT that he .
A. purchased the property at the corner of Madison Avenue and 26th Street
B. made improvements to the property that he bought
C. named the property that he bought Madison Square Garden
D. sold the property to Cornelius Vanderbilt
4. The word “lavish” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to……………….
A. simple B. modern C. elaborate D. outlandish
5. How long did the second Madison Square garden last?
A. 11 years B. 34 years C. 45 years D. 60 years
6. Which of the following would most likely have taken place at Rickard’s Madison Square Garden?
A. A balloon dance B. A theater production
C. A basketball game D. a tiger show
7. An “edifice” in paragraph 3 is most likely ……………….
A. an address B. an association C. a competition D . a building
8. Monster Classical and Geological Hippodrome was renamed Gilmore’s Gardens in .
A. 1890 B. 1879 C. 1875 D. 1874
9. What can be inferred about the current Madison Square Garden?
A. It is on Madison Avenue. B. It is across from Madison Square Park.
C. It has incredible gardens. D. It is above a transportation center.
10. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE according to the passage?
A. Madison Square Garden has been rebuilt for the fourth time.
B. Lots of flowers have been planted inside Madison Square Garden.
C. The Madison Square Garden building is far from Madison Square.
D. Madison Square Garden still has its original name.
Part 4 (15 points). Fill ONE suitable word into each numbered blank. Write your answers in ‘Your answers’ part.
NEIL ARMSTRONG
Neil Armstrong was (1) on 5 August 1930, in Ohio, United States. He was (2) in flying from an early age. When he was only eight years old, he (3) his first model plane. When he was ten years old, he got a part-time job mowing grass so that he could have (4) money to purchase newer and bigger planes.
When Armstrong was a high school student, he continued to (5) up different part-time work. He wanted to earn more money (6) was needed to pay for his flying lessons. On his (7) birthday in 1946, Armstrong was (8) exhilarated on learning that he had gained his pilot’s license.
The (9) year, 1947, Armstrong finished high school and went to Purdue University to study aeronautical engineering. (10) , before he could finish his university studies, he was called up by the Navy to fight in the Korean War.
In 1952, Armstrong returned to the USA to (11) his studies at Purdue. He graduated from the university in 1955 and worked (12) a research pilot, testing new aircraft.
In 1962, Armstrong was selected by National Aeronautics and (13) Administration (NASA) to be an astronaut. He and several others had to go (14) an intensive program of training to prepare (15) for America’s first mission to land on the moon. He is still famous for his saying “It’s only a small step of ours, but it is a giant leap of the human”.
Part 5 (10 points). Choose the most appropriate heading from the list A-H for each part (1-5) of the article. There are TWO extra headings which you do not need to use. The first has been done as an example.
Lists of Headings
A. Making friends during exams
B. Remembering the difficult bits
C. Keep calm
D. Vary the way you revise
E. Reward yourself
F. Be organized
G. Set yourself targets
H. Write down the main points
HOT TIPS FOR STAYING COOL AT EXAM TIME
0. G
It’s always good to know what you’re aiming for so that you know if and when you get there. By having an aim for each week, or even each day, it will help you check your progress and show you if you need to change your plans.
1.
Rather than have to work through masses of notes every time you revise something, try noting down things you want to remember on a piece of paper. It doesn’t seem much to learn that way, but it makes sure you don’t miss out anything important. Once you’ve l earnt the main points, rewrite them on another piece of paper without looking at your notes.
2.
There is nothing worse than being confused about what you need to prepare for your coming exam. If you have a plan and stick to it, you won’t end up cramming all your revision into the last few hours! Make a list of your exams and what you need to learn beforehand, and then drew up a timety basis and when you are going to do it.
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ĐÁP ÁN
SECTION A. LISTENING
Part 1 (10 x 2 = 20 points). Listen to the talk and fill in the gaps. Write ONLY ONE WORD OR A NUMBER.
1. 1917 2. expensive 3. Harvard 4. lawyer 5. similarities
6. congressman 7. ending 8. office 9. shot 10. wives
Part 2 (10 x 2 = 20 points). Write T for true and F for false in the boxes below.
1. T 2. F 3. F 4. F 5. F 6. T 7. T 8. F 9. T 10. F
Part 3 (10 points).
Questions 1 - 4
1. police officer 2. law 3. practical 4. training
Questions 5 - 7
5. A 6. C 7. E
Questions 8 - 10
8. well-paid 9. famous people/ celebrities 10. (a) detective
SECTION B: VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR
Part 1 (15 points). Choose the correct answer from A, B, C or D.
1. A 2. C 3. A 4. D 5. B 6. B 7. C 8. A 9. B 10. D 11. C 12. D 13. B 14. D 15. C
Part 2 (10 points). Identify the mistakes and write the corrections in the numbered boxes.
Line Mistakes Corrections
2 is x
3 will would
4 just such
7 Like Unlike
8 but and
10 is are
12 blooded blood
13 willing unwilling
15 society social
16 why what
SECTION C. READING COMPREHENSION
Part 1 (15 points). Read the passage below and decide which answer best fits each gap.
1. C 2. A 3. D 4. A 5. B 6. B 7. D 8. C 9. B 10. C 11. A 12. B 13. D 14. B 15. A
Part 2 (15 points). For questions 1-15, choose from the people (A – D).
1. D 2. D 3. C 4. D 5. C 6. A 7. D 8. B 9. D 10. C 11. B 12. B 13. D 14. B 15. A
Part 3 (10 points). Read the following passage and choose the best answer to each question.
1. A 2. A 3. C 4. C 5. B 6. D 7. D 8. C 9. D 10. B
Part 4 (15 points). Fill ONE suitable word into each numbered blank.
1. born 2. interested 3. made 4. enough 5. take
6. which/that 7. sixteenth/ 16th 8. really/ very/ extremely/ absolutely 9. next/following 10. However/ Nevertheless
11. continue 12. as 13. Space 14. through 15. themselves
Part 5 (5 x 2 = 10 points). Choose the most appropriate heading from the list A-H for each part
1. H 2. F 3. D 4. B 5. C
SECTION D. WRITING
Part 1 (5 x 2 = 10 points). Use the word in brackets, complete the second sentence.
1. The boy was on the point of crying when he was punished by his mother.
2. In few other books is this problem discussed so well./ will we see this problem so well discussed.
3. I cast my mind back to what had happened all those years before.
4. It can’t have been Mrs. Smith you saw because she’s in Singapore.
5. Andrew has a reputation for being a very good cook.
Part 2 (20 points). Write your letter (about 80-100 words), suggesting how you will both spend the day together.
+ Cover all information: 10 points.
Part 3 (30 points).
+ Grammar and vocabulary: 8 points.
+ Style and format: 2 points.
+ Style: 5 points + Content: 15 points + Grammar and vocabulary: 10 points
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Trên đây là một phần trích đoạn nội dung Đề thi HSG cấp tỉnh môn Tiếng Anh 9 năm 2020 có đáp án Bộ GD & ĐT tỉnh Nghệ An. Để xem toàn bộ nội dung các em chọn chức năng xem online hoặc đăng nhập vào trang hoc247.net để tải tài liệu về máy tính.
Hy vọng đề thi này sẽ giúp các em học sinh lớp 9 ôn tập tốt và có kết quả thật cao kì thi chọn học sinh giỏi sắp đến.
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